Illinois Firearm Laws :: American Gun Owners Alliance

Short title. This Act may be cited as the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-1324.)

It is hereby declared as a matter of legislative determination that in order to promote and protect the health, safety and welfare of the public, it is necessary and in the public interest to provide a system of identifying persons who are not qualified to acquire or possess firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers within the State of Illinois by the establishment of a system of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, thereby establishing a practical and workable system by which law enforcement authorities will be afforded an opportunity to identify those persons who are prohibited by Section 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, from acquiring or possessing firearms and firearm ammunition and who are prohibited by this Act from acquiring stun guns and tasers.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

For purposes of this Act:
"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:
1. convicted of an offense involving the use or possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or methamphetamine within the past year; or
2. determined by the Department of State Police to be addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal guidelines.
"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and authority of a physician or other person authorized to prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled substance is used in the prescribed manner.
"Adjudicated as a person with a mental disability" means the person is the subject of a determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful authority that the a person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment, incompetency, condition, or disease:
1. presents a clear and present is a danger to himself, herself, or to others;
2. lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own affairs or is adjudicated a person with a disability as defined in Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;
3. is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of insanity, mental disease or defect;
  
  3.5. is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;
4. is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;
5. is not guilty by reason of lack of mental responsibility under pursuant to Articles 50a and 72b of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a, 876b; .
6. is a sexually violent person under subsection (f) of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act;
7. is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;
8. is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;
9. is not guilty by reason of insanity under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987;
10. is subject to involuntary admission as an inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
11. is subject to involuntary admission as an outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
12. is subject to judicial admission as set forth in Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code; or
13. is subject to the provisions of the Interstate Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.
"Clear and present danger" means a person who:
1. communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself, herself, or another person as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or
2. demonstrates threatening physical or verbal behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, school administrator, or law enforcement official.
"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal authority, with intent to deceive.
"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding, however:
1. any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;
  
  1.1. any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors;
2. any device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;
3. any device used exclusively for the firing of stud cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial ammunition; and
4. an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun) which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of State Police finds by reason of the date of its manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used as a weapon.
"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:
1. any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a device used exclusively for signalling or safety and required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission; and
2. any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial ammunition.
"Gun show" means an event or function:
1. at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale, transfer, or exchange; or
2. at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display, offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange firearms.
"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an event or function, including parking areas for the event or function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale, transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.
"Gun show" does not include training or safety classes, competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners, banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.
"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or operates a gun show.
"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells, offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell, offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.
"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
"Mental health facility institution" means any licensed private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.
"Patient" means:
1. a person who is admitted as an inpatient or resident of a public or private mental health facility for mental health treatment under Chapter III of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code as an informal admission, a voluntary admission, a minor admission, an emergency admission, or an involuntary admission, unless the treatment was solely for an alcohol abuse disorder; or
2. a person who voluntarily or involuntarily receives mental health treatment as an out-patient or is otherwise provided services by a public or private mental health facility, and who poses a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.
"Person with a developmental disability" means a person with a disability which is attributable to any other condition which results in impairment similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which requires services similar to those required by persons with intellectual disabilities. The disability must originate before the age of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial disability. This disability results, in the professional opinion of a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, in significant functional limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major life activity:
1. self-care;
2. receptive and expressive language;
3. learning;
4. mobility; or
5. self-direction.
"Person with an intellectual disability" means a person with a significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 years.
"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section 1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.
"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice conducted in conjunction with the event.
"School administrator" means the person required to report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.
"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-0143, eff. 7-27-15. 2016 Public Act 99-0642 § 490; 100-0906, eff. 8-17-18.)

1. No person may acquire or possess any firearm, stun gun, or taser within this State without having in his or her possession a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act.
2. No person may acquire or possess firearm ammunition within this State without having in his or her possession a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act.
The provisions of this Section regarding the possession of firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers do not apply to:
1. United States Marshals, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;
2. Members of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;
3. Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the operation of their official duties;
4. Members of bona fide veterans organizations which receive firearms directly from the armed forces of the United States, while using the firearms for ceremonial purposes with blank ammunition;
5. Nonresident hunters during hunting season, with valid nonresident hunting licenses and while in an area where hunting is permitted; however, at all other times and in all other places these persons must have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;
6. Those hunters exempt from obtaining a hunting license who are required to submit their Firearm Owner's Identification Card when hunting on Department of Natural Resources owned or managed sites;
7. Nonresidents while on a firing or shooting range recognized by the Department of State Police; however, these persons must at all other times and in all other places have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;
8. Nonresidents while at a firearm showing or display recognized by the Department of State Police; however, at all other times and in all other places these persons must have their firearms unloaded and enclosed in a case;
9. Nonresidents whose firearms are unloaded and enclosed in a case;
10. Nonresidents who are currently licensed or registered to possess a firearm in their resident state;
11. Unemancipated minors while in the custody and immediate control of their parent or legal guardian or other person in loco parentis to the minor if the parent or legal guardian or other person in loco parentis to the minor has a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card;
12. Color guards of bona fide veterans organizations or members of bona fide American Legion bands while using firearms for ceremonial purposes with blank ammunition;
13. Nonresident hunters whose state of residence does not require them to be licensed or registered to possess a firearm and only during hunting season, with valid hunting licenses, while accompanied by, and using a firearm owned by, a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and while in an area within a commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code where hunting is permitted and controlled, but in no instance upon sites owned or managed by the Department of Natural Resources;
14. Resident hunters who are properly authorized to hunt and, while accompanied by a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, hunt in an area within a commercial club licensed under the Wildlife Code where hunting is permitted and controlled;
15. A person who is otherwise eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act and is under the direct supervision of a holder of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is 21 years of age or older while the person is on a firing or shooting range or is a participant in a firearms safety and training course recognized by a law enforcement agency or a national, statewide shooting sports organization; and
16. Competitive shooting athletes whose competition firearms are sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athletes' training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.
The provisions of this Section regarding the acquisition and possession of firearms, firearm ammunition, stun guns, and tasers do not apply to law enforcement officials of this or any other jurisdiction, while engaged in the operation of their official duties.
Any person who becomes a resident of this State, who is not otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm or firearm ammunition, shall not be required to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card to possess firearms or firearms ammunition until 60 calendar days after he or she obtains an Illinois driver's license or Illinois Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Except as provided in Section 3a, no person may knowingly transfer, or cause to be transferred, any firearm, firearm ammunition, stun gun, or taser to any person within this State unless the transferee with whom he deals displays a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card which has previously been issued in his name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of this Act. In addition, all firearm, stun gun, and taser transfers by federally licensed firearm dealers are subject to Section 3.1.

a-5. Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm while that person is on the grounds of a gun show must, before selling or transferring the firearm, request the Department of State Police to conduct a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1.

a-10. Any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer and who desires to transfer or sell a firearm or firearms to any person who is not a federally licensed firearm dealer shall, before selling or transferring the firearms, contact the Department of State Police with the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number to determine the validity of the transferee's or purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card. This subsection shall not be effective until January 1, 2014. The Department of State Police may adopt rules concerning the implementation of this subsection. The Department of State Police shall provide the seller or transferor an approval number if the purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is valid. Approvals issued by the Department for the purchase of a firearm pursuant to this subsection are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.

a-15. The provisions of subsection (a-10) of this Section do not apply to:
1. transfers that occur at the place of business of a federally licensed firearm dealer, if the federally licensed firearm dealer conducts a background check on the prospective recipient of the firearm in accordance with Section 3.1 of this Act and follows all other applicable federal, State, and local laws as if he or she were the seller or transferor of the firearm, although the dealer is not required to accept the firearm into his or her inventory. The purchaser or transferee may be required by the federally licensed firearm dealer to pay a fee not to exceed $10 per firearm, which the dealer may retain as compensation for performing the functions required under this paragraph, plus the applicable fees authorized by Section 3.1;
2. transfers as a bona fide gift to the transferor's husband, wife, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, nephew, niece, uncle, aunt, grandfather, grandmother, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, or daughter-in-law;
3. transfers by persons acting pursuant to operation of law or a court order;
4. transfers on the grounds of a gun show under subsection (a-5) of this Section;
5. the delivery of a firearm by its owner to a gunsmith for service or repair, the return of the firearm to its owner by the gunsmith, or the delivery of a firearm by a gunsmith to a federally licensed firearms dealer for service or repair and the return of the firearm to the gunsmith;
6. temporary transfers that occur while in the home of the unlicensed transferee, if the unlicensed transferee is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms and the unlicensed transferee reasonably believes that possession of the firearm is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to the unlicensed transferee;
7. transfers to a law enforcement or corrections agency or a law enforcement or corrections officer acting within the course and scope of his or her official duties;
8. transfers of firearms that have been rendered permanently inoperable to a nonprofit historical society, museum, or institutional collection; and
9. transfers to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of this Act.
a-20. The Department of State Police shall develop an Internet-based system for individuals to determine the validity of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card prior to the sale or transfer of a firearm. The Department shall have the Internet-based system completed and available for use by July 1, 2015. The Department shall adopt rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.
Any person within this State who transfers or causes to be transferred any firearm, stun gun, or taser shall keep a record of such transfer for a period of 10 years from the date of transfer. Such record shall contain the date of the transfer; the description, serial number or other information identifying the firearm, stun gun, or taser if no serial number is available; and, if the transfer was completed within this State, the transferee's Firearm Owner's Identification Card number and any approval number or documentation provided by the Department of State Police pursuant to subsection (a-10) of this Section. On or after January 1, 2006, the record shall contain the date of application for transfer of the firearm. On demand of a peace officer such transferor shall produce for inspection such record of transfer. If the transfer or sale took place at a gun show, the record shall include the unique identification number. Failure to record the unique identification number or approval number is a petty offense.

b-5. Any resident may purchase ammunition from a person within or outside of Illinois if shipment is by United States mail or by a private express carrier authorized by federal law to ship ammunition. Any resident purchasing ammunition within or outside the State of Illinois must provide the seller with a copy of his or her valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and either his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois State Identification Card prior to the shipment of the ammunition. The ammunition may be shipped only to an address on either of those 2 documents.
The provisions of this Section regarding the transfer of firearm ammunition shall not apply to those persons specified in paragraph (b) of Section 2 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 97-1135, eff. 12-4-12; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)

Any resident of Illinois who has obtained a firearm owner's identification card pursuant to this Act and who is not otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing or using a firearm may purchase or obtain a rifle or shotgun or ammunition for a rifle or shotgun in Iowa, Missouri, Indiana, Wisconsin or Kentucky.
Any resident of Iowa, Missouri, Indiana, Wisconsin or Kentucky or a non-resident with a valid non-resident hunting license, who is 18 years of age or older and who is not prohibited by the laws of Illinois, the state of his domicile, or the United States from obtaining, possessing or using a firearm, may purchase or obtain a rifle, shotgun or ammunition for a rifle or shotgun in Illinois.

b-5. Any non-resident who is participating in a sanctioned competitive shooting event, who is 18 years of age or older and who is not prohibited by the laws of Illinois, the state of his or her domicile, or the United States from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm, may purchase or obtain a shotgun or shotgun ammunition in Illinois for the purpose of participating in that event. A person may purchase or obtain a shotgun or shotgun ammunition under this subsection only at the site where the sanctioned competitive shooting event is being held.
Any transaction under this Section is subject to the provisions of the Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 922 (b)(3)).

(Source: P.A. 94-353, eff. 7-29-05.)

The Department of State Police shall provide a dial up telephone system or utilize other existing technology which shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm, stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The Department of State Police may utilize existing technology which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2. Fees collected by the Department of State Police shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used to provide the service.
Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its criminal history record information files and those of the Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012, federal law, or this Act the Department of State Police shall:
1. assign a unique identification number to the transfer; and
2. provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor with the number.
Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date of issue.
1. The Department of State Police must act as the Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.
2. The Department of State Police and the Department of Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal Background Check System in the State. The Department of State Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.
3. The Department of State Police shall provide notice of the disqualification of a person under subsection (b) of this Section or the revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 or Section 8.2 of this Act, and the reason for the disqualification or revocation, to all law enforcement agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
The Department of State Police shall adopt promulgate rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this system.

(Source: P.A. 94-6, eff. 1-1-06; 94-353, eff. 7-29-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-564, eff. 6-1-08; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13. 2016 Public Act 99-0787 § 5)

Prior to January 1, 2002, the Department of State Police shall list on the Department's World Wide Web site all firearm projectiles that are prohibited under Sections 24-2.1, 24-2.2, and 24-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, together with a statement setting forth the sentence that may be imposed for violating those Sections. The Department of State Police shall, prior to January 1, 2002, send a list of all firearm projectiles that are prohibited under Sections 24-2.1, 24-2.2, and 24-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 to each federally licensed firearm dealer in Illinois registered with the Department.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02; P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

The Department of State Police must report the name and address of a person to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides if the person attempting to purchase a firearm is disqualified from purchasing a firearm because of information obtained under subsection (a-10) of Section 3 or Section 3.1 that would disqualify the person from obtaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under any of subsections (c) through (n) of Section 8 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 94-125, eff. 1-1-06; P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)

Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card must:
1. Make application on blank forms prepared and furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if and when made available by the Department of State Police; and
2. Submit evidence to the Department of State Police that:
  1. He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition and that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the Department stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card;
    i-5. This subparagraph (i-5) applies on and after the 181st day following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has never been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and is an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces or has the written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition, provided, however, that such parent or legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the Department stating that he or she is not an individual prohibited from having a Card or the active duty member of the United States Armed Forces under 21 years of age annually submits proof to the Department of State Police, in a manner prescribed by the Department;
  2. He or she has not been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;
  3. He or she is not addicted to narcotics;
  4. He or she has not been a patient in a mental health facility institution within the past 5 years or, if he or she has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act;
  5. He or she is not a person with an intellectual disability;
  6. He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;
  7. He or she is not subject to an existing order of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a firearm;
  8. He or she has not been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;
  9. He or she has not been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Section;
  10. (Blank);
  11. He or she is not an alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
    1. admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;
    2. an official representative of a foreign government who is:
      1. accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or
      2. en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;
    3. an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;
    4. a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or
    5. one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);
  12. He or she is not a minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
  13. He or she is not an adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
  14. He or she is a resident of the State of Illinois;
  15. He or she has not been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability;
  16. He or she has not been involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility; and
  17. He or she is not a person with a developmental disability; and
3. Upon request by the Department of State Police, sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police of limited mental health institution admission information from another state, the District of Columbia, any other territory of the United States, or a foreign nation concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a mental health institution and disqualified because of that status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be requested. The information received shall be destroyed within one year of receipt.
a-5. Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department of State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as provided in subsection (a-10).

a-10. Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her driver's license number or state identification card number from his or her state of residence. The Department of State Police may adopt promulgate rules to enforce the provisions of this subsection (a-10).

a-15. If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card moves from the residence address named in the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police of that change of address.

a-20. Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement must furnish with the application an approved copy of United States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form 4029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by the Department with his or her application.
Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.".
Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4, paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.

(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-0143, eff. 7-27-15: 101-0080, eff. 7-12-19.)

The Department of State Police shall either approve or deny all applications within 30 days from the date they are received, except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, and every applicant found qualified under Section 8 of this Act by the Department shall be entitled to a Firearm Owner's Identification Card upon the payment of a $10 fee. Any applicant who is an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States, a member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the Reserve Forces of the United States is exempt from the application fee. $6 of each fee derived from the issuance of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, or renewals thereof, shall be deposited in the Wildlife and Fish Fund in the State Treasury; $1 of the fee shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and $3 of the fee shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services Fund.
Renewal applications shall be approved or denied within 60 business days, provided the applicant submitted his or her renewal application prior to the expiration of his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If a renewal application has been submitted prior to the expiration date of the applicant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall remain valid while the Department processes the application, unless the person is subject to or becomes subject to revocation under this Act. The cost for a renewal application shall be $10 which shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08; 96-91, eff. 7-27-09; P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 100-0906, eff. 8-17-18.)

All moneys remaining in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly shall be transferred into the State Police Firearm Services Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury, to be expended by the Department of State Police, for the purposes specified in this Act and Section 2605-595 of the Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13.)

A Firearm Owner's Identification Card, issued by the Department of State Police at such places as the Director of the Department shall specify, shall contain the applicant's name, residence, date of birth, sex, physical description, recent photograph, except as provided in subsection (c-5), and signature. Each Firearm Owner's Identification Card must have the expiration date boldly and conspicuously displayed on the face of the card. Each Firearm Owner's Identification Card must have printed on it the following: "CAUTION - This card does not permit bearer to UNLAWFULLY carry or use firearms." Before December 1, 2002, the Department may use a person's digital photograph and signature from his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois Identification Card, if available. On and after December 1, 2002, the Department shall use a person's digital photograph and signature from his or her Illinois driver's license or Illinois Identification Card, if available. The Department shall decline to use a person's digital photograph or signature if the digital photograph or signature is the result of or associated with fraudulent or erroneous data, unless otherwise provided by law.
A person applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall consent to the Department of State Police using the applicant's digital driver's license or Illinois Identification Card photograph, if available, and signature on the applicant's Firearm Owner's Identification Card. The Secretary of State shall allow the Department of State Police access to the photograph and signature for the purpose of identifying the applicant and issuing to the applicant a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
The Secretary of State shall conduct a study to determine the cost and feasibility of creating a method of adding an identifiable code, background, or other means on the driver's license or Illinois Identification Card to show that an individual is not disqualified from owning or possessing a firearm under State or federal law. The Secretary shall report the findings of this study 12 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly.

c-5. If a person qualifies for a photograph exemption, in lieu of a photograph, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall contain a copy of the card holder's fingerprints. Each Firearm Owner's Identification Card described in this subsection (c-5) must have printed on it the following: "This card is only valid for firearm purchases through a federally licensed firearms dealer when presented with photographic identification, as prescribed by 18 U.S.C. 922(t)(1)(C)."

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Any person who forges or materially alters a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or who counterfeits a Firearm Owner's Identification Card commits a Class 2 felony.
Any person who knowingly possesses a forged or materially altered Firearm Owner's Identification Card with the intent to use it commits a Class 2 felony. A person who possesses a Firearm Owner's Identification Card with knowledge that it is counterfeit commits a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-414, eff. 1-1-02.)

Except as provided in Section 8 of this Act, or subsection (b) of this Section, a Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued under the provisions of this Act shall be valid for the person to whom it is issued for a period of 10 years from the date of issuance.
If a renewal application is submitted to the Department before the expiration date of the applicant's current Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall remain valid for a period of 60 business days, unless the person is subject to or becomes subject to revocation under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08; 100-0906, eff. 8-17-18.)

The Department of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:
1. A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent;
2. This subsection (b) applies through the 180th day following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. A person under 21 years of age who does not have the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;
  b-5. This subsection (b-5) applies on and after the 181st day following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. A person under 21 years of age who is not an active duty member of the United States Armed Forces and does not have the written consent of his or her parent or guardian to acquire and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's Identification Card;
3. A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;
4. A person addicted to narcotics;
5. A person who has been a patient of a mental health facility institution within the past 5 years or a person who has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago who has not received the certification required under subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health treatment;
6. A person whose mental condition is of such a nature that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any other person or persons or the community;
  For the purposes of this Section, "mental condition" means a state of mind manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening or assaultive behavior.
7. A person who is has an intellectual disability;
8. A person who intentionally makes a false statement in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;
9. An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States under the laws of the United States;
  i-5. An alien who has been admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
  1. admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes;
  2. an official representative of a foreign government who is:
    1. accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or
    2. en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;
  3. an official of a foreign government or distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State;
  4. a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official business; or
  5. one who has received a waiver from the Attorney General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);
10. (Blank);
11. A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;
12. A person who has been convicted of domestic battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the person under this Act;
13. (Blank);
14. A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or by federal law;
15. A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
16. An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
17. A person who is not a resident of the State of Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4; or
18. A person who has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability;
19. A person who has been found to have a developmental disability;
20. A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health facility;
21. A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of this Section or item (iv) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in item (2) of subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the 5 year period has lapsed, unless he or she has received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the certification and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the certification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been restored through administrative or judicial action under Section 10 or 11 of this Act; or
22. Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 99-0143, eff. 7-27-15; 101-0080, eff. 7-12-19.)

The Circuit Clerk shall, in the form and manner required by the Supreme Court, notify the Department of State Police of all final dispositions of cases for which the Department has received information reported to it under Sections 2.1 and 2.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.
Upon adjudication of any individual as a person with a mental disability, as defined in Section1.1 of this Act or a finding that a person has been involuntarily admitted or as provided in paragraph (3.5) of subsection (c) of Section 104-26 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the court shall direct the circuit court clerk to immediately notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) department, and shall forward a copy of the court order to the Department.

b-1 Beginning July 1, 2016, and each July 1 and December 30 of every year thereafter, the circuit court clerk shall, in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) department if the court has not directed the circuit court clerk to notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification (FOID) department under subsection (b) of this Section, within the preceding 6 months, because no person has been adjudicated as a person with a mental disability by the court as defined in Section 1.1 of this Act or if no person has been involuntarily admitted. The Supreme Court may adopt any orders or rules necessary to identify the persons who shall be reported to the Department of State Police under subsection (b), or any other orders or rules necessary to implement the requirements of this Act.
The Department of Human Services shall, in the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, report all information collected under subsection (b) of Section 12 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act for the purpose of determining whether a person who may be or may have been a patient in a mental health facility is disqualified under State or federal law from receiving or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or purchasing a weapon.
If a person is determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others
1. by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, or is determined to have a developmental disability by a physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the State or privately, then the physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner shall, within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the Department of Human Services that the person poses a clear and present danger or has a developmental disability; or
2. by a law enforcement official or school administrator, then the law enforcement official or school administrator shall, within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the Department of State Police that the person poses a clear and present danger.
The Department of Human Services shall immediately update its records and information relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and if appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. The Department of State Police shall determine whether to revoke the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act. Any information disclosed under this subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of this Act, nor used for any other purpose. The method of providing this information shall guarantee that the information is not released beyond what is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the subject of the report. The physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law enforcement official, or school administrator making the determination and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not making the notification required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.
The Department of State Police shall adopt rules to implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13; 99-0143, eff. 7-27-15. 2016 Public Act 99-0696 § 5)

The Department of State Police shall deny an application or shall revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act if the Department finds that the applicant or person to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance subject to an existing order of protection or firearms restraining order.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 100-0607, eff. 1-1-19.)

The Department of State Police may, by rule in a manner consistent with the Department's rules concerning revocation, provide for the suspension of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card is subject to revocation and seizure under this Act for the duration of the disqualification if the disqualification is not a permanent grounds for revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 100-0607, eff. 1-1-19)

Every person whose application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied, and every holder of such a Card whose Card is revoked or seized, shall receive a written notice from the Department of State Police stating specifically the grounds upon which his application has been denied or upon which his Identification Card has been revoked. The written notice shall include the requirements of Section 9.5 of this Act and the person's right to administrative or judicial review under Section 10 and 11 of this Act. A copy of the written notice shall be provided to the sheriff and law enforcement agency where the person resides.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 100-0201, eff.9-18-17.)

A person who receives a revocation notice under Section 9 of this Act shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the revocation:
1. surrender his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency shall provide the person a receipt and transmit the Firearm Owner's Identification Card to the Department of State Police; and
2. complete a Firearm Disposition Record on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police and place his or her firearms in the location or with the person reported in the Firearm Disposition Record. The form shall require the person to disclose:
  1. the make, model, and serial number of each firearm owned by or under the custody and control of the revoked person;
  2. the location where each firearm will be maintained during the prohibited term; and
  3. if any firearm will be transferred to the custody of another person, the name, address and Firearm Owner's Identification Card number of the transferee.
The local law enforcement agency shall provide a copy of the Firearm Disposition Record to the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and to the Department of State Police.
If the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked fails to comply with the requirements of this Section, the sheriff or law enforcement agency where the person resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to search for and seize the Firearm Owner's Identification Card and firearms in the possession or under the custody or control of the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked.
A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
The observation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in the possession of a person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked constitutes a sufficient basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this Section.
Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Department of State Police shall provide written notice of the requirements of this Section to persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification Cards have been revoked, suspended, or expired and who have failed to surrender their cards to the Department.
A person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and who received notice under subsection (f) shall comply with the requirements of this Section within 48 hours of receiving notice.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13)

Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial, revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.
At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court shall determine whether substantial justice has been done. Should the court determine that substantial justice has not been done, the court shall issue an order directing the Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under federal law.
Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection (a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is established by the applicant to the court's or Director's satisfaction that:
0.05. when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney has been served with a written copy of the petition at least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;
1. the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;
2. the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction, where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;
3. granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest; and
4. granting relief would not be contrary to federal law.
1. c-5.
  1. An active law enforcement officer employed by a unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police requesting relief if the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified examiner, and:
    1. the officer has not received treatment involuntarily at a mental health facility institution, regardless of the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility institution for more than 30 days and not for more than one incident within the past 5 years; and
    2. the officer has not left the mental institution against medical advice.
  2. The Director of State Police shall grant expedited relief to active law enforcement officers described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination by the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public safety. The Director shall act on the request for relief within 30 business days of receipt of:
    1. a notarized statement from the officer in the form prescribed by the Director detailing the circumstances that led to the hospitalization;
    2. all documentation regarding the admission, evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the officer;
    3. a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of the person completed after the time of discharge; and
    4. written confirmation in the form prescribed by the Director from the treating licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have been met, the person successfully completed treatment, and their professional opinion regarding the person's ability to possess firearms.
  3. Officers eligible for the expedited relief in paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of proof on eligibility and must provide all information required. The Director may not consider granting expedited relief until the proof and information is received.
  4. "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and "qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as provided in Chapter I of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court shall notify the Department of State Police.
The court shall review the denial of an application or the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18 U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred under the laws of this State or who was determined to be subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning
1. the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from which relief is sought;
2. the petitioner's mental health and criminal history records, if any;
3. the petitioner's reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and
4. changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct, modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the Department of State Police makes available to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United States Attorney General that the basis for the record being made available no longer applies. The Department of State Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section subsection (f).

(Source: P.A. 96-1368, eff. 7-28-10; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 99-0078; eff. 7-27-15.)

All final administrative decisions of the Department under this Act, except final administrative decisions of the Director of State Police to deny a person's application for relief under subsection (f) of Section 10 of this Act, shall be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and all amendments and modifications thereof, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
Any final administrative decision by the Director of State Police to deny a person's application for relief under subsection (f) of Section 10 of this Act is subject to de novo judicial review by the circuit court, and any party may offer evidence that is otherwise proper and admissible without regard to whether that evidence is part of the administrative record.
The Director of State Police shall submit a report to the General Assembly on March 1 of each year, beginning March 1, 1991, listing all final decisions by a court of this State upholding, reversing, or reversing in part any administrative decision made by the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

The provisions of this Act shall not apply to the passing or transfer of any firearm or firearm ammunition upon the death of the owner thereof to his heir or legatee or to the passing or transfer of any firearm or firearm ammunition incident to any legal proceeding or action until 60 days after such passing or transfer.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 2600.)

Nothing in this Act shall make lawful the acquisition or possession of firearms or firearm ammunition which is otherwise prohibited by law.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 2600.)

Except as otherwise provided in the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, the provisions of any ordinance enacted by any municipality which requires registration or imposes greater restrictions or limitations on the acquisition, possession and transfer of firearms than are imposed by this Act, are not invalidated or affected by this Act.
Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the regulation, licensing, possession, and registration of handguns and ammunition for a handgun, and the transportation of any firearm and ammunition by a holder of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the Department of State Police under this Act are exclusive powers and functions of this State. Any ordinance or regulation, or portion of that ordinance or regulation, enacted on or before the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly that purports to impose regulations or restrictions on a holder of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the Department of State Police under this Act in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act, on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall be invalid in its application to a holder of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the Department of State Police under this Act.
Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the regulation of the possession or ownership of assault weapons are exclusive powers and functions of this State. Any ordinance or regulation, or portion of that ordinance or regulation, that purports to regulate the possession or ownership of assault weapons in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act, shall be invalid unless the ordinance or regulation is enacted on, before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. Any ordinance or regulation described in this subsection (c) enacted more than 10 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly is invalid. An ordinance enacted on, before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be amended. The enactment or amendment of ordinances under this subsection (c) are subject to the submission requirements of Section 13.3. For the purposes of this subsection, "assault weapons" means firearms designated by either make or model or by a test or list of cosmetic features that cumulatively would place the firearm into a definition of "assault weapon" under the ordinance.
For the purposes of this Section, "handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 76-1939; P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

The Department of State Police shall, 60 days prior to the expiration of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, forward by first class mail to each person whose card is to expire a notification of the expiration of the card and instructions for renewal. It is the obligation of the holder of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card to notify the Department of State Police of any address change since the issuance of the Firearm Owner's Identification Card. Whenever any person moves from the residence address named on his or her card, the person shall within 21 calendar days thereafter notify in a form and manner prescribed by the Department of his or her old and new residence addresses and the card number held by him or her. Any person whose legal name has changed from the name on the card that he or she has been previously issued must apply for a corrected card within 30 calendar days after the change. The cost for a corrected card shall be $5. The cost forreplacement of a card which has been lost, destroyed, or stolen shall be $5 if the loss, destruction, or theft of the card is reported to the Department of State Police. The fees collected under this Section shall be deposited into the State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 100-0906, eff. 8-17-18.)

Within 6 months after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, every municipality must submit to the Department of State Police a copy of every ordinance adopted by the municipality that regulates the acquisition, possession, sale, or transfer of firearms within the municipality and must submit, 30 days after adoption, every such ordinance adopted after its initial submission of ordinances under this Section. The Department of State Police shall compile these ordinances and publish them in a form available to the public free of charge and shall periodically update this compilation of ordinances in a manner prescribed by the Director of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 92-238, eff. 8-3-01.)

Except as provided in subsection (a-5), a violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2, when the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is expired but the person is not otherwise disqualified from renewing the card, is a Class A misdemeanor.
- a-5. A violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2, when the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is expired but the person is not otherwise disqualified from owning, purchasing, or possessing firearms, is a petty offense if the card was expired for 6 months or less from the date of expiration.
Except as provided in subsection (a) with respect to an expired card, a violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 is a Class A misdemeanor when the person does not possess a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, but is otherwise eligible under this Act. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.
A violation of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 2 is a Class 3 felony when:
1. the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is revoked or subject to revocation under Section 8; or
2. the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is expired and not otherwise eligible for renewal under this Act; or
3. the person does not possess a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, and the person is not otherwise eligible under this Act.
A violation of subsection (a) of Section 3 is a Class 4 felony. A third or subsequent conviction is a Class 1 felony.
- d-5. Any person who knowingly enters false information on an application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, who knowingly gives a false answer to any question on the application, or who knowingly submits false evidence in connection with an application is guilty of a Class 2 felony.
Except as provided by Section 6.1 of this Act, any other violation of this Act is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

If any provision of this Act or application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, such invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of this Act which can be given effect without the invalid application or provision, and to this end the provisions of this Act are declared to be severable.

(Source: Laws 1967, p. 2600.)

When this amendatory Act enacted by the Seventy-Sixth General Assembly takes effect the records of the Department of Public Safety relating to the administration of the Act amended shall be transferred to the Department of State Police. All Firearm Owner's Identification Cards issued by the Department of Public Safety shall be valid for the period for which they were issued unless revoked or seized in the manner provided in the Act amended. The Department of State Police as the successor to the Department of Public Safety shall have the rights, powers and duties provided in, and be subject to the provisions of Sections 5-95, 5-700, and 5-705 of the Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-95, 5/5-700, and 5/5-705).

(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

Any certified abstract issued by the Director of State Police or transmitted electronically by the Director of State Police under this Section to a court or on request of a law enforcement agency for the record of a named person as to the status of the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in the certified abstract and if the name appearing in the abstract is the same as that of a person named in an information or warrant, the abstract is prima facie evidence that the person named in the information or warrant is the same person as the person named in the abstract and is admissible for any prosecution under this Act or any other applicable violation of law and may be admitted as proof of any prior conviction or proof of records, notices, or orders recorded on individual Firearm Owner's Identification Card records maintained by the Department of State Police.

(Source: P.A. 92-839, eff. 8-22-02.)

When 2% of the number of registered voters in the State desire to pass upon the question of whether the General Assembly should repeal this Act regulating the acquisition, possession and transfer of firearms and firearm ammunition, they shall, at least 78 days before a regular election to be held throughout the State, file in the office of the State Board of Elections, a petition directed to the Board in accordance with the general election law. The petition shall be composed of county petitions from each of the counties throughout the State and each county petition shall contain the signatures of at least 2% of the number of registered voters in the county. The petition shall request that the question "Should the General Assembly repeal the Act entitled 'An Act relating to the acquisition, possession and transfer of firearms and firearm ammunition, to provide a penalty for the violation thereof and to make an appropriation in connection therewith,' approved August 3, 1967, as amended?" be submitted to the voters of the State at the next ensuing State-wide election at which such question may be acted upon.

(Source: P.A. 81-1489.)

Sec. 16.1. A petition for the submission of the proposition shall be in substantially the following form:

To the State Board of Elections

The undersigned, residents and registered voters of the State of Illinois, respectfully petition that you cause to be submitted, in the manner provided by the general election law to the voters of the State of Illinois, at the next State-wide election, the proposition "Should the General Assembly repeal an Act entitled 'An Act relating to the acquisition, possession and transfer of firearms and firearm ammunition, to provide a penalty for the violation thereof and to make an appropriation in connection therewith', approved August 3, 1967, as amended?"

--------------------------------------------------------------

Such petition shall conform to the requirements of the general election law. The Board shall certify the question to the proper election officials who shall submit the question at an election in accordance with the general election law. Upon request of any citizen for a reproduced copy of the petition and paying or tendering to the State Board of Elections the costs of making the copy, the Board shall immediately make, or cause to be made a reproduced copy of such petition. The Board shall also deliver to such person his official certification that such copy is a true copy of the original, stating the day when such original was filed in its office.

(Source: P.A. 81-1489.)

The Secretary of State shall cause the question to be plainly printed upon separate ballots as follows:

--------------------------------------------------------------

Should the General Assembly repeal the Act

entitled "An Act relating to the acquisition, YES

possession and transfer of firearms and

firearm ammunition, to provide a penalty ---------------

for the violation thereof and to make an

appropriation in connection therewith", NO

approved August 3, 1967, as amended?

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(Source: P.A. 77-1819.)

This Act may be cited as the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

As used in this Act:
"Applicant" means a person who is applying for a license to carry a concealed firearm under this Act.
"Board" means the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board.
"Concealed firearm" means a loaded or unloaded handgun carried on or about a person completely or mostly concealed from view of the public or on or about a person within a vehicle.
"Department" means the Department of State Police.
"Director" means the Director of State Police.
"Handgun" means any device which is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion, expansion of gas, or escape of gas that is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand. "Handgun" does not include:
1. a stun gun or taser;
2. a machine gun as defined in item (i) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012;
3. a short-barreled rifle or shotgun as defined in item (ii) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or
4. any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not exceeding .18 inch in diameter, or which has a maximum muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second, or which expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking colors.
"Law enforcement agency" means any federal, State, or local law enforcement agency, including offices of State's Attorneys and the Office of the Attorney General.
"License" means a license issued by the Department of State Police to carry a concealed handgun.
"Licensee" means a person issued a license to carry a concealed handgun.
"Municipality" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
"Unit of local government" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

The Department shall issue a license to carry a concealed firearm under this Act to an applicant who:
1. meets the qualifications of Section 25 of this Act;
2. has provided the application and documentation required in Section 30 of this Act;
3. has submitted the requisite fees; and
4. does not pose a danger to himself, herself, or others, or a threat to public safety as determined by the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board in accordance with Section 20.
The Department shall issue a renewal, corrected, or duplicate license as provided in this Act.
A license shall be valid throughout the State for a period of 5 years from the date of issuance. A license shall permit the licensee to:
1. carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm, fully concealed or partially concealed, on or about his or her person; and
2. keep or carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm on or about his or her person within a vehicle.
The Department shall make applications for a license available no later than 180 days after the effective date of this Act. The Department shall establish rules for the availability and submission of applications in accordance with this Act.
An application for a license submitted to the Department that contains all the information and materials required by this Act, including the requisite fee, shall be deemed completed. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, no later than 90 days after receipt of a completed application, the Department shall issue or deny the applicant a license.
The Department shall deny the applicant a license if the applicant fails to meet the requirements under this Act or the Department receives a determination from the Board that the applicant is ineligible for a license. The Department must notify the applicant stating the grounds for the denial. The notice of denial must inform the applicant of his or her right to an appeal through administrative and judicial review.
A licensee shall possess a license at all times the licensee carries a concealed firearm except:
1. when the licensee is carrying or possessing a concealed firearm on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission;
2. when the person is authorized to carry a firearm under Section 24-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except subsection (a-5) of that Section; or
3. when the handgun is broken down in a non-functioning state, is not immediately accessible, or is unloaded and enclosed in a case.
If an officer of a law enforcement agency initiates an investigative stop, including but not limited to a traffic stop, of a licensee or a non-resident carrying a concealed firearm under subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act, upon the request of the officer the licensee or non-resident shall disclose to the officer that he or she is in possession of a concealed firearm under this Act, present the license upon the request of the officer if he or she is a licensee or present upon the request of the officer evidence under paragraph (2) of subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act that he or she is a non-resident qualified to carry under that subsection, and identify the location of the concealed firearm. During a traffic stop, any passenger within the vehicle who is a licensee or a non-resident carrying under subsection (e) of Section 40 of this Act must comply with the requirements of this subsection (h).
The Department shall maintain a database of license applicants and licensees. The database shall be available to all federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies, State's Attorneys, the Attorney General, and authorized court personnel. Within 180 days after the effective date of this Act, the database shall be searchable and provide all information included in the application, including the applicant's previous addresses within the 10 years prior to the license application and any information related to violations of this Act. No law enforcement agency, State's Attorney, Attorney General, or member or staff of the judiciary shall provide any information to a requester who is not entitled to it by law.
No later than 10 days after receipt of a completed application, the Department shall enter the relevant information about the applicant into the database under subsection (i) of this Section which is accessible by law enforcement agencies.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13.)

Any law enforcement agency may submit an objection to a license applicant based upon a reasonable suspicion that the applicant is a danger to himself or herself or others, or a threat to public safety. The objection shall be made by the chief law enforcement officer of the law enforcement agency, or his or her designee, and must include any information relevant to the objection. If a law enforcement agency submits an objection within 30 days after the entry of an applicant into the database, the Department shall submit the objection and all information available to the Board under State and federal law related to the application to the Board within 10 days of completing all necessary background checks.
If an applicant has 5 or more arrests for any reason, that have been entered into the Criminal History Records Information (CHRI) System, within the 7 years preceding the date of application for a license, or has 3 or more arrests within the 7 years preceding the date of application for a license for any combination of gang-related offenses, the Department shall object and submit the applicant's arrest record to the extent the Board is allowed to receive that information under State and federal law, the application materials, and any additional information submitted by a law enforcement agency to the Board. For purposes of this subsection, "gang-related offense" is an offense described in Section 12-6.4, Section 24-1.8, Section 25-5, Section 33-4, or Section 33G-4, or in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 12-6.2, paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 16-30, paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 31-4, or item (iii) of paragraph (1.5) of subsection (i) of Section 8-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
The referral of an objection under this Section to the Board shall toll the 90-day period for the Department to issue or deny the applicant a license under subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act, during the period of review and until the Board issues its decision.
If no objection is made by a law enforcement agency or the Department under this Section, the Department shall process the application in accordance with this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13.)

There is hereby created within the Department of State Police a Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board to consider any objection to an applicant's eligibility to obtain a license under this Act submitted by a law enforcement agency or the Department under Section 15 of this Act. The Board shall consist of 7 commissioners to be appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, with 3 commissioners residing within the First Judicial District and one commissioner residing within each of the 4 remaining Judicial Districts. No more than 4 commissioners shall be members of the same political party. The Governor shall designate one commissioner as the Chairperson. The Board shall consist of:
1. one commissioner with at least 5 years of service as a federal judge;
2. 2 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience serving as an attorney with the United States Department of Justice;
3. 3 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience as a federal agent or employee with investigative experience or duties related to criminal justice under the United States Department of Justice, Drug Enforcement Administration, Department of Homeland Security, or Federal Bureau of Investigation; and
4. one member with at least 5 years of experience as a licensed physician or clinical psychologist with expertise in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.
The initial terms of the commissioners shall end on January 12, 2015. Thereafter, the commissioners shall hold office for 4 years, with terms expiring on the second Monday in January of the fourth year. Commissioners may be reappointed. Vacancies in the office of commissioner shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment, for the remainder of the unexpired term. The Governor may remove a commissioner for incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance, or inability to serve. Commissioners shall receive compensation in an amount equal to the compensation of members of the Executive Ethics Commission and may be reimbursed for reasonable expenses actually incurred in the performance of their Board duties, from funds appropriated for that purpose.
The Board shall meet at the call of the chairperson as often as necessary to consider objections to applications for a license under this Act. If necessary to ensure the participation of a commissioner, the Board shall allow a commissioner to participate in a Board meeting by electronic communication. Any commissioner participating electronically shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum and voting.
The Board shall adopt rules for the review of objections and the conduct of hearings. The Board shall maintain a record of its decisions and all materials considered in making its decisions. All Board decisions and voting records shall be kept confidential and all materials considered by the Board shall be exempt from inspection except upon order of a court.
In considering an objection of a law enforcement agency or the Department, the Board shall review the materials received with the objection from the law enforcement agency or the Department. By a vote of at least 4 commissioners, the Board may request additional information from the law enforcement agency, Department, or the applicant, or the testimony of the law enforcement agency, Department, or the applicant. The Board may require that the applicant submit electronic fingerprints to the Department for an updated background check where the Board determines it lacks sufficient information to determine eligibility. The Board may only consider information submitted by the Department, a law enforcement agency, or the applicant. The Board shall review each objection and determine by a majority of commissioners whether an applicant is eligible for a license.
The Board shall issue a decision within 30 days of receipt of the objection from the Department. However, the Board need not issue a decision within 30 days if:
1. the Board requests information from the applicant, including but not limited to electronic fingerprints to be submitted to the Department, in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, in which case the Board shall make a decision within 30 days of receipt of the required information from the applicant;
2. the applicant agrees, in writing, to allow the Board additional time to consider an objection; or
3. the Board notifies the applicant and the Department that the Board needs an additional 30 days to issue a decision.
If the Board determines by a preponderance of the evidence that the applicant poses a danger to himself or herself or others, or is a threat to public safety, then the Board shall affirm the objection of the law enforcement agency or the Department and shall notify the Department that the applicant is ineligible for a license. If the Board does not determine by a preponderance of the evidence that the applicant poses a danger to himself or herself or others, or is a threat to public safety, then the Board shall notify the Department that the applicant is eligible for a license.
Meetings of the Board shall not be subject to the Open Meetings Act and records of the Board shall not be subject to the Freedom of Information Act.
The Board shall report monthly to the Governor and the General Assembly on the number of objections received and provide details of the circumstances in which the Board has determined to deny licensure based on law enforcement or Department objections under Section 15 of this Act. The report shall not contain any identifying information about the applicants.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13.)

The Department shall issue a license to an applicant completing an application in accordance with Section 30 of this Act if the person:
1. is at least 21 years of age;
2. has a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and at the time of application meets the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is not prohibited under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or federal law from possessing or receiving a firearm;
3. has not been convicted or found guilty in this State or in any other state of:
  1. a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of physical force or violence to any person within the 5 years preceding the date of the license application; or
  2. 2 or more violations related to driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the license application; and
4. is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant, prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that could lead to disqualification to own or possess a firearm;
5. has not been in residential or court-ordered treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the date of the license application; and
6. has completed firearms training and any education component required under Section 75 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

The license application shall be in writing, under penalty of perjury, on a standard form adopted by the Department and shall be accompanied by the documentation required in this Section and the applicable fee. Each application form shall include the following statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012."
The application shall contain the following:
1. the applicant's name, current address, date and year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color, eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has used or identified with, and any address where the applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 10 years preceding the date of the license application;
2. the applicant's valid driver's license number or valid state identification card number;
3. a waiver of the applicant's privacy and confidentiality rights and privileges under all federal and state laws, including those limiting access to juvenile court, criminal justice, psychological, or psychiatric records or records relating to any institutionalization of the applicant, and an affirmative request that a person having custody of any of these records provide it or information concerning it to the Department;
4. an affirmation that the applicant possesses a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and card number if possessed or notice the applicant is applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in conjunction with the license application;
5. an affirmation that the applicant has not been convicted or found guilty of:
  1. a felony;
  2. a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of physical force or violence to any person within the 5 years preceding the date of the application; or
  3. 2 or more violations related to driving while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the license application; and
6. whether the applicant has failed a drug test for a drug for which the applicant did not have a prescription, within the previous year, and if so, the provider of the test, the specific substance involved, and the date of the test;
7. written consent for the Department to review and use the applicant's Illinois digital driver's license or Illinois identification card photograph and signature;
8. a full set of fingerprints submitted to the Department in electronic format, provided the Department may accept an application submitted without a set of fingerprints in which case the Department shall be granted 30 days in addition to the 90 days provided under subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act to issue or deny a license;
9. a head and shoulder color photograph in a size specified by the Department taken within the 30 days preceding the date of the license application; and
10. a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence of compliance with the training requirements under this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

The Department shall conduct a background check of the applicant to ensure compliance with the requirements of this Act and all federal, State, and local laws. The background check shall include a search of the following:
1. the National Instant Criminal Background Check System of the Federal Bureau of Investigation;
2. all available state and local criminal history record information files, including records of juvenile adjudications;
3. all available federal, state, and local records regarding wanted persons;
4. all available federal, state, and local records of domestic violence restraining and protective orders;
5. the files of the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and developmental disabilities; and
6. all other available records of a federal, state, or local agency or other public entity in any jurisdiction likely to contain information relevant to whether the applicant is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or carrying a firearm under federal, state, or local law.
7. Fingerprints collected under Section 30 shall be checked against the Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The Department shall charge applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the records check.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

For the purposes of this Section, "non-resident" means a person who has not resided within this State for more than 30 days and resides in another state or territory.
The Department shall by rule allow for non-resident license applications from any state or territory of the United States with laws related to firearm ownership, possession, and carrying, that are substantially similar to the requirements to obtain a license under this Act.
A resident of a state or territory approved by the Department under subsection (b) of this Sectionmay apply for a non-resident license. The applicant shall apply to the Department and must meet all of the qualifications established in Section 25 of this Act, except for the Illinois residency requirement in item (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The applicant shall submit:
1. the application and documentation required under Section 30 of this Act and the applicable fee;
2. a notarized document stating that the applicant:
  1. is eligible under federal law and the laws of his or her state or territory of residence to own or possess a firearm;
  2. if applicable, has a license or permit to carry a firearm or concealed firearm issued by his or her state or territory of residence and attach a copy of the license or permit to the application;
  3. understands Illinois laws pertaining to the possession and transport of firearms; and
  4. acknowledges that the applicant is subject to the jurisdiction of the Department and Illinois courts for any violation of this Act;
3. a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence of compliance with the training requirements under Section 75 of this Act; and
4. a head and shoulder color photograph in a size specified by the Department taken within the 30 days preceding the date of the application.
In lieu of an Illinois driver's license or Illinois identification card, a non-resident applicant shall provide similar documentation from his or her state or territory of residence. In lieu of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card, the applicant shall submit documentation and information required by the Department to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, including an affidavit that the non-resident meets the mental health standards to obtain a firearm under Illinois law, and the Department shall ensure that the applicant would meet the eligibility criteria to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification card if he or she was a resident of this State.
Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a non-resident from transporting a concealed firearm within his or her vehicle in Illinois, if the concealed firearm remains within his or her vehicle and the non-resident:
1. is not prohibited from owning or possessing a firearm under federal law;
2. is eligible to carry a firearm in public under the laws of his or her state or territory of residence, as evidenced by the possession of a concealed carry license or permit issued by his or her state of residence, if applicable; and
3. is not in possession of a license under this Act. If the non-resident leaves his or her vehicle unattended, he or she shall store the firearm within a locked vehicle or locked container within the vehicle in accordance with subsection (b) of Section 65 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13; 99-0078, Eff. 7-27-15.)

The Board, Department, local law enforcement agency, or the employees and agents of the Board, Department, or local law enforcement agency participating in the licensing process under this Act shall not be held liable for damages in any civil action arising from alleged wrongful or improper granting, denying, renewing, revoking, suspending, or failing to grant, deny, renew, revoke, or suspend a license under this Act, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

This subsection (a) applies through the 180th day following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the Department. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years upon receipt of a completed renewal application, completion of 3 hours of training required under Section 75 of this Act, payment of the applicable renewal fee, and completion of an investigation under Section 35 of this Act. The renewal application shall contain the information required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the applicant need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.
This subsection (b) applies on and after the 181st day following the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 101st General Assembly. Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the Department. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years from the date of expiration on the applicant's current license upon the receipt of a completed renewal application, completion of 3 hours of training required under Section 75 of this Act, payment of the applicable renewal fee, and completion of an investigation under Section 35 of this Act. The renewal application shall contain the information required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the applicant need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 101-0080, eff. 7-12-19.)

A licensee shall notify the Department within 30 days of moving or changing residence or any change of name. The licensee shall submit:
1. a notarized statement that the licensee has changed his or her residence or his or her name, including the prior and current address or name and the date the applicant moved or changed his or her name; and
2. the requisite fee.
A licensee shall notify the Department within 10 days of discovering that a license has been lost, destroyed, or stolen. A lost, destroyed, or stolen license is invalid. To request a replacement license, the licensee shall submit:
1. a notarized statement that the licensee no longer possesses the license, and that it was lost, destroyed, or stolen;
2. if applicable, a copy of a police report stating that the license was stolen; and
3. the requisite fee.
A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a fine of $150 which shall be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

All fees collected under this Act shall be deposited as provided in this Section. Application, renewal, and replacement fees shall be non-refundable.
An applicant for a new license or a renewal shall submit $150 with the application, of which $120 shall be apportioned to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $20 shall be apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and $10 shall be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.
A non-resident applicant for a new license or renewal shall submit $300 with the application, of which $250 shall be apportioned to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $40 shall be apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and $10 shall be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.
A licensee requesting a new license in accordance with Section 55 shall submit $75, of which $60 shall be apportioned to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $5 shall be apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and $10 shall be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

A licensee under this Act shall not knowingly carry a firearm on or into:
1. Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a public or private elementary or secondary school.
2. Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a pre-school or child care facility, including any room or portion of a building under the control of a pre-school or child care facility. Nothing in this paragraph shall prevent the operator of a child care facility in a family home from owning or possessing a firearm in the home or license under this Act, if no child under child care at the home is present in the home or the firearm in the home is stored in a locked container when a child under child care at the home is present in the home.
3. Any building, parking area, or portion of a building under the control of an officer of the executive or legislative branch of government, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a concealed firearm onto the real property, bikeway, or trail in a park regulated by the Department of Natural Resources or any other designated public hunting area or building where firearm possession is permitted as established by the Department of Natural Resources under Section 1.8 of the Wildlife Code.
4. Any building designated for matters before a circuit court, appellate court, or the Supreme Court, or any building or portion of a building under the control of the Supreme Court.
5. Any building or portion of a building under the control of a unit of local government.
6. Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of an adult or juvenile detention or correctional institution, prison, or jail.
7. Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a public or private hospital or hospital affiliate, mental health facility, or nursing home.
8. Any bus, train, or form of transportation paid for in whole or in part with public funds, and any building, real property, and parking area under the control of a public transportation facility paid for in whole or in part with public funds.
9. Any building, real property, and parking area under the control of an establishment that serves alcohol on its premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of alcohol. The owner of an establishment who knowingly fails to prohibit concealed firearms on its premises as provided in this paragraph or who knowingly makes a false statement or record to avoid the prohibition on concealed firearms under this paragraph is subject to the penalty under subsection (c-5) of Section 10-1 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934.
10. Any public gathering or special event conducted on property open to the public that requires the issuance of a permit from the unit of local government, provided this prohibition shall not apply to a licensee who must walk through a public gathering in order to access his or her residence, place of business, or vehicle.
11. Any building or real property that has been issued a Special Event Retailer's license as defined in Section 1-3.17.1 of the Liquor Control Act during the time designated for the sale of alcohol by the Special Event Retailer's license, or a Special use permit license as defined in subsection (q) of Section 5-1 of the Liquor Control Act during the time designated for the sale of alcohol by the Special use permit license.
12. Any public playground.
13. Any public park, athletic area, or athletic facility under the control of a municipality or park district, provided nothing in this Section shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a concealed firearm while on a trail or bikeway if only a portion of the trail or bikeway includes a public park.
14. Any real property under the control of the Cook County Forest Preserve District.
15. Any building, classroom, laboratory, medical clinic, hospital, artistic venue, athletic venue, entertainment venue, officially recognized university-related organization property, whether owned or leased, and any real property, including parking areas, sidewalks, and common areas under the control of a public or private community college, college, or university.
16. Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of a gaming facility licensed under the Illinois Gambling Act or the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975, including an inter-track wagering location licensee.
17. Any stadium, arena, or the real property or parking area under the control of a stadium, arena, or any collegiate or professional sporting event.
18. Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of a public library.
19. Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of an airport.
20. Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of an amusement park.
21. Any building, real property, or parking area under the control of a zoo or museum.
22. Any street, driveway, parking area, property, building, or facility, owned, leased, controlled, or used by a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory Commission. The licensee shall not under any circumstance store a firearm or ammunition in his or her vehicle or in a compartment or container within a vehicle located anywhere in or on the street, driveway, parking area, property, building, or facility described in this paragraph.
23. Any area where firearms are prohibited under federal law.
1. a-5. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a public or private community college, college, or university from:
  1. prohibiting persons from carrying a firearm within a vehicle owned, leased, or controlled by the college or university;
  2. developing resolutions, regulations, or policies regarding student, employee, or visitor misconduct and discipline, including suspension and expulsion;
  3. developing resolutions, regulations, or policies regarding the storage or maintenance of firearms, which must include designated areas where persons can park vehicles that carry firearms; and
  4. permitting the carrying or use of firearms for the purpose of instruction and curriculum of officially recognized programs, including but not limited to military science and law enforcement training programs, or in any designated area used for hunting purposes or target shooting.
2. a-10. The owner of private real property of any type may prohibit the carrying of concealed firearms on the property under his or her control. The owner must post a sign in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section indicating that firearms are prohibited on the property, unless the property is a private residence.
Notwithstanding subsections (a), (a-5), and (a-10) of this Section except under paragraph (22) or (23) of subsection (a), any licensee prohibited from carrying a concealed firearm into the parking area of a prohibited location specified in subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-10) of this Section shall be permitted to carry a concealed firearm on or about his or her person within a vehicle into the parking area and may store a firearm or ammunition concealed in a case within a locked vehicle or locked container out of plain view within the vehicle in the parking area. A licensee may carry a concealed firearm in the immediate area surrounding his or her vehicle within a prohibited parking lot area only for the limited purpose of storing or retrieving a firearm within the vehicle's trunk, provided the licensee ensures the concealed firearm is unloaded prior to exiting the vehicle. For purposes of this subsection, "case" includes a glove compartment or console that completely encloses the concealed firearm or ammunition, the trunk of the vehicle, or a firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container.
A licensee shall not be in violation of this Section while he or she is traveling along a public right of way that touches or crosses any of the premises under subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-10) of this Section if the concealed firearm is carried on his or her person in accordance with the provisions of this Act or is being transported in a vehicle by the licensee in accordance with all other applicable provisions of law.
Signs stating that the carrying of firearms is prohibited shall be clearly and conspicuously posted at the entrance of a building, premises, or real property specified in this Section as a prohibited area, unless the building or premises is a private residence. Signs shall be of a uniform design as established by the Department and shall be 4 inches by 6 inches in size. The Department shall adopt rules for standardized signs to be used under this subsection.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 101-0031, eff. 6-28-19.)

A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible for a license under this Act or the licensee no longer meets the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
A license shall be suspended if an order of protection, including an emergency order of protection, plenary order of protection, or interim order of protection under Article 112A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or under the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986, or if a firearms restraining order, including an emergency firearms restraining order, under the Firearms Restraining Order Act, is issued against a licensee for the duration of the order, or if the Department is made aware of a similar order issued against the licensee in any other jurisdiction. If an order of protection is issued against a licensee, the licensee shall surrender the license, as applicable, to the court at the time the order is entered or to the law enforcement agency or entity serving process at the time the licensee is served the order. The court, law enforcement agency, or entity responsible for serving the order of protection shall notify the Department within 7 days and transmit the license to the Department.
A license is invalid upon expiration of the license, unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a license under this Act.
A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any combination thereof, under the standards set forth in subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation.
Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3 or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150 fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund, plus any applicable court costs or fees.
A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee from being subjected to penalties for violations other than those specified in this Act.
A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the revocation, suspension, or denial, surrender his or her concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the concealed carry license to the Department of State Police. If the licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to search for and seize the concealed carry license in the possession and under the custody or control of the licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the possession of a person whose license has been revoked, suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor.
A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the licensee no longer possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card. A licensee whose license is revoked under this subsection (h) shall surrender his or her concealed carry license as provided for in subsection (g) of this Section.
This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed an application with the State Police for renewal of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise ineligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
A certified firearms instructor who knowingly provides or offers to provide a false certification that an applicant has completed firearms training as required under this Act is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person guilty of a violation of this subsection (i) is not eligible for court supervision. The Department shall permanently revoke the firearms instructor certification of a person convicted under this subsection (i).

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13; 98-0899, eff. 8-15-14; 100-0607, eff. 1-1-19.)

Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the Department shall begin approval of firearm training courses and shall make a list of approved courses available on the Department's website.
An applicant for a new license shall provide proof of completion of a firearms training course or combination of courses approved by the Department of at least 16 hours, which includes range qualification time under subsection (c) of this Section, that covers the following:
1. firearm safety;
2. the basic principles of marksmanship;
3. care, cleaning, loading, and unloading of a concealable firearm;
4. all applicable State and federal laws relating to the ownership, storage, carry, and transportation of a firearm; and
5. instruction on the appropriate and lawful interaction with law enforcement while transporting or carrying a concealed firearm.
An applicant for a new license shall provide proof of certification by a certified instructor that the applicant passed a live fire exercise with a concealable firearm consisting of:
1. a minimum of 30 rounds; and
2. 10 rounds from a distance of 5 yards; 10 rounds from a distance of 7 yards; and 10 rounds from a distance of 10 yards at a B-27 silhouette target approved by the Department.
An applicant for renewal of a license shall provide proof of completion of a firearms training course or combination of courses approved by the Department of at least 3 hours.
A certificate of completion for an applicant's firearm training course shall not be issued to a student who:
1. does not follow the orders of the certified firearms instructor;
2. in the judgment of the certified instructor, handles a firearm in a manner that poses a danger to the student or to others; or
3. during the range firing portion of testing fails to hit the target with 70% of the rounds fired.
An instructor shall maintain a record of each student's performance for at least 5 years, and shall make all records available upon demand of authorized personnel of the Department.
The Department and certified firearms instructors shall recognize up to 8 hours of training already completed toward the 16 hour training requirement under this Section if the training course is submitted to and approved by the Department. Any remaining hours that the applicant completes must at least cover the classroom subject matter of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of this Section, and the range qualification in subsection (c) of this Section.
A person who has qualified to carry a firearm as an active law enforcement or corrections officer, who has successfully completed firearms training as required by his or her law enforcement agency and is authorized by his or her agency to carry a firearm; a person currently certified as a firearms instructor by this Act or by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board, or a person who has completed the required training and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall be exempt from the requirements of this Section.
The Department and certified firearms instructors shall recognize 8 hours of training as completed toward the 16 hour training requirement under this Section, if the applicant is an active, retired, or honorably discharged member of the United States Armed Forces. Any remaining hours that the applicant completes must at least cover the classroom subject matter of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of this Section, and the range qualification in subsection (c) of this Section. (j) The Department and certified firearms instructors shall recognize up to 8 hours of training already completed toward the 16 hour training requirement under this Section if the training course is approved by the Department and was completed in connection with the applicant's previous employment as a law enforcement or corrections officer. Any remaining hours that the applicant completes must at least cover the classroom subject matter of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of this Section, and the range qualification in subsection (c) of this Section. A former law enforcement or corrections officer seeking credit under this subsection (j) shall provide evidence that he or she separated from employment in good standing from each law enforcement agency where he or she was employed. An applicant who was discharged from a law enforcement agency for misconduct or disciplinary reasons is not eligible for credit under this subsection (j).

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13.)

Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the Department shall begin approval of certified firearms instructors and enter certified firearms instructors into an online registry on the Department's website.
A person who is not a certified firearms instructor shall not teach applicant training courses or advertise or otherwise represent courses they teach as qualifying their students to meet the requirements to receive a license under this Act. Each violation of this subsection is a business offense with a fine of at least $1,000 per violation.
A person seeking to become a certified firearms instructor shall:
1. be at least 21 years of age;
2. be a legal resident of the United States; and
3. meet the requirements of Section 25 of this Act, except for the Illinois residency requirement in item (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and any additional uniformly applied requirements established by the Department.
A person seeking to become a certified firearms instructor, in addition to the requirements of subsection (c) of this Section, shall:
1. possess a high school diploma or GED certificate; and
2. have at least one of the following valid firearms instructor certifications:
  1. certification from a law enforcement agency;
  2. certification from a firearm instructor course offered by a State or federal governmental agency;
  3. certification from a firearm instructor qualification course offered by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board; or
  4. certification from an entity approved by the Department that offers firearm instructor education and training in the use and safety of firearms.
A person may have his or her firearms instructor certification denied or revoked if he or she does not meet the requirements to obtain a license under this Act, provides false or misleading information to the Department, or has had a prior instructor certification revoked or denied by the Department.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13..)

A license to carry a concealed firearm issued by this State shall not exempt the licensee from the requirements of a background check, including a check of the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, upon purchase or transfer of a firearm.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

Whenever an application for a concealed carry license is denied, whenever the Department fails to act on an application within 90 days of its receipt, or whenever a license is revoked or suspended as provided in this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the Director for a hearing upon the denial, revocation, suspension, or failure to act on the application, unless the denial was made by the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing upon the denial.
All final administrative decisions of the Department or the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under this Act shall be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law. The term "administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

The regulation, licensing, possession, registration, and transportation of handguns and ammunition for handguns by licensees are exclusive powers and functions of the State. Any ordinance or regulation, or portion thereof, enacted on or before the effective date of this Act that purports to impose regulations or restrictions on licensees or handguns and ammunition for handguns in a manner inconsistent with this Act shall be invalid in its application to licensees under this Act on the effective date of this Act. This Sectionis a denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13. Repealed internally, eff. 3-2-14.)

The Department of State Police, in consultation with and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer, may procure a single contract or multiple contracts to implement the provisions of this Act. A contract or contracts under this paragraph are not subject to the provisions of the Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65, 20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with justification, waive any certification required under Article 50. This exemption shall be repealed one year from the effective date of this Act.
The Department shall adopt rules to implement the provisions of this Act. The Department may adopt rules necessary to implement the provisions of this Act through the use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for a period not to exceed 180 days after the effective date of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

Sections 100 through 110 may be cited as the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

It is the duty of the principal of a public elementary or secondary school, or his or her designee, and the chief administrative officer of a private elementary or secondary school or a public or private community college, college, or university, or his or her designee, to report to the Department of State Police when a student is determined to pose a clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others, within 24 hours of the determination as provided in Section 6-103.3 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. "Clear and present danger" has the meaning as provided in paragraph (2) of the definition of "clear and present danger" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

A principal or chief administrative officer, or the designee of a principal or chief administrative officer, making the determination and reporting under Section 105 of this Law shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

The Freedom of Information Act is amended by changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

The Secretary of State Act is amended by adding Section 13.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 305/13.5 new)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

The Department of State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing Section 2605-300 and by adding Section 2605-595 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-300) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

The State Finance Act is amended by adding Sections 5.826, 5.827, and 6z-98 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.826 new)
Sec. 5.826. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(30 ILCS 105/5.827 new)
Sec. 5.827. The State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(30 ILCS 105/6z-98 new)
Sec. 6z-98. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

(30 ILCS 105/5.206 rep.)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(225 ILCS 210/2005) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1-2005)

Sec. 2005. Qualifications for licensure.

No person shall qualify to hold a license who:
1. is under 21 years of age;
2. has been convicted in any court of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;
3. is under indictment for a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;
4. is a fugitive from justice;
5. is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 802 et seq.);
6. has been adjudicated a mentally disabled person as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act mental defective; or
7. is not a legal citizen of the United States.
A person who has been granted a "relief from disabilities" regarding criminal convictions and indictments, pursuant to the federal Safe Explosives Act (18 U.S.C. Sec. 845) may receive a license provided all other qualifications under this Act are met.

(Source: P.A. 96-1194, eff. 1-1-11; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

(235 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 183)

Sec. 10-1. Violations; penalties.

Whereas a substantial threat to the sound and careful control, regulation, and taxation of the manufacture, sale, and distribution of alcoholic liquors exists by virtue of individuals who manufacture, import, distribute, or sell alcoholic liquors within the State without having first obtained a valid license to do so, and whereas such threat is especially serious along the borders of this State, and whereas such threat requires immediate correction by this Act, by active investigation and prosecution by law enforcement officials and prosecutors, and by prompt and strict enforcement through the courts of this State to punish violators and to deter such conduct in the future:
1. Any person who manufactures, imports for distribution or use, or distributes or sells alcoholic liquor at any place within the State without having first obtained a valid license to do so under the provisions of this Act shall be guilty of a business offense and fined not more than $1,000 for the first such offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each subsequent offense.
2. 1. Any retailer, licensed in this State, who knowingly causes to furnish, give, sell, or otherwise being within the State, any alcoholic liquor destined to be used, distributed, consumed or sold in another state, unless such alcoholic liquor was received in this State by a duly licensed distributor, or importing distributors shall have his license suspended for 7 days for the first offense and for the second offense, shall have his license revoked by the Commission.
  2. In the event the Commission receives a certified copy of a final order from a foreign jurisdiction that an Illinois retail licensee has been found to have violated that foreign jurisdiction's laws, rules, or regulations concerning the importation of alcoholic liquor into that foreign jurisdiction, the violation may be grounds for the Commission to revoke, suspend, or refuse to issue or renew a license, to impose a fine, or to take any additional action provided by this Act with respect to the Illinois retail license or licensee. Any such action on the part of the Commission shall be in accordance with this Act and implementing rules. For the purposes of paragraph (2): (i) "foreign jurisdiction" means a state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and (ii) "final order" means an order or judgment of a court or administrative body that determines the rights of the parties respecting the subject matter of the proceeding, that remains in full force and effect, and from which no appeal can be taken.
3. Any person who shall make any false statement or otherwise violates any of the provisions of this Act in obtaining any license hereunder, or who having obtained a license hereunder shall violate any of the provisions of this Act with respect to the manufacture, possession, distribution or sale of alcoholic liquor, or with respect to the maintenance of the licensed premises, or shall violate any other provision of this Act, shall for a first offense be guilty of a petty offense and fined not more than $500, and for a second or subsequent offense shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.
  1. c-5. Any owner of an establishment that serves alcohol on its premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of alcohol, who knowingly fails to prohibit concealed firearms on its premises or who knowingly makes a false statement or record to avoid the prohibition of concealed firearms on its premises under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act shall be guilty of a business offense with a fine up to $5,000.
4. Each day any person engages in business as a manufacturer, foreign importer, importing distributor, distributor or retailer in violation of the provisions of this Act shall constitute a separate offense.
5. Any person, under the age of 21 years who, for the purpose of buying, accepting or receiving alcoholic liquor from a licensee, represents that he is 21 years of age or over shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
6. In addition to the penalties herein provided, any person licensed as a wine-maker in either class who manufactures more wine than authorized by his license shall be guilty of a business offense and shall be fined $1 for each gallon so manufactured.
7. A person shall be exempt from prosecution for a violation of this Act if he is a peace officer in the enforcement of the criminal laws and such activity is approved in writing by one of the following:
  1. In all counties, the respective State's Attorney;
  2. The Director of State Police under Section 2605-10, 2605-15, 2605-75, 2605-100, 2605-105, 2605-110, 2605-115, 2605-120, 2605-130, 2605-140, 2605-190, 2605-200, 2605-205, 2605-210, 2605-215, 2605-250, 2605-275, 2605-300, 2605-305, 2605-315, 2605-325, 2605-335, 2605-340, 2605-350, 2605-355, 2605-360, 2605-365, 2605-375, 2605-390, 2605-400, 2605-405, 2605-420, 2605-430, 2605-435, 2605-500, 2605-525, or 2605-550 of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-10, 2605/2605-15, 2605/2605-75, 2605/2605-100, 2605/2605-105, 2605/2605-110, 2605/2605-115, 2605/2605-120, 2605/2605-130, 2605/2605-140, 2605/2605-190, 2605/2605-200, 2605/2605-205, 2605/2605-210, 2605/2605-215, 2605/2605-250, 2605/2605-275, 2605/2605-300, 2605/2605-305, 2605/2605-315, 2605/2605-325, 2605/2605-335, 2605/2605-340, 2605/2605-350, 2605/2605-355, 2605/2605-360, 2605/2605-365, 2605/2605-375, 2605/2605-390, 2605/2605-400, 2605/2605-405, 2605/2605-420, 2605/2605-430, 2605/2605-435, 2605/2605-500, 2605/2605-525, or 2605/2605-550); or
  3. In cities over 1,000,000, the Superintendent of Police.

(Source: P.A. 90-739, eff. 8-13-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)

The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 6-103.1 and by adding Sections 6-103.2 and 6-103.3 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.1)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is amended by changing

Section 112A-14 as follows:

Sec. 112A-14. - Order of protection; remedies.

Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim orders, or Section 112A-19 on plenary orders.

Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim orders, and Section 112A-19 on plenary orders.

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing Section 12 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by adding Section 11a-24 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-24 new)

(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; text omitted.)

A person is justified in the use of force against another when and to the extent that he reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to defend himself or another against such other's imminent use of unlawful force. However, he is justified in the use of force which is intended or likely to cause death or great bodily harm only if he reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to himself or another, or the commission of a forcible felony.
In no case shall any act involving the use of force justified under this Section give rise to any claim or liability brought by or on behalf of any person acting within the definition of "aggressor" set forth in Section 7-4 of this Article, or the estate, spouse, or other family member of such a person, against the person or estate of the person using such justified force, unless the use of force involves willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 93-832, eff. 7-28-04.)

A person is justified in the use of force against another when and to the extent that he reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to prevent or terminate such other's unlawful entry into or attack upon a dwelling. However, he is justified in the use of force which is intended or likely to cause death or great bodily harm only if:
1. The entry is made or attempted in a violent, riotous, or tumultuous manner, and he reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent an assault upon, or offer of personal violence to, him or another then in the dwelling, or
2. He reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent the commission of a felony in the dwelling.
In no case shall any act involving the use of force justified under this Section give rise to any claim or liability brought by or on behalf of any person acting within the definition of "aggressor" set forth in Section 7-4 of this Article, or the estate, spouse, or other family member of such a person, against the person or estate of the person using such justified force, unless the use of force involves willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 93-832, eff. 7-28-04.)

A person is justified in the use of force against another when and to the extent that he reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to prevent or terminate such other's trespass on or other tortious or criminal interference with either real property (other than a dwelling) or personal property, lawfully in his possession or in the possession of another who is a member of his immediate family or household or of a person whose property he has a legal duty to protect. However, he is justified in the use of force which is intended or likely to cause death or great bodily harm only if he reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent the commission of a forcible felony.
In no case shall any act involving the use of force justified under this Section give rise to any claim or liability brought by or on behalf of any person acting within the definition of "aggressor" set forth in Section 7-4 of this Article, or the estate, spouse, or other family member of such a person, against the person or estate of the person using such justified force, unless the use of force involves willful or wanton misconduct.

(Source: P.A. 93-832, eff. 7-28-04.)

The justification described in the preceding Sections of this Article is not available to a person who:

Is attempting to commit, committing, or escaping after the commission of, a forcible felony; or
Initially provokes the use of force against himself, with the intent to use such force as an excuse to inflict bodily harm upon the assailant; or
Otherwise initially provokes the use of force against himself, unless
1. Such force is so great that he reasonably believes that he is in imminent danger of death or great bodily harm, and that he has exhausted every reasonable means to escape such danger other than the use of force which is likely to cause death or great bodily harm to the assailant; or
2. In good faith, he withdraws from physical contact with the assailant and indicates clearly to the assailant that he desires to withdraw and terminate the use of force, but the assailant continues or resumes the use of force.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

A peace officer, or any person whom he has summoned or directed to assist him, need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest. He is justified in the use of any force which he reasonably believes to be necessary to effect the arrest and of any force which he reasonably believes to be necessary to defend himself or another from bodily harm while making the arrest. However, he is justified in using force likely to cause death or great bodily harm only when he reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent death or great bodily harm to himself or such other person, or when he reasonably believes both that:
1. Such force is necessary to prevent the arrest from being defeated by resistance or escape; and
2. The person to be arrested has committed or attempted a forcible felony which involves the infliction or threatened infliction of great bodily harm or is attempting to escape by use of a deadly weapon, or otherwise indicates that he will endanger human life or inflict great bodily harm unless arrested without delay.
A peace officer making an arrest pursuant to an invalid warrant is justified in the use of any force which he would be justified in using if the warrant were valid, unless he knows that the warrant is invalid.

(Source: P.A. 84-1426.)

A private person who makes, or assists another private person in making a lawful arrest is justified in the use of any force which he would be justified in using if he were summoned or directed by a peace officer to make such arrest, except that he is justified in the use of force likely to cause death or great bodily harm only when he reasonably believes that such force is necessary to prevent death or great bodily harm to himself or another.
A private person who is summoned or directed by a peace officer to assist in making an arrest which is unlawful, is justified in the use of any force which he would be justified in using if the arrest were lawful, unless he knows that the arrest is unlawful.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

A person is not authorized to use force to resist an arrest which he knows is being made either by a peace officer or by a private person summoned and directed by a peace officer to make the arrest, even if he believes that the arrest is unlawful and the arrest in fact is unlawful.

(Source: P.A. 86-1475.)

Force which is likely to cause death or great bodily harm, within the meaning of Sections 7-5 and 7-6 includes:
1. The firing of a firearm in the direction of the person to be arrested, even though no intent exists to kill or inflict great bodily harm; and
2. The firing of a firearm at a vehicle in which the person to be arrested is riding.
A peace officer's discharge of a firearm using ammunition designed to disable or control an individual without creating the likelihood of death or great bodily harm shall not be considered force likely to cause death or great bodily harm within the meaning of Sections 7-5 and 7-6.

(Source: P.A. 90-138, eff. 1-1-98.)

A peace officer or other person who has an arrested person in his custody is justified in the use of such force to prevent the escape of the arrested person from custody as he would be justified in using if he were arresting such person.
A guard or other peace officer is justified in the use of force, including force likely to cause death or great bodily harm, which he reasonably believes to be necessary to prevent the escape from a penal institution of a person whom the officer reasonably believes to be lawfully detained in such institution under sentence for an offense or awaiting trial or commitment for an offense.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

A person is not guilty of an offense, other than an offense punishable with death, by reason of conduct that he or she performs under the compulsion of threat or menace of the imminent infliction of death or great bodily harm, if he or she reasonably believes death or great bodily harm will be inflicted upon him or her, or upon his or her spouse or child, if he or she does not perform that conduct.
A married woman is not entitled, by reason of the presence of her husband, to any presumption of compulsion or to any defense of compulsion, except that stated in subsection (a).

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

A person is not guilty of an offense if his or her conduct is incited or induced by a public officer or employee, or agent of either, for the purpose of obtaining evidence for the prosecution of that person. However, this Section is inapplicable if the person was pre-disposed to commit the offense and the public officer or employee, or agent of either, merely affords to that person the opportunity or facility for committing an offense.

(Source: P.A. 89-332, eff. 1-1-96.)

Conduct which would otherwise be an offense is justifiable by reason of necessity if the accused was without blame in occasioning or developing the situation and reasonably believed such conduct was necessary to avoid a public or private injury greater than the injury which might reasonably result from his own conduct.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

A defense of justifiable use of force, or of exoneration, based on the provisions of this Article is an affirmative defense.

(Source: Laws 1961, p. 1983.)

A person commits the offense of unlawful use of weapons when he knowingly:
1. Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries any bludgeon, black-jack, slung-shot, sand-club, sand-bag, metal knuckles or other knuckle weapon regardless of its composition, throwing star, or any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, or a ballistic knife, which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile by means of a coil spring, elastic material or compressed gas; or
2. Carries or possesses with intent to use the same unlawfully against another, a dagger, dirk, billy, dangerous knife, razor, stiletto, broken bottle or other piece of glass, stun gun or taser or any other dangerous or deadly weapon or instrument of like character; or
3. Carries on or about his person or in any vehicle, a tear gas gun projector or bomb or any object containing noxious liquid gas or substance, other than an object containing a non-lethal noxious liquid gas or substance designed solely for personal defense carried by a person 18 years of age or older; or
4. Carries or possesses in any vehicle or concealed on or about his person except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (4) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:
  1. are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
  2. are not immediately accessible; or
  3. are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or
  4. are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or
5. Sets a spring gun; or
6. Possesses any device or attachment of any kind designed, used or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm; or
7. Sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses or carries:
  1. a machine gun, which shall be defined for the purposes of this subsection as any weapon, which shoots, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot, automatically more than one shot without manually reloading by a single function of the trigger, including the frame or receiver of any such weapon, or sells, manufactures, purchases, possesses, or carries any combination of parts designed or intended for use in converting any weapon into a machine gun, or any combination or parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if such parts are in the possession or under the control of a person;
  2. any rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length or a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length or any weapon made from a rifle or shotgun, whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise, if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches; or
  3. any bomb, bomb-shell, grenade, bottle or other container containing an explosive substance of over one-quarter ounce for like purposes, such as, but not limited to, black powder bombs and Molotov cocktails or artillery projectiles; or
8. Carries or possesses any firearm, stun gun or taser or other deadly weapon in any place which is licensed to sell intoxicating beverages, or at any public gathering held pursuant to a license issued by any governmental body or any public gathering at which an admission is charged, excluding a place where a showing, demonstration or lecture involving the exhibition of unloaded firearms is conducted.
  - This subsection (a)(8) does not apply to any auction or raffle of a firearm held pursuant to a license or permit issued by a governmental body, nor does it apply to persons engaged in firearm safety training courses; or
9. Carries or possesses in a vehicle or on or about his person any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or firearm or ballistic knife, when he is hooded, robed or masked in such manner as to conceal his identity; or
10. Carries or possesses on or about his person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his land or in his own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm, except that this subsection (a) (10) does not apply to or affect transportation of weapons that meet one of the following conditions:
  1. are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
  2. are not immediately accessible; or
  3. are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or
  4. are carried or possessed in accordance with the Firearm Concealed Carry Act by a person who has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
  A "stun gun or taser", as used in this paragraph (a) means
  1. any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning or
  2. any device which is powered by electrical charging units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a manner as to render him incapable of normal functioning; or
11. Sells, manufactures or purchases any explosive bullet. For purposes of this paragraph (a) "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap; or
12. (Blank); or
13. Carries or possesses on or about his or her person while in a building occupied by a unit of government, a billy club, other weapon of like character, or other instrument of like character intended for use as a weapon. For the purposes of this Section, "billy club" means a short stick or club commonly carried by police officers which is either telescopic or constructed of a solid piece of wood or other man-made material.
Sentence. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(1) through (5), subsection 24-1(a)(10), subsection 24-1(a)(11), or subsection 24-1(a)(13) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(8) or 24-1(a)(9) commits a Class 4 felony; a person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7)(ii) or (iii) commits a Class 3 felony. A person convicted of a violation of subsection 24-1(a)(7)(i) commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, unless the weapon is possessed in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle as defined in Section 1-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or on the person, while the weapon is loaded, in which case it shall be a Class X felony. A person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) commits a Class 3 felony. The possession of each weapon in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
Violations in specific places.
- 1. A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(6) or 24-1(a)(7) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.
- 1.5. A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(9), or 24-1(a)(10) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony.
- 2. A person who violates subsection 24-1(a)(1), 24-1(a)(2), or 24-1(a)(3) in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, in residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, on residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, in any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, in any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a public transportation agency, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school, public park, courthouse, public transportation facility, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 4 felony. "Courthouse" means any building that is used by the Circuit, Appellate, or Supreme Court of this State for the conduct of official business.
- 3. Paragraphs (1), (1.5), and (2) of this subsection (c) shall not apply to law enforcement officers or security officers of such school, college, or university or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in training courses, parades, hunting, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded enclosed in a suitable case, box, or transportation package.
- 4. For the purposes of this subsection (c), "school" means any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.
- 5. For the purposes of this subsection (c), "public transportation agency" means a public or private agency that provides for the transportation or conveyance of persons by means available to the general public, except for transportation by automobiles not used for conveyance of the general public as passengers; and "public transportation facility" means a terminal or other place where one may obtain public transportation.
The presence in an automobile other than a public omnibus of any weapon, instrument or substance referred to in subsection (a)(7) is prima facie evidence that it is in the possession of, and is being carried by, all persons occupying such automobile at the time such weapon, instrument or substance is found, except under the following circumstances: (i) if such weapon, instrument or instrumentality is found upon the person of one of the occupants therein; or (ii) if such weapon, instrument or substance is found in an automobile operated for hire by a duly licensed driver in the due, lawful and proper pursuit of his trade, then such presumption shall not apply to the driver.
Exemptions.
1. Crossbows, Common or Compound bows and Underwater Spearguns are exempted from the definition of ballistic knife as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section.
2. The provision of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibiting the sale, manufacture, purchase, possession, or carrying of any knife, commonly referred to as a switchblade knife, which has a blade that opens automatically by hand pressure applied to a button, spring or other device in the handle of the knife, does not apply to a person who possesses a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Department of State Police or to a person or an entity engaged in the business of selling or manufacturing switchblade knives.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-809, eff. 1-1-09; 95-885, eff. 1-1-09; 96-41, eff. 1-1-10; 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 99-0029, eff. 7-10-15; 100-0082, eff. 8-11-17.)

It is unlawful for a person to knowingly possess on or about his person or on his land or in his own abode or fixed place of business any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Act or any firearm or any firearm ammunition if the person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this State or any other jurisdiction. This Section shall not apply if the person has been granted relief by the Director of the Department of State Police under Section 10 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
It is unlawful for any person confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, to possess any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code or any firearm or firearm ammunition, regardless of the intent with which he possesses it.
It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of subsection (b), that such possession was specifically authorized by rule, regulation, or directive of the Illinois Department of Corrections or order issued pursuant thereto.
The defense of necessity is not available to a person who is charged with a violation of subsection (b) of this Section.
Sentence. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution shall be a Class 3 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to no less than 2 years and no more than 10 years. A second or subsequent violation of this Section shall be a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution who has been convicted of a forcible felony, a felony violation of Article 24 of this Code or of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, stalking or aggravated stalking, or a Class 2 or greater felony under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person who is on parole or mandatory supervised release is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to not less than 3 years and not more than 14 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections. Violation of this Section by a person not confined in a penal institution is a Class X felony when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. Any person who violates this Section while confined in a penal institution, which is a facility of the Illinois Department of Corrections, is guilty of a Class 1 felony, if he possesses any weapon prohibited under Section 24-1 of this Code regardless of the intent with which he possesses it, a Class X felony if he possesses any firearm, firearm ammunition or explosive, and a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to not less than 12 years and not more than 50 years when the firearm possessed is a machine gun. A violation of this Section while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 is a Class X felony punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 40 years. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 97-237, eff. 1-1-12; 100-0003, eff. 6-23-17.)

A person commits aggravated discharge of a firearm when he or she knowingly or intentionally:
1. Discharges a firearm at or into a building he or she knows or reasonably should know to be occupied and the firearm is discharged from a place or position outside that building;
2. Discharges a firearm in the direction of another person or in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows or reasonably should know to be occupied by a person;
3. Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, a community policing volunteer, a correctional institution employee, or a fireman while the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, volunteer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;
4. Discharges a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;
5. Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;
6. Discharges a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;
7. Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be a teacher or other person employed in any school and the teacher or other employee is upon the grounds of a school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part of a building used for school purposes;
8. Discharges a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties; or
9. Discharges a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.
A violation of subsection (a)(1) or subsection (a)(2) of this Section is a Class 1 felony. A violation of subsection (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this Section committed in a school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year that the offense was committed is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7), (a)(8), or (a)(9) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 10 years and not more than 45 years.
For purposes of this Section: "School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university. "School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.

(Source: P.A. 94-243, eff. 1-1-06.)

A person commits aggravated discharge of a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm when he or she knowingly or intentionally:
1. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm at or into a building he or she knows to be occupied and the machine gun or the firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm is discharged from a place or position outside that building;
2. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of another person or in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied;
3. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee, or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;
4. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by a peace officer, a person summoned or directed by a peace officer, a correctional institution employee or a fireman while the officer, employee or fireman is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the officer, employee or fireman from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the officer, employee or fireman performing his or her official duties;
5. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;
6. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel, employed by a municipality or other governmental unit, while the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency medical technician - ambulance, emergency medical technician - intermediate, emergency medical technician - paramedic, ambulance driver, or other medical assistance or first aid personnel performing his or her official duties;
7. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a person he or she knows to be an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties; or
8. Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or used for silencing the report of a firearm in the direction of a vehicle he or she knows to be occupied by an emergency management worker while the emergency management worker is engaged in the execution of any of his or her official duties, or to prevent the emergency management worker from performing his or her official duties, or in retaliation for the emergency management worker performing his or her official duties.
A violation of subsection (a) (1) or subsection (a) (2) of this Section is a Class X felony. A violation of subsection (a) (3), (a) (4), (a) (5), (a) (6), (a) (7), or (a) (8) of this Section is a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 12 years and no more than 50 years.
For the purpose of this Section, "machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (i) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of this Code.
This Section does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(Source: P.A. 97-676, eff. 6-1-12.)

A person commits reckless discharge of a firearm by discharging a firearm in a reckless manner which endangers the bodily safety of an individual.
If the conduct described in subsection (a) is committed by a passenger of a moving motor vehicle with the knowledge and consent of the driver of the motor vehicle the driver is accountable for such conduct.
Reckless discharge of a firearm is a Class 4 felony.
This Section does not apply to a peace officer while in the performance of his or her official duties.

(Source: P.A. 88-217.)

A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon when he or she knowingly:
1. Carries on or about his or her person or in any vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; or
2. Carries or possesses on or about his or her person, upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm; and
3. One of the following factors is present:
  1. the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or
    A-5. the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or
  2. the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or
    B-5. the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the offense and the person possessing the pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or
  3. the person possessing the firearm has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card; or
  4. the person possessing the weapon was previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or
  5. the person possessing the weapon was engaged in a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act; or
  6. (blank); or
  7. the person possessing the weapon had an order of protection issued against him or her within the previous 2 years; or
  8. the person possessing the weapon was engaged in the commission or attempted commission of a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence against the person or property of another; or
  9. the person possessing the weapon was under 21 years of age and in possession of a handgun as defined in Section 24-3, unless the person under 21 is engaged in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or 24-2(f).
a-5. "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning given to it in Section5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
"Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.
This Section does not apply to or affect the transportation or possession of weapons that:
1. are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
2. are not immediately accessible; or
3. are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
Sentence.
1. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
2. Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than 3 years.
3. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7 years, except as provided for in Section 5-4.5-110 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
4. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X felony.
The possession of each firearm in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09; 96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1107, eff. 1-1-11; P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 10-6-16; 100-0201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-0003, eff. 6-23-17.)

A person commits the offense of being an armed habitual criminal if he or she receives, sells, possesses, or transfers any firearm after having been convicted a total of 2 or more times of any combination of the following offenses:
1. a forcible felony as defined in Section 2-8 of this Code;
2. unlawful use of a weapon by a felon; aggravated unlawful use of a weapon; aggravated discharge of a firearm; vehicular hijacking; aggravated vehicular hijacking; aggravated battery of a child as described in Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of Section 12-3.05; intimidation; aggravated intimidation; gunrunning; home invasion; or aggravated battery with a firearm as described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05; or
3. any violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act that is punishable as a Class 3 felony or higher.
Sentence. Being an armed habitual criminal is a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11.)

A person commits unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when he or she knowingly:
1. possesses, carries, or conceals on or about his or her person a firearm and firearm ammunition while on any street, road, alley, gangway, sidewalk, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or inside his or her fixed place of business, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang; or
2. possesses or carries in any vehicle a firearm and firearm ammunition which are both immediately accessible at the time of the offense while on any street, road, alley, or any other lands, except when inside his or her own abode or garage, and has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and is a member of a street gang.
Unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member is a Class 2 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to no less than 3 years and no more than 10 years. A period of probation, a term of periodic imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed for the offense of unlawful possession of a firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was loaded or contained firearm ammunition and the court shall sentence the offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment authorized for the Class 2 felony.
For purposes of this Section: "Street gang" or "gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act. "Street gang member" or "gang member" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-829, eff. 12-3-09.)

Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and 24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:
1. Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.
2. Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense, while in the performance of their official duty, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment.
3. Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance of their official duty.
4. Special agents employed by a railroad or a public utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment.
5. Persons licensed as private security contractors, private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or employed by a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency licensed by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their employment or commuting between their homes and places of employment. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of a licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed private security contractor, private detective, or private alarm contractor agency at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.
6. Any person regularly employed in a commercial or industrial operation as a security guard for the protection of persons employed and private property related to such commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation; provided that such security guard has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training that includes the theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.
7. Agents and investigators of the Illinois Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of any investigation for the Commission.
8. Persons employed by a financial institution as a security guard for the protection of other employees and property related to such financial institution, while actually engaged in the performance of their duties, commuting between their homes and places of employment, or traveling between sites or properties owned or operated by such financial institution, and who, as a security guard, is a member of a security force registered with the Department; provided that any person so employed has successfully completed a course of study, approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of training which includes theory of law enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as for those issued under the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the security guard at all times when he or she is in possession of a concealable weapon permitted by his or her firearm control card.
  For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution" means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or company providing armored car services.
9. Any person employed by an armored car company to drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the performance of his duties.
10. Persons who have been classified as peace officers pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.
11. Investigators of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.
12. Special investigators appointed by a State's Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.
  12.5. Probation officers while in the performance of their duties, or while commuting between their homes, places of employment or specific locations that are part of their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge of the circuit for which they are employed.
13. Court Security Officers while in the performance of their official duties, or while commuting between their homes and places of employment, with the consent of the Sheriff.
  13.5. A person employed as an armed security guard at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission who has completed the background screening and training mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.
14. Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.
1. a-5. Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver, or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of the commission of the offense.
2. a-6. Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply to or affect a qualified current or retired law enforcement officer qualified under the laws of this State or under the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act.
Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:
1. Members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, and patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are using their firearms on those target ranges.
2. Duly authorized military or civil organizations while parading, with the special permission of the Governor.
3. Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.
4. Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.
5. Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's permission.
Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any of the following:
1. Peace officers while in performance of their official duties.
2. Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.
3. Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.
4. Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.
5. Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, or ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be discharged by a single function of the firing device, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this paragraph. During transportation, such weapons shall be broken down in a non-functioning state or not immediately accessible.
6. The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery, transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces of the United States, when such activities are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
  The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6) shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the scope of his employment, where such activities involving such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
7. A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length if:
  1. the person has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or
  2. the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally recognized military re-enacting group and the modification is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in possession of a valid and current re-enacting group membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon as modified is not less than 26 inches.
Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase, possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace officer.
Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner, manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.
Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.
Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply to:
1. Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in the performance of their official duty.
2. Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military ordnance.
3. Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics, or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.
4. Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed by the federal government, in connection with the supply of those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons outside this State, or the transportation of explosive bullets to any organization or person exempted in this Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased by an exempted manufacturer.
1. g-5. Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices, firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices, firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing business described in this subsection (g-5). During transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon or not immediately accessible.
2. g-6. Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
3. g-7. Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose duties include the investigation of criminal acts.
4. g-10. Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and 24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in connection with such athlete's training for and participation in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games.
An information or indictment based upon a violation of any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.
Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned to a common carrier operating under license of the State of Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation, carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol, revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 97-465, eff. 8-22-11; 97-676, eff. 6-1-12; 97-936, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1010, eff. 1-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-0174, eff. 7-29-15; 100-0201, eff. 8-18-17; 101-0080, eff. 7-12-19.)

A person commits the offense of unlawful use of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly manufactures, sells, purchases, possesses, or carries any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell. For the purposes of this Section:
- "Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber designed and intended for use in a handgun and whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.
- The definition contained herein shall not be construed to include shotgun shells.
- "Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.
- "Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.
- "Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.
Exemptions. This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:
1. Peace officers.
2. Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.
3. Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties.
4. Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.
5. United States Marshals, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.
6. Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture, import, or sell firearms and firearm ammunition, and actually engaged in any such business, but only with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of such business, such as the manufacture, transportation, or testing of such bullets or ammunition.
  - This exemption does not authorize the general private possession of any armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, but only such possession and activities which are within the lawful scope of a licensed business described in this paragraph.
7. Laboratories having a department of forensic ballistics or specializing in the development of ammunition or explosive ordnance.
8. Manufacture, transportation, or sale of armor piercing bullets, dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells to persons specifically authorized under paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection to possess such bullets or shells.
An information or indictment based upon a violation of this Section need not negate any exemption herein contained. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption.
Sentence. A person convicted of unlawful use of armor piercing bullets shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

Except as provided in subsection (b) of this Section, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly manufacture, sell, offer to sell, or transfer any bullet or shell which is represented to be an armor piercing bullet, a dragon's breath shotgun shell, a bolo shell, or a flechette shell as defined in Section 24-2.1 of this Code.
Exemptions. This Section does not apply to or affect any person authorized under Section 24-2.1 to manufacture, sell, purchase, possess, or carry any armor piercing bullet or any dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell with respect to activities which are within the lawful scope of the exemption therein granted.
An information or indictment based upon a violation of this Section need not negate any exemption herein contained. The defendant shall have the burden of proving such an exemption and that the activities forming the basis of any criminal charge brought pursuant to this Section were within the lawful scope of such exemption.
Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

A person commits the offense of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms when he or she knowingly does any of the following:
1. Sells or gives any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person to any person under 18 years of age.
2. Sells or gives any firearm to a person under 21 years of age who has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent.
3. Sells or gives any firearm to any narcotic addict.
4. Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction.
5. Sells or gives any firearm to any person who has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years.
6. Sells or gives any firearms to any person who is a person with an intellectual disability.
7. Delivers any firearm, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery of the firearm for at least 72 hours after application for its purchase has been made, or delivers a stun gun or taser, incidental to a sale, without withholding delivery the stun gun or taser for at least 24 hours after application for its purchase has been made. However, this paragraph (g) does not apply to:
  1. the sale of a firearm to a law enforcement officer if the seller of the firearm knows that the person to whom he or she is selling the firearm is a law enforcement officer or the sale of a firearm to a person who desires to purchase a firearm for use in promoting the public interest incident to his or her employment as a bank guard, armed truck guard, or other similar employment;
  2. a mail order sale of a firearm from a federally licensed firearms dealer to a nonresident of Illinois under which the firearm is mailed to a federally licensed firearms dealer outside the boundaries of Illinois;
  3. (blank);
  4. the sale of a firearm to a dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923); or
  5. the transfer or sale of any petitor or attendee or non-resident registered competitor or attendee by any dealer licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 at competitive shooting events held at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. For purposes of transfers or sales under subparagraph (5) of this paragraph (g), the Department of Natural Resources shall give notice to the Department of State Police at least 30 calendar days prior to any competitive shooting events at the World Shooting Complex sanctioned by a national governing body. The notification shall be made on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police. The sanctioning body shall provide a list of all registered competitors and attendees at least 24 hours before the events to the Department of State Police. Any changes to the list of registered competitors and attendees shall be forwarded to the Department of State Police as soon as practicable. The Department of State Police must destroy the list of registered competitors and attendees no later than 30 days after the date of the event. Nothing in this paragraph (g) relieves a federally licensed firearm dealer from the requirements of conducting a NICS background check through the Illinois Point of Contact under 18 U.S.C. 922(t).
  For purposes of this paragraph (g), "application" means when the buyer and seller reach an agreement to purchase a firearm. For purposes of this paragraph (g), "national governing body" means a group of persons who adopt rules and formulate policy on behalf of a national firearm sporting organization.
8. While holding any license as a dealer, importer, manufacturer or pawnbroker under the federal Gun Control Act of 1968, manufactures, sells or delivers to any unlicensed person a handgun having a barrel, slide, frame or receiver which is a die casting of zinc alloy or any other nonhomogeneous metal which will melt or deform at a temperature of less than 800 degrees Fahrenheit. For purposes of this paragraph, (1) "firearm" is defined as in the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; and (2) "handgun" is defined as a firearm designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand, and includes a combination of parts from which such a firearm can be assembled.
9. Sells or gives a firearm of any size to any person under 18 years of age who does not possess a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
10. Sells or gives a firearm while engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail without being licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923). In this paragraph (j):
  - A person "engaged in the business" means a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in the activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but does not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms.
  - "With the principal objective of livelihood and profit" means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection; however, proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism.
11. Sells or transfers ownership of a firearm to a person who does not display to the seller or transferor of the firearm either:
  1. a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the provisions of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act; or
  2. a currently valid license to carry a concealed firearm that has previously been issued in the transferee's name by the Department of State Police under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
  3. This paragraph (k) does not apply to the transfer of a firearm to a person who is exempt from the requirement of possessing a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. For the purposes of this Section, a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card means
    1. a Firearm Owner's Identification Card that has not expired or
    2. an approval number issued in accordance with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 or Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall be proof that the Firearm Owner's Identification Card was valid.
  4. In addition to the other requirements of this paragraph (k), all persons who are not federally licensed firearms dealers must also have complied with subsection (a-10) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by determining the validity of a purchaser's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
  5. All sellers or transferors who have complied with the requirements of subparagraph (1) of this paragraph (k) shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from the use or misuse by the transferee of the firearm transferred, except for willful or wanton misconduct on the part of the seller or transferor.
12. Not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, delivers the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. It may be inferred that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.
Paragraph (h) of subsection (A) does not include firearms sold within 6 months after enactment of Public Act 78-355 (approved August 21, 1973, effective October 1, 1973), nor is any firearm legally owned or possessed by any citizen or purchased by any citizen within 6 months after the enactment of Public Act 78-355 subject to confiscation or seizure under the provisions of that Public Act. Nothing in Public Act 78-355 shall be construed to prohibit the gift or trade of any firearm if that firearm was legally held or acquired within 6 months after the enactment of that Public Act.
Sentence.
1. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (c), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony.
2. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (b) or (i) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.
3. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony.
4. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony. Any person convicted of a second or subsequent violation of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a), (b), or (i) of subsection (A) in any school, on the real property comprising a school, within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a school, at a school related activity, or on or within 1,000 feet of any conveyance owned, leased, or contracted by a school or school district to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, regardless of the time of day or time of year at which the offense was committed, commits a Class 1 felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of no less than 5 years and no more than 15 years.
5. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A) in residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, in a public park, in a courthouse, on residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any public park, on the real property comprising any courthouse, or on any public way within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any public park, courthouse, or residential property owned, operated, or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 2 felony.
6. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (j) of subsection (A) commits a Class A misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation is a Class 4 felony.
7. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) commits a Class 4 felony, except that a violation of subparagraph (1) of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) shall not be punishable as a crime or petty offense. A third or subsequent conviction for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) is a Class 1 felony.
8. A person 18 years of age or older convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (a) or (i) of subsection (A), when the firearm that was sold or given to another person under 18 years of age was used in the commission of or attempt to commit a forcible felony, shall be fined or imprisoned, or both, not to exceed the maximum provided for the most serious forcible felony so committed or attempted by the person under 18 years of age who was sold or given the firearm.
9. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (d) of subsection (A) commits a Class 3 felony.
10. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 2 felony if the delivery is of one firearm. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class 1 felony if the delivery is of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years if the delivery is of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years if the delivery is of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms at the same time or within a 3 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years if the delivery is of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms at the same time or within a 4 year period. Any person convicted of unlawful sale or delivery of firearms in violation of paragraph (l) of subsection (A) commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years if the delivery is of 31 or more firearms at the same time or within a 5 year period.
For purposes of this Section:
- "School" means a public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college, or university.
- "School related activity" means any sporting, social, academic, or other activity for which students' attendance or participation is sponsored, organized, or funded in whole or in part by a school or school district.
A prosecution for a violation of paragraph (k) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense. A prosecution for a violation of this Section other than paragraph (g) of subsection (A) of this Section may be commenced within 5 years after the commission of the offense defined in the particular paragraph.

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; 99-0143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-0606, eff. 1-1-19.)

A person commits gunrunning when he or she transfers 3 or more firearms in violation of any of the paragraphs of Section 24-3 of this Code.
Sentence. A person who commits gunrunning:
1. is guilty of a Class 1 felony;
2. is guilty of a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 8 years and not more than 40 years if the transfer is of not less than 11 firearms and not more than 20 firearms;
3. is guilty of a Class X felony for which the sentence shall be a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years and not more than 50 years if the transfer is of more than 20 firearms.

A person who commits gunrunning by transferring firearms to a person who, at the time of the commission of the offense, is under 18 years of age is guilty of a Class X felony.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)

A person commits firearms trafficking when he or she has not been issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and knowingly:
1. brings, or causes to be brought, into this State, a firearm or firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale, delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm or firearm ammunition to any other person; or
2. brings, or causes to be brought, into this State, a firearm and firearm ammunition for the purpose of sale, delivery, or transfer to any other person or with the intent to sell, deliver, or transfer the firearm and firearm ammunition to any other person.
a-5 This Section does not apply to:
1. a person exempt under Section 2 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act from the requirement of having possession of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card previously issued in his or her name by the Department of State Police in order to acquire or possess a firearm or firearm ammunition;
2. a common carrier under subsection (i) of Section 24-2 of this Code; or
3. a non-resident who may lawfully possess a firearm in his or her resident state.
Sentence.
1. Firearms trafficking is a Class 1 felony for which the person, if sentenced to a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than 4 years and not more than 20 years.
2. Firearms trafficking by a person who has been previously convicted of firearms trafficking, gunrunning, or a felony offense for the unlawful sale, delivery, or transfer of a firearm or firearm ammunition in this State or another jurisdiction is a Class X felony.

(2016 Public Act 99-0885 § 5)

A person commits the offense of unlawful possession of firearms or firearm ammunition when:
1. He is under 18 years of age and has in his possession any firearm of a size which may be concealed upon the person; or
2. He is under 21 years of age, has been convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged delinquent and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or
3. He is a narcotic addict and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or
4. He has been a patient in a mental hospital within the past 5 years and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or
5. He is a person with an intellectual disability and has any firearms or firearm ammunition in his possession; or
6. He has in his possession any explosive bullet.
  - For purposes of this paragraph "explosive bullet" means the projectile portion of an ammunition cartridge which contains or carries an explosive charge which will explode upon contact with the flesh of a human or an animal. "Cartridge" means a tubular metal case having a projectile affixed at the front thereof and a cap or primer at the rear end thereof, with the propellant contained in such tube between the projectile and the cap.
Sentence.
- Unlawful possession of firearms, other than handguns, and firearm ammunition is a Class A misdemeanor. Unlawful possession of handguns is a Class 4 felony. The possession of each firearm or firearm ammunition in violation of this Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
Nothing in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section prohibits a person under 18 years of age from participating in any lawful recreational activity with a firearm such as, but not limited to, practice shooting at targets upon established public or private target ranges or hunting, trapping, or fishing in accordance with the Wildlife Code or the Fish and Aquatic Life Code.

(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 99-0143, eff. 7-27-15.)

A person commits the offense of unlawful discharge of firearm projectiles when he or she knowingly or recklessly uses an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell in violation of this Section. For purposes of this Section:
- "Armor piercing bullet" means any handgun bullet or handgun ammunition with projectiles or projectile cores constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper or depleted uranium, or fully jacketed bullets larger than 22 caliber whose jacket has a weight of more than 25% of the total weight of the projectile, and excluding those handgun projectiles whose cores are composed of soft materials such as lead or lead alloys, zinc or zinc alloys, frangible projectiles designed primarily for sporting purposes, and any other projectiles or projectile cores that the U. S. Secretary of the Treasury finds to be primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes or industrial purposes or that otherwise does not constitute "armor piercing ammunition" as that term is defined by federal law.
- "Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric mesh metal as the projectile and is designed for the purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flame-thrower.
- "Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels as projectiles 2 or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.
- "Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and expels 2 or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or 2 or more solid dart-type projectiles.
A person commits a Class X felony when he or she, knowing that a firearm, as defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, is loaded with an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell, intentionally or recklessly discharges such firearm and such bullet or shell strikes any other person.
Any person who possesses, concealed on or about his or her person, an armor piercing bullet, dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell and a firearm suitable for the discharge thereof is guilty of a Class 2 felony.
This Section does not apply to or affect any of the following:
1. Peace officers;
2. Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense;
3. Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or the Illinois National Guard while in the performance of their official duties;
4. Federal officials required to carry firearms, while engaged in the performance of their official duties;
5. United States Marshals, while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

(Source: P.A. 92-423, eff. 1-1-02.)

Unlawful Sale or Delivery of Firearms on the Premises of Any School, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or any conveyance owned, leased or contracted by a school to transport students to or from school or a school related activity, or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency. Any person 18 years of age or older who sells, gives or delivers any firearm to any person under 18 years of age in any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development, on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year or residential property owned, operated or managed by a public housing agency or leased by a public housing agency as part of a scattered site or mixed-income development commits a Class 3 felony. School is defined, for the purposes of this Section, as any public or private elementary or secondary school, community college, college or university. This does not apply to peace officers or to students carrying or possessing firearms for use in school training courses, parades, target shooting on school ranges, or otherwise with the consent of school authorities and which firearms are transported unloaded and enclosed in a suitable case, box or transportation package.

(Source: P.A. 91-673, eff. 12-22-99.)

It shall be unlawful for any person who holds a license to sell at retail any alcoholic liquor issued by the Illinois Liquor Control Commission or local liquor control commissioner under the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or an agent or employee of the licensee to sell or deliver to any other person a firearm in or on the real property of the establishment where the licensee is licensed to sell alcoholic liquors unless the sale or delivery of the firearm is otherwise lawful under this Article and under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
Sentence. A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 87-591.)

For purposes of this Section, "firearms transaction record form" means a form:
1. executed by a transferee of a firearm stating:
  1. the transferee's name and address (including county or similar political subdivision); (ii) whether the transferee is a citizen of the United States; (iii) the transferee's State of residence; and (iv) the date and place of birth, height, weight, and race of the transferee; and
2. on which the transferee certifies that he or she is not prohibited by federal law from transporting or shipping a firearm in interstate or foreign commerce or receiving a firearm that has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce or possessing a firearm in or affecting commerce.
A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm who knowingly purchases or attempts to purchase a firearm with the intent to deliver that firearm to another person who is prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm.
A person commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm when he or she, in purchasing or attempting to purchase a firearm, intentionally provides false or misleading information on a United States Department of the Treasury, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms firearms transaction record form.
Exemption. It is not a violation of subsection (b) of this Section for a person to make a gift or loan of a firearm to a person who is not prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm if the transfer of the firearm is made in accordance with Section 3 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
Sentence.
1. A person who commits the offense of unlawful purchase of a firearm:
  1. is guilty of a Class 2 felony for purchasing or attempting to purchase one firearm;
  2. is guilty of a Class 1 felony for purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 2 firearms and not more than 5 firearms at the same time or within a one year period;
  3. is guilty of a Class X felony for which the offender shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 9 years and not more than 40 years for purchasing or attempting to purchase not less than 6 firearms at the same time or within a 2 year period.
2. In addition to any other penalty that may be imposed for a violation of this Section, the court may sentence a person convicted of a violation of subsection (c) of this Section to a fine not to exceed $250,000 for each violation.
A prosecution for unlawful purchase of a firearm may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 95-882, eff. 1-1-09.)

For the purposes of this Section, "wireless telephone" means a device that is capable of transmitting or receiving telephonic communications without a wire connecting the device to the telephone network.
A person commits the offense of unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone when he or she manufactures, sells, transfers, purchases, possesses, or carries a firearm shaped or designed to appear as a wireless telephone.
This Section does not apply to or affect the sale to or possession of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone by a peace officer.
Sentence. Unlawful use of a firearm in the shape of a wireless telephone is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 92-155, eff. 1-1-02.)

A person commits the offense of use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense when he or she knowingly uses a stolen firearm in the commission of any offense and the person knows that the firearm was stolen.
Sentence. Use of a stolen firearm in the commission of an offense is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-190, eff. 1-1-10.)

A person commits possession of a stolen firearm when he or she, not being entitled to the possession of a firearm, possesses the firearm, knowing it to have been stolen or converted. The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.
Possession of a stolen firearm is a Class 2 felony.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

A person commits aggravated possession of a stolen firearm when he or she:
1. Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 2 and not more than 5 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a one-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.
2. Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 6 and not more than 10 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 2-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.
3. Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 11 and not more than 20 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 3-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.
4. Not being entitled to the possession of not less than 21 and not more than 30 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 4-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.
5. Not being entitled to the possession of more than 30 firearms, possesses those firearms at the same time or within a 5-year period, knowing the firearms to have been stolen or converted.
The trier of fact may infer that a person who possesses a firearm with knowledge that its serial number has been removed or altered has knowledge that the firearm is stolen or converted.
Sentence.
1. A person who violates paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class 1 felony.
2. A person who violates paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 30 years.
3. A person who violates paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 40 years.
4. A person who violates paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 50 years.
5. A person who violates paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of this Section commits a Class X felony for which he or she shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6 years and not more than 60 years.

(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-347, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13.)

Any seller of firearms of a size which may be concealed upon the person, other than a manufacturer selling to a bona fide wholesaler or retailer or a wholesaler selling to a bona fide retailer, shall keep a register of all firearms sold or given away.
Such register shall contain the date of the sale or gift, the name, address, age and occupation of the person to whom the weapon is sold or given, the price of the weapon, the kind, description and number of the weapon, and the purpose for which it is purchased and obtained.
Such seller on demand of a peace officer shall produce for inspection the register and allow such peace officer to inspect such register and all stock on hand.
Sentence.

Violation of this Section is a Class B misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 77-2638.)

If a person who possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and who possesses or acquires a firearm thereafter loses the firearm, or if the firearm is stolen from the person, the person must report the loss or theft to the local law enforcement agency within 72 hours after obtaining knowledge of the loss or theft.
A law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall take a written report and shall, as soon as practical, enter the firearm's serial number as stolen into the Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS).
A person shall not be in violation of this Section if:
1. the failure to report is due to an act of God, act of war, or inability of a law enforcement agency to receive the report;
2. the person is hospitalized, in a coma, or is otherwise seriously physically or mentally impaired as to prevent the person from reporting; or
3. the person's designee makes a report if the person is unable to make the report.
Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a petty offense for a first violation. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.

(Source: P.A. 98-508, eff. 8-19-13.)

Any person who shall knowingly or intentionally change, alter, remove or obliterate the name of the importer's or manufacturer's serial number of any firearm commits a Class 2 felony.
A person who possesses any firearm upon which any such importer's or manufacturer's serial number has been changed, altered, removed or obliterated commits a Class 3 felony.
Nothing in this Section shall prevent a person from making repairs, replacement of parts, or other changes to a firearm if those repairs, replacement of parts, or changes cause the removal of the name of the maker, model, or other marks of identification other than the serial number on the firearm's frame or receiver.
A prosecution for a violation of this Section may be commenced within 6 years after the commission of the offense.

(Source: P.A. 93-906, eff. 8-11-04.)

Upon conviction of an offense in which a weapon was used or possessed by the offender, any weapon seized shall be confiscated by the trial court.
Any stolen weapon so confiscated, when no longer needed for evidentiary purposes, shall be returned to the person entitled to possession, if known. After the disposition of a criminal case or in any criminal case where a final judgment in the case was not entered due to the death of the defendant, and when a confiscated weapon is no longer needed for evidentiary purposes, and when in due course no legitimate claim has been made for the weapon, the court may transfer the weapon to the sheriff of the county who may proceed to destroy it, or may in its discretion order the weapon preserved as property of the governmental body whose police agency seized the weapon, or may in its discretion order the weapon to be transferred to the Department of State Police for use by the crime laboratory system, for training purposes, or for any other application as deemed appropriate by the Department. If, after the disposition of a criminal case, a need still exists for the use of the confiscated weapon for evidentiary purposes, the court may transfer the weapon to the custody of the State Department of Corrections for preservation. The court may not order the transfer of the weapon to any private individual or private organization other than to return a stolen weapon to its rightful owner.
The provisions of this Section shall not apply to violations of the Fish and Aquatic Life Code or the Wildlife Code. Confiscation of weapons for Fish and Aquatic Life Code and Wildlife Code violations shall be only as provided in those Codes.
Any mental hospital that admits a person as an inpatient pursuant to any of the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall confiscate any firearms in the possession of that person at the time of admission, or at any time the firearms are discovered in the person's possession during the course of hospitalization. The hospital shall, as soon as possible following confiscation, transfer custody of the firearms to the appropriate law enforcement agency. The hospital shall give written notice to the person from whom the firearm was confiscated of the identity and address of the law enforcement agency to which it has given the firearm.

The law enforcement agency shall maintain possession of any firearm it obtains pursuant to this subsection for a minimum of 90 days. Thereafter, the firearm may be disposed of pursuant to the provisions of subsection (b) of this Section.

(Source: P.A. 91-696, eff. 4-13-00.)

In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed, a court shall order any person convicted of a violation of this Article to perform community service for not less than 30 and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county board of the county where the offense was committed. In addition, whenever any person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under this Article, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the performance of the community service.

This Section does not apply when the court imposes a sentence of incarceration.

(Source: P.A. 88-558, eff. 1-1-95; 89-8, eff. 3-21-95.)

Upon recovering a firearm from the possession of anyone who is not permitted by federal or State law to possess a firearm, a local law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace when necessary, to determine how and from whom the person gained possession of the firearm. Upon recovering a firearm that was used in the commission of any offense classified as a felony or upon recovering a firearm that appears to have been lost, mislaid, stolen, or otherwise unclaimed, a local law enforcement agency shall use the best available information, including a firearms trace when necessary, to determine prior ownership of the firearm.
Local law enforcement shall, when appropriate, use the National Tracing Center of the Federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms in complying with subsection (a) of this Section.
Local law enforcement agencies shall use the Illinois Department of State Police Law Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) Gun File to enter all stolen, seized, or recovered firearms as prescribed by LEADS regulations and policies.

(Source: P.A. 91-364, eff. 1-1-00; 92-300, eff. 1-1-02.)

Except as provided in subsection (c), it is unlawful for any person to store or leave, within premises under his or her control, a firearm if the person knows or has reason to believe that a minor under the age of 14 years who does not have a Firearm Owners Identification Card is likely to gain access to the firearm without the lawful permission of the minor's parent, guardian, or person having charge of the minor, and the minor causes death or great bodily harm with the firearm, unless the firearm is:
1. secured by a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render a firearm temporarily inoperable; or
2. placed in a securely locked box or container; or
3. placed in some other location that a reasonable person would believe to be secure from a minor under the age of 14 years.
Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
Subsection (a) does not apply:
1. if the minor under 14 years of age gains access to a firearm and uses it in a lawful act of self-defense or defense of another; or
2. to any firearm obtained by a minor under the age of 14 because of an unlawful entry of the premises by the minor or another person.
For the purposes of this Section, "firearm" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

(Source: P.A. 91-18, eff. 1-1-00.)

It is unlawful for a person licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923) to offer for sale, sell, or transfer a handgun to a person not licensed under that Act, unless he or she sells or includes with the handgun a device or mechanism, other than the firearm safety, designed to render the handgun temporarily inoperable or inaccessible. This includes but is not limited to:
1. An external device that is:
  1. attached to the handgun with a key or combination lock; and
  2. designed to prevent the handgun from being discharged unless the device has been deactivated.
2. An integrated mechanical safety, disabling, or locking device that is:
  1. built into the handgun; and
  2. designed to prevent the handgun from being discharged unless the device has been deactivated.
Sentence. A person who violates this Section is guilty of a Class C misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $1,000. A second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor.
For the purposes of this Section, "handgun" has the meaning ascribed to it in clause (h)(2) of subsection (A) of Section 24-3 of this Code.
This Section does not apply to:
1. the purchase, sale, or transportation of a handgun to or by a federally licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer that provides or services a handgun for:
  1. personnel of any unit of the federal government;
  2. members of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard;
  3. law enforcement personnel of the State or any local law enforcement agency in the State while acting within the scope of their official duties; and
  4. an organization that is required by federal law governing its specific business or activity to maintain handguns and applicable ammunition;
2. a firearm modified to be permanently inoperative;
3. the sale or transfer of a handgun by a federally licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer described in item (1) of this subsection (d);
4. the sale or transfer of a handgun by a federally licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer to a lawful customer outside the State; or
5. an antique firearm.

(Source: P.A. 94-390, eff. 1-1-06.)

It is an affirmative defense to a violation of a municipal ordinance that prohibits, regulates, or restricts the private ownership of firearms if the individual who is charged with the violation used the firearm in an act of self-defense or defense of another as defined in Sections 7-1 and 7-2 of this Code when on his or her land or in his or her abode or fixed place of business.

(Source: P.A. 93-1048, eff. 11-16-04.)

It is unlawful for any person to board or attempt to board any commercial or charter aircraft, knowingly having in his or her possession any firearm, explosive of any type, or other lethal or dangerous weapon.
This Section does not apply to any person authorized by either the federal government or any state government to carry firearms, but the person so exempted from the provisions of this Section shall notify the commander of any aircraft he or she is about to board that he or she does possess a firearm and show identification satisfactory to the aircraft commander that he or she is authorized to carry that firearm.
Any person purchasing a ticket to board any commercial or charter aircraft shall by that purchase consent to a search of his or her person or personal belongings by the company selling the ticket to him or her. The person may refuse to submit to a search of his or her person or personal belongings by the aircraft company, but the person refusing may be denied the right to board the commercial or charter aircraft at the discretion of the carrier. Such a refusal creates no inference of unlawful conduct.
Any evidence of criminal activity found during a search made pursuant to this Section shall be admissible in legal proceedings for the sole purpose of supporting a charge of violation of this Section and is inadmissible as evidence in any legal proceeding for any other purpose, except in the prosecution of offenses related to weapons as set out in Article 24 of this Code.
No action may be brought against any commercial or charter airline company operating in this State for the refusal of that company to permit a person to board any aircraft if that person refused to be searched as set out in subsection (c) of this Section.
Violation of this Section is a Class 4 felony.

(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10.)

This Act may be cited as the Firearm Seizure Act.

(Source: P.A. 86-1324.)

When a complaint is made to any circuit court that a person possessing a firearm or firearms has threatened to use a firearm illegally, the court shall examine on oath such complainant, and any witnesses which may be produced, reduce the complaint to writing and have it subscribed and sworn to by the complainant. If the court is satisfied that there is any danger of such illegal use of firearms, it shall issue a warrant requiring the apprehension of such person, hereafter referred to as the defendant, for appearance before the court. Such warrant shall also authorize the seizure of any firearm in the possession of the defendant.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 2693.)

When the defendant is brought before the court, if the charge is controverted the testimony produced on both sides shall be heard. When it appears to the court that the defendant has threatened to use any firearm illegally, and it appears to the court that the surrender of such firearm would serve to keep the peace, the court shall order any firearm taken from the defendant to be kept by the State for safekeeping during a stated period of time not to exceed one year. The firearm or firearms shall be returned to the defendant at the end of the stated period. If such firearm was not seized when the defendant was brought before the court, the defendant may be ordered by the court to produce such firearm for safekeeping as provided above, and upon failure to produce such weapon within a time period established by the court, the defendant may be punished by the court as a contempt.

(Source: Laws 1965, p. 2693.)

If, however, it should appear to the court that the complaint is unfounded, the defendant shall be dismissed. When, in addition, the court is of the opinion that the proceeding was commenced maliciously without probable cause, it may enter judgment against the complainant for the costs of the prosecution.

(Source: P.A. 84-547.)

In lieu of requiring the surrender of any firearm, the court may require the defendant to give a recognizance as provided in Article 110A of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)

Any action brought under this Act is a civil action, governed by the Civil Practice Law as now or hereafter amended and by the Supreme Court Rules as now or hereafter adopted in relation to that Law. Appeals may be taken as in other civil cases.

(Source: P.A. 82-783.)

As used in this Part, the following definitions apply unless the context clearly requires a different meaning:

"Act" means Firearm Owner's Identification Card Act [430 ILCS 65].
"Antique firearm" means, for the purpose of 430 ILCS 65/1.1(4), any firearm with a matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar type of ignition system manufactured in or before 1898, provided it is not likely to be used as a weapon.
"Applicant" means an applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
"Department" means the Department of State Police.
"Director" means the Director of State Police or designee.
"Firearm" and "firearm ammunition" mean the terms as defined in Section 1.1 of the Act.
"Firearm Owner's Identification Card" means the term as defined in Section 6 of the Act.
"Law enforcement official" means any peace officer, warden, superintendent, or keeper of prisons, penitentiaries, jails, and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of a criminal offense, and employees of police laboratories having a department or section of forensic firearm identification.
"Mental institution" means any medical facility or part of any medical facility used primarily for the care or treatment of persons for mental illness.
"Mentally retarded" means a person who has significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates before the age of 18 years.
"Narcotics" means any substance controlled by the Controlled Substances Act.

Application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card will be made by completing an application form provided by the Department. These forms will be made available through the Firearms Services Bureau, P.O. Box 3677, Springfield, Illinois 62708-3677. All forms must be properly completed, accompanied by the correct fee and a photograph, and mailed to the address indicated on the application form. Other than in regard to an applicant who is employed as an armed security officer at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and who is not an Illinois resident, any requirement for a driver's license and any requirement for a driver's license number shall mean an Illinois driver's license and an Illinois driver's license number. In regard to an applicant who is employed as an armed security officer at a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission and who is not an Illinois resident, any requirement for a driver's license and any requirement for a driver's license number shall mean his or her driver's license number or state identification card number from his or her state of residence. All Firearm Owner's Identification Cards issued shall remain the property of the Department.

(Source: Amended at 27 Ill. Reg. 10308, effective June 26, 2003)

A Firearm Owner's Identification Card shall expire five years from the date of issuance. The first day of the month in which the related Firearm Owner's Identification Card Application was received is designated as the date of issuance for purposes of this Part. The Department shall, at least 30 days prior to the expiration of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, forward to the last known address of each person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card is to expire a notification of the expiration and an application which may be used to apply for renewal. It is the registrant's responsibility to notify the Department in writing of the registrant's change of address.

(Source: Amended at 22 Ill. Reg. 16629, effective September 8, 1998)

Every applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, under the age of 21, shall have the written consent of his/her parent or legal guardian to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition, prior to issuance of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the consent is given by a legal guardian, a certified copy of the guardianship court order must be submitted with the application. The applicant cannot have been adjudged delinquent or convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense. The parent or legal guardian must file an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the Department stating that he/she is not an individual prohibited from having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(Source: Section 1230.40 renumbered to Section 1230.50, and new Section 1230.40 adopted at 17. Ill. Reg. 18856, effective October 18, 1993)

The Department will deny an application for or revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card if the Department finds that the applicant or the person to whom such a Firearm Owner's Identification Card was issued is or was at the time of issuance prohibited from acquiring or possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois state statute or by federal law or does not otherwise qualify under Illinois statute to possess a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. Any card seized, revoked, or otherwise inappropriately possessed shall be returned to the Department of State Police, Firearms Services Bureau.

(Source: Amended at 27 Ill. Reg. 10308, effective June 26, 2003)

The Department shall notify, in writing to the last known address, every person whose application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied and every person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card is revoked of the specific grounds upon which the application has been denied or the Firearm Owner's Identification Card has been revoked. In those situations for which written notification to the last known address is ineffective or unnecessarily delays revocation, additional alternative means may be used to communicate notification and effectuate revocation. Individuals whose cards have been revoked shall immediately return the revoked card to the Department of State Police, Firearms Services Bureau.

(Source: Amended at 27 Ill. Reg. 10308, effective June 26, 2003)

An individual whose application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card is denied or whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card is revoked may petition the Department for relief unless the denial or revocation was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated stalking, domestic battery, any violation of either the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the Cannabis Control Act that is classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, or any felony violation of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence for a hearing upon such denial or revocation.
Individuals who wish to request relief from the Department shall initiate such a request by providing written notice of this intention to the Department.
Upon receiving written notice, the Department shall investigate the circumstances surrounding the denial or revocation action; and if the Director is satisfied that substantial justice has not been done, the Director may grant relief. In the event the Director desires additional information concerning the circumstances surrounding the denial or revocation action, the Director may schedule a fact finding conference with the petitioner.
At a fact finding conference, the petitioner may be represented by counsel or any other person and may present any evidence or information relating to the Department's action.
The Director may provide relief as a result of the fact finding conference.
If the Director does not provide relief as a result of the investigation or a fact finding conference, the petitioner may petition for a hearing.
The administrative law judge for contested hearings shall be the Director or an attorney licensed to practice law in Illinois appointed by the Director. The administrative law judge may be disqualified for bias or conflict of interest.
The procedures for the hearing shall be as described in Article 10 of the Administrative Procedure Act [5 ILCS 100/Art. 10] and as ordered by the administrative law judge.
In the event relief is denied, a new application from the petitioner will not be accepted until two years have passed since the date of the last denial.

(Source: Amended at 27 Ill. Reg. 10308, effective June 26, 2003)

All final decisions of the Department under this Act are subject to judicial review under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law (Ill. Rev. Stat. 1991, ch. 110, par. 3-101 through 112) [735 ILCS 5/3-101 through 112].

(Source: Added at 17 Ill. Reg. 18856, effective October 18, 1993)

At the time of acquisition of a firearm or firearm ammunition to be used by a law enforcement official in the performance of official duties, the law enforcement official may present a certified letter from the chief administrator or his designee of the employing law enforcement agency to the seller of the firearm or firearm ammunition in lieu of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card. This letter must contain the following information:

A statement that the officer is a law enforcement officer;
A statement that the firearm or firearm ammunition described is intended for use in the performance of official law enforcement duties;
The acquiring officer's signature and star, badge, or other numeric identifier;
A description of the firearm and firearm ammunition to be acquired;
The date, title/rank, and signature of the chief administrator or his designee;
The name and address of the law enforcement agency; and
A statement limiting the validity of the certification to 60 days from the date of issuance.

(Source: Section 1230.90 renumbered from Section 1230.50 and amended at 17 Ill. Reg. 18856, effective October 18, 1993)

The Department may reduce by interlineation the amount of any check.
The drawer of the check shall be notified in writing of such reduction.
Any check reduced pursuant to subsection (a) shall be endorsed in a manner that shall reflect the reduction.
All applications upon reprinting shall contain the following authorization statement: "My signature authorizes the Department to reduce the amount of my personal check if the amount submitted is not correct. I understand this will be done only if the amount submitted is greater than the required fee.

(Source: Amended at 27 Ill. Reg. 10308, effective June 26, 2003)

Application fees relating to denied applications will not be refunded.

(Source: Added at 22 Ill. Reg. 16629, effective September 8, 1998)

(Source: Repealed at 17 Ill. Reg. 18856, effective October 18, 1993)

In addition to the definitions included in this Section, any additional definitions created in Section 5 of the Act apply.
"Act" means the Firearms Concealed Carry Act [430 ILCS 66].
"All Applicable State and Federal Laws Relating to the Ownership, Storage, Carry and Transportation of Firearms Instruction" means, at a minimum, instruction on the Act in its entirety, with emphasis on Sections 10(h) and 65 of the Act; the Firearm Owner Identification Card Act [430 ILCS 65]; relevant portions of the Criminal Code of 2012, including but not limited to, use of force in defense of a person [720 ILCS 5/7-1], use of force in defense of dwelling [720 ILCS 5/7-2], use of force in defense of other property [720 ILCS 5/7-3], and unlawful use of a weapon [720 ILCS 5/Art. 24].
"Application Verification Document" means the documents electronically generated by the Department upon submission of a completed Firearms Instructor Approval Application, which authorizes the Department to verify the answers given and confirm the validity of the information provided.
"B-27 Silhouette Target" means any target that complies with the National Rifle Association of America B-27 50 Yard Target Specifications.
"Basic Principles of Marksmanship Instruction" means, at a minimum, instruction on stance, grip, sight alignment, sight picture and trigger control.
"Care, Cleaning, Loading and Unloading of a Concealable Firearm Instruction" means, at a minimum, instruction on gun identification, ammunition identification and selection, safety and cleaning protocols, cleaning equipment, and firearms loading and unloading.
"CCLRB" means the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board.
"Department" means the Illinois Department of State Police.
"FCCL" means Firearms Concealed Carry License issued pursuant to the Act.
"Firearms Safety Instruction" means, at a minimum, instruction on the four basic firearms handling safety rules, home storage, vehicle storage and public storage.
"FOID Act" means the Firearm Owner's Identification Card Act [430 ILCS 65].
"Four Basic Firearms Handling Safety Rules" means:
Keep the firearm pointed in a safe direction and never at anything the shooter is not willing to destroy;
Keep finger off the trigger until the sights are aligned on target and the shooter is ready to shoot and do not press on the trigger unless the shooter intends to fire;
Treat all guns as though they are always loaded; and
Know the target and what lies beyond the target.
For purposes of Section 75(e) of the Act, "hit the target" shall mean hit the scoring area of the B-27 Silhouette Target.
"Illinois Resident" means a person who qualifies for an Illinois driver's license, other than a Temporary Visitor's Driver's License (TVDL), or an Illinois State identification card due to his or her establishment of a primary domicile in Illinois.
"In Person" means during a live, face-to-face interaction and not via video conference, webinar or any other electronic media, except that pre-recorded materials may be used by an instructor during a live presentation.
"Law Enforcement Official" means an employee of a government agency who:
is authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution or incarceration of any person for any violation of law;
has statutory powers of arrest or custodial detention;
is authorized by the agency to carry a firearm while on duty;
is not the subject of any disciplinary action by the employing agency that could result in termination;
meets the standards established by the agency that require the employee to regularly qualify in the use of a firearm; and
is not prohibited by federal law from possessing a firearm.
"LEADS" means the Illinois Law Enforcement Agencies Data System maintained by the Department. It is a statewide, computerized telecommunications system designed to provide services, information and capabilities to the Illinois law enforcement and criminal justice community.
"NICS" means the National Instant Criminal Background Check System maintained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
"NLETS" means the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System.
"Public Storage" means storage at publicly-owned location, for example in a storage locker provided by a public or government facility, which may or may not have its own storage rules or protocols.
"Substantially Similar" means the comparable state regulates who may carry firearms, concealed or otherwise, in public; prohibits all who have involuntary mental health admissions, and those with voluntary admissions within the past 5 years, from carrying firearms, concealed or otherwise, in public; reports denied persons to NICS; and participates in reporting persons authorized to carry firearms, concealed or otherwise, in public through NLETs.
"United States Armed Forces" shall, for purposes of Section 75 of the Act, include all branches of the U.S. Military (Army, Air Force, Coast Guard, Marine Corps and Navy), as well as the Federal Reserve Components (Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps and Coast Guard) and National Guard (Army and Air).
"Valid Driver's License" or "Valid State Identification Card" means current and not suspended, revoked, expired, cancelled, invalidated, denied or disqualified. It does not include a temporary visitor's driver's license (TVDL).
"Valid Firearms Instructor Certification" means certification as:
a Law Enforcement Firearms Instructor; or
a Firearms Instructor qualified to teach either handgun safety or a handgun training course that requires in-person classroom or lecture sessions totaling at least 3 hours and a live handgun firing component that was issued by:
a law enforcement entity;
a State or federal government entity (e.g., Military, Coast Guard, etc.);
the Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board;
the National Rifle Association of America (NRA); or
any other entity recognized by at least 3 state or federal government agencies as being qualified to provide education and training in the safe and proper use of firearms that maintains a program or process to certify instructors.
"Weapons Handling Instruction" means, at a minimum:
handgun fundamentals;
handgun concealment;
live fire qualification instruction; and
live fire qualification with a concealable firearm using a B-27 silhouette target consisting of a minimum of 30 rounds and 10 rounds from a distance of 5 yards, 10 rounds from a distance of 7 yards and 10 rounds from a distance of 10 yards.
"Within a Vehicle" means within the passenger compartment of a passenger or recreational vehicle or within a lockable container secured to a motorcycle.

AUTHORITY: Implements the Firearm Concealed Carry Act [430 ILCS 66] and authorized by Section 95 of that Act.