Florida Firearm Laws :: American Gun Owners Alliance

1. The Governor is responsible for meeting the dangers presented to this state and its people by emergencies. In the event of an emergency beyond local control, the Governor, or, in the Governor's absence, her or his successor as provided by law, may assume direct operational control over all or any part of the emergency management functions within this state, and she or he shall have the power through proper process of law to carry out the provisions of this section. The Governor is authorized to delegate such powers as she or he may deem prudent.
2. Pursuant to the authority vested in her or him under paragraph (a), the Governor may issue executive orders, proclamations, and rules and may amend or rescind them. Such executive orders, proclamations, and rules shall have the force and effect of law.
A state of emergency shall be declared by executive order or proclamation of the Governor if she or he finds an emergency has occurred or that the occurrence or the threat thereof is imminent. The state of emergency shall continue until the Governor finds that the threat or danger has been dealt with to the extent that the emergency conditions no longer exist and she or he terminates the state of emergency by executive order or proclamation, but no state of emergency may continue for longer than 60 days unless renewed by the Governor. The Legislature by concurrent resolution may terminate a state of emergency at any time. Thereupon, the Governor shall issue an executive order or proclamation ending the state of emergency. All executive orders or proclamations issued under this section shall indicate the nature of the emergency, the area or areas threatened, and the conditions which have brought the emergency about or which make possible its termination. An executive order or proclamation shall be promptly disseminated by means calculated to bring its contents to the attention of the general public; and, unless the circumstances attendant upon the emergency prevent or impede such filing, the order or proclamation shall be filed promptly with the Department of State and in the offices of the county commissioners in the counties to which the order or proclamation applies.
An executive order or proclamation of a state of emergency shall:
1. Activate the emergency mitigation, response, and recovery aspects of the state, local, and interjurisdictional emergency management plans applicable to the political subdivision or area in question; and
2. Be authority for the deployment and use of any forces to which the plan or plans apply and for the use or distribution of any supplies, equipment, and materials and facilities assembled, stockpiled, or arranged to be made available pursuant to ss. 252.31-252.90 or any other provision of law relating to emergencies.
3. Identify whether the state of emergency is due to a minor, major, or catastrophic disaster.
  1. For a major or catastrophic disaster, the proclamation is authority for a health care practitioner licensed in another state to assist in providing health care in the disaster area according to the provisions specified in the proclamation.
  2. For a catastrophic disaster, the proclamation constitutes a formal request for mobilization of the military, which shall be communicated to the President of the United States.
During the continuance of a state of emergency, the Governor is commander in chief of the Florida National Guard and of all other forces available for emergency duty. To the greatest extent practicable, the Governor shall delegate or assign command authority by prior arrangement embodied in appropriate executive orders or rules, but nothing herein restricts the Governor's authority to do so by orders issued at the time of the emergency.
In addition to any other powers conferred upon the Governor by law, she or he may:
1. Suspend the provisions of any regulatory statute prescribing the procedures for conduct of state business or the orders or rules of any state agency, if strict compliance with the provisions of any such statute, order, or rule would in any way prevent, hinder, or delay necessary action in coping with the emergency.
2. Utilize all available resources of the state government and of each political subdivision of the state, as reasonably necessary to cope with the emergency.
3. Transfer the direction, personnel, or functions of state departments and agencies or units thereof for the purpose of performing or facilitating emergency services.
4. Subject to any applicable requirements for compensation under s. 252.43, commandeer or utilize any private property if she or he finds this necessary to cope with the emergency.
5. Direct and compel the evacuation of all or part of the population from any stricken or threatened area within the state if she or he deems this action necessary for the preservation of life or other emergency mitigation, response, or recovery.
6. Prescribe routes, modes of transportation, and destinations in connection with evacuation.
7. Control ingress and egress to and from an emergency area, the movement of persons within the area, and the occupancy of premises therein.
8. Suspend or limit the sale, dispensing, or transportation of alcoholic beverages, firearms, explosives, and combustibles. However, nothing contained in ss. 252.31-252.90 shall be construed to authorize the seizure, taking, or confiscation of firearms that are lawfully possessed, unless a person is engaged in the commission of a criminal act.
9. Make provision for the availability and use of temporary emergency housing.
10. Take effective measures for limiting or suspending lighting devices and appliances, gas and water mains, electric power distribution, and all other utility services in the general public interest.
11. Take measures concerning the conduct of civilians, the movement and cessation of movement of pedestrian and vehicular traffic prior to, during, and subsequent to drills and actual or threatened emergencies, the calling of public meetings and gatherings, and the evacuation and reception of civilian population, as provided in the emergency management plan of the state and political subdivisions thereof.
12. Authorize the use of forces already mobilized as the result of an executive order, rule, or proclamation to assist the private citizens of the state in cleanup and recovery operations during emergencies when proper permission to enter onto or into private property has been obtained from the property owner. The provisions of s. 768.28(9) apply to this paragraph.
13. Authorize businesses and their employees who sell commodities as defined in s. 501.160(1)(a) to exceed the times of curfews for the purpose of ensuring that the supplies of commodities are made available to the public and direct local law enforcement to assist and accommodate those businesses and their employees in ensuring that commodities are available in coping with the emergency.
14. By executive order, authorize the operator of solid waste disposal facilities to extend operating hours to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of the general public.
The Governor shall take such action and give such direction to state and local law enforcement officers and agencies as may be reasonable and necessary for the purpose of securing compliance with the provisions of ss. 252.31-252.90 and with the orders and rules made pursuant thereto.
The Governor shall employ such measures and give such directions to the Department of Health and the Agency for Health Care Administration as may be reasonably necessary for the purpose of securing compliance with the provisions of ss. 252.31-252.90 or with the findings or recommendations of such agency of health by reason of conditions arising from emergencies or threats of emergency.
The Governor shall delegate emergency responsibilities to the officers and agencies of the state and of the political subdivisions thereof prior to an emergency or threat of an emergency and shall utilize the services and facilities of existing officers and agencies of the state and of the political subdivisions thereof, including their personnel and other resources, as the primary emergency management forces of the state, and all such officers and agencies shall cooperate with and extend their services and facilities to the division, as it may require.
The Governor and the division shall establish agencies and offices and appoint executive, professional, technical, clerical, and other personnel as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of ss. 252.31-252.90.
The Governor shall formulate and execute plans and rules for the control of traffic in order to provide for the rapid and safe movement or evacuation over public highways and streets of people, troops, or vehicles and materials for national defense or for use in any defense industry and may coordinate the activities of the departments or agencies of the state and the political subdivisions thereof concerned directly or indirectly with public highways and streets in a manner which will best effectuate such plans.

History. - s. 1, ch. 74-285; s. 1, ch. 77-47; s. 4, ch. 79-12; s. 21, ch. 81-169; s. 2, ch. 83-44; s. 19, ch. 83-334; s. 11, ch. 93-211; s. 129, ch. 95-148; s. 47, ch. 99-8; s. 33, ch. 2001-61; s. 2, ch. 2005-283; s. 1, ch. 2006-100.

SHORT TITLE. - This section may be cited as the "Florida Patient's Bill of Rights and Responsibilities."
DEFINITIONS. - As used in this section and s. 381.0261, the term:
1. "Department" means the Department of Health.
2. "Health care facility" means a facility licensed under chapter 395.
3. "Health care provider" means a physician licensed under chapter 458, an osteopathic physician licensed under chapter 459, or a podiatric physician licensed under chapter 461.
4. "Primary care provider" means a health care provider licensed under chapter 458, chapter 459, or chapter 464 who provides medical services to patients which are commonly provided without referral from another health care provider, including family and general practice, general pediatrics, and general internal medicine.
5. "Responsible provider" means a health care provider who is primarily responsible for patient care in a health care facility or provider's office.
PURPOSE. - It is the purpose of this section to promote the interests and well-being of the patients of health care providers and health care facilities and to promote better communication between the patient and the health care provider. It is the intent of the Legislature that health care providers understand their responsibility to give their patients a general understanding of the procedures to be performed on them and to provide information pertaining to their health care so that they may make decisions in an informed manner after considering the information relating to their condition, the available treatment alternatives, and substantial risks and hazards inherent in the treatments. It is the intent of the Legislature that patients have a general understanding of their responsibilities toward health care providers and health care facilities. It is the intent of the Legislature that the provision of such information to a patient eliminate potential misunderstandings between patients and health care providers. It is a public policy of the state that the interests of patients be recognized in a patient's bill of rights and responsibilities and that a health care facility or health care provider may not require a patient to waive his or her rights as a condition of treatment. This section shall not be used for any purpose in any civil or administrative action and neither expands nor limits any rights or remedies provided under any other law.
RIGHTS OF PATIENTS. - Each health care facility or provider shall observe the following standards:
1. Individual dignity. -
  1. The individual dignity of a patient must be respected at all times and upon all occasions.
  2. Every patient who is provided health care services retains certain rights to privacy, which must be respected without regard to the patient's economic status or source of payment for his or her care. The patient's rights to privacy must be respected to the extent consistent with providing adequate medical care to the patient and with the efficient administration of the health care facility or provider's office. However, this subparagraph does not preclude necessary and discreet discussion of a patient's case or examination by appropriate medical personnel.
  3. A patient has the right to a prompt and reasonable response to a question or request. A health care facility shall respond in a reasonable manner to the request of a patient's health care provider for medical services to the patient. The health care facility shall also respond in a reasonable manner to the patient's request for other services customarily rendered by the health care facility to the extent such services do not require the approval of the patient's health care provider or are not inconsistent with the patient's treatment.
  4. A patient in a health care facility has the right to retain and use personal clothing or possessions as space permits, unless for him or her to do so would infringe upon the right of another patient or is medically or programmatically contraindicated for documented medical, safety, or programmatic reasons.
2. Information. -
  1. A patient has the right to know the name, function, and qualifications of each health care provider who is providing medical services to the patient. A patient may request such information from his or her responsible provider or the health care facility in which he or she is receiving medical services.
  2. A patient in a health care facility has the right to know what patient support services are available in the facility.
  3. A patient has the right to be given by his or her health care provider information concerning diagnosis, planned course of treatment, alternatives, risks, and prognosis, unless it is medically inadvisable or impossible to give this information to the patient, in which case the information must be given to the patient's guardian or a person designated as the patient's representative. A patient has the right to refuse this information.
  4. A patient has the right to refuse any treatment based on information required by this paragraph, except as otherwise provided by law. The responsible provider shall document any such refusal.
  5. A patient in a health care facility has the right to know what facility rules and regulations apply to patient conduct.
  6. A patient has the right to express grievances to a health care provider, a health care facility, or the appropriate state licensing agency regarding alleged violations of patients' rights. A patient has the right to know the health care provider's or health care facility's procedures for expressing a grievance.
  7. A patient in a health care facility who does not speak English has the right to be provided an interpreter when receiving medical services if the facility has a person readily available who can interpret on behalf of the patient.
  8. A health care provider or health care facility shall respect a patient's right to privacy and should refrain from making a written inquiry or asking questions concerning the ownership of a firearm or ammunition by the patient or by a family member of the patient, or the presence of a firearm in a private home or other domicile of the patient or a family member of the patient. Notwithstanding this provision, a health care provider or health care facility that in good faith believes that this information is relevant to the patient's medical care or safety, or safety of others, may make such a verbal or written inquiry.
  9. A patient may decline to answer or provide any information regarding ownership of a firearm by the patient or a family member of the patient, or the presence of a firearm in the domicile of the patient or a family member of the patient. A patient's decision not to answer a question relating to the presence or ownership of a firearm does not alter existing law regarding a physician's authorization to choose his or her patients.
  10. A health care provider or health care facility may not discriminate against a patient based solely upon the patient's exercise of the constitutional right to own and possess firearms or ammunition.
  11. A health care provider or health care facility shall respect a patient's legal right to own or possess a firearm and should refrain from unnecessarily harassing a patient about firearm ownership during an examination.
3. Financial information and disclosure. -
  1. A patient has the right to be given, upon request, by the responsible provider, his or her designee, or a representative of the health care facility full information and necessary counseling on the availability of known financial resources for the patient's health care.
  2. A health care provider or a health care facility shall, upon request, disclose to each patient who is eligible for Medicare, before treatment, whether the health care provider or the health care facility in which the patient is receiving medical services accepts assignment under Medicare reimbursement as payment in full for medical services and treatment rendered in the health care provider's office or health care facility.
  3. A primary care provider may publish a schedule of charges for the medical services that the provider offers to patients. The schedule must include the prices charged to an uninsured person paying for such services by cash, check, credit card, or debit card. The schedule must be posted in a conspicuous place in the reception area of the provider's office and must include, but is not limited to, the 50 services most frequently provided by the primary care provider. The schedule may group services by three price levels, listing services in each price level. The posting must be at least 15 square feet in size. A primary care provider who publishes and maintains a schedule of charges for medical services is exempt from the license fee requirements for a single period of renewal of a professional license under chapter 456 for that licensure term and is exempt from the continuing education requirements of chapter 456 and the rules implementing those requirements for a single 2-year period.
  4. If a primary care provider publishes a schedule of charges pursuant to subparagraph 3., he or she must continually post it at all times for the duration of active licensure in this state when primary care services are provided to patients. If a primary care provider fails to post the schedule of charges in accordance with this subparagraph, the provider shall be required to pay any license fee and comply with any continuing education requirements for which an exemption was received.
  5. A health care provider or a health care facility shall, upon request, furnish a person, before the provision of medical services, a reasonable estimate of charges for such services. The health care provider or the health care facility shall provide an uninsured person, before the provision of a planned nonemergency medical service, a reasonable estimate of charges for such service and information regarding the provider's or facility's discount or charity policies for which the uninsured person may be eligible. Such estimates by a primary care provider must be consistent with the schedule posted under subparagraph 3. Estimates shall, to the extent possible, be written in language comprehensible to an ordinary layperson. Such reasonable estimate does not preclude the health care provider or health care facility from exceeding the estimate or making additional charges based on changes in the patient's condition or treatment needs.
  6. Each licensed facility not operated by the state shall make available to the public on its Internet website or by other electronic means a description of and a link to the performance outcome and financial data that is published by the agency pursuant to s. 408.05(3)(k). The facility shall place a notice in the reception area that such information is available electronically and the website address. The licensed facility may indicate that the pricing information is based on a compilation of charges for the average patient and that each patient's bill may vary from the average depending upon the severity of illness and individual resources consumed. The licensed facility may also indicate that the price of service is negotiable for eligible patients based upon the patient's ability to pay.
  7. A patient has the right to receive a copy of an itemized bill upon request. A patient has a right to be given an explanation of charges upon request.
4. Access to health care. -
  1. A patient has the right to impartial access to medical treatment or accommodations, regardless of race, national origin, religion, handicap, or source of payment.
  2. A patient has the right to treatment for any emergency medical condition that will deteriorate from failure to provide such treatment.
  3. A patient has the right to access any mode of treatment that is, in his or her own judgment and the judgment of his or her health care practitioner, in the best interests of the patient, including complementary or alternative health care treatments, in accordance with the provisions of s. 456.41.
5. Experimental research. - In addition to the provisions of s. 766.103, a patient has the right to know if medical treatment is for purposes of experimental research and to consent prior to participation in such experimental research. For any patient, regardless of ability to pay or source of payment for his or her care, participation must be a voluntary matter; and a patient has the right to refuse to participate. The patient's consent or refusal must be documented in the patient's care record.
6. Patient's knowledge of rights and responsibilities. - In receiving health care, patients have the right to know what their rights and responsibilities are.
RESPONSIBILITIES OF PATIENTS. - Each patient of a health care provider or health care facility shall respect the health care provider's and health care facility's right to expect behavior on the part of patients which, considering the nature of their illness, is reasonable and responsible. Each patient shall observe the responsibilities described in the following summary.
SUMMARY OF RIGHTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES. - Any health care provider who treats a patient in an office or any health care facility licensed under chapter 395 that provides emergency services and care or outpatient services and care to a patient, or admits and treats a patient, shall adopt and make available to the patient, in writing, a statement of the rights and responsibilities of patients, including the following:

SUMMARY OF THE FLORIDA PATIENT'S BILL OF RIGHTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES

Florida law requires that your health care provider or health care facility recognize your rights while you are receiving medical care and that you respect the health care provider's or health care facility's right to expect certain behavior on the part of patients. You may request a copy of the full text of this law from your health care provider or health care facility. A summary of your rights and responsibilities follows:

A patient has the right to be treated with courtesy and respect, with appreciation of his or her individual dignity, and with protection of his or her need for privacy.

A patient has the right to a prompt and reasonable response to questions and requests.

A patient has the right to know who is providing medical services and who is responsible for his or her care.

A patient has the right to know what patient support services are available, including whether an interpreter is available if he or she does not speak English.

A patient has the right to know what rules and regulations apply to his or her conduct.

A patient has the right to be given by the health care provider information concerning diagnosis, planned course of treatment, alternatives, risks, and prognosis.

A patient has the right to refuse any treatment, except as otherwise provided by law.

A patient has the right to be given, upon request, full information and necessary counseling on the availability of known financial resources for his or her care.

A patient who is eligible for Medicare has the right to know, upon request and in advance of treatment, whether the health care provider or health care facility accepts the Medicare assignment rate.

A patient has the right to receive, upon request, prior to treatment, a reasonable estimate of charges for medical care.

A patient has the right to receive a copy of a reasonably clear and understandable, itemized bill and, upon request, to have the charges explained.

A patient has the right to impartial access to medical treatment or accommodations, regardless of race, national origin, religion, handicap, or source of payment.

A patient has the right to treatment for any emergency medical condition that will deteriorate from failure to provide treatment.

A patient has the right to know if medical treatment is for purposes of experimental research and to give his or her consent or refusal to participate in such experimental research.

A patient has the right to express grievances regarding any violation of his or her rights, as stated in Florida law, through the grievance procedure of the health care provider or health care facility which served him or her and to the appropriate state licensing agency.

A patient is responsible for providing to the health care provider, to the best of his or her knowledge, accurate and complete information about present complaints, past illnesses, hospitalizations, medications, and other matters relating to his or her health.

A patient is responsible for reporting unexpected changes in his or her condition to the health care provider.

A patient is responsible for reporting to the health care provider whether he or she comprehends a contemplated course of action and what is expected of him or her.

A patient is responsible for following the treatment plan recommended by the health care provider.

A patient is responsible for keeping appointments and, when he or she is unable to do so for any reason, for notifying the health care provider or health care facility.

A patient is responsible for his or her actions if he or she refuses treatment or does not follow the health care provider's instructions.

A patient is responsible for assuring that the financial obligations of his or her health care are fulfilled as promptly as possible.

A patient is responsible for following health care facility rules and regulations affecting patient care and conduct.

History. - s. 1, ch. 91-127; s. 65, ch. 92-289; s. 656, ch. 95-148; s. 21, ch. 98-89; s. 178, ch. 98-166; s. 64, ch. 99-397; s. 7, ch. 2001-53; s. 2, ch. 2001-116; s. 3, ch. 2004-297; s. 12, ch. 2006-261; s. 3, ch. 2008-47; s. 2, ch. 2011-112; s. 1, ch. 2011-122; s. 48, ch. 2012-5.

A person is justified in using or threatening to use force, except deadly force, against another when and to the extent that the person reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to defend himself or herself or another against the other's imminent use of unlawful force. A person who uses or threatens to use force in accordance with this subsection does not have a duty to retreat before using or threatening to use such force.
A person is justified in using or threatening to use deadly force if he or she reasonably believes that using or threatening to use such force is necessary to prevent imminent death or great bodily harm to himself or herself or another or to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony. A person who uses or threatens to use deadly force in accordance with this subsection does not have a duty to retreat and has the right to stand his or her ground if the person using or threatening to use the deadly force is not engaged in a criminal activity and is in a place where he or she has a right to be.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 1188, ch. 97-102; s. 2, ch. 2005-27; s. 3, ch. 2014-195.

A person is presumed to have held a reasonable fear of imminent peril of death or great bodily harm to himself or herself or another when using or threatening to use defensive force that is intended or likely to cause death or great bodily harm to another if:
1. The person against whom the defensive force was used or threatened was in the process of unlawfully and forcefully entering, or had unlawfully and forcibly entered, a dwelling, residence, or occupied vehicle, or if that person had removed or was attempting to remove another against that person's will from the dwelling, residence, or occupied vehicle; and
2. The person who uses or threatens to use defensive force knew or had reason to believe that an unlawful and forcible entry or unlawful and forcible act was occurring or had occurred.
The presumption set forth in subsection (1) does not apply if:
1. The person against whom the defensive force is used or threatened has the right to be in or is a lawful resident of the dwelling, residence, or vehicle, such as an owner, lessee, or titleholder, and there is not an injunction for protection from domestic violence or a written pretrial supervision order of no contact against that person; or
2. The person or persons sought to be removed is a child or grandchild, or is otherwise in the lawful custody or under the lawful guardianship of, the person against whom the defensive force is used or threatened; or
3. The person who uses or threatens to use defensive force is engaged in a criminal activity or is using the dwelling, residence, or occupied vehicle to further a criminal activity; or
4. The person against whom the defensive force is used or threatened is a law enforcement officer, as defined in s. 943.10(14), who enters or attempts to enter a dwelling, residence, or vehicle in the performance of his or her official duties and the officer identified himself or herself in accordance with any applicable law or the person using or threatening to use force knew or reasonably should have known that the person entering or attempting to enter was a law enforcement officer.
A person who is attacked in his or her dwelling, residence, or vehicle has no duty to retreat and has the right to stand his or her ground and use or threaten to use force, including deadly force, if he or she uses or threatens to use force in accordance with s. 776.012(1) or (2) or s. 776.031(1) or (2).
A person who unlawfully and by force enters or attempts to enter a person's dwelling, residence, or occupied vehicle is presumed to be doing so with the intent to commit an unlawful act involving force or violence.
As used in this section, the term:
1. "Dwelling" means a building or conveyance of any kind, including any attached porch, whether the building or conveyance is temporary or permanent, mobile or immobile, which has a roof over it, including a tent, and is designed to be occupied by people lodging therein at night.
2. "Residence" means a dwelling in which a person resides either temporarily or permanently or is visiting as an invited guest.
3. "Vehicle" means a conveyance of any kind, whether or not motorized, which is designed to transport people or property.

History. - s. 1, ch. 2005-27; s. 4, ch. 2014-195.

A person is justified in using or threatening to use force, except deadly force, against another when and to the extent that the person reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to prevent or terminate the other's trespass on, or other tortious or criminal interference with, either real property other than a dwelling or personal property, lawfully in his or her possession or in the possession of another who is a member of his or her immediate family or household or of a person whose property he or she has a legal duty to protect. A person who uses or threatens to use force in accordance with this subsection does not have a duty to retreat before using or threatening to use such force.
A person is justified in using or threatening to use deadly force only if he or she reasonably believes that such conduct is necessary to prevent the imminent commission of a forcible felony. A person who uses or threatens to use deadly force in accordance with this subsection does not have a duty to retreat and has the right to stand his or her ground if the person using or threatening to use the deadly force is not engaged in a criminal activity and is in a place where he or she has a right to be.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 1189, ch. 97-102; s. 3, ch. 2005-27; s. 5, ch. 2014-195.

A person who uses or threatens to use force as permitted in s. 776.012, s. 776.013, or s. 776.031 is justified in such conduct and is immune from criminal prosecution and civil action for the use or threatened use of such force by the person, personal representative, or heirs of the person against whom the force was used or threatened, unless the person against whom force was used or threatened is a law enforcement officer, as defined in s. 943.10(14), who was acting in the performance of his or her official duties and the officer identified himself or herself in accordance with any applicable law or the person using or threatening to use force knew or reasonably should have known that the person was a law enforcement officer. As used in this subsection, the term "criminal prosecution" includes arresting, detaining in custody, and charging or prosecuting the defendant.
A law enforcement agency may use standard procedures for investigating the use or threatened use of force as described in subsection (1), but the agency may not arrest the person for usingor threatening to use force unless it determines that there is probable cause that the force that was used or threatened was unlawful.
The court shall award reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, compensation for loss of income, and all expenses incurred by the defendant in defense of any civil action brought by a plaintiff if the court finds that the defendant is immune from prosecution as provided in subsection (1).
In a criminal prosecution, once a prima facie claim of self-defense immunity from criminal prosecution has been raised by the defendant at a pretrial immunity hearing, the burden of proof by clear and convincing evidence is on the party seeking to overcome the immunity from criminal prosecution provided in subsection (1).

History. - s. 4, ch. 2005-27; s. 6, ch. 2014-195; s.1, ch. 2017-72.

The justification described in the preceding sections of this chapter is not available to a person who:

Is attempting to commit, committing, or escaping after the commission of, a forcible felony; or
Initially provokes the use or threatened use of force against himself or herself, unless:
1. Such force or threat of force is so great that the person reasonably believes that he or she is in imminent danger of death or great bodily harm and that he or she has exhausted every reasonable means to escape such danger other than the use or threatened use of force which is likely to cause death or great bodily harm to the assailant; or
2. In good faith, the person withdraws from physical contact with the assailant and indicates clearly to the assailant that he or she desires to withdraw and terminate the use or threatened use of force, but the assailant continues or resumes the use or threatened use of force.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 1190, ch. 97-102; s. 7, ch. 2014-195.

A law enforcement officer, or any person whom the officer has summoned or directed to assist him or her, need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance or threatened resistance to the arrest. The officer is justified in the use of any force:

Which he or she reasonably believes to be necessary to defend himself or herself or another from bodily harm while making the arrest;
When necessarily committed in retaking felons who have escaped; or
When necessarily committed in arresting felons fleeing from justice. However, this subsection shall not constitute a defense in any civil action for damages brought for the wrongful use of deadly force unless the use of deadly force was necessary to prevent the arrest from being defeated by such flight and, when feasible, some warning had been given, and:
1. The officer reasonably believes that the fleeing felon poses a threat of death or serious physical harm to the officer or others; or
2. The officer reasonably believes that the fleeing felon has committed a crime involving the infliction or threatened infliction of serious physical harm to another person.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 1, ch. 75-64; s. 1, ch. 87-147; s. 54, ch. 88-381; s. 1191, ch. 97-102.

A person is not justified in the use or threatened use of force to resist an arrest by a law enforcement officer, or to resist a law enforcement officer who is engaged in the execution of a legal duty, if the law enforcement officer was acting in good faith and he or she is known, or reasonably appears, to be a law enforcement officer.
A law enforcement officer, or any person whom the officer has summoned or directed to assist him or her, is not justified in the use of force if the arrest or execution of a legal duty is unlawful and known by him or her to be unlawful.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 1192, ch. 97-102; s. 1, ch. 2008-67; s. 8, ch. 2014-195.

As applied to a law enforcement officer or correctional officer acting in the performance of his or her official duties, The term "deadly force" means force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm and includes, but is not limited to:
1. The firing of a firearm in the direction of the person to be arrested, even though no intent exists to kill or inflict great bodily harm; and
2. The firing of a firearm at a vehicle in which the person to be arrested is riding.
1. The term "deadly force" does not include the discharge of a firearm by a law enforcement officer or correctional officer during and within the scope of his or her official duties which is loaded with a less-lethal munition. As used in this subsection, the term "less-lethal munition" means a projectile that is designed to stun, temporarily incapacitate, or cause temporary discomfort to a person without penetrating the person's body.
2. A law enforcement officer or a correctional officer is not liable in any civil or criminal action arising out of the use of any less-lethal munition in good faith during and within the scope of his or her official duties.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 1, ch. 99-272; s. 9, ch. 2014-195.

A law enforcement officer or other person who has an arrested person in his or her custody is justified in the use of any force which he or she reasonably believes to be necessary to prevent the escape of the arrested person from custody.
A correctional officer or other law enforcement officer is justified in the use of force, including deadly force, which he or she reasonably believes to be necessary to prevent the escape from a penal institution of a person whom the officer reasonably believes to be lawfully detained in such institution under sentence for an offense or awaiting trial or commitment for an offense.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 7, ch. 95-283; s. 1193, ch. 97-102.

"Forcible felony" means treason; murder; manslaughter; sexual battery; carjacking; home-invasion robbery; robbery; burglary; arson; kidnapping; aggravated assault; aggravated battery; aggravated stalking; aircraft piracy; unlawful throwing, placing, or discharging of a destructive device or bomb; and any other felony which involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual.

History. - s. 13, ch. 74-383; s. 4, ch. 75-298; s. 289, ch. 79-400; s. 5, ch. 93-212; s. 10, ch. 95-195.

It shall be a defense to any action for damages for personal injury or wrongful death, or for injury to property, that such action arose from injury sustained by a participant during the commission or attempted commission of a forcible felony. The defense authorized by this section shall be established by evidence that the participant has been convicted of such forcible felony or attempted forcible felony, or by proof of the commission of such crime or attempted crime by a preponderance of the evidence.
For the purposes of this section, the term "forcible felony" shall have the same meaning as in s. 776.08.
Any civil action in which the defense recognized by this section is raised shall be stayed by the court on the motion of the civil defendant during the pendency of any criminal action which forms the basis for the defense, unless the court finds that a conviction in the criminal action would not form a valid defense under this section.
In any civil action where a party prevails based on the defense created by this section:
1. The losing party, if convicted of and incarcerated for the crime or attempted crime, shall, as determined by the court, lose any privileges provided by the correctional facility, including, but not limited to:
  1. Canteen purchases;
  2. Telephone access;
  3. Outdoor exercise;
  4. Use of the library; and
  5. Visitation.
2. The court shall award a reasonable attorney's fee to be paid to the prevailing party in equal amounts by the losing party and the losing party's attorney; however, the losing party's attorney is not personally responsible if he or she has acted in good faith, based on the representations of his or her client. If the losing party is incarcerated for the crime or attempted crime and has insufficient assets to cover payment of the costs of the action and the award of fees pursuant to this paragraph, the party shall, as determined by the court, be required to pay by deduction from any payments the prisoner receives while incarcerated.
3. If the losing party is incarcerated for the crime or attempted crime, the court shall issue a written order containing its findings and ruling pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) and shall direct that a certified copy be forwarded to the appropriate correctional institution or facility.

History. - s. 1, ch. 87-187; s. 72, ch. 96-388.

Whenever the state attorney or statewide prosecutor dismisses an information, indictment, or other charging document, or decides not to file an information, indictment, or other charging document because of a finding that the person accused acted in lawful self-defense pursuant to the provisions related to the justifiable use of force in this chapter, that finding shall be documented in writing and retained in the files of the state attorney or statewide prosecutor.
Whenever a court dismisses an information, indictment, or other charging document because of a finding that the person accused acted in lawful self-defense pursuant to the provisions related to the justifiable use of force in this chapter, that finding shall be recorded in an order or memorandum, which shall be retained in the court's records.
Under eithercondition described in subsection (1) or subsection (2), the person accused may apply for a certificate of eligibility to expunge the associated criminal history record, pursuant to s. 943.0585(5), notwithstanding the eligibility requirements prescribed in s. 943.0585(1)(b) or (2).

History. - s. 10, ch. 2014-195

Whoever, through culpable negligence, exposes another person to personal injury commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
Whoever, through culpable negligence, inflicts actual personal injury on another commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
Whoever violates subsection (1) by storing or leaving a loaded firearm within the reach or easy access of a minor commits, if the minor obtains the firearm and uses it to inflict injury or death upon himself or herself or any other person, a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. However, this subsection does not apply:
1. If the firearm was stored or left in a securely locked box or container or in a location which a reasonable person would have believed to be secure, or was securely locked with a trigger lock;
2. If the minor obtains the firearm as a result of an unlawful entry by any person;
3. To injuries resulting from target or sport shooting accidents or hunting accidents; or
4. To members of the Armed Forces, National Guard, or State Militia, or to police or other law enforcement officers, with respect to firearm possession by a minor which occurs during or incidental to the performance of their official duties.
When any minor child is accidentally shot by another family member, no arrest shall be made pursuant to this subsection prior to 7 days after the date of the shooting. With respect to any parent or guardian of any deceased minor, the investigating officers shall file all findings and evidence with the state attorney's office with respect to violations of this subsection. The state attorney shall evaluate such evidence and shall take such action as he or she deems appropriate under the circumstances and may file an information against the appropriate parties.
As used in this act, the term "minor" means any person under the age of 16.

History. - s. 1, ch. 5212, 1903; GS 3229; RGS 5062; CGL 7164; s. 733, ch. 71-136; s. 21, ch. 74-383; s. 11, ch. 75-298; ss. 3, 7, ch. 89-534; s. 1199, ch. 97-102.1

Note. - Also published at s. 790.174(3).

As used in this chapter, except where the context otherwise requires:
1. "Antique firearm" means any firearm manufactured in or before 1918 (including any matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar early type of ignition system) or replica thereof, whether actually manufactured before or after the year 1918, and also any firearm using fixed ammunition manufactured in or before 1918, for which ammunition is no longer manufactured in the United States and is not readily available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade.
2. "Concealed firearm" means any firearm, as defined in subsection (6), which is carried on or about a person in such a manner as to conceal the firearm from the ordinary sight of another person.
3. 1. "Concealed weapon" means any dirk, metallic knuckles, billie, tear gas gun, chemical weapon or device, or other deadly weapon carried on or about a person in such a manner as to conceal the weapon from the ordinary sight of another person.
  2. "Tear gas gun" or "chemical weapon or device" means any weapon of such nature, except a device known as a "self-defense chemical spray." "Self-defense chemical spray" means a device carried solely for purposes of lawful self-defense that is compact in size, designed to be carried on or about the person, and contains not more than two ounces of chemical.
4. "Destructive device" means any bomb, grenade, mine, rocket, missile, pipebomb, or similar device containing an explosive, incendiary, or poison gas and includes any frangible container filled with an explosive, incendiary, explosive gas, or expanding gas, which is designed or so constructed as to explode by such filler and is capable of causing bodily harm or property damage; any combination of parts either designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device and from which a destructive device may be readily assembled; any device declared a destructive device by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms; any type of weapon which will, is designed to, or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by the action of any explosive and which has a barrel with a bore of one-half inch or more in diameter; and ammunition for such destructive devices, but not including shotgun shells or any other ammunition designed for use in a firearm other than a destructive device. "Destructive device" does not include:
  1. A device which is not designed, redesigned, used, or intended for use as a weapon;
  2. Any device, although originally designed as a weapon, which is redesigned so that it may be used solely as a signaling, line-throwing, safety, or similar device;
  3. Any shotgun other than a short-barreled shotgun; or
  4. Any nonautomatic rifle (other than a short-barreled rifle) generally recognized or particularly suitable for use for the hunting of big game.
5. "Explosive" means any chemical compound or mixture that has the property of yielding readily to combustion or oxidation upon application of heat, flame, or shock, including but not limited to dynamite, nitroglycerin, trinitrotoluene, or ammonium nitrate when combined with other ingredients to form an explosive mixture, blasting caps, and detonators; but not including:
  1. Shotgun shells, cartridges, or ammunition for firearms;
  2. Fireworks as defined in s. 791.01;
  3. Smokeless propellant powder or small arms ammunition primers, if possessed, purchased, sold, transported, or used in compliance with s. 552.241;
  4. Black powder in quantities not to exceed that authorized by chapter 552, or by any rules adopted thereunder by the Department of Financial Services, when used for, or intended to be used for, the manufacture of target and sporting ammunition or for use in muzzle-loading flint or percussion weapons.
  5. The exclusions contained in paragraphs (a)-(d) do not apply to the term "explosive" as used in the definition of "firearm" in subsection (6).
6. "Firearm" means any weapon (including a starter gun) which will, is designed to, or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive; the frame or receiver of any such weapon; any firearm muffler or firearm silencer; any destructive device; or any machine gun. The term "firearm" does not include an antique firearm unless the antique firearm is used in the commission of a crime.
7. "Indictment" means an indictment or an information in any court under which a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year may be prosecuted.
8. "Law enforcement officer" means:
  1. All officers or employees of the United States or the State of Florida, or any agency, commission, department, board, division, municipality, or subdivision thereof, who have authority to make arrests;
  2. Officers or employees of the United States or the State of Florida, or any agency, commission, department, board, division, municipality, or subdivision thereof, duly authorized to carry a concealed weapon;
  3. Members of the Armed Forces of the United States, the organized reserves, state militia, or Florida National Guard, when on duty, when preparing themselves for, or going to or from, military duty, or under orders;
  4. An employee of the state prisons or correctional systems who has been so designated by the Department of Corrections or by a warden of an institution;
  5. All peace officers;
  6. All state attorneys and United States attorneys and their respective assistants and investigators.
9. "Machine gun" means any firearm, as defined herein, which shoots, or is designed to shoot, automatically more than one shot, without manually reloading, by a single function of the trigger.
10. "Short-barreled shotgun" means a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length and any weapon made from a shotgun (whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise) if such weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches.
11. "Short-barreled rifle" means a rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length and any weapon made from a rifle (whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise) if such weapon as modified has an overall length of less than 26 inches.
12. "Slungshot" means a small mass of metal, stone, sand, or similar material fixed on a flexible handle, strap, or the like, used as a weapon.
13. "Weapon" means any dirk, knife, metallic knuckles, slungshot, billie, tear gas gun, chemical weapon or device, or other deadly weapon except a firearm or a common pocketknife, plastic knife, or blunt-bladed table knife.
14. "Electric weapon or device" means any device which, through the application or use of electrical current, is designed, redesigned, used, or intended to be used for offensive or defensive purposes, the destruction of life, or the infliction of injury.
15. "Dart-firing stun gun" means any device having one or more darts that are capable of delivering an electrical current.
16. "Readily accessible for immediate use" means that a firearm or other weapon is carried on the person or within such close proximity and in such a manner that it can be retrieved and used as easily and quickly as if carried on the person.
17. "Securely encased" means in a glove compartment, whether or not locked; snapped in a holster; in a gun case, whether or not locked; in a zippered gun case; or in a closed box or container which requires a lid or cover to be opened for access.
18. "Sterile area" means the area of an airport to which access is controlled by the inspection of persons and property in accordance with federally approved airport security programs.
19. "Ammunition" means an object consisting of all of the following:
  1. A fixed metallic or nonmetallic hull or casing containing a primer.
  2. One or more projectiles, one or more bullets, or shot.
  3. Gunpowder.

All of the specified components must be present for an object to be ammunition.

History. s. 1, ch. 69-306; ss. 13, 19, 35, ch. 69-106; ss. 1, 2, ch. 70-441; s. 32, ch. 73-334; s. 1, ch. 76-165; s. 12, ch. 77-120; s. 1, ch. 78-200; s. 19, ch. 79-3; s. 1, ch. 79-58; s. 1, ch. 80-112; s. 1, ch. 82-131; s. 162, ch. 83-216; s. 2, ch. 88-183; s. 43, ch. 88-381; s. 1, ch. 90-124; s. 1, ch. 90-176; s. 1, ch. 93-17; s. 1, ch. 97-72; s. 1202, ch. 97-102; s. 5, ch. 2000-161; s. 1904, ch. 2003-261; s. 1, ch. 2004-286; s. 1, ch. 2006-186; s. 1, ch. 2006-298. s. 2 2016-106

Except as provided in subsection (3), a person who is not licensed under s. 790.06 and who carries a concealed weapon or electric weapon or device on or about his or her person commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
Except as provided in subsection (3), a person who is not licensed under s. 790.06 and who carries a concealed firearm on or about his or her person commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
This section does not apply to:
1. A person who carries a concealed weapon, or a person who may lawfully possess a firearm and who carries a concealed firearm, on or about his or her person while in the act of evacuating during a mandatory evacuation order issued during a state of emergency declared by the Governor pursuant to chapter 252 or declared by a local authority pursuant to chapter 870. As used in this subsection, the term "in the act of evacuating" means the immediate and urgent movement of a person away from the evacuation zone within 48 hours after a mandatory evacuation is ordered. The 48 hours may be extended by an order issued by the Governor.
2. A person who carries for purposes of lawful self-defense, in a concealed manner:
  1. A self-defense chemical spray.
  2. A nonlethal stun gun or dart-firing stun gun or other nonlethal electric weapon or device that is designed solely for defensive purposes.
This section does not preclude any prosecution for the use of an electric weapon or device, a dart-firing stun gun, or a self-defense chemical spray during the commission of any criminal offense under s. 790.07, s. 790.10, s. 790.23, or s. 790.235, or for any other criminal offense.

History. - s. 1, ch. 4929, 1901; GS 3262; RGS 5095; CGL 7197; s. 1, ch. 67-165; s. 2, ch. 69-306; s. 739, ch. 71-136; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 3, ch. 80-268; s. 2, ch. 92-183; s. 2, ch. 97-72; s. 1203, ch. 97-102; s. 5, ch. 2004-286; s. 2, ch. 2006-298; s. 1, ch. 2015-44.

Notwithstanding s. 790.01, a nonresident of Florida may carry a concealed weapon or concealed firearm while in this state if the nonresident:
1. Is 21 years of age or older.
2. Has in his or her immediate possession a valid license to carry a concealed weapon or concealed firearm issued to the nonresident in his or her state of residence.
3. Is a resident of the United States.
A nonresident is subject to the same laws and restrictions with respect to carrying a concealed weapon or concealed firearm as a resident of Florida who is so licensed.
If the resident of another state who is the holder of a valid license to carry a concealed weapon or concealed firearm issued in another state establishes legal residence in this state by:
1. Registering to vote;
2. Making a statement of domicile pursuant to s. 222.17; or
3. Filing for homestead tax exemption on property in this state,
4. the license shall remain in effect for 90 days following the date on which the holder of the license establishes legal state residence.
This section applies only to nonresident concealed weapon or concealed firearm licenseholders from states that honor Florida concealed weapon or concealed firearm licenses.
The requirement of paragraph (1)(a) does not apply to a person who:
1. Is a servicemember, as defined in s. 250.01; or
2. Is a veteran of the United States Armed Forces who was discharged under honorable conditions.

History. - s. 1, ch. 99-132; s. 2, ch. 2012-108.

The carrying of a concealed weapon is declared a breach of peace, and any officer authorized to make arrests under the laws of this state may make arrests without warrant of persons violating the provisions of s. 790.01 when said officer has reasonable grounds or probable cause to believe that the offense of carrying a concealed weapon is being committed.

History. - s. 1, ch. 4929, 1901; GS 3263; RGS 5096; CGL 7198; s. 3, ch. 69-306.

1. All persons holding active certifications from the Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission as law enforcement officers or correctional officers as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (6), (7), (8), or (9) shall have the right to carry, on or about their persons, concealed firearms, during off-duty hours, at the discretion of their superior officers, and may perform those law enforcement functions that they normally perform during duty hours, utilizing their weapons in a manner which is reasonably expected of on-duty officers in similar situations.
2. All persons holding an active certification from the Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission as a law enforcement officer or a correctional officer as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (6), (7), (8), or (9) meet the definition of "qualified law enforcement officer" in 18 U.S.C. s. 926B(c).
3. All persons who held an active certification from the Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission as a law enforcement officer or correctional officer as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (6), (7), (8), or (9), while working for an employing agency, as defined in s. 943.10(4), but have separated from service under the conditions set forth in 18 U.S.C. s. 926C(c), meet the definition of "qualified retired law enforcement officer."
4. This section does not limit the right of a law enforcement officer, correctional officer, or correctional probation officer to carry a concealed firearm off duty as a private citizen under the exemption provided in s. 790.06 that allows a law enforcement officer, correctional officer, or correctional probation officer as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (3), (6), (7), (8), or (9) to carry a concealed firearm without a concealed weapon or firearm license. The appointing or employing agency or department of an officer carrying a concealed firearm as a private citizen under s. 790.06 shall not be liable for the use of the firearm in such capacity. Nothing herein limits the authority of the appointing or employing agency or department from establishing policies limiting law enforcement officers or correctional officers from carrying concealed firearms during off-duty hours in their capacity as appointees or employees of the agency or department.
The superior officer of any police department or sheriff's office or the Florida Highway Patrol, if he or she elects to direct the officers under his or her supervision to carry concealed firearms while off duty, shall file a statement with the governing body of such department of his or her instructions and requirements relating to the carrying of said firearms.

History. - ss. 1, 2, 3, ch. 72-84; s. 235, ch. 77-104; s. 23, ch. 79-8; s. 3, ch. 88-183; s. 4, ch. 95-318; s. 1204, ch. 97-102; s. 32, ch. 2019-167.

Except as otherwise provided by law and in subsection (2), it is unlawful for any person to openly carry on or about his or her person any firearm or electric weapon or device. It is not a violation of this section for a person licensed to carry a concealed firearm as provided in s. 790.06(1), and who is lawfully carrying a firearm in a concealed manner, to briefly and openly display the firearm to the ordinary sight of another person, unless the firearm is intentionally displayed in an angry or threatening manner, not in necessary self-defense.
A person may openly carry, for purposes of lawful self-defense:
1. A self-defense chemical spray.
2. A nonlethal stun gun or dart-firing stun gun or other nonlethal electric weapon or device that is designed solely for defensive purposes.
Any person violating this section commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

History. - s. 1, ch. 87-537; s. 173, ch. 91-224; s. 3, ch. 97-72; s. 1205, ch. 97-102; s. 3, ch. 2006-298; s. 1, ch. 2011-145.

A person who knowingly and willfully uses a self-defense chemical spray, a nonlethal stun gun or other nonlethal electric weapon or device, or a dart-firing stun gun against a law enforcement officer engaged in the performance of his or her duties commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.

History. - s. 4, ch. 97-72; s. 4, ch. 2006-298.

The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services is authorized to issue licenses to carry concealed weapons or concealed firearms to persons qualified as provided in this section. Each such license must bear a color photograph of the licensee. For the purposes of this section, concealed weapons or concealed firearms are defined as a handgun, electronic weapon or device, tear gas gun, knife, or billie, but the term does not include a machine gun as defined in s. 790.001(9). Such licenses shall be valid throughout the state for a period of 7 years from the date of issuance. Any person in compliance with the terms of such license may carry a concealed weapon or concealed firearm notwithstanding the provisions of s. 790.01. The licensee must carry the license, together with valid identification, at all times in which the licensee is in actual possession of a concealed weapon or firearm and must display both the license and proper identification upon demand by a law enforcement officer. Violations of the provisions of this subsection shall constitute a noncriminal violation with a penalty of $25, payable to the clerk of the court.
The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall issue a license if the applicant:
1. Is a resident of the United States and a citizen of the United States or a permanent resident alien of the United States, as determined by the United States Bureau of Citizenship and Immigration Services, or is a consular security official of a foreign government that maintains diplomatic relations and treaties of commerce, friendship, and navigation with the United States and is certified as such by the foreign government and by the appropriate embassy in this country;
2. Is 21 years of age or older;
3. Does not suffer from a physical infirmity which prevents the safe handling of a weapon or firearm;
4. Is not ineligible to possess a firearm pursuant to s. 790.23 by virtue of having been convicted of a felony;
5. Has not been committed for the abuse of a controlled substance or been found guilty of a crime under the provisions of chapter 893 or similar laws of any other state relating to controlled substances within a 3-year period immediately preceding the date on which the application is submitted;
6. Does not chronically and habitually use alcoholic beverages or other substances to the extent that his or her normal faculties are impaired. It shall be presumed that an applicant chronically and habitually uses alcoholic beverages or other substances to the extent that his or her normal faculties are impaired if the applicant has been committed under chapter 397 or under the provisions of former chapter 396 or has been convicted under s. 790.151 or has been deemed a habitual offender under s. 856.011(3), or has had two or more convictions under s. 316.193 or similar laws of any other state, within the 3-year period immediately preceding the date on which the application is submitted;
7. Desires a legal means to carry a concealed weapon or firearm for lawful self-defense;
8. Demonstrates competence with a firearm by any one of the following:
  1. Completion of any hunter education or hunter safety course approved by the Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission or a similar agency of another state;
  2. Completion of any National Rifle Association firearms safety or training course;
  3. Completion of any firearms safety or training course or class available to the general public offered by a law enforcement, junior college, college, or private or public institution or organization or firearms training school, utilizing instructors certified by the National Rifle Association, Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission, or the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services;
  4. Completion of any law enforcement firearms safety or training course or class offered for security guards, investigators, special deputies, or any division or subdivision of law enforcement or security enforcement;
  5. Presents evidence of equivalent experience with a firearm through participation in organized shooting competition or military service;
  6. Is licensed or has been licensed to carry a firearm in this state or a county or municipality of this state, unless such license has been revoked for cause; or
  7. Completion of any firearms training or safety course or class conducted by a state-certified or National Rifle Association certified firearms instructor;
  8. A photocopy of a certificate of completion of any of the courses or classes; or an affidavit from the instructor, school, club, organization, or group that conducted or taught said course or class attesting to the completion of the course or class by the applicant; or a copy of any document which shows completion of the course or class or evidences participation in firearms competition shall constitute evidence of qualification under this paragraph; any person who conducts a course pursuant to subparagraph 2., subparagraph 3., or subparagraph 7., or who, as an instructor, attests to the completion of such courses, must maintain records certifying that he or she observed the student safely handle and discharge the firearm;
9. Has not been adjudicated an incapacitated person under s. 744.331, or similar laws of any other state, unless 5 years have elapsed since the applicant's restoration to capacity by court order;
10. Has not been committed to a mental institution under chapter 394, or similar laws of any other state, unless the applicant produces a certificate from a licensed psychiatrist that he or she has not suffered from disability for at least 5 years prior to the date of submission of the application;
11. Has not had adjudication of guilt withheld or imposition of sentence suspended on any felony or misdemeanor crime of domestic violence unless 3 years have elapsed since probation or any other conditions set by the court have been fulfilled, or the record has been sealed or expunged;
12. Has not been issued an injunction that is currently in force and effect and that restrains the applicant from committing acts of domestic violence or acts of repeat violence; and
13. Is not prohibited from purchasing or possessing a firearm by any other provision of Florida or federal law.
The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall deny a license if the applicant has been found guilty of, had adjudication of guilt withheld for, or had imposition of sentence suspended for one or more crimes of violence constituting a misdemeanor, unless 3 years have elapsed since probation or any other conditions set by the court have been fulfilled or the record has been sealed or expunged. The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall revoke a license if the licensee has been found guilty of, had adjudication of guilt withheld for, or had imposition of sentence suspended for one or more crimes of violence within the preceding 3 years. The department shall, upon notification by a law enforcement agency, a court, or the Florida Department of Law Enforcement and subsequent written verification, suspend a license or the processing of an application for a license if the licensee or applicant is arrested or formally charged with a crime that would disqualify such person from having a license under this section, until final disposition of the case. The department shall suspend a license or the processing of an application for a license if the licensee or applicant is issued an injunction that restrains the licensee or applicant from committing acts of domestic violence or acts of repeat violence.
The application shall be completed, under oath, on a form promulgated by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services and shall include:
1. The name, address, place and date of birth, race, and occupation of the applicant;
2. A statement that the applicant is in compliance with criteria contained within subsections (2) and (3);
3. A statement that the applicant has been furnished a copy of this chapter and is knowledgeable of its provisions;
4. A conspicuous warning that the application is executed under oath and that a false answer to any question, or the submission of any false document by the applicant, subjects the applicant to criminal prosecution under s. 837.06; and
5. A statement that the applicant desires a concealed weapon or firearms license as a means of lawful self-defense.
The applicant shall submit to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services or an approved tax collector pursuant to s. 790.0625:
1. A completed application as described in subsection (4).
2. A nonrefundable license fee of up to $70 if he or she has not previously been issued a statewide license or of up to $60 for renewal of a statewide license. The cost of processing fingerprints as required in paragraph (c) shall be borne by the applicant. However, an individual holding an active certification from the Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission as a law enforcement officer, correctional officer, or correctional probation officer as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (3), (6), (7), (8), or (9) is exempt from the licensing requirements of this section. If such individual wishes to receive a concealed weapons or firearms license, he or she is exempt from the background investigation and all background investigation fees, but must pay the current license fees regularly required to be paid by nonexempt applicants. Further, a law enforcement officer, a correctional officer, or a correctional probation officer as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), or (3) is exempt from the required fees and background investigation for a period of 1 year after his or her retirement.
3. A full set of fingerprints of the applicant administered by a law enforcement agency or the Division of Licensing of the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services or an approved tax collector pursuant to s. 790.0625.
4. A photocopy of a certificate, affidavit, or document as described in paragraph (2)(h).
5. A full frontal view color photograph of the applicant taken within the preceding 30 days, in which the head, including hair, measures 7/8 of an inch wide and 11/8 inches high.
1. The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, upon receipt of the items listed in subsection (5), shall forward the full set of fingerprints of the applicant to the Department of Law Enforcement for state and federal processing, provided the federal service is available, to be processed for any criminal justice information as defined in s. 943.045. The cost of processing such fingerprints shall be payable to the Department of Law Enforcement by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
2. The sheriff's office shall provide fingerprinting service if requested by the applicant and may charge a fee not to exceed $5 for this service.
3. The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall, within 90 days after the date of receipt of the items listed in subsection (5):
  1. Issue the license; or
  2. Deny the application based solely on the ground that the applicant fails to qualify under the criteria listed in subsection (2) or subsection (3). If the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services denies the application, it shall notify the applicant in writing, stating the ground for denial and informing the applicant of any right to a hearing pursuant to chapter 120.
  3. In the event the department receives criminal history information with no final disposition on a crime which may disqualify the applicant, the time limitation prescribed by this paragraph may be suspended until receipt of the final disposition or proof of restoration of civil and firearm rights.
4. In the event a legible set of fingerprints, as determined by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services or the Federal Bureau of Investigation, cannot be obtained after two attempts, the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall determine eligibility based upon the name checks conducted by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement.
5. A consular security official of a foreign government that maintains diplomatic relations and treaties of commerce, friendship, and navigation with the United States and is certified as such by the foreign government and by the appropriate embassy in this country must be issued a license within 20 days after the date of the receipt of a completed application, certification document, color photograph as specified in paragraph (5)(e), and a nonrefundable license fee of $300. Consular security official licenses shall be valid for 1 year and may be renewed upon completion of the application process as provided in this section.
The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall maintain an automated listing of licenseholders and pertinent information, and such information shall be available online, upon request, at all times to all law enforcement agencies through the Florida Crime Information Center.
Within 30 days after the changing of a permanent address, or within 30 days after having a license lost or destroyed, the licensee shall notify the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services of such change. Failure to notify the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services pursuant to the provisions of this subsection shall constitute a noncriminal violation with a penalty of $25.
In the event that a concealed weapon or firearm license is lost or destroyed, the license shall be automatically invalid, and the person to whom the same was issued may, upon payment of $15 to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, obtain a duplicate, or substitute thereof, upon furnishing a notarized statement to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services that such license has been lost or destroyed.
A license issued under this section shall be suspended or revoked pursuant to chapter 120 if the licensee:
1. Is found to be ineligible under the criteria set forth in subsection (2);
2. Develops or sustains a physical infirmity which prevents the safe handling of a weapon or firearm;
3. Is convicted of a felony which would make the licensee ineligible to possess a firearm pursuant to s. 790.23;
4. Is found guilty of a crime under the provisions of chapter 893, or similar laws of any other state, relating to controlled substances;
5. Is committed as a substance abuser under chapter 397, or is deemed a habitual offender under s. 856.011(3), or similar laws of any other state;
6. Is convicted of a second violation of s. 316.193, or a similar law of another state, within 3 years of a previous conviction of such section, or similar law of another state, even though the first violation may have occurred prior to the date on which the application was submitted;
7. Is adjudicated an incapacitated person under s. 744.331, or similar laws of any other state; or
8. Is committed to a mental institution under chapter 394, or similar laws of any other state.
1. No less than 90 days before the expiration date of the license, the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall mail to each licensee a written notice of the expiration and a renewal form prescribed by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services. The licensee must renew his or her license on or before the expiration date by filing with the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services the renewal form containing a notarized affidavit stating that the licensee remains qualified pursuant to the criteria specified in subsections (2) and (3), a color photograph as specified in paragraph (5)(e), and the required renewal fee. Out-of-state residents must also submit a complete set of fingerprints completed fingerprint card and fingerprint processing fee. The license shall be renewed upon receipt of the completed renewal form, color photograph, appropriate payment of fees, and, if applicable, fingerprints a completed fingerprint card. Additionally, a licensee who fails to file a renewal application on or before its expiration date must renew his or her license by paying a late fee of $15. A license may not be renewed 180 days or more after its expiration date, and such a license is deemed to be permanently expired. A person whose license has been permanently expired may reapply for licensure; however, an application for licensure and fees under subsection (5) must be submitted, and a background investigation shall be conducted pursuant to this section. A person who knowingly files false information under this subsection is subject to criminal prosecution under s. 837.06.
2. A license issued to a servicemember, as defined in s. 250.01, is subject to paragraph (a); however, such a license does not expire while the servicemember is serving on military orders that have taken him or her over 35 miles from his or her residence and shall be extended, as provided in this paragraph, for up to 180 days after his or her return to such residence. If the license renewal requirements in paragraph (a) are met within the 180-day extension period, the servicemember may not be charged any additional costs, such as, but not limited to, late fees or delinquency fees, above the normal license fees. The servicemember must present to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services a copy of his or her official military orders or a written verification from the member's commanding officer before the end of the 180-day period in order to qualify for the extension.
1. A license issued under this section does not authorize any person to openly carry a handgun or carry a concealed weapon or firearm into:
  1. Any place of nuisance as defined in s. 823.05;
  2. Any police, sheriff, or highway patrol station;
  3. Any detention facility, prison, or jail;
  4. Any courthouse;
  5. Any courtroom, except that nothing in this section would preclude a judge from carrying a concealed weapon or determining who will carry a concealed weapon in his or her courtroom;
  6. Any polling place;
  7. Any meeting of the governing body of a county, public school district, municipality, or special district;
  8. Any meeting of the Legislature or a committee thereof;
  9. Any school, college, or professional athletic event not related to firearms;
  10. Any elementary or secondary school facility or administration building;
  11. Any career center;
  12. Any portion of an establishment licensed to dispense alcoholic beverages for consumption on the premises, which portion of the establishment is primarily devoted to such purpose;
  13. Any college or university facility unless the licensee is a registered student, employee, or faculty member of such college or university and the weapon is a stun gun or nonlethal electric weapon or device designed solely for defensive purposes and the weapon does not fire a dart or projectile;
  14. The inside of the passenger terminal and sterile area of any airport, provided that no person shall be prohibited from carrying any legal firearm into the terminal, which firearm is encased for shipment for purposes of checking such firearm as baggage to be lawfully transported on any aircraft; or
  15. Any place where the carrying of firearms is prohibited by federal law.
2. A person licensed under this section shall not be prohibited from carrying or storing a firearm in a vehicle for lawful purposes.
3. This section does not modify the terms or conditions of s. 790.251(7).
4. Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any provision of this subsection commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
All moneys collected by the department pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the Division of Licensing Trust Fund, and the Legislature shall appropriate from the fund those amounts deemed necessary to administer the provisions of this section. All revenues collected, less those costs determined by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services to be nonrecurring or one-time costs, shall be deferred over the 7-year licensure period. Notwithstanding the provisions of s. 493.6117, all moneys collected pursuant to this section shall not revert to the General Revenue Fund; however, this shall not abrogate the requirement for payment of the service charge imposed pursuant to chapter 215.
All funds received by the sheriff pursuant to the provisions of this section shall be deposited into the general revenue fund of the county and shall be budgeted to the sheriff.
The Legislature finds as a matter of public policy and fact that it is necessary to provide statewide uniform standards for issuing licenses to carry concealed weapons and firearms for self-defense and finds it necessary to occupy the field of regulation of the bearing of concealed weapons or firearms for self-defense to ensure that no honest, law-abiding person who qualifies under the provisions of this section is subjectively or arbitrarily denied his or her rights. The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall implement and administer the provisions of this section. The Legislature does not delegate to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services the authority to regulate or restrict the issuing of licenses provided for in this section, beyond those provisions contained in this section. Subjective or arbitrary actions or rules which encumber the issuing process by placing burdens on the applicant beyond those sworn statements and specified documents detailed in this section or which create restrictions beyond those specified in this section are in conflict with the intent of this section and are prohibited. This section shall be liberally construed to carry out the constitutional right to bear arms for self-defense. This section is supplemental and additional to existing rights to bear arms, and nothing in this section shall impair or diminish such rights.
The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall maintain statistical information on the number of licenses issued, revoked, suspended, and denied.
As amended by chapter 87-24, Laws of Florida, this section shall be known and may be cited as the "Jack Hagler Self Defense Act."

History. - s. 2, ch. 4147, 1893; s. 1, ch. 5139, 1903; GS 3268; RGS 5101; CGL 7203; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 67, ch. 77-121; s. 1, ch. 77-302; s. 176, ch. 79-164; ss. 1, 2, ch. 87-24; s. 4, ch. 88-183; s. 2, ch. 89-60; s. 110, ch. 89-96; s. 3, ch. 90-311; s. 2, ch. 90-316; ss. 1, 7, ch. 90-364; s. 1, ch. 92-52; s. 1, ch. 92-183; s. 38, ch. 93-39; s. 52, ch. 95-196; s. 1, ch. 95-229; s. 10, ch. 95-430; s. 17, ch. 97-94; s. 1206, ch. 97-102; s. 5, ch. 98-284; s. 3, ch. 98-335; s. 228, ch. 99-245; s. 61, ch. 2000-258; s. 10, ch. 2002-295; s. 108, ch. 2003-1; s. 60, ch. 2004-357; s. 1, ch. 2006-90; s. 1, ch. 2008-105; s. 2, ch. 2011-145; s. 1, ch. 2012-144; s. 61, ch. 2013-116; s. 1, ch. 2014-205, eff. July 1, 2014.

Personal identifying information of an individual who has applied for or received a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm pursuant to s. 790.06 held by the Division of Licensing of the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption applies to such information held by the division before, on, or after the effective date of this section.
Personal identifying information of an individual who has applied for a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm pursuant to s. 790.0625 which is held by a tax collector appointed by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services to receive applications and fees is confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I of the State Constitution. This exemption applies to such information held by the tax collector before, on, or after the effective date of this subsection.
Information made confidential and exempt by this section shall be disclosed:
1. With the express written consent of the applicant or licensee or his or her legally authorized representative.
2. By court order upon a showing of good cause.
3. Upon request by a law enforcement agency in connection with the performance of lawful duties, which shall include access to any automated database containing such information maintained by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.

History. - s. 1, ch. 2006-102; s. 1, ch. 2011-136; s.1, ch. 2014-206; s. 1, ch. 2019-34.

A county court judge, circuit court judge, district court of appeal judge, justice of the supreme court, federal district court judge, or federal court of appeals judge serving in this state is not required to comply with the provisions of s. 790.06 in order to receive a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm, except that any such justice or judge must comply with the provisions of s. 790.06(2)(h). The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall issue a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm to any such justice or judge upon demonstration of competence of the justice or judge pursuant to s. 790.06(2)(h).

History. - s. 2, ch. 90-311; s. 2, ch. 95-229; s. 158, ch. 2004-5.

Notwithstanding s. 790.06(2)(b), the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall issue a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm under s. 790.06 if the applicant is otherwise qualified and:
1. Is a servicemember, as defined in s. 250.01; or
2. Is a veteran of the United States Armed Forces who was discharged under honorable conditions.
The Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services shall accept fingerprints of an applicant under this section administered by any law enforcement agency, military provost, or other military unit charged with law enforcement duties or as otherwise provided for in s. 790.06(5)(c).

History. - s. 1, ch. 2012-108.

As used in this section, the term:
1. "Department" means the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
2. "Division" means the Division of Licensing of the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
The department, at its discretion, may appoint tax collectors, as defined in s. 1(d) of Art. VIII of the State Constitution, to accept applications on behalf of the division for concealed weapon or firearm licenses. Such appointment shall be for specified locations that will best serve the public interest and convenience in applying for these licenses.
A tax collector seeking to be appointed to accept applications for new or renewal concealed weapon or firearm licenses must submit a written request to the division stating his or her name, address, telephone number, each location within the county at which the tax collector wishes to accept applications, and other information as required by the division.
1. Upon receipt of a written request, the division shall review it and at its discretion may decline to enter into a memorandum of understanding or, if approved, enter into a memorandum of understanding with the tax collector to accept applications for new or renewal concealed weapon or firearm licenses on behalf of the department.
2. The department or the division may rescind a memorandum of understanding for any reason at any time.
All personal identifying information that is provided pursuant to s. 790.06 and contained in the records of a tax collector appointed under this section is confidential and exempt as provided in s. 790.0601.
A tax collector appointed under this section may collect and retain a convenience fee of $22 for each new application and $12 for each renewal application and shall remit weekly to the department the license fees pursuant to s. 790.06 for deposit in the Division of Licensing Trust Fund.
1. A tax collector appointed under this section may not maintain a list or record of persons who apply for or are granted a new or renewal license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm. A violation of this paragraph is subject to s. 790.335.
2. A person may not handle an application for a concealed weapon or firearm for a fee or compensation of any kind unless he or she has been appointed by the department to do so.
A person who willfully violates this section commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

History. - s. 2, ch.2014-205, eff. July 1, 2014.

A person who has been adjudicated mentally defective or who has been committed to a mental institution, as those terms are defined in s. 790.065(2), may not own a firearm or possess a firearm until relief from the firearm possession and firearm ownership disability is obtained.
The firearm possession and firearm ownership disability runs concurrently with the firearm purchase disability provided in s. 790.065(2).
A person may petition the court that made the adjudication or commitment, or that ordered that the record be submitted to the Department of Law Enforcement pursuant to s. 790.065(2), for relief from the firearm possession and firearm ownership disability.
The person seeking relief must follow the procedures set forth in s. 790.065(2) for obtaining relief from the firearm purchase disability in seeking relief from the firearm possession and firearm ownership disability.
The person may seek relief from the firearm possession and firearm ownership disability simultaneously with the relief being sought from the firearm purchase disability, if such relief is sought, pursuant to the procedure set forth in s. 790.065(2).

History. - s. 10, ch. 2018-3.

1. A licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer may not sell or deliver from her or his inventory at her or his licensed premises any firearm to another person, other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector, until she or he has:
  1. Obtained a completed form from the potential buyer or transferee, which form shall have been promulgated by the Department of Law Enforcement and provided by the licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer, which shall include the name, date of birth, gender, race, and social security number or other identification number of such potential buyer or transferee and has inspected proper identification including an identification containing a photograph of the potential buyer or transferee.
  2. Collected a fee from the potential buyer for processing the criminal history check of the potential buyer. The fee shall be established by the Department of Law Enforcement and may not exceed $8 per transaction. The Department of Law Enforcement may reduce, or suspend collection of, the fee to reflect payment received from the Federal Government applied to the cost of maintaining the criminal history check system established by this section as a means of facilitating or supplementing the National Instant Criminal Background Check System. The Department of Law Enforcement shall, by rule, establish procedures for the fees to be transmitted by the licensee to the Department of Law Enforcement. Such procedures must provide that fees may be paid or transmitted by electronic means, including, but not limited to, debit cards, credit cards, or electronic funds transfers. All such fees shall be deposited into the Department of Law Enforcement Operating Trust Fund, but shall be segregated from all other funds deposited into such trust fund and must be accounted for separately. Such segregated funds must not be used for any purpose other than the operation of the criminal history checks required by this section. The Department of Law Enforcement, each year before February 1, shall make a full accounting of all receipts and expenditures of such funds to the President of the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the majority and minority leaders of each house of the Legislature, and the chairs of the appropriations committees of each house of the Legislature. In the event that the cumulative amount of funds collected exceeds the cumulative amount of expenditures by more than $2.5 million, excess funds may be used for the purpose of purchasing soft body armor for law enforcement officers.
  3. Requested, by means of a toll-free telephone call, or other electronic means, the Department of Law Enforcement to conduct a check of the information as reported and reflected in the Florida Crime Information Center and National Crime Information Center systems as of the date of the request.
  4. Received a unique approval number for that inquiry from the Department of Law Enforcement, and recorded the date and such number on the consent form.
2. However, if the person purchasing, or receiving delivery of, the firearm is a holder of a valid concealed weapons or firearms license pursuant to the provisions of s. 790.06 or holds an active certification from the Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission as a "law enforcement officer," a "correctional officer," or a "correctional probation officer" as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (3), (6), (7), (8), or (9), this subsection does not apply.
3. This subsection does not apply to the purchase, trade, or transfer of a rifle or shotgun by a resident of this state when the resident makes such purchase, trade, or transfer from a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer in another state.
Upon receipt of a request for a criminal history record check, the Department of Law Enforcement shall, during the licensee's call or by return call, forthwith:
1. Review any records available to determine if the potential buyer or transferee:
  1. Has been convicted of a felony and is prohibited from receipt or possession of a firearm pursuant to s. 790.23;
  2. Has been convicted of a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence, and therefore is prohibited from purchasing a firearm;
  3. Has had adjudication of guilt withheld or imposition of sentence suspended on any felony or misdemeanor crime of domestic violence unless 3 years have elapsed since probation or any other conditions set by the court have been fulfilled or expunction has occurred; or
  4. Has been adjudicated mentally defective or has been committed to a mental institution by a court or as provided in 42 sub-sub-subparagraph b. (II), and as a result is prohibited by state or federal law from purchasing a firearm.
    1. As used in this subparagraph, "adjudicated mentally defective" means a determination by a court that a person, as a result of marked subnormal intelligence, or mental illness, incompetency, condition, or disease, is a danger to himself or herself or to others or lacks the mental capacity to contract or manage his or her own affairs. The phrase includes a judicial finding of incapacity under s. 744.331(6)(a), an acquittal by reason of insanity of a person charged with a criminal offense, and a judicial finding that a criminal defendant is not competent to stand trial.
    2. As used in this subparagraph, "committed to a mental institution" means
      1. Involuntary commitment, commitment for mental defectiveness or mental illness, and commitment for substance abuse. The phrase includes involuntary inpatient placement as defined in s. 394.467, involuntary outpatient placement as defined in s. 394.4655, involuntary assessment and stabilization under s. 397.6818, and involuntary substance abuse treatment under s. 397.6957, but does not include a person in a mental institution for observation or discharged from a mental institution based upon the initial review by the physician or a voluntary admission to a mental institution; or
      2. Notwithstanding sub-sub-subparagraph (I), voluntary admission to a mental in stitution for outpatient or inpatient treatment of a person who had an involuntary examination under s. 394.463, where each of the following conditions have been met:
        
        An examining physician found that the person is an imminent danger to himself or herself or others.
        
        The examining physician certified that if the person did not agree to voluntary treatment, a petition for involuntary outpatient or inpatient treatment would have been filed under s. 394.463(2)(g)4., or the examining physician certified that a petition was filed and the person subsequently agreed to voluntary treatment prior to a court hearing on the petition.
        
        Before agreeing to voluntary treatment, the person received written notice of that finding and certification, and written notice that as a result of such finding, he or she may be prohibited from purchasing a firearm, and may not be eligible to apply for or retain a concealed weapon or firearms license under s. 790.06 and the person acknowledged such notice in writing, in substantially the following form:
        "I understand that the doctor who examined me believes I am a danger to myself or to others. I understand that if I do not agree to voluntary treatment, a petition will be filed in court to require me to receive involuntary treatment. I understand that if that petition is filed, I have the right to contest it. In the event a petition has been filed, I understand that I can subsequently agree to voluntary treatment prior to a court hearing. I understand that by agreeing to voluntary treatment in either of these situations, I may be prohibited from buying firearms and from applying for or retaining a concealed weapons or firearms license until I apply for and receive relief from that restriction under Florida law."
        
        A judge or a magistrate has, pursuant to sub -sub-subparagraph c.(II), reviewed the record of the finding, certification, notice, and written acknowledgement classifying the person as an imminent danger to himself or herself or others, and ordered that such record be submitted to the department.
    3. In order to check for these conditions, the department shall compile and maintain an automated database of persons who are prohibited from purchasing a firearm based on court records of adjudications of mental defectiveness or commitments to mental institutions.
      1. Except as provided in sub-sub-subparagraph (II), clerks of court shall submit these records to the department within 1 month after the rendition of the adjudication or commitment. Reports shall be submitted in an automated format. The reports must, at a minimum, include the name, along with any known alias or former name, the sex, and the date of birth of the subject.
      2. For persons committed to a mental institution pursuant to sub-sub-subparagraph b.(II), within 24 hours after the person's agreement to voluntary admission, a record of the finding, certification, notice, and written acknowledgement must be filed by the administrator of the receiving or treatment facility, as defined in s. 394.455, with the clerk of the court for the county in which the involuntary examination under s. 394.463 occurred. No fee shall be charged for the filing under this sub-sub-subparagraph. The clerk must present the records to a judge or magistrate within 24 hours after receipt of the records. A judge or magistrate is required and has the lawful authority to review the records ex parte and, if the judge or magistrate determines that the record supports the classifying of the person as an imminent danger to himself or herself or others, to order that the record be submitted to the department. If a judge or magistrate orders the submittal of the record to the department, the record must be submitted to the department within 24 hours.
    4. A person who has been adjudicated mentally defective or committed to a mental institution, as those terms are defined in this paragraph, may petition the court that made the adjudication or commitment, or the court that ordered that the record be submitted to the department pursuant to sub-sub-subparagraph c.(II), for relief from the firearm disabilities imposed by such adjudication or commitment. A copy of the petition shall be served on the state attorney for the county in which the person was adjudicated or committed. The state attorney may object to and present evidence relevant to the relief sought by the petition. The hearing on the petition may be open or closed as the petitioner may choose. The petitioner may present evidence and subpoena witnesses to appear at the hearing on the petition. The petitioner may confront and cross-examine witnesses called by the state attorney. A record of the hearing shall be made by a certified court reporter or by court-approved electronic means. The court shall make written findings of fact and conclusions of law on the issues before it and issue a final order. The court shall grant the relief requested in the petition if the court finds, based on the evidence presented with respect to the petitioner's reputation, the petitioner's mental health record and, if applicable, criminal history record, the circumstances surrounding the firearm disability, and any other evidence in the record, that the petitioner will not be likely to act in a manner that is dangerous to public safety and that granting the relief would not be contrary to the public interest. If the final order denies relief, the petitioner may not petition again for relief from firearm disabilities until 1 year after the date of the final order. The petitioner may seek judicial review of a final order denying relief in the district court of appeal having jurisdiction over the court that issued the order. The review shall be conducted de novo. Relief from a firearm disability granted under this sub-subparagraph has no effect on the loss of civil rights, including firearm rights, for any reason other than the particular adjudication of mental defectiveness or commitment to a mental institution from which relief is granted.
    5. Upon receipt of proper notice of relief from firearm disabilities granted under sub-subparagraph d., the department shall delete any mental health record of the person granted relief from the automated database of persons who are prohibited from purchasing a firearm based on court records of adjudications of mental defectiveness or commitments to mental institutions.
    6. The department is authorized to disclose data collected pursuant to this subparagraph to agencies of the Federal Government and other states for use exclusively in determining the lawfulness of a firearm sale or transfer. The department is also authorized to disclose this data to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services for purposes of determining eligibility for issuance of a concealed weapons or concealed firearms license and for determining whether a basis exists for revoking or suspending a previously issued license pursuant to s. 790.06(10). When a potential buyer or transferee appeals a nonapproval based on these records, the clerks of court and mental institutions shall, upon request by the department, provide information to help determine whether the potential buyer or transferee is the same person as the subject of the record. Photographs and any other data that could confirm or negate identity must be made available to the department for such purposes, notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary. Any such information that is made confidential or exempt from disclosure by law shall retain such confidential or exempt status when transferred to the department.
2. Inform the licensee making the inquiry either that records demonstrate that the buyer or transferee is so prohibited and provide the licensee a nonapproval number, or provide the licensee with a unique approval number.
3. 1. Review any records available to it to determine whether the potential buyer or transferee has been indicted or has had an information filed against her or him for an offense that is a felony under either state or federal law, or, as mandated by federal law, has had an injunction for protection against domestic violence entered against the potential buyer or transferee under s. 741.30, has had an injunction for protection against repeat violence entered against the potential buyer or transferee under s. 784.046, or has been arrested for a dangerous crime as specified in s. 907.041(4)(a) or for any of the following enumerated offenses:
    1. Criminal anarchy under ss. 876.01 and 876.02.
    2. Extortion under s. 836.05.
    3. Explosives violations under s. 552.22(1) and (2).
    4. Controlled substances violations under chapter 893.
    5. Resisting an officer with violence under s. 843.01.
    6. Weapons and firearms violations under this chapter.
    7. Treason under s. 876.32.
    8. Assisting self-murder under s. 782.08.
    9. Sabotage under s. 876.38.
    10. Stalking or aggravated stalking under s. 784.048.
    If the review indicates any such indictment, information, or arrest, the department shall provide to the licensee a conditional nonapproval number.
  2. Within 24 working hours, the department shall determine the disposition of the indictment, information, or arrest and inform the licensee as to whether the potential buyer is prohibited from receiving or possessing a firearm. For purposes of this paragraph, “working hours” means the hours from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays.
  3. The office of the clerk of court, at no charge to the department, shall respond to any department request for data on the disposition of the indictment, information, or arrest as soon as possible, but in no event later than 8 working hours.
  4. The department shall determine as quickly as possible within the allotted time period whether the potential buyer is prohibited from receiving or possessing a firearm.
  5. If the potential buyer is not so prohibited, or if the department cannot determine the disposition information within the allotted time period, the department shall provide the licensee with a conditional approval number.
  6. If the buyer is so prohibited, the conditional nonapproval number shall become a nonapproval number.
  7. The department shall continue its attempts to obtain the disposition information and may retain a record of all approval numbers granted without sufficient disposition information. If the department later obtains disposition information which indicates:
    1. That the potential buyer is not prohibited from owning a firearm, it shall treat the record of the transaction in accordance with this section; or
    2. That the potential buyer is prohibited from owning a firearm, it shall immediately revoke the conditional approval number and notify local law enforcement.
  8. During the time that disposition of the indictment, information, or arrest is pending and until the department is notified by the potential buyer that there has been a final disposition of the indictment, information, or arrest, the conditional nonapproval number shall remain in effect.
In the event of scheduled computer downtime, electronic failure, or similar emergency beyond the control of the Department of Law Enforcement, the department shall immediately notify the licensee of the reason for, and estimated length of, such delay. After such notification, the department shall forthwith, and in no event later than the end of the next business day of the licensee, either inform the requesting licensee if its records demonstrate that the buyer or transferee is prohibited from receipt or possession of a firearm pursuant to Florida and Federal law or provide the licensee with a unique approval number. Unless notified by the end of said next business day that the buyer or transferee is so prohibited, and without regard to whether she or he has received a unique approval number, the licensee may complete the sale or transfer and shall not be deemed in violation of this section with respect to such sale or transfer.
1. Any records containing any of the information set forth in subsection (1) pertaining to a buyer or transferee who is not found to be prohibited from receipt or transfer of a firearm by reason of Florida and federal law which records are created by the Department of Law Enforcement to conduct the criminal history record check shall be confidential and exempt from the provisions of s. 119.07(1) and may not be disclosed by the Department of Law Enforcement or any officer or employee thereof to any person or to another agency. The Department of Law Enforcement shall destroy any such records forthwith after it communicates the approval and nonapproval numbers to the licensee and, in any event, such records shall be destroyed within 48 hours after the day of the response to the licensee's request.
2. Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection, the Department of Law Enforcement may maintain records of NCIC transactions to the extent required by the Federal Government, and may maintain a log of dates of requests for criminal history records checks, unique approval and nonapproval numbers, license identification numbers, and transaction numbers corresponding to such dates for a period of not longer than 2 years or as otherwise required by law.
3. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to allow the State of Florida to maintain records containing the names of purchasers or transferees who receive unique approval numbers or to maintain records of firearm transactions.
4. Any officer or employee, or former officer or employee of the Department of Law Enforcement or law enforcement agency who intentionally and maliciously violates the provisions of this subsection commits a felony of the third degree punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
The Department of Law Enforcement shall establish a toll-free telephone number which shall be operational 7 days a week with the exception of Christmas Day and New Year's Day, for a period of 12 hours a day beginning at 9 a.m. and ending at 9 p.m., for purposes of responding to inquiries as described in this section from licensed manufacturers, licensed importers, and licensed dealers. The Department of Law Enforcement shall employ and train such personnel as are necessary expeditiously to administer the provisions of this section.
Any person who is denied the right to receive or purchase a firearm as a result of the procedures established by this section may request a criminal history records review and correction in accordance with the rules promulgated by the Department of Law Enforcement.
It shall be unlawful for any licensed dealer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed importer willfully and intentionally to request criminal history record information under false pretenses, or willfully and intentionally to disseminate criminal history record information to any person other than the subject of such information. Any person convicted of a violation of this subsection commits a felony of the third degree punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
The Department of Law Enforcement shall promulgate regulations to ensure the identity, confidentiality, and security of all records and data provided pursuant to this section.
This section shall become effective at such time as the Department of Law Enforcement has notified all licensed importers, licensed manufacturers, and licensed dealers in writing that the procedures and toll-free number described in this section are operational. This section shall remain in effect only during such times as the procedures described in subsection (2) remain operational.
A licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer is not required to comply with the requirements of this section in the event of:
1. Unavailability of telephone service at the licensed premises due to the failure of the entity which provides telephone service in the state, region, or other geographical area in which the licensee is located to provide telephone service to the premises of the licensee due to the location of said premises; or the interruption of telephone service by reason of hurricane, tornado, flood, natural disaster, or other act of God, war, invasion, insurrection, riot, or other bona fide emergency, or other reason beyond the control of the licensee; or
2. Failure of the Department of Law Enforcement to comply with the requirements of subsections (2) and (3).
Compliance with the provisions of this chapter shall be a complete defense to any claim or cause of action under the laws of any state for liability for damages arising from the importation or manufacture, or the subsequent sale or transfer to any person who has been convicted in any court of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year, of any firearm which has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce. The Department of Law Enforcement, its agents and employees shall not be liable for any claim or cause of action under the laws of any state for liability for damages arising from its actions in lawful compliance with this section.
1. Any potential buyer or transferee who willfully and knowingly provides false information or false or fraudulent identification commits a felony of the third degree punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
2. Any licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer who violates the provisions of subsection (1) commits a felony of the third degree punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
3. Any employee or agency of a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer who violates the provisions of subsection (1) commits a felony of the third degree punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
4. Any person who knowingly acquires a firearm through purchase or transfer intended for the use of a person who is prohibited by state or federal law from possessing or receiving a firearm commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
A person younger than 21 years of age may not purchase a firearm. The sale or transfer of a firearm to a person younger than 21 years of age may not be made or facilitated by a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer. A person who violates this subsection commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. The prohibitions of this subsection do not apply to the purchase of a rifle or shotgun by a law enforcement officer or correctional officer, as those terms are defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (3), (6), (7), (8), or (9), or a servicemember as defined in s. 250.01.
This section does not apply to employees of sheriff's offices, municipal police departments, correctional facilities or agencies, or other criminal justice or governmental agencies when the purchases or transfers are made on behalf of an employing agency for official law enforcement purposes.

History. - s. 1, ch. 89-191; s. 1, ch. 90-316; s. 4, ch. 92-183; s. 1, ch. 93-197; s. 1, ch. 94-256; s. 14, ch. 95-195; s. 8, ch. 95-430; s. 7, ch. 96-392; s. 429, ch. 96-406; s. 29, ch. 97-94; s. 1816, ch. 97-102; s. 6, ch. 98-284; ss. 8, 9, ch. 99-300; s. 1, ch. 2000-218; s. 12, ch. 2002-205; s. 3, ch. 2003-23; s. 1, ch. 2004-79; s. 1, ch. 2006-176; s. 1, ch. 2008-50; s. 1, ch. 2009-233; s. 1, ch. 2010-62; s. 4, ch. 2011-145; s. 1, ch. 2013-249; s. 11 2016-127; s . 46, ch. 2017-3; s. 8, ch. 2017-23; s. 1, ch. 2018-144.; s. 12, ch. 2018-3; s. 86, ch. 2019-167.

1Note. -

Section 1, ch. 89-191, provides that "[t]his section expires on the effective date of federal law which provides access to national criminal history information and requires national criminal history checks on potential buyers or transferees on firearms."
Section 3, ch. 90-316, provides that "[t]his act shall not be construed to nullify the expiration of s. 790.065, Florida Statutes, provided for in chapter 89-191, Laws of Florida."

2Note. - Section 2, ch. 2009-233, provides that "[s]ection 790.065, Florida Statutes, must be reviewed by the Legislature and approved for continuation before the limit of $8 on the fee established by the Department of Law Enforcement under s. 790.065(1)(b), Florida Statutes, may be increased." Paragraph (1)(b) was redesignated as subparagraph (1)(a)2. by s. 4, ch. 2011-145.

1. A mandatory waiting period, is imposed between the purchase and delivery of a firearm. The mandatory waiting period is 3 days, excluding weekends and legal holidays, or expires upon the completion of the records checks required under s. 790.065, whichever occurs later. "Purchase" means the transfer of money or other valuable consideration to the retailer. "Retailer" means and includes a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer engaged in the business of making firearm sales at retail or for distribution, or use, or consumption, or storage to be used or consumed in this state, as defined in s. 212.02(13).
2. Records of firearm sales must be available for inspection by any law enforcement agency, as defined in s. 934.02, during normal business hours.
The waiting period does not apply in the following circumstances:
1. When a firearm is being purchased by a holder of a concealed weapons permit as defined in s. 790.06.
2. To a trade-in of another firearm.
3. To the purchase of a rifle or shotgun, upon a person's successfully completing a minimum of a 16-hour hunter safety course and possessing a hunter safety certification card issued under s. 379.3581. A person who is exempt from the hunter safety course requirements under s. 379.3581 and holds a valid Florida hunting license, is exempt from the mandatory waiting period under this section for the purchase of a rifle or shotgun.
4. When a rifle or shotgun is being purchased by a law enforcement officer or correctional officer, as those terms are defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (3), (6), (7), (8), or (9), or a servicemember as defined in s. 250.01.
It is a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084:
1. For any retailer, or any employee or agent of a retailer, to deliver a firearm before the expiration of the waiting period, subject to the exceptions provided in subsection (2).
2. For a purchaser to obtain delivery of a firearm by fraud, false pretense, or false representation.

History. - s. 1, ch. 91-24; s. 3, ch. 92-183; s. 98, ch. 99-3; s. 12, ch. 2018-3.

Every officer making an arrest under s. 790.07, or under any other law or municipal ordinance within the state, shall take possession of any weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms mentioned in s. 790.07 found upon the person arrested and deliver them to the sheriff of the county, or the chief of police of the municipality wherein the arrest is made, who shall retain the same until after the trial of the person arrested.
If the person arrested as aforesaid is convicted of violating s. 790.07, or of a similar offense under any municipal ordinance, or any other offense involving the use or attempted use of such weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms, such weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms shall become forfeited to the state, without any order of forfeiture being necessary, although the making of such an order shall be deemed proper, and such weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms shall be forthwith delivered to the sheriff by the chief of police or other person having custody thereof, and the sheriff is hereby made the custodian of such weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms for the state.
If the person arrested as aforesaid is acquitted of the offenses mentioned in subsection (2), the said weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms taken from the person as aforesaid shall be returned to him or her; however, if he or she fails to call for or receive the same within 60 days from and after his or her acquittal or the dismissal of the charges against him or her, the same shall be delivered to the sheriff as aforesaid to be held by the sheriff as hereinafter provided. This subsection shall likewise apply to persons and their weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms who have heretofore been acquitted or the charges against them dismissed.
All such weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms now in, or hereafter coming into, the hands of any of the peace officers of this state or any of its political subdivisions, which have been found abandoned or otherwise discarded, or left in their hands and not reclaimed by the owners shall, within 60 days, be delivered by such peace officers to the sheriff of the county aforesaid.
Weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms coming into the hands of the sheriff pursuant to subsections (3) and (4) aforesaid shall, unless reclaimed by the owner thereof within 6 months from the date the same come into the hands of the said sheriff, become forfeited to the state, and no action or proceeding for their recovery shall thereafter be maintained in this state.
Weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms coming into the hands of the sheriff as aforesaid shall be listed, kept, and held by him or her as custodian for the state. Any or all such weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms suitable for use by the sheriff may be so used. All such weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms not needed by the said sheriff may be loaned to any other department of the state or to any county or municipality having use for such weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms. The sheriff shall take the receipt of such other department, county, or municipality for such weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms loaned to them. All weapons, electric weapons or devices, and arms which are not needed or which are useless or unfit for use shall be destroyed or otherwise disposed of by the sheriff as provided in chapter 705 or as provided in the Florida Contraband Forfeiture Act. All sums received from the sale or other disposition of the said weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms disposed of by the sheriff under chapter 705 as aforesaid shall be paid into the State Treasury for the benefit of the State School Fund and shall become a part thereof. All sums received from the sale or other disposition of any such weapons, electric weapons or devices, or arms disposed of by the sheriff under the Florida Contraband Forfeiture Act shall be disbursed as provided therein.
This section does not apply to any municipality in any county having home rule under the State Constitution.

History. - s. 3, ch. 3620, 1885; RS 2424; GS 3270; RGS 5103; CGL 7205; s. 1, ch. 22049, 1943; s. 1, ch. 65-189; ss. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, ch. 67-523; s. 3, ch. 67-2207; ss. 20, 35, ch. 69-106; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 24, ch. 79-8; s. 12, ch. 80-68; s. 1, ch. 83-21; s. 17, ch. 97-93; s. 1207, ch. 97-102.

If any person having or carrying any dirk, sword, sword cane, firearm, electric weapon or device, or other weapon shall, in the presence of one or more persons, exhibit the same in a rude, careless, angry, or threatening manner, not in necessary self-defense, the person so offending shall be guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

History. - s. 1, ch. 4532, 1897; GS 3272; RGS 5105; CGL 7207; s. 5, ch. 69-306; s. 743, ch. 71-136; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 174, ch. 91-224.

A person who exhibits any sword, sword cane, firearm, electric weapon or device, destructive device, or other weapon as defined in s. 790.001(13), including a razor blade, box cutter, or common pocketknife, except as authorized in support of school-sanctioned activities, in the presence of one or more persons in a rude, careless, angry, or threatening manner and not in lawful self-defense, at a school-sponsored event or on the grounds or facilities of any school, school bus, or school bus stop, or within 1,000 feet of the real property that comprises a public or private elementary school, middle school, or secondary school, during school hours or during the time of a sanctioned school activity, commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. This subsection does not apply to the exhibition of a firearm or weapon on private real property within 1,000 feet of a school by the owner of such property or by a person whose presence on such property has been authorized, licensed, or invited by the owner.
1. A person shall not possess any firearm, electric weapon or device, destructive device, or other weapon as defined in s. 790.001(13), including a razor blade or box cutter, except as authorized in support of school-sanctioned activities, at a school-sponsored event or on the property of any school, school bus, or school bus stop; however, a person may carry a firearm:
  1. In a case to a firearms program, class or function which has been approved in advance by the principal or chief administrative officer of the school as a program or class to which firearms could be carried;
  2. In a case to a career center having a firearms training range; or
  3. In a vehicle pursuant to s. 790.25(5); except that school districts may adopt written and published policies that waive the exception in this subparagraph for purposes of student and campus parking privileges.
  4. For the purposes of this section, "school" means any preschool, elementary school, middle school, junior high school, secondary school, career center, or postsecondary school, whether public or nonpublic.
2. A person who willfully and knowingly possesses any electric weapon or device, destructive device, or other weapon as defined in s. 790.001(13), including a razor blade or box cutter, except as authorized in support of school-sanctioned activities, in violation of this subsection commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
3. 1. A person who willfully and knowingly possesses any firearm in violation of this subsection commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
  2. A person who stores or leaves a loaded firearm within the reach or easy access of a minor who obtains the firearm and commits a violation of subparagraph 1. commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083; except that this does not apply if the firearm was stored or left in a securely locked box or container or in a location which a reasonable person would have believed to be secure, or was securely locked with a firearm-mounted push-button combination lock or a trigger lock; if the minor obtains the firearm as a result of an unlawful entry by any person; or to members of the Armed Forces, National Guard, or State Militia, or to police or other law enforcement officers, with respect to firearm possession by a minor which occurs during or incidental to the performance of their official duties.
4. A person who discharges any weapon or firearm while in violation of paragraph (a), unless discharged for lawful defense of himself or herself or another or for a lawful purpose, commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
5. The penalties of this subsection shall not apply to persons licensed under s. 790.06. Persons licensed under s. 790.06 shall be punished as provided in s. 790.06(12), except that a licenseholder who unlawfully discharges a weapon or firearm on school property as prohibited by this subsection commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
This section does not apply to any law enforcement officer as defined in s. 943.10(1), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), (8), (9), or (14).
Notwithstanding s. 985.24, s. 985.245, or s. 985.25(1), any minor under 18 years of age who is charged under this section with possessing or discharging a firearm on school property shall be detained in secure detention, unless the state attorney authorizes the release of the minor, and shall be given a probable cause hearing within 24 hours after being taken into custody. At the hearing, the court may order that the minor continue to be held in secure detention for a period of 21 days, during which time the minor shall receive medical, psychiatric, psychological, or substance abuse examinations pursuant to s. 985.18, and a written report shall be completed.

History. - s. 4, ch. 92-130; s. 11, ch. 93-230; s. 1, ch. 94-289; s. 1209, ch. 97-102; s. 20, ch. 97-234; s. 3, ch. 99-284; s. 61, ch. 2004-357; s. 112, ch. 2006-120; s. 2, ch. 2006-186.

Unless otherwise provided by law, any person who is in possession of a concealed "firearm," as defined in s. 790.001(6), or a "destructive device," as defined in s. 790.001(4), within the premises of a "pharmacy," as defined in chapter 465, is guilty of a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
The provisions of this section do not apply:
1. To any law enforcement officer;
2. To any person employed and authorized by the owner, operator, or manager of a pharmacy to carry a firearm or destructive device on such premises; or
3. To any person licensed to carry a concealed weapon.

History. - s. 1, ch. 81-278; s. 2, ch. 90-124; s. 2, ch. 90-176.

Except as provided in subsection (2) or subsection (3), any person who knowingly discharges a firearm in any public place or on the right-of-way of any paved public road, highway, or street, who knowingly discharges any firearm over the right-of-way of any paved public road, highway, or street or over any occupied premises, or who recklessly or negligently discharges a firearm outdoors on any property used primarily as the site of a dwelling as defined in s. 776.013 or zoned exclusively for residential use commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. This section does not apply to a person lawfully defending life or property or performing official duties requiring the discharge of a firearm or to a person discharging a firearm on public roads or properties expressly approved for hunting by the Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission or Florida Forest Service.
Any occupant of any vehicle who knowingly and willfully discharges any firearm from the vehicle within 1,000 feet of any person commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
Any driver or owner of any vehicle, whether or not the owner of the vehicle is occupying the vehicle, who knowingly directs any other person to discharge any firearm from the vehicle commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
Any person who recreationally discharges a firearm outdoors, including target shooting, in an area that the person knows or reasonably should know is primarily residential in nature and that has a residential density of one or more dwelling units per acre, commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083. This subsection does not apply:
1. To a person lawfully defending life or property or performing official duties requiring the discharge of a firearm;
2. If, under the circumstances, the discharge does not pose a reasonably foreseeable risk to life, safety, or property;
3. To a person who accidentally discharges a firearm.

History. - s. 1, ch. 3289, 1881; RS 2683; GS 3626; RGS 5557; CGL 7743; s. 1, ch. 61-334; s. 745, ch. 71-136; s. 1, ch. 78-17; s. 1, ch. 89-157; s. 229, ch. 99-245; s. 77, ch. 2012-7; s. 3, ch. 2012-108. s. 1 ch. 2016-12

As used in ss. 790.151-790.157, to "use a firearm" means to discharge a firearm or to have a firearm readily accessible for immediate discharge.
For the purposes of this section, "readily accessible for immediate discharge" means loaded and in a person's hand.
It is unlawful and punishable as provided in subsection (4) for any person who is under the influence of alcoholic beverages, any chemical substance set forth in s. 877.111, or any substance controlled under chapter 893, when affected to the extent that his or her normal faculties are impaired, to use a firearm in this state.
Any person who violates subsection (3) commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
This section does not apply to persons exercising lawful self-defense or defense of one's property.

History. - s. 1, ch. 91-84; s. 1210, ch. 97-102.

1. Any person who uses a firearm within this state shall submit to an approved chemical or physical breath test to determine the alcoholic content of the blood and to a urine test to detect the presence of controlled substances, if there is probable cause to believe that the person was using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances or that the person is lawfully arrested for any offense allegedly committed while he or she was using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances. The breath test shall be incidental to a lawful arrest and administered at the request of a law enforcement officer who has probable cause to believe such person was using the firearm within this state while under the influence of alcoholic beverages. The urine test shall be incidental to a lawful arrest and administered at a detention facility, mobile or otherwise, which is equipped to administer such tests at the request of a law enforcement officer who has probable cause to believe such person was using a firearm within this state while under the influence of controlled substances. The urine test shall be administered at a detention facility or any other facility, mobile or otherwise, which is equipped to administer such tests in a reasonable manner that will ensure the accuracy of the specimen and maintain the privacy of the individual involved. The administration of either test shall not preclude the administration of the other test. The refusal to submit to a chemical or physical breath or urine test upon the request of a law enforcement officer as provided in this section shall be admissible into evidence in any criminal proceeding. This section shall not hinder the taking of a mandatory blood test as outlined in s. 790.155.
2. If the arresting officer does not request a chemical or physical test of the person arrested for any offense allegedly committed while the person was using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances, such person may request the arresting officer to have a chemical or physical test made of the arrested person's breath for the purpose of determining the alcoholic content of the person's blood or a chemical test of urine or blood for the purpose of determining the presence of controlled substances; and, if so requested, the arresting officer shall have the test performed.
3. The provisions of s. 316.1932(1)(f), relating to administration of tests for determining the weight of alcohol in the defendant's blood, additional tests at the defendant's expense, availability of test information to the defendant or the defendant's attorney, and liability of medical institutions and persons administering such tests are incorporated into this act.
The results of any test administered pursuant to this section for the purpose of detecting the presence of any controlled substance shall not be admissible as evidence in a criminal prosecution for the possession of a controlled substance.
Notwithstanding any provision of law pertaining to the confidentiality of hospital records or other medical records, information obtained pursuant to this section shall be released to a court, prosecuting attorney, defense attorney, or law enforcement officer in connection with an alleged violation of s. 790.151 upon request for such information.

History. - s. 2, ch. 91-84; s. 1211, ch. 97-102.

1. Notwithstanding any recognized ability to refuse to submit to the tests provided in s. 790.153, if a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that a firearm used by a person under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances has caused the death or serious bodily injury of a human being, such person shall submit, upon the request of a law enforcement officer, to a test of his or her blood for the purpose of determining the alcoholic content thereof or the presence of controlled substances therein. The law enforcement officer may use reasonable force if necessary to require such person to submit to the administration of the blood test. The blood test shall be performed in a reasonable manner.
2. The term "serious bodily injury" means a physical condition which creates a substantial risk of death, serious personal disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.
The provisions of s. 316.1933(2), relating to blood tests for impairment or intoxication, are incorporated into this act.
1. Any criminal charge resulting from the incident giving rise to the officer's demand for testing should be tried concurrently with a charge of any violation of s. 790.151. If such charges are tried separately, the fact that such person refused, resisted, obstructed, or opposed testing shall be admissible at the trial of the criminal offense which gave rise to the demand for testing.
2. The results of any test administered pursuant to this section for the purpose of detecting the presence of any controlled substance shall not be admissible as evidence in a criminal prosecution for the possession of a controlled substance.
Notwithstanding any provision of law pertaining to the confidentiality of hospital records or other medical records, information obtained pursuant to this section shall be released to a court, prosecuting attorney, defense attorney, or law enforcement officer in connection with an alleged violation of s. 790.151 upon request for such information.

History. - s. 3, ch. 91-84; s. 1212, ch. 97-102.

It is unlawful and punishable as provided in s. 790.151 for any person who is under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances, when affected to the extent that his or her normal faculties are impaired, to use a firearm in this state.
Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed by any person while using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances, when affected to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired or to the extent that the person was deprived of full possession of his or her normal faculties, the results of any test administered in accordance with s. 790.153 or s. 790.155 and this section shall be admissible into evidence when otherwise admissible, and the amount of alcohol in the person's blood at the time alleged, as shown by chemical analysis of the person's blood or chemical or physical analysis of the person's breath, shall give rise to the following presumptions:
1. If there was at that time 0.05 percent or less by weight of alcohol in the person's blood, it shall be presumed that the person was not under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired.
2. If there was at that time in excess of 0.05 percent but less than 0.10 percent by weight of alcohol in the person's blood, such fact shall not give rise to any presumption that the person was or was not under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired, but such fact may be considered with other competent evidence in determining whether the person was under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired.
3. If there was at that time 0.10 percent or more by weight of alcohol in the person's blood, that fact shall be prima facie evidence that the person was under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired.
The percent by weight of alcohol in the blood shall be based upon grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood. The foregoing provisions of this subsection shall not be construed as limiting the introduction of any other competent evidence bearing upon the question of whether the person was under the influence of alcoholic beverages to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired.
A chemical analysis of a person's blood to determine its alcoholic content or a chemical or physical analysis of a person's breath, in order to be considered valid under the provisions of this section, must have been performed substantially in accordance with methods approved by the Florida Department of Law Enforcement and by an individual possessing a valid permit issued by the department for this purpose. Any insubstantial differences between approved techniques and actual testing procedures in an individual case shall not render the test or test results invalid. The Florida Department of Law Enforcement may approve satisfactory techniques or methods, ascertain the qualification and competence of individuals to conduct such analyses, and issue permits which shall be subject to termination or revocation in accordance with rules adopted by the department.
Any person charged with using a firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages or controlled substances to the extent that his or her normal faculties were impaired, whether in a municipality or not, shall be entitled to trial by jury according to the Florida Rules of Criminal Procedure.

History. - s. 4, ch. 91-84; s. 1213, ch. 97-102; s. 294, ch. 99-8.

It is unlawful for any person to shoot or discharge any machine gun upon, across, or along any road, street, or highway in the state; upon or across any public park in the state; or in, upon, or across any public place where people are accustomed to assemble in the state. The discharge of such machine gun in, upon, or across such public street; in, upon, or across such public park; or in, upon, or across such public place, whether indoors or outdoors, including all theaters and athletic stadiums, with intent to do bodily harm to any person or with intent to do damage to property not resulting in the death of another person shall be a felony of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082. A sentence not exceeding life imprisonment is specifically authorized when great bodily harm to another or serious disruption of governmental operations results.
This section shall not apply to the use of such machine guns by any United States or state militia or by any law enforcement officer while in the discharge of his or her lawful duty in suppressing riots and disorderly conduct and in preserving and protecting the public peace or in the preservation of public property, or when said use is authorized by law.

History. - s. 1, ch. 16111, 1933; CGL 1936 Supp. 7748(1); s. 746, ch. 71-136; s. 5, ch. 72-724; s. 1, ch. 76-38; s. 1214, ch. 97-102.

A person who sells, hires, barters, lends, transfers, or gives any minor under 18 years of age any dirk, electric weapon or device, or other weapon, other than an ordinary pocketknife, without permission of the minor's parent or guardian, or sells, hires, barters, lends, transfers, or gives to any person of unsound mind an electric weapon or device or any dangerous weapon, other than an ordinary pocketknife, commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
1. A person may not knowingly or willfully sell or transfer a firearm to a minor under 18 years of age, except that a person may transfer ownership of a firearm to a minor with permission of the parent or guardian. A person who violates this paragraph commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
2. The parent or guardian must maintain possession of the firearm except pursuant to s. 790.22.

History. - ss. 1, 2, ch. 3285, 1881; RS 2684; GS 3627; RGS 5558; CGL 7744; s. 1, ch. 65-187; s. 750, ch. 71-136; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 175, ch. 91-224; s. 2, ch. 93-416.

The Legislature finds that a tragically large number of Florida children have been accidentally killed or seriously injured by negligently stored firearms; that placing firearms within the reach or easy access of children is irresponsible, encourages such accidents, and should be prohibited; and that legislative action is necessary to protect the safety of our children.
It is the intent of the Legislature that adult citizens of the state retain their constitutional right to keep and bear firearms for hunting and sporting activities and for defense of self, family, home, and business and as collectibles. Nothing in this act shall be construed to reduce or limit any existing right to purchase and own firearms, or to provide authority to any state or local agency to infringe upon the privacy of any family, home, or business, except by lawful warrant.

History. - s. 1, ch. 89-534.

A person who stores or leaves, on a premise under his or her control, a loaded firearm, as defined in s. 790.001, and who knows or reasonably should know that a minor is likely to gain access to the firearm without the lawful permission of the minor's parent or the person having charge of the minor, or without the supervision required by law, shall keep the firearm in a securely locked box or container or in a location which a reasonable person would believe to be secure or shall secure it with a trigger lock, except when the person is carrying the firearm on his or her body or within such close proximity thereto that he or she can retrieve and use it as easily and quickly as if he or she carried it on his or her body.
It is a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083, if a person violates subsection (1) by failing to store or leave a firearm in the required manner and as a result thereof a minor gains access to the firearm, without the lawful permission of the minor's parent or the person having charge of the minor, and possesses or exhibits it, without the supervision required by law:
1. In a public place; or
2. In a rude, careless, angry, or threatening manner in violation of s. 790.10.
3. This subsection does not apply if the minor obtains the firearm as a result of an unlawful entry by any person.
As used in this act, the term "minor" means any person under the age of 16.

History. - ss. 2, 7, ch. 89-534; s. 1216, ch. 97-102.

1Note. - Also published at s. 784.05(4).

Upon the retail commercial sale or retail transfer of any firearm, the seller or transferor shall deliver a written warning to the purchaser or transferee, which warning states, in block letters not less than 1/4 inch in height:
"IT IS UNLAWFUL, AND PUNISHABLE BY IMPRISONMENT AND FINE, FOR ANY ADULT TO STORE OR LEAVE A FIREARM IN ANY PLACE WITHIN THE REACH OR EASY ACCESS OF A MINOR UNDER 18 YEARS OF AGE OR TO KNOWINGLY SELL OR OTHERWISE TRANSFER OWNERSHIP OR POSSESSION OF A FIREARM TO A MINOR OR A PERSON OF UNSOUND MIND."
Any retail or wholesale store, shop, or sales outlet which sells firearms must conspicuously post at each purchase counter the following warning in block letters not less than 1 inch in height:
"IT IS UNLAWFUL TO STORE OR LEAVE A FIREARM IN ANY PLACE WITHIN THE REACH OR EASY ACCESS OF A MINOR UNDER 18 YEARS OF AGE OR TO KNOWINGLY SELL OR OTHERWISE TRANSFER OWNERSHIP OR POSSESSION OF A FIREARM TO A MINOR OR A PERSON OF UNSOUND MIND."
Any person or business knowingly violating a requirement to provide warning under this section commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

History. - ss. 4, 7, ch. 89-534; s. 3, ch. 93-416.

It is unlawful for any dealer in arms to sell or transfer to a minor any firearm, pistol, Springfield rifle or other repeating rifle, bowie knife or dirk knife, brass knuckles, or electric weapon or device. A person who violates this section commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.

History. - s. 11, ch. 6421, 1913; RGS 5559; CGL 7745; s. 751, ch. 71-136; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 176, ch. 91-224; s. 4, ch. 93-416. s. 2 2016-106

The use for any purpose whatsoever of BB guns, air or gas-operated guns, or electric weapons or devices, by any minor under the age of 16 years is prohibited unless such use is under the supervision and in the presence of an adult who is acting with the consent of the minor's parent.
Any adult responsible for the welfare of any child under the age of 16 years who knowingly permits such child to use or have in his or her possession any BB gun, air or gas-operated gun, electric weapon or device, or firearm in violation of the provisions of subsection (1) of this section commits a misdemeanor of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
A minor under 18 years of age may not possess a firearm, other than an unloaded firearm at his or her home, unless:
1. The minor is engaged in a lawful hunting activity and is:
  1. At least 16 years of age; or
  2. Under 16 years of age and supervised by an adult.
2. The minor is engaged in a lawful marksmanship competition or practice or other lawful recreational shooting activity and is:
  1. At least 16 years of age; or
  2. Under 16 years of age and supervised by an adult who is acting with the consent of the minor's parent or guardian.
3. The firearm is unloaded and is being transported by the minor directly to or from an event authorized in paragraph (a) or paragraph (b).
1. Any parent or guardian of a minor, or other adult responsible for the welfare of a minor, who knowingly and willfully permits the minor to possess a firearm in violation of subsection (3) commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
2. Any natural parent or adoptive parent, whether custodial or noncustodial, or any legal guardian or legal custodian of a minor, if that minor possesses a firearm in violation of subsection (3) may, if the court finds it appropriate, be required to participate in classes on parenting education which are approved by the Department of Juvenile Justice, upon the first conviction of the minor. Upon any subsequent conviction of the minor, the court may, if the court finds it appropriate, require the parent to attend further parent education classes or render community service hours together with the child.
3. The juvenile justice circuit advisory boards or the Department of Juvenile Justice shall establish appropriate community service programs to be available to the alternative sanctions coordinators of the circuit courts in implementing this subsection. The boards or department shall propose the implementation of a community service program in each circuit, and may submit a circuit plan, to be implemented upon approval of the circuit alternative sanctions coordinator.
4. For the purposes of this section, community service may be provided on public property as well as on private property with the expressed permission of the property owner. Any community service provided on private property is limited to such things as removal of graffiti and restoration of vandalized property.
1. A minor who violates subsection (3) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree; for a first offense, may serve a period of detention of up to 3 days in a secure detention facility; and, in addition to any other penalty provided by law, shall be required to perform 100 hours of community service; and:
  1. If the minor is eligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to revoke or to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 1 year.
  2. If the minor's driver license or driving privilege is under suspension or revocation for any reason, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to extend the period of suspension or revocation by an additional period of up to 1 year.
  3. If the minor is ineligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 1 year after the date on which the minor would otherwise have become eligible.
2. For a second or subsequent offense, a minor who violates subsection (3) commits a felony of the third degree and shall serve a period of detention of up to 15 days in a secure detention facility and shall be required to perform not less than 100 nor more than 250 hours of community service, and:
  1. If the minor is eligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to revoke or to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 2 years.
  2. If the minor's driver license or driving privilege is under suspension or revocation for any reason, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to extend the period of suspension or revocation by an additional period of up to 2 years.
  3. If the minor is ineligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 2 years after the date on which the minor would otherwise have become eligible.
For the purposes of this subsection, community service shall be performed, if possible, in a manner involving a hospital emergency room or other medical environment that deals on a regular basis with trauma patients and gunshot wounds.
Any firearm that is possessed or used by a minor in violation of this section shall be promptly seized by a law enforcement officer and disposed of in accordance with s. 790.08(1)-(6).
The provisions of this section are supplemental to all other provisions of law relating to the possession, use, or exhibition of a firearm.
Notwithstanding s. 985.24 or s. 985.25(1), if a minor is charged with an offense that involves the use or possession of a firearm, including a violation of subsection (3), or is charged for any offense during the commission of which the minor possessed a firearm, the minor shall be detained in secure detention, unless the state attorney authorizes the release of the minor, and shall be given a hearing within 24 hours after being taken into custody. At the hearing, the court may order that the minor continue to be held in secure detention in accordance with the applicable time periods specified in s. 985.26(1)-(5), if the court finds that the minor meets the criteria specified in s. 985.255, or if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the minor is a clear and present danger to himself or herself or the community. The Department of Juvenile Justice shall prepare a form for all minors charged under this subsection which states the period of detention and the relevant demographic information, including, but not limited to, the gender, age, and race of the minor; whether or not the minor was represented by private counsel or a public defender; the current offense; and the minor's complete prior record, including any pending cases. The form shall be provided to the judge for determining whether the minor should be continued in secure detention under this subsection. An order placing a minor in secure detention because the minor is a clear and present danger to himself or herself or the community must be in writing, must specify the need for detention and the benefits derived by the minor or the community by placing the minor in secure detention, and must include a copy of the form provided by the department.
Notwithstanding s. 985.245, if the minor is found to have committed an offense that involves the use or possession of a firearm, as defined in s. 790.001, other than a violation of subsection (3), or an offense during the commission of which the minor possessed a firearm, and the minor is not committed to a residential commitment program of the Department of Juvenile Justice, in addition to any other punishment provided by law, the court shall order:
1. For a first offense, that the minor shall serve a minimum period of detention of 15 days in a secure detention facility; and
  1. Perform 100 hours of community service; and may
  2. Be placed on community control or in a nonresidential commitment program.
2. For a second or subsequent offense, that the minor shall serve a mandatory period of detention of at least 21 days in a secure detention facility; and
  1. Perform not less than 100 nor more than 250 hours of community service; and may
  2. Be placed on community control or in a nonresidential commitment program.
The minor shall not receive credit for time served before adjudication. For the purposes of this subsection, community service shall be performed, if possible, in a manner involving a hospital emergency room or other medical environment that deals on a regular basis with trauma patients and gunshot wounds.
If a minor is found to have committed an offense under subsection (9), the court shall impose the following penalties in addition to any penalty imposed under paragraph (9)(a) or paragraph (9)(b):
1. For a first offense:
  1. If the minor is eligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to revoke or to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 1 year.
  2. If the minor's driver license or driving privilege is under suspension or revocation for any reason, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to extend the period of suspension or revocation by an additional period for up to 1 year.
  3. If the minor is ineligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 1 year after the date on which the minor would otherwise have become eligible.
2. For a second or subsequent offense:
  1. If the minor is eligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to revoke or to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 2 years.
  2. If the minor's driver license or driving privilege is under suspension or revocation for any reason, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to extend the period of suspension or revocation by an additional period for up to 2 years.
  3. If the minor is ineligible by reason of age for a driver license or driving privilege, the court may direct the Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles to withhold issuance of the minor's driver license or driving privilege for up to 2 years after the date on which the minor would otherwise have become eligible.

History. - ss. 1, 2, ch. 26946, 1951; s. 8, ch. 69-306; s. 753, ch. 71-136; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 177, ch. 91-224; s. 5, ch. 93-416; s. 29, ch. 95-267; s. 6, ch. 96-398; s. 1817, ch. 97-102; s. 32, ch. 98-136; s. 50, ch. 98-280; s. 1, ch. 99-284; s. 10, ch. 2000-135; s. 113, ch. 2006-120; s. 160, ch. 2010-102; s. 2, ch. 2013-118; s. 32, ch. 2019-167.

It is unlawful for any person to own or to have in his or her care, custody, possession, or control any short-barreled rifle, short-barreled shotgun, or machine gun which is, or may readily be made, operable; but this section shall not apply to antique firearms.
A person who violates this section commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
Firearms in violation hereof which are lawfully owned and possessed under provisions of federal law are excepted.

History. - s. 10, ch. 69-306; s. 1, ch. 89-312; s. 21, ch. 93-406; s. 1217, ch. 97-102.

A person may not import into this state or transfer, distribute, sell, keep for sale, offer for sale, possess, or give to another person a bump fire stock. A person who violates this section commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. As used in this section, the term "bump fire stock" means a conversion kit, a tool, an accessory, or a device used to alter the rate of fire of a firearm to mimic automatic weapon fire or which is used to increase the rate of fire to a faster rate than is possible for a person to fire such semiautomatic firearm unassisted by a kit, a tool, an accessory, or a device.

History. - s. 13, ch. 2018-3.

It is unlawful for any person to manufacture, display, sell, own, possess, or use a ballistic self-propelled knife which is a device that propels a knifelike blade as a projectile and which physically separates the blade from the device by means of a coil spring, elastic material, or compressed gas. A ballistic self-propelled knife is declared to be a dangerous or deadly weapon and a contraband item. It shall be subject to seizure and shall be disposed of as provided in s. 790.08(1) and (6).
This section shall not apply to:
1. Any device from which a knifelike blade opens, where such blade remains physically integrated with the device when open.
2. Any device which propels an arrow, a bolt, or a dart by means of any common bow, compound bow, crossbow, or underwater spear gun.
Any person violating the provisions of subsection (1) is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.

History. - s. 1, ch. 85-258; s. 178, ch. 91-224; s. 1, ch. 2003-82.

It is unlawful for any person to own or to have in his or her care, custody, possession, or control any firearm, ammunition, or electric weapon or device, or to carry a concealed weapon, including a tear gas gun or chemical weapon or device, if that person has been:
1. Convicted of a felony in the courts of this state;
2. Found, in the courts of this state, to have committed a delinquent act that would be a felony if committed by an adult and such person is under 24 years of age;
3. Convicted of or found to have committed a crime against the United States which is designated as a felony;
4. Found to have committed a delinquent act in another state, territory, or country that would be a felony if committed by an adult and which was punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year and such person is under 24 years of age; or
5. Found guilty of an offense that is a felony in another state, territory, or country and which was punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year.
This section shall not apply to a person:
1. Convicted of a felony whose civil rights and firearm authority have been restored.
2. Whose criminal history record has been expunged pursuant to s. 943.0515(1)(b).
Except as otherwise provided in subsection (4), any person who violates this section commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
Notwithstanding the provisions of s. 874.04, if the offense described in subsection (1) has been committed by a person who has previously qualified or currently qualifies for the penalty enhancements provided for in s. 874.04, the offense is a felony of the first degree, punishable by a term of years not exceeding life or as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.

History. - ss. 1, 2, 3, ch. 29766, 1955; s. 1, ch. 63-31; s. 9, ch. 69-306; s. 754, ch. 71-136; s. 1, ch. 71-318; s. 169, ch. 71-355; s. 2, ch. 76-165; s. 6, ch. 93-416; s. 51, ch. 98-280; s. 39, ch. 99-284; s. 2, ch. 2004-286; s. 2, ch. 2008-238. s. 1 c. 2016-42

A person may not have in his or her care, custody, possession, or control any firearm or ammunition if the person has been issued a final injunction that is currently in force and effect, restraining that person from committing acts of domestic violence, as issued under s. 741.30 or from committing acts of stalking or cyberstalking, as issued under s. 784.0485.
A person who violates subsection (1) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
It is the intent of the Legislature that the disabilities regarding possession of firearms and ammunition are consistent with federal law. Accordingly, this section does not apply to a state or local officer as defined in s. 943.10(14), holding an active certification, who receives or possesses a firearm or ammunition for use in performing official duties on behalf of the officer's employing agency, unless otherwise prohibited by the employing agency.

History. - s. 1, ch. 98-284; s. 5, ch. 2012-153.

Any person who meets the violent career criminal criteria under s. 775.084(1)(d), regardless of whether such person is or has previously been sentenced as a violent career criminal, who owns or has in his or her care, custody, possession, or control any firearm, ammunition, or electric weapon or device, or carries a concealed weapon, including a tear gas gun or chemical weapon or device, commits a felony of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. A person convicted of a violation of this section shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum of 15 years' imprisonment; however, if the person would be sentenced to a longer term of imprisonment under s. 775.084(4)(d), the person must be sentenced under that provision. A person convicted of a violation of this section is not eligible for any form of discretionary early release, other than pardon, executive clemency, or conditional medical release under s. 947.149.
For purposes of this section, the previous felony convictions necessary to meet the violent career criminal criteria under s. 775.084(1)(d) may be convictions for felonies committed as an adult or adjudications of delinquency for felonies committed as a juvenile. In order to be counted as a prior felony for purposes of this section, the felony must have resulted in a conviction sentenced separately, or an adjudication of delinquency entered separately, prior to the current offense, and sentenced or adjudicated separately from any other felony that is to be counted as a prior felony.
This section shall not apply to a person whose civil rights and firearm authority have been restored.

History. - s. 7, ch. 95-182; s. 45, ch. 96-388; s. 6, ch. 99-188; s. 1, ch. 2002-210; s. 3, ch. 2004-286.

DECLARATION OF POLICY. - The Legislature finds as a matter of public policy and fact that it is necessary to promote firearms safety and to curb and prevent the use of firearms and other weapons in crime and by incompetent persons without prohibiting the lawful use in defense of life, home, and property, and the use by United States or state military organizations, and as otherwise now authorized by law, including the right to use and own firearms for target practice and marksmanship on target practice ranges or other lawful places, and lawful hunting and other lawful purposes.
USES NOT AUTHORIZED. -
1. This section does not authorize carrying a concealed weapon without a permit, as prohibited by ss. 790.01 and 790.02.
2. The protections of this section do not apply to the following:
  1. A person who has been adjudged mentally incompetent, who is addicted to the use of narcotics or any similar drug, or who is a habitual or chronic alcoholic, or a person using weapons or firearms in violation of ss. 790.07-790.115, 790.145-790.19, 790.22-790.24;
  2. Vagrants and other undesirable persons as defined in 1s. 856.02;
  3. A person in or about a place of nuisance as defined in s. 823.05, unless such person is there for law enforcement or some other lawful purpose.
LAWFUL USES. - The provisions of ss. 790.053 and 790.06 do not apply in the following instances, and, despite such sections, it is lawful for the following persons to own, possess, and lawfully use firearms and other weapons, ammunition, and supplies for lawful purposes:
1. Members of the Militia, National Guard, Florida State Defense Force, Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard, organized reserves, and other armed forces of the state and of the United States, when on duty, when training or preparing themselves for military duty, or while subject to recall or mobilization;
2. Citizens of this state subject to duty in the Armed Forces under s. 2, Art. X of the State Constitution, under chapters 250 and 251, and under federal laws, when on duty or when training or preparing themselves for military duty;
3. Persons carrying out or training for emergency management duties under chapter 252;
4. Sheriffs, marshals, prison or jail wardens, police officers, Florida highway patrol officers, game wardens, revenue officers, forest officials, special officers appointed under the provisions of chapter 354, and other peace and law enforcement officers and their deputies and assistants and full-time paid peace officers of other states and of the Federal Government who are carrying out official duties while in this state;
5. Officers or employees of the state or United States duly authorized to carry a concealed weapon;
6. Guards or messengers of common carriers, express companies, armored car carriers, mail carriers, banks, and other financial institutions, while actually employed in and about the shipment, transportation, or delivery of any money, treasure, bullion, bonds, or other thing of value within this state;
7. Regularly enrolled members of any organization duly authorized to purchase or receive weapons from the United States or from this state, or regularly enrolled members of clubs organized for target, skeet, or trap shooting, while at or going to or from shooting practice; or regularly enrolled members of clubs organized for modern or antique firearms collecting, while such members are at or going to or from their collectors' gun shows, conventions, or exhibits;
8. A person engaged in fishing, camping, or lawful hunting or going to or returning from a fishing, camping, or lawful hunting expedition;
9. A person engaged in the business of manufacturing, repairing, or dealing in firearms, or the agent or representative of any such person while engaged in the lawful course of such business;
10. A person firing weapons for testing or target practice under safe conditions and in a safe place not prohibited by law or going to or from such place;
11. A person firing weapons in a safe and secure indoor range for testing and target practice;
12. A person traveling by private conveyance when the weapon is securely encased or in a public conveyance when the weapon is securely encased and not in the person's manual possession;
13. A person while carrying a pistol unloaded and in a secure wrapper, concealed or otherwise, from the place of purchase to his or her home or place of business or to a place of repair or back to his or her home or place of business;
14. A person possessing arms at his or her home or place of business;
15. Investigators employed by the several public defenders of the state, while actually carrying out official duties, provided such investigators:
  1. Are employed full time;
  2. Meet the official training standards for firearms established by the Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission as provided in s. 943.12(5) and the requirements of ss. 493.6108(1)(a) and 943.13(1)-(4); and
  3. Are individually designated by an affidavit of consent signed by the employing public defender and filed with the clerk of the circuit court in the county in which the employing public defender resides.
16. Investigators employed by the capital collateral regional counsel, while actually carrying out official duties, provided such investigators:
  1. Are employed full time;
  2. Meet the official training standards for firearms as established by the Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission as provided in s. 943.12(1) and the requirements of ss. 493.6108(1)(a) and 943.13(1)-(4); and
  3. Are individually designated by an affidavit of consent signed by the capital collateral regional counsel and filed with the clerk of the circuit court in the county in which the investigator is headquartered.
17. 1. A tactical medical professional who is actively operating in direct support of a tactical operation by a law enforcement agency provided that:
    1. The tactical medical professional is lawfully able to possess firearms and has an active concealed weapons permit issued pursuant to s. 790.06.
    2. The tactical medical professional is appointed to a law enforcement tactical team of a law enforcement agency by the head of the law enforcement agency.
    3. The law enforcement agency has an established policy providing for the appointment, training, and deployment of the tactical medical professional.
    4. The tactical medical professional successfully completes a firearms safety training and tactical training as established or designated by the appointing law enforcement agency.
    5. The law enforcement agency provides and the tactical medical professional participates in annual firearm training and tactical training.
  2. While actively operating in direct support of a tactical operation by a law enforcement agency, a tactical medical professional:
    1. May carry a firearm in the same manner as a law enforcement officer, as defined in s. 943.10 and, notwithstanding any other law, at any place a tactical law enforcement operation occurs.
    2. Has no duty to retreat and is justified in the use of any force which he or she reasonably believes is necessary to defend himself or herself or another from bodily harm.
    3. Has the same immunities and privileges as a law enforcement officer, as defined in s. 943.10, in a civil or criminal action arising out of a tactical law enforcement operation when acting within the scope of his or her official duties.
  3. This paragraph may not be construed to authorize a tactical medical professional to carry, transport, or store any firearm or ammunition on any fire apparatus or EMS vehicle.
  4. The appointing law enforcement agency shall issue any firearm or ammunition that the tactical medical professional carries in accordance with this paragraph.
  5. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term "tactical medical professional" means a paramedic, as defined in s. 401.23, a physician, as defined in s. 458.305, or an osteopathic physician, as defined in s. 459.003, who is appointed to provide direct support to a tactical law enforcement unit by providing medical services at high-risk incidents, including, but not limited to, hostage incidents, narcotics raids, hazardous surveillance, sniper incidents, armed suicidal persons, barricaded suspects, high-risk felony warrant service, fugitives refusing to surrender, and active shooter incidents.
CONSTRUCTION. - This act shall be liberally construed to carry out the declaration of policy herein and in favor of the constitutional right to keep and bear arms for lawful purposes. This act is supplemental and additional to existing rights to bear arms now guaranteed by law and decisions of the courts of Florida, and nothing herein shall impair or diminish any of such rights. This act shall supersede any law, ordinance, or regulation in conflict herewith.
POSSESSION IN PRIVATE CONVEYANCE. - Notwithstanding subsection (2), it is lawful and is not a violation of s. 790.01 for a person 18 years of age or older to possess a concealed firearm or other weapon for self-defense or other lawful purpose within the interior of a private conveyance, without a license, if the firearm or other weapon is securely encased or is otherwise not readily accessible for immediate use. Nothing herein contained prohibits the carrying of a legal firearm other than a handgun anywhere in a private conveyance when such firearm is being carried for a lawful use. Nothing herein contained shall be construed to authorize the carrying of a concealed firearm or other weapon on the person. This subsection shall be liberally construed in favor of the lawful use, ownership, and possession of firearms and other weapons, including lawful self-defense as provided in s. 776.012.

History. - s. 1, ch. 65-410; s. 32, ch. 69-216; s. 32, ch. 73-334; s. 2, ch. 77-302; s. 2, ch. 82-131; s. 15, ch. 83-167; ss. 45, 49, ch. 83-334; s. 32, ch. 84-258; s. 68, ch. 85-62; s. 5, ch. 85-332; s. 15, ch. 87-274; s. 2, ch. 87-537; s. 1, ch. 89-60; s. 8, ch. 90-364; s. 1, ch. 93-269; s. 7, ch. 93-416; s. 89, ch. 95-211; s. 1218, ch. 97-102; s. 110, ch. 2006-1; s. 2, ch. 2006-103; s. 1, ch. 2019-77.

1Note. - Repealed by s. 3, ch. 72-133.

SHORT TITLE. - This section may be cited as the "Preservation and Protection of the Right to Keep and Bear Arms in Motor Vehicles Act of 2008."
DEFINITIONS. - As used in this section, the term:
1. "Parking lot" means any property that is used for parking motor vehicles and is available to customers, employees, or invitees for temporary or long-term parking or storage of motor vehicles.
2. "Motor vehicle" means any automobile, truck, minivan, sports utility vehicle, motor home, recreational vehicle, motorcycle, motor scooter, or any other vehicle operated on the roads of this state and required to be registered under state law.
3. "Employee" means any person who possesses a valid license issued pursuant to s. 790.06 and:
  1. Works for salary, wages, or other remuneration;
  2. Is an independent contractor; or
  3. Is a volunteer, intern, or other similar individual for an employer.
4. "Employer" means any business that is a sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, professional association, cooperative, joint venture, trust, firm, institution, or association, or public sector entity, that has employees.
5. "Invitee" means any business invitee, including a customer or visitor, who is lawfully on the premises of a public or private employer.
  As used in this section, the term "firearm" includes ammunition and accoutrements attendant to the lawful possession and use of a firearm
LEGISLATIVE INTENT; FINDINGS. - This act is intended to codify the long-standing legislative policy of the state that individual citizens have a constitutional right to keep and bear arms, that they have a constitutional right to possess and keep legally owned firearms within their motor vehicles for self-defense and other lawful purposes, and that these rights are not abrogated by virtue of a citizen becoming a customer, employee, or invitee of a business entity. It is the finding of the Legislature that a citizen's lawful possession, transportation, and secure keeping of firearms and ammunition within his or her motor vehicle is essential to the exercise of the fundamental constitutional right to keep and bear arms and the constitutional right of self-defense. The Legislature finds that protecting and preserving these rights is essential to the exercise of freedom and individual responsibility. The Legislature further finds that no citizen can or should be required to waive or abrogate his or her right to possess and securely keep firearms and ammunition locked within his or her motor vehicle by virtue of becoming a customer, employee, or invitee of any employer or business establishment within the state, unless specifically required by state or federal law.
PROHIBITED ACTS. - No public or private employer may violate the constitutional rights of any customer, employee, or invitee as provided in paragraphs (a)-(e):
1. No public or private employer may prohibit any customer, employee, or invitee from possessing any legally owned firearm when such firearm is lawfully possessed and locked inside or locked to a private motor vehicle in a parking lot and when the customer, employee, or invitee is lawfully in such area.
2. No public or private employer may violate the privacy rights of a customer, employee, or invitee by verbal or written inquiry regarding the presence of a firearm inside or locked to a private motor vehicle in a parking lot or by an actual search of a private motor vehicle in a parking lot to ascertain the presence of a firearm within the vehicle. Further, no public or private employer may take any action against a customer, employee, or invitee based upon verbal or written statements of any party concerning possession of a firearm stored inside a private motor vehicle in a parking lot for lawful purposes. A search of a private motor vehicle in the parking lot of a public or private employer to ascertain the presence of a firearm within the vehicle may only be conducted by on-duty law enforcement personnel, based upon due process and must comply with constitutional protections.
3. No public or private employer shall condition employment upon either:
  1. The fact that an employee or prospective employee holds or does not hold a license issued pursuant to s. 790.06; or
  2. Any agreement by an employee or a prospective employee that prohibits an employee from keeping a legal firearm locked inside or locked to a private motor vehicle in a parking lot when such firearm is kept for lawful purposes.
4. No public or private employer shall prohibit or attempt to prevent any customer, employee, or invitee from entering the parking lot of the employer's place of business because the customer's, employee's, or invitee's private motor vehicle contains a legal firearm being carried for lawful purposes, that is out of sight within the customer's, employee's, or invitee's private motor vehicle.
5. No public or private employer may terminate the employment of or otherwise discriminate against an employee, or expel a customer or invitee for exercising his or her constitutional right to keep and bear arms or for exercising the right of self-defense as long as a firearm is never exhibited on company property for any reason other than lawful defensive purposes.
  This subsection applies to all public sector employers, including those already prohibited from regulating firearms under the provisions of s. 790.33
DUTY OF CARE OF PUBLIC AND PRIVATE EMPLOYERS; IMMUNITY FROM LIABILITY. -
1. When subject to the provisions of subsection (4), a public or private employer has no duty of care related to the actions prohibited under such subsection.
2. A public or private employer is not liable in a civil action based on actions or inactions taken in compliance with this section. The immunity provided in this subsection does not apply to civil actions based on actions or inactions of public or private employers that are unrelated to compliance with this section.
3. Nothing contained in this section shall be interpreted to expand any existing duty, or create any additional duty, on the part of a public or private employer, property owner, or property owner's agent.
ENFORCEMENT. - The Attorney General shall enforce the protections of this act on behalf of any customer, employee, or invitee aggrieved under this act. If there is reasonable cause to believe that the aggrieved person's rights under this act have been violated by a public or private employer, the Attorney General shall commence a civil or administrative action for damages, injunctive relief and civil penalties, and such other relief as may be appropriate under the provisions of s. 760.51, or may negotiate a settlement with any employer on behalf of any person aggrieved under the act. However, nothing in this act shall prohibit the right of a person aggrieved under this act to bring a civil action for violation of rights protected under the act. In any successful action brought by a customer, employee, or invitee aggrieved under this act, the court shall award all reasonable personal costs and losses suffered by the aggrieved person as a result of the violation of rights under this act. In any action brought pursuant to this act, the court shall award all court costs and attorney's fees to the prevailing party.
EXCEPTIONS. - The prohibitions in subsection (4) do not apply to:
1. Any school property as defined and regulated under s. 790.115.
2. Any correctional institution regulated under s. 944.47 or chapter 957.
3. Any property where a nuclear-powered electricity generation facility is located.
4. Property owned or leased by a public or private employer or the landlord of a public or private employer upon which are conducted substantial activities involving national defense, aerospace, or homeland security.
5. Property owned or leased by a public or private employer or the landlord of a public or private employer upon which the primary business conducted is the manufacture, use, storage, or transportation of combustible or explosive materials regulated under state or federal law, or property owned or leased by an employer who has obtained a permit required under 18 U.S.C. s. 842 to engage in the business of importing, manufacturing, or dealing in explosive materials on such property.
6. A motor vehicle owned, leased, or rented by a public or private employer or the landlord of a public or private employer.
7. Any other property owned or leased by a public or private employer or the landlord of a public or private employer upon which possession of a firearm or other legal product by a customer, employee, or invitee is prohibited pursuant to any federal law, contract with a federal government entity, or general law of this state.

History. - s. 1, ch. 2008-7.

1Note. - Section 15, ch. 2011-119, provides that "[t]he amendments made to ss. 509.144 and 932.701, Florida Statutes, and the creation of s. 901.1503, Florida Statutes, by this act do not affect or impede the provisions of s. 790.251, Florida Statutes, or any other protection or right guaranteed by the Second Amendment to the United States Constitution."

1. It is unlawful for any person to knowingly alter or remove the manufacturer's or importer's serial number from a firearm with intent to disguise the true identity thereof.
2. Any person violating paragraph (a) is guilty of a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
1. It is unlawful for any person to knowingly sell, deliver, or possess any firearm on which the manufacturer's or importer's serial number has been unlawfully altered or removed.
2. Any person violating paragraph (a) is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
This section shall not apply to antique firearms.

History. - s. 2, ch. 79-58; s. 179, ch. 91-224.

This act shall be known and may be cited as the "State Antiparamilitary Training Act."
As used in this section, the term "civil disorder" means a public disturbance involving acts of violence by an assemblage of three or more persons, which disturbance causes an immediate danger of, or results in, damage or injury to the property or person of any other individual within the United States.
1. Whoever teaches or demonstrates to any other person the use, application, or making of any firearm, destructive device, or technique capable of causing injury or death to persons, knowing or having reason to know or intending that the same will be unlawfully employed for use in, or in furtherance of, a civil disorder within the United States, is guilty of a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
2. Whoever assembles with one or more persons for the purpose of training with, practicing with, or being instructed in the use of any firearm, destructive device, or technique capable of causing injury or death to persons, intending to unlawfully employ the same for use in, or in furtherance of, a civil disorder within the United States, is guilty of a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
Nothing contained in this section shall be construed to prohibit any act of a law enforcement officer which is performed in connection with the lawful performance of his or her official duties or to prohibit the training or teaching of the use of weapons to be used for hunting, recreation, competition, self-defense or the protection of one's person or property, or other lawful use.

History. - s. 1, ch. 82-5; s. 164, ch. 83-216; s. 1220, ch. 97-102.

As used in this section, the term:
1. "Armor-piercing bullet" means any bullet which has a steel inner core or core of equivalent hardness and a truncated cone and which is designed for use in a handgun as an armor-piercing or metal-piercing bullet.
2. "Exploding bullet" means any bullet that can be fired from any firearm, if such bullet is designed or altered so as to detonate or forcibly break up through the use of an explosive or deflagrant contained wholly or partially within or attached to such bullet. The term does not include any bullet designed to expand or break up through the mechanical forces of impact alone or any signaling device or pest control device not designed to impact on any target.
3. "Handgun" means a firearm capable of being carried and used by one hand, such as a pistol or revolver.
4. "Dragon's breath shotgun shell" means any shotgun shell that contains exothermic pyrophoric misch metal as the projectile and that is designed for the sole purpose of throwing or spewing a flame or fireball to simulate a flamethrower.
5. "Bolo shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and that expels as projectiles two or more metal balls connected by solid metal wire.
6. "Flechette shell" means any shell that can be fired in a firearm and that expels two or more pieces of fin-stabilized solid metal wire or two or more solid dart-type projectiles.
1. Any person who manufactures, sells, offers for sale, or delivers any armor-piercing bullet or exploding bullet, or dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell is guilty of a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
2. Any person who possesses an armor-piercing bullet or exploding bullet with knowledge of its armor-piercing or exploding capabilities loaded in a handgun, or who possesses a dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell with knowledge of its capabilities loaded in a firearm, is guilty of a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
3. Any person who possesses with intent to use an armor-piercing bullet or exploding bullet or dragon's breath shotgun shell, bolo shell, or flechette shell to assist in the commission of a criminal act is guilty of a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
This section does not apply to:
1. The possession of any item described in subsection (1) by any law enforcement officer, when possessed in connection with the performance of his or her duty as a law enforcement officer, or law enforcement agency.
2. The manufacture of items described in subsection (1) exclusively for sale or delivery to law enforcement agencies.
3. The sale or delivery of items described in subsection (1) to law enforcement agencies.

History. - s. 1, ch. 83-253; s. 1, ch. 92-141; s. 1221, ch. 97-102.

PREEMPTION. - Except as expressly provided by the State Constitution or general law, the Legislature hereby declares that it is occupying the whole field of regulation of firearms and ammunition, including the purchase, sale, transfer, taxation, manufacture, ownership, possession, storage, and transportation thereof, to the exclusion of all existing and future county, city, town, or municipal ordinances or any administrative regulations or rules adopted by local or state government relating thereto. Any such existing ordinances, rules, or regulations are hereby declared null and void.
POLICY AND INTENT. -
1. It is the intent of this section to provide uniform firearms laws in the state; to declare all ordinances and regulations null and void which have been enacted by any jurisdictions other than state and federal, which regulate firearms, ammunition, or components thereof; to prohibit the enactment of any future ordinances or regulations relating to firearms, ammunition, or components thereof unless specifically authorized by this section or general law; and to require local jurisdictions to enforce state firearms laws.
2. It is further the intent of this section to deter and prevent the violation of this section and the violation of rights protected under the constitution and laws of this state related to firearms, ammunition, or components thereof, by the abuse of official authority that occurs when enactments are passed in violation of state law or under color of local or state authority.
PROHIBITIONS; PENALTIES. -
1. Any person, county, agency, municipality, district, or other entity that violates the Legislature's occupation of the whole field of regulation of firearms and ammunition, as declared in subsection (1), by enacting or causing to be enforced any local ordinance or administrative rule or regulation impinging upon such exclusive occupation of the field shall be liable as set forth herein.
2. If any county, city, town, or other local government violates this section, the court shall declare the improper ordinance, regulation, or rule invalid and issue a permanent injunction against the local government prohibiting it from enforcing such ordinance, regulation, or rule. It is no defense that in enacting the ordinance, regulation, or rule the local government was acting in good faith or upon advice of counsel.
3. If the court determines that a violation was knowing and willful, the court shall assess a civil fine of up to $5,000 against the elected or appointed local government official or officials or administrative agency head under whose jurisdiction the violation occurred.
4. Except as required by applicable law, public funds may not be used to defend or reimburse the unlawful conduct of any person found to have knowingly and willfully violated this section.
5. A knowing and willful violation of any provision of this section by a person acting in an official capacity for any entity enacting or causing to be enforced a local ordinance or administrative rule or regulation prohibited under paragraph (a) or otherwise under color of law shall be cause for termination of employment or contract or removal from office by the Governor.
6. A person or an organization whose membership is adversely affected by any ordinance, regulation, measure, directive, rule, enactment, order, or policy promulgated or caused to be enforced in violation of this section may file suit against any county, agency, municipality, district, or other entity in any court of this state having jurisdiction over any defendant to the suit for declaratory and injunctive relief and for actual damages, as limited herein, caused by the violation. A court shall award the prevailing plaintiff in any such suit:
  1. Reasonable attorney's fees and costs in accordance with the laws of this state, including a contingency fee multiplier, as authorized by law; and
  2. The actual damages incurred, but not more than $100,000.
    Interest on the sums awarded pursuant to this subsection shall accrue at the legal rate from the date on which suit was filed
EXCEPTIONS. - This section does not prohibit:
1. Zoning ordinances that encompass firearms businesses along with other businesses, except that zoning ordinances that are designed for the purpose of restricting or prohibiting the sale, purchase, transfer, or manufacture of firearms or ammunition as a method of regulating firearms or ammunition are in conflict with this subsection and are prohibited;
2. A duly organized law enforcement agency from enacting and enforcing regulations pertaining to firearms, ammunition, or firearm accessories issued to or used by peace officers in the course of their official duties;
3. Except as provided in s. 790.251, any entity subject to the prohibitions of this section from regulating or prohibiting the carrying of firearms and ammunition by an employee of the entity during and in the course of the employee's official duties;
4. A court or administrative law judge from hearing and resolving any case or controversy or issuing any opinion or order on a matter within the jurisdiction of that court or judge; or
5. The Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission from regulating the use of firearms or ammunition as a method of taking wildlife and regulating the shooting ranges managed by the commission.
SHORT TITLE. - As created by chapter 87-23, Laws of Florida, this section may be cited as the "Joe Carlucci Uniform Firearms Act."

History. - ss. 1, 2, 3, 4, ch. 87-23; s. 5, ch. 88-183; s. 1, ch. 2011-109.

The Legislature finds and declares that the manufacture, distribution, or sale of firearms and ammunition by manufacturers, distributors, or dealers duly licensed by the appropriate federal and state authorities is a lawful activity and is not unreasonably dangerous, and further finds that the unlawful use of firearms and ammunition, rather than their lawful manufacture, distribution, or sale, is the proximate cause of injuries arising from their unlawful use.
Except as permitted by this section, a legal action against a firearms or ammunition manufacturer, firearms trade association, firearms or ammunition distributor, or firearms or ammunition dealer on behalf of the state or its agencies and instrumentalities, or on behalf of a county, municipality, special district, or any other political subdivision or agency of the state, for damages, abatement, or injunctive relief resulting from or arising out of the lawful design, marketing, distribution, or sale of firearms or ammunition to the public is prohibited. However, this subsection does not preclude a natural person from bringing an action against a firearms or ammunition manufacturer, firearms trade association, firearms or ammunition distributor, or firearms or ammunition dealer for breach of a written contract, breach of an express warranty, or injuries resulting from a defect in the materials or workmanship in the manufacture of a firearm or ammunition.
A county, municipality, special district, or other political subdivision or agency of the state may not sue for or recover from a firearms or ammunition manufacturer, firearms trade association, firearms or ammunition distributor, or firearms or ammunition dealer damages, abatement, or injunctive relief in any case that arises out of or results from the lawful design, marketing, distribution, or sale of firearms or ammunition to the public.
This section does not prohibit an action against a firearms or ammunition manufacturer, distributor, or dealer for:
1. Breach of contract or warranty in connection with a firearm or ammunition purchased by a county, municipality, special district, or other political subdivision or agency of the state.
2. Injuries resulting from the malfunction of a firearm or ammunition due to a defect in design or manufacture.
1. For the purposes of this section, the potential of a firearm or ammunition to cause serious injury, damage, or death as a result of normal function does not constitute a defective condition of the product.
2. A firearm or ammunition may not be deemed defective on the basis of its potential to cause serious injury, damage, or death when discharged legally or illegally.
1. If a civil action is brought in violation of this section, the defendant may recover all expenses resulting from such action from the governmental entity bringing such action.
2. In any civil action where the court finds that the defendant is immune as provided in this section, the court shall award the defendant all attorney's fees, costs and compensation for loss of income, and expenses incurred as a result of such action.
This section applies to any action brought on or after the effective date of this section.

History. - s. 1, ch. 2001-38.

LEGISLATIVE FINDINGS. -
1. The Legislature finds that in excess of 400 sport shooting and training ranges exist on public and private lands throughout this state.
2. These sport shooting and training ranges are widely used and enjoyed by the residents of this state and are a necessary component of the guarantees of the Second Amendment to the United States Constitution and of s. 8, Art. I of the State Constitution.
3. Many of these ranges are used by state and local law enforcement agencies for training, practice, and regular mandatory qualification by law enforcement officers; by Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission hunter safety instructors who teach adults and youngsters in the safe use and handling of firearms in preparation for obtaining hunting licenses; by school boards, colleges, and universities for reserve officer training corps training and activities; by school shooting teams; by Olympic competitors; and by certified instructors who teach the safe use and handling of firearms in preparation for applying for licenses to carry concealed firearms for lawful self-protection.
4. The public policy of the State of Florida is to encourage the safe handling and operation of firearms and mandates appropriate training in the safe use and handling of firearms for persons licensed to carry concealed firearms and for persons licensed to hunt in the state. Sport shooting and training ranges throughout this state provide the location at which this important public purpose is served and at which the firearms training mandates are fulfilled.
5. Projectiles are integral to sport shooting and training range activity and to the ownership and use of firearms.
6. Over years of operation, projectiles have accumulated in the environment at many ranges. Whether this projectile accumulation has caused or will cause degradation of the environment or harm to human health depends on factors that are site-specific. Therefore, sport shooting and training ranges must be allowed flexibility to apply appropriate environmental management practices at ranges. The use of environmental management practices can be implemented to avoid or reduce any potential for adverse environmental impact.
7. The Department of Environmental Protection, in collaboration with shooting range owners and operators, sport shooting organizations, law enforcement representatives, and university researchers, has developed shooting range best management practices in order to minimize any potential for any adverse environmental impact resulting from the operation of shooting ranges.
8. Appropriate environmental management practices, when implemented where applicable, can minimize or eliminate environmental impacts associated with projectiles. Environmental management practices to maintain or to improve the condition of ranges is evolving and will continue to evolve.
9. Unnecessary litigation and unnecessary regulation by governmental agencies of sport shooting and training ranges impairs the ability of residents of this state to ensure safe handling of firearms and to enjoy the recreational opportunities ranges provide. The cost of defending these actions is prohibitive and threatens to bankrupt and destroy the sport shooting and training range industry.
10. The Department of Environmental Protection does not have nor has it ever had authority to force permitting requirements of part IV of chapter 403 on owners and operators of sport shooting and training ranges.
11. The elimination of sport shooting ranges will unnecessarily impair the ability of residents of this state to exercise and practice their constitutional guarantees under the Second Amendment to the United States Constitution and under s. 8, Art. I of the State Constitution.
LEGISLATIVE INTENT. - The Legislature intends to protect public and private sport shooting or training range owners, operators, users, employees, agents, contractors, customers, lenders, and insurers from lawsuits and other legal actions by the state, special purpose districts, or political subdivisions and to promote maximum flexibility for implementation of environmental management practices and of the principles of risk-based corrective action pursuant to s. 376.30701. It is also the intent of the Legislature that legal action against sport shooting and training ranges will only be a last-resort option and be available only to the department and only after all reasonable efforts to resolve disputes at shooting ranges, including compliance assistance, negotiations, and alternative dispute resolution, have been attempted.
DEFINITIONS. - As used in this act:
1. "Department" means the Department of Environmental Protection.
2. "Operator" means any person who operates or has operated a sport shooting or training range.
3. "Owner" means any person who owns or has owned a sport shooting or training range or any interest therein.
4. "Projectile" means any object expelled, propelled, discharged, shot, or otherwise released from a firearm, BB gun, airgun, or similar device, including, but not limited to, gunpowder, ammunition, lead, shot, skeet, and trap targets and associated chemicals, derivatives, and constituents thereof.
5. "Environmental management practices" includes but is not limited to Best Management Practices for Environmental Stewardship of Florida Shooting Ranges as developed by the Department of Environmental Protection. Such practices include, but are not limited to, control and containment of projectiles, prevention of the migration of projectiles and their constituents to ground and surface water, periodic removal and recycling of projectiles, and documentation of actions taken.
6. "Environment" means the air, water, surface water, sediment, soil, and groundwater and other natural and manmade resources of this state.
7. "User" means any person, partner, joint venture, business or social entity, or corporation, or any group of the foregoing, organized or united for a business, sport, or social purpose.
8. "Sport shooting and training range" or "range" means any area that has been designed, or operated for the use of, firearms, rifles, shotguns, pistols, silhouettes, skeet, trap, black powder, BB guns, airguns, or similar devices, or any other type of sport or training shooting.
DUTIES. -
1. No later than January 1, 2005, the department shall make a good faith effort to provide copies of the Best Management Practices for Environmental Stewardship of Florida Shooting Ranges to all owners or operators of sport shooting or training ranges. The department shall also provide technical assistance with implementing environmental management practices, which may include workshops, demonstrations, or other guidance, if any owner or operator of sport shooting or training ranges requests such assistance.
2. No later than January 1, 2006, sport shooting or training range owners, operators, tenants, or occupants shall implement situation appropriate environmental management practices.
3. If contamination is suspected or identified by any owner, operator, tenant, or occupant of sport shooting or training ranges, any owner, operator, tenant, or occupant of sport shooting or training ranges may request that the department assist with or perform contamination assessment, including, but not limited to, assistance preparing and presenting a plan to confirm the presence and extent of contamination.
4. If contamination is suspected or identified by a third-party complaint or adjacent property sampling events, the department shall give 60 days' notice to the sport shooting or training range owner, operator, tenant, or occupant of the department's intent to enter the site for the purpose of investigating potential sources of contamination. The department may assist with or perform contamination assessment, including, but not limited to, assistance preparing and presenting a plan to confirm the presence and extent of contamination.
5. If the department confirms contamination under paragraph (c) or paragraph (d), principles of risk-based corrective action pursuant to s. 376.30701 shall be applied to sport shooting or training ranges. Application of the minimum risk-based corrective action principles shall be the primary responsibility of the sport shooting range or training range owner or operator for implementation, however, the department may assist in these efforts. Risk-based corrective action plans used for these cleanups shall be based upon the presumption that the sport shooting or training range is an industrial use and not a residential use and will continue to be operated as a sport shooting or training range.
SPORT SHOOTING AND TRAINING RANGE PROTECTION. -
1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any public or private owner, operator, employee, agent, contractor, customer, lender, insurer, or user of any sport shooting or training range located in this state shall have immunity from lawsuits and other legal actions from the state and any of its agencies, special purpose districts, or political subdivisions for any claims of any kind associated with the use, release, placement, deposition, or accumulation of any projectile in the environment, on or under that sport shooting or training range, or any other property over which the range has an easement, leasehold, or other legal right of use, if the sport shooting or training range owner or operator has made a good faith effort to comply with subsection (4).
2. Nothing in this act is intended to impair or diminish the private property rights of owners of property adjoining a sport shooting or training range.
3. The sport shooting and training range protections provided by this act are supplemental to any other protections provided by general law.
WITHDRAWALS OF CLAIMS AND RECOVERY OF EXPENSES AND ATTORNEY'S FEES. -
1. Within 90 days after the effective date of this act becoming law, all claims by the state and any of its agencies, special purpose districts, or political subdivisions against sport shooting or training ranges pending in any court of this state or before any administrative agency on January 1, 2004, shall be withdrawn. The termination of such cases shall have no effect on the defendant's cause of action for damages, reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.
2. In any action filed in violation of this act after the effective date of this act, the defendant shall recover all expenses resulting from such action from the governmental body, person, or entity bringing such unlawful action.
PENALTIES. - Any official, agent, or employee of a county, municipality, town, special purpose district, or other political subdivision or agent of the state, while he or she was acting in his or her official capacity and within the scope of his or her employment or office, who intentionally and maliciously violates the provisions of this section or is party to bringing an action in violation of this section commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in ss. 775.082 and 775.083.
PREEMPTION. - Except as expressly provided by general law, the Legislature hereby declares that it is occupying the whole field of regulation of firearms and ammunition use at sport shooting and training ranges, including the environmental effects of projectile deposition at sport shooting and training ranges.
The provisions of this act shall supersede any conflicting provisions of chapter 376 or chapter 403.
CONSTRUCTION. - This act shall be liberally construed to effectuate its remedial and deterrent purposes.

History. - s. 1, ch. 2004-56.

LEGISLATIVE FINDINGS AND INTENT. -
1. The Legislature finds and declares that:
  1. The right of individuals to keep and bear arms is guaranteed under both the Second Amendment to the United States Constitution and s. 8, Art. I of the State Constitution.
  2. A list, record, or registry of legally owned firearms or law-abiding firearm owners is not a law enforcement tool and can become an instrument for profiling, harassing, or abusing law-abiding citizens based on their choice to own a firearm and exercise their Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms as guaranteed under the United States Constitution. Further, such a list, record, or registry has the potential to fall into the wrong hands and become a shopping list for thieves.
  3. A list, record, or registry of legally owned firearms or law-abiding firearm owners is not a tool for fighting terrorism, but rather is an instrument that can be used as a means to profile innocent citizens and to harass and abuse American citizens based solely on their choice to own firearms and exercise their Second Amendment right to keep and bear arms as guaranteed under the United States Constitution.
  4. Law-abiding firearm owners whose names have been illegally recorded in a list, record, or registry are entitled to redress.
2. The Legislature intends through the provisions of this section to:
  1. Protect the right of individuals to keep and bear arms as guaranteed under both the Second Amendment to the United States Constitution and s. 8, Art. I of the State Constitution.
  2. Protect the privacy rights of law-abiding firearm owners.
PROHIBITIONS. - No state governmental agency or local government, special district, or other political subdivision or official, agent, or employee of such state or other governmental entity or any other person, public or private, shall knowingly and willfully keep or cause to be kept any list, record, or registry of privately owned firearms or any list, record, or registry of the owners of those firearms.
EXCEPTIONS. - The provisions of this section shall not apply to:
1. Records of firearms that have been used in committing any crime.
2. Records relating to any person who has been convicted of a crime.
3. Records of firearms that have been reported stolen that are retained for a period not in excess of 10 days after such firearms are recovered. Official documentation recording the theft of a recovered weapon may be maintained no longer than the balance of the year entered, plus 2 years.
4. Firearm records that must be retained by firearm dealers under federal law, including copies of such records transmitted to law enforcement agencies. However, no state governmental agency or local government, special district, or other political subdivision or official, agent, or employee of such state or other governmental entity or any other person, private or public, shall accumulate, compile, computerize, or otherwise collect or convert such written records into any form of list, registry, or database for any purpose.
5. 1. Records kept pursuant to the recordkeeping provisions of s. 790.065; however, nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize the public release or inspection of records that are made confidential and exempt from the provisions of s. 119.07(1) by s. 790.065(4)(a).
  2. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to allow the maintaining of records containing the names of purchasers or transferees who receive unique approval numbers or the maintaining of records of firearm transactions.
6. Firearm records, including paper pawn transaction forms and contracts on firearm transactions, required by chapters 538 and 539.
  1. Electronic firearm records held pursuant to chapter 538 may only be kept by a secondhand dealer for 30 days after the date of the purchase of the firearm by the secondhand dealer.
  2. Electronic firearm records held pursuant to chapter 539 may only be kept by a pawnbroker for 30 days after the expiration of the loan that is secured by a firearm or 30 days after the date of purchase of a firearm, whichever is applicable.
  3. Except as required by federal law, any firearm records kept pursuant to chapter 538 or chapter 539 shall not, at any time, be electronically transferred to any public or private entity, agency, business, or enterprise, nor shall any such records be copied or transferred for purposes of accumulation of such records into lists, registries, or databases.
  4. Notwithstanding subparagraph 3., secondhand dealers and pawnbrokers may electronically submit firearm transaction records to the appropriate law enforcement agencies as required by chapters 538 and 539; however, the law enforcement agencies may not electronically submit such records to any other person or entity and must destroy such records within 60 days after receipt of such records.
  5. Notwithstanding subparagraph 3., secondhand dealers and pawnbrokers may electronically submit limited firearms records consisting solely of the manufacturer, model, serial number, and caliber of pawned or purchased firearms to a third-party private provider that is exclusively incorporated, exclusively owned, and exclusively operated in the United States and that restricts access to such information to only appropriate law enforcement agencies for legitimate law enforcement purposes. Such records must be destroyed within 30 days by the third-party provider. As a condition of receipt of such records, the third-party provider must agree in writing to comply with the requirements of this section. Any pawnbroker or secondhand dealer who contracts with a third-party provider other than as provided in this act or electronically transmits any records of firearms transactions to any third-party provider other than the records specifically allowed by this paragraph commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
7. Records kept by the Department of Law Enforcement of NCIC transactions to the extent required by federal law and a log of dates of requests for criminal history record checks, unique approval and nonapproval numbers, license identification numbers, and transaction numbers corresponding to such dates.
8. Records of an insurer that, as a condition to providing insurance against theft or loss of a firearm, identify such firearm. Such records may not be sold, commingled with records relating to other firearms, or transferred to any other person or entity. The insurer may not keep a record of such firearm more than 60 days after the policy of insurance expires or after notification by the insured that the insured is no longer the owner of such firearm.
9. Lists of customers of a firearm dealer retained by such dealer, provided that such lists do not disclose the particular firearms purchased. Such lists, or any parts thereof, may not be sold, commingled with records relating to other firearms, or transferred to any other person or entity.
10. Sales receipts retained by the seller of firearms or by a person providing credit for such purchase, provided that such receipts shall not serve as or be used for the creation of a database for registration of firearms.
11. Personal records of firearms maintained by the owner of such firearms.
12. Records maintained by a business that stores or acts as the selling agent of firearms on behalf of the lawful owner of the firearms.
13. Membership lists of organizations comprised of firearm owners.
14. Records maintained by an employer or contracting entity of the firearms owned by its officers, employees, or agents, if such firearms are used in the course of business performed on behalf of the employer.
15. Records maintained pursuant to s. 790.06 by the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services of a person who was a licensee within the prior 2 years.
16. Records of firearms involved in criminal investigations, criminal prosecutions, criminal appeals, and postconviction motions, civil proceedings relating to the surrender or seizure of firearms including protective injunctions, Baker Act commitments, and sheriff's levies pursuant to court judgments, and voluntary surrender by the owner or custodian of the firearm.
17. Paper documents relating to firearms involved in criminal cases, criminal investigations, and criminal prosecutions, civil proceedings relating to the surrender or seizure of firearms including protective injunctions, Baker Act commitments, and sheriff's levies pursuant to court judgments, and voluntary surrender by the owner or custodian of the firearm.
18. Noncriminal records relating to the receipt, storage or return of firearms, including, but not limited to, records relating to firearms impounded for storage or safekeeping, receipts proving that a firearm was returned to the rightful owner and supporting records of identification and proof of ownership, or records relating to firearms impounded pursuant to levies or court orders, provided, however, that such records shall not be compiled, sorted, or otherwise arranged into any lists, indexes, or registries of firearms or firearms owners.
PENALTIES. -
1. Any person who, or entity that, violates a provision of this section commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
2. Except as required by the provisions of s. 16, Art. I of the State Constitution or the Sixth Amendment to the United States Constitution, no public funds shall be used to defend the unlawful conduct of any person charged with a violation of this section, unless the charges against such person are dismissed or such person is determined to be not guilty at trial. Notwithstanding this paragraph, public funds may be expended to provide the services of the office of public defender or court-appointed conflict counsel as provided by law.
3. The governmental entity, or the designee of such governmental entity, in whose service or employ a list, record, or registry was compiled in violation of this section may be assessed a fine of not more than $5 million, if the court determines that the evidence shows that the list, record, or registry was compiled or maintained with the knowledge or complicity of the management of the governmental entity. The Attorney General may bring a civil cause of action to enforce the fines assessed under this paragraph.
4. The state attorney in the appropriate jurisdiction shall investigate complaints of criminal violations of this section and, where evidence indicates a violation may have occurred, shall prosecute violators.
ELECTRONIC RECORDS. - Secondhand dealers and pawnbrokers who electronically submit firearms transaction records to the appropriate law enforcement agencies as required by chapters 538 and 539 shall submit the name of the manufacturer and caliber information of each firearm in Florida Crime Information Center coding, and shall include the model and serial number of each firearm.
CONSTRUCTION. - This section shall be construed to effectuate its remedial and deterrent purposes. This section may not be construed to grant any substantive, procedural privacy right or civil claim to any criminal defendant, and a violation of this section may not be grounds for the suppression of evidence in any criminal case.

History. - s. 1, ch. 2004-59; s. 9, ch. 2006-201; s. 1, ch. 2009-229; s. 33, ch. 2018-3.

Any list, record, or registry maintained or under construction on the effective date of this act shall be destroyed, unless prohibited by law, within 60 calendar days after this act becomes law. Thereafter, failure to destroy any such list, record, or registry may result in prosecution under this act.

History. - s. 2, ch. 2004-59.

A health care practitioner licensed under chapter 456 or a health care facility licensed under chapter 395 may not intentionally enter any disclosed information concerning firearm ownership into the patient's medical record if the practitioner knows that such information is not relevant to the patient's medical care or safety, or the safety of others.
A health care practitioner licensed under chapter 456 or a health care facility licensed under chapter 395 shall respect a patient's right to privacy and should refrain from making a written inquiry or asking questions concerning the ownership of a firearm or ammunition by the patient or by a family member of the patient, or the presence of a firearm in a private home or other domicile of the patient or a family member of the patient. Notwithstanding this provision, a health care practitioner or health care facility that in good faith believes that this information is relevant to the patient's medical care or safety, or the safety of others, may make such a verbal or written inquiry.
Any emergency medical technician or paramedic acting under the supervision of an emergency medical services medical director under chapter 401 may make an inquiry concerning the possession or presence of a firearm if he or she, in good faith, believes that information regarding the possession of a firearm by the patient or the presence of a firearm in the home or domicile of a patient or a patient's family member is necessary to treat a patient during the course and scope of a medical emergency or that the presence or possession of a firearm would pose an imminent danger or threat to the patient or others.
A patient may decline to answer or provide any information regarding ownership of a firearm by the patient or a family member of the patient, or the presence of a firearm in the domicile of the patient or a family member of the patient. A patient's decision not to answer a question relating to the presence or ownership of a firearm does not alter existing law regarding a physician's authorization to choose his or her patients.
A health care practitioner licensed under chapter 456 or a health care facility licensed under chapter 395 may not discriminate against a patient based solely upon the patient's exercise of the constitutional right to own and possess firearms or ammunition.
A health care practitioner licensed under chapter 456 or a health care facility licensed under chapter 395 shall respect a patient's legal right to own or possess a firearm and should refrain from unnecessarily harassing a patient about firearm ownership during an examination.
An insurer issuing any type of insurance policy pursuant to chapter 627 may not deny coverage, increase any premium, or otherwise discriminate against any insured or applicant for insurance on the basis of or upon reliance upon the lawful ownership or possession of a firearm or ammunition or the lawful use or storage of a firearm or ammunition. Nothing herein shall prevent an insurer from considering the fair market value of firearms or ammunition in the setting of premiums for scheduled personal property coverage.
Violations of the provisions of subsections (1)-(4) constitute grounds for disciplinary action under ss. 456.072(2) and 395.1055.

History. - s. 1, ch. 2011-112

DEFINITIONS.-
As used in this section, the term:
1. "Petitioner" means a law enforcement officer or a law enforcement agency that petitions a court for a risk protection order under this section.
2. "Respondent" means the individual who is identified as the respondent in a petition filed under this section.
3. "Risk protection order" means a temporary ex parte order or a final order granted under this section.
PETITION FOR A RISK PROTECTION ORDER.-
There is created an action known as a petition for a risk protection order.
1. A petition for a risk protection order may be filed by a law enforcement officer or law enforcement agency.
2. An action under this section must be filed in the county where the petitioner's law enforcement office is located or the county where the respondent resides.
3. Such petition for a risk protection order does not require either party to be represented by an attorney.
4. Notwithstanding any other law, attorney fees may not be awarded in any proceeding under this section.
5. A petition must:
  1. Allege that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself or herself or others by having a firearm or any ammunition in his or her custody or control or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm or any ammunition, and must be accompanied by an affidavit made under oath stating the specific statements, actions, or facts that give rise to a reasonable fear of significant dangerous acts by the respondent;
  2. Identify the quantities, types, and locations of all firearms and ammunition the petitioner believes to be in the respondent's current ownership, possession, custody, or control; and
  3. Identify whether there is a known existing protection order governing the respondent under s. 741.30, s. 784.046, or s. 784.0485 or under any other applicable statute.
6. The petitioner must make a good faith effort to provide notice to a family or household member of the respondent and to any known third party who may be at risk of violence. The notice must state that the petitioner intends to petition the court for a risk protection order or has already done so and must include referrals to appropriate resources, including mental health, domestic violence, and counseling resources. The petitioner must attest in the petition to having provided such notice or must attest to the steps that will be taken to provide such notice.
7. The petitioner must list the address of record on the petition as being where the appropriate law enforcement agency is located.
8. A court or a public agency may not charge fees for filing or for service of process to a petitioner seeking relief under this section and must provide the necessary number of certified copies, forms, and instructional brochures free of charge.
9. A person is not required to post a bond to obtain relief in any proceeding under this section.
10. The circuit courts of this state have jurisdiction over proceedings under this section.
RISK PROTECTION ORDER HEARINGS AND ISSUANCE. -
1. Upon receipt of a petition, the court must order a hearing to be held no later than 14 days after the date of the order and must issue a notice of hearing to the respondent for the same.
  1. The clerk of the court shall cause a copy of the notice of hearing and petition to be forwarded on or before the next business day to the appropriate law enforcement agency for service upon the respondent as provided in subsection (5).
  2. The court may, as provided in subsection (4), issue a temporary ex parte risk protection order pending the hearing ordered under this subsection. Such temporary ex parte order must be served concurrently with the notice of hearing and petition as provided in subsection (5).
  3. The court may conduct a hearing by telephone pursuant to a local court rule to reasonably accommodate a disability or exceptional circumstances. The court must receive assurances of the petitioner's identity before conducting a telephonic hearing.
2. Upon notice and a hearing on the matter, if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself or herself or others by having in his or her custody or control, or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving, a firearm or any ammunition, the court must issue a risk protection order for a period that it deems appropriate, up to and including but not exceeding 12 months.
3. In determining whether grounds for a risk protection order exist, the court may consider any relevant evidence, including, but not limited to, any of the following:
  1. A recent act or threat of violence by the respondent against himself or herself or others, whether or not such violence or threat of violence involves a firearm.
  2. An act or threat of violence by the respondent within the past 12 months, including, but not limited to, acts or threats of violence by the respondent against himself or herself or others.
  3. Evidence of the respondent being seriously mentally ill or having recurring mental health issues.
  4. A violation by the respondent of a risk protection order or a no contact order issued under s. 741.30, s. 784.046, or s. 784.0485.
  5. A previous or existing risk protection order issued against the respondent.
  6. A violation of a previous or existing risk protection order issued against the respondent.
  7. Whether the respondent, in this state or any other state, has been convicted of, had adjudication withheld on, or pled nolo contendere to a crime that constitutes domestic violence as defined in s. 741.28.
  8. Whether the respondent has used, or has threatened to use, against himself or herself or others any weapons.
  9. The unlawful or reckless use, display, or brandishing of a firearm by the respondent.
  10. The recurring use of, or threat to use, physical force by the respondent against another person or the respondent stalking another person.
  11. Whether the respondent, in this state or any other state, has been arrested for, convicted of, had adjudication withheld on, or pled nolo contendere to a crime involving violence or a threat of violence.
  12. Corroborated evidence of the abuse of controlled substances or alcohol by the respondent.
  13. Evidence of recent acquisition of firearms or ammunition by the respondent.
  14. Any relevant information from family and household members concerning the respondent.
  15. Witness testimony, taken while the witness is under oath, relating to the matter before the court.
4. A person, including an officer of the court, who offers evidence or recommendations relating to the cause of action either must present the evidence or recommendations in writing to the court with copies to each party and his or her attorney, if one is retained, or must present the evidence under oath at a hearing at which all parties are present.
5. In a hearing under this section, the rules of evidence apply to the same extent as in a domestic violence injunction proceeding under s. 741.30.
6. During the hearing, the court must consider whether a mental health evaluation or chemical dependency evaluation is appropriate and, if such determination is made, may order such evaluations, if appropriate.
7. A risk protection order must include all of the following:
  1. A statement of the grounds supporting the issuance of the order;
  2. The date the order was issued;
  3. The date the order ends;
  4. Whether a mental health evaluation or chemical dependency evaluation of the respondent is required;
  5. The address of the court in which any responsive pleading should be filed;
  6. A description of the requirements for the surrender of all firearms and ammunition that the respondent owns, under subsection (7); and
  7. The following statement:
    "To the subject of this protection order: This order will last until the date noted above. If you have not done so already, you must surrender immediately to the (insert name of local law enforcement agency) all firearms and ammunition that you own in your custody, control, or possession and any license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued to you under s. 790.06, Florida Statutes. You may not have in your custody or control, or purchase, possess, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, a firearm or ammunition while this order is in effect. You have the right to request one hearing to vacate this order, starting after the date of the issuance of this order, and to request another hearing after every extension of the order, if any. You may seek the advice of an attorney as to any matter connected with this order."
8. If the court issues a risk protection order, the court must inform the respondent that he or she is entitled to request a hearing to vacate the order in the manner provided by subsection (6). The court shall provide the respondent with a form to request a hearing to vacate.
9. If the court denies the petitioner's request for a risk protection order, the court must state the particular reasons for the denial.
TEMPORARY EX PARTE RISK PROTECTION ORDERS. -
1. A petitioner may request that a temporary ex parte risk protection order be issued before a hearing for a risk protection order, without notice to the respondent, by including in the petition detailed allegations based on personal knowledge that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself or herself or others in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving, a firearm or ammunition.
2. In considering whether to issue a temporary ex parte risk protection order under this section, the court shall consider all relevant evidence, including the evidence described in paragraph (3)(c).
3. If a court finds there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself or herself or others in the near future by having in his or her custody or control, or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving, a firearm or ammunition, the court must issue a temporary ex parte risk protection order.
4. The court must hold a temporary ex parte risk protection order hearing in person or by telephone on the day the petition is filed or on the business day immediately following the day the petition is filed.
5. A temporary ex parte risk protection order must include all of the following:
  1. A statement of the grounds asserted for the order;
  2. The date the order was issued;
  3. The address of the court in which any responsive pleading may be filed;
  4. The date and time of the scheduled hearing;
  5. A description of the requirements for the surrender of all firearms and ammunition that the respondent owns, under subsection (7); and
  6. The following statement:
    "To the subject of this protection order: This order is valid until the date noted above. You are required to surrender all firearms and ammunition that you own in your custody, control, or possession. You may not have in your custody or control, or purchase, possess, receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, a firearm or ammunition while this order is in effect. You must surrender immediately to the (insert name of local law enforcement agency) all firearms and ammunition in your custody, control, or possession and any license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued to you under s. 790.06, Florida Statutes. A hearing will be held on the date and at the time noted above to determine if a risk protection order should be issued. Failure to appear at that hearing may result in a court issuing an order against you which is valid for 1 year. You may seek the advice of an attorney as to any matter connected with this order."
6. A temporary ex parte risk protection order ends upon the hearing on the risk protection order.
7. A temporary ex parte risk protection order must be served by a law enforcement officer in the same manner as provided for in subsection (5) for service of the notice of hearing and petition and must be served concurrently with the notice of hearing and petition.
8. If the court denies the petitioner's request for a temporary ex parte risk protection order, the court must state the particular reasons for the denial.
SERVICE. -
1. The clerk of the court shall furnish a copy of the notice of hearing, petition, and temporary ex parte risk protection order or risk protection order, as applicable, to the sheriff of the county where the respondent resides or can be found, who shall serve it upon the respondent as soon thereafter as possible on any day of the week and at any time of the day or night. When requested by the sheriff, the clerk of the court may transmit a facsimile copy of a temporary ex parte risk protection order or a risk protection order that has been certified by the clerk of the court, and this facsimile copy may be served in the same manner as a certified copy. Upon receiving a facsimile copy, the sheriff must verify receipt with the sender before attempting to serve it upon the respondent. The clerk of the court shall be responsible for furnishing to the sheriff information on the respondent's physical description and location. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the chief judge of each circuit, in consultation with the appropriate sheriff, may authorize a law enforcement agency within the jurisdiction to effect service. A law enforcement agency effecting service pursuant to this section shall use service and verification procedures consistent with those of the sheriff. Service under this section takes precedence over the service of other documents, unless the other documents are of a similar emergency nature.
2. All orders issued, changed, continued, extended, or vacated after the original service of documents specified in paragraph (a) must be certified by the clerk of the court and delivered to the parties at the time of the entry of the order. The parties may acknowledge receipt of such order in writing on the face of the original order. If a party fails or refuses to acknowledge the receipt of a certified copy of an order, the clerk shall note on the original order that service was effected. If delivery at the hearing is not possible, the clerk shall mail certified copies of the order to the parties at the last known address of each party. Service by mail is complete upon mailing. When an order is served pursuant to this subsection, the clerk shall prepare a written certification to be placed in the court file specifying the time, date, and method of service and shall notify the sheriff.
ERMINATION AND EXTENSION OF ORDERS. -
1. The respondent may submit one written request for a hearing to vacate a risk protection order issued under this section, starting after the date of the issuance of the order, and may request another hearing after every extension of the order, if any.
  1. Upon receipt of the request for a hearing to vacate a risk protection order, the court shall set a date for a hearing. Notice of the request must be served on the petitioner in accordance with subsection (5). The hearing must occur no sooner than 14 days and no later than 30 days after the date of service of the request upon the petitioner.
  2. The respondent shall have the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent does not pose a significant danger of causing personal injury to himself or herself or others by having in his or her custody or control, purchasing, possessing, or receiving a firearm or ammunition. The court may consider any relevant evidence, including evidence of the considerations listed in paragraph (3)(c).
  3. If the court finds after the hearing that the respondent has met his or her burden of proof, the court must vacate the order.
  4. The law enforcement agency holding any firearm or ammunition or license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm that has been surrendered pursuant to this section shall be notified of the court order to vacate the risk protection order.
2. The court must notify the petitioner of the impending end of a risk protection order. Notice must be received by the petitioner at least 30 days before the date the order ends.
3. The petitioner may, by motion, request an extension of a risk protection order at any time within 30 days before the end of the order.
  1. Upon receipt of the motion to extend, the court shall order that a hearing be held no later than 14 days after the date the order is issued and shall schedule such hearing.
    1. The court may schedule a hearing by telephone in the manner provided by subparagraph (3)(a)3.
    2. The respondent must be personally serviced in the same manner provided by subsection (5).
  2. In determining whether to extend a risk protection order issued under this section, the court may consider all relevant evidence, including evidence of the considerations listed in paragraph (3)(c).
  3. If the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the requirements for issuance of a risk protection order as provided in subsection (3) continue to be met, the court must extend the order. However, if, after notice, the motion for extension is uncontested and no modification of the order is sought, the order may be extended on the basis of a motion or affidavit stating that there has been no material change in relevant circumstances since entry of the order and stating the reason for the requested extension.
  4. The court may extend a risk protection order for a period that it deems appropriate, up to and including but not exceeding 12 months, subject to an order to vacate as provided in paragraph (a) or to another extension order by the court.
SURRENDER OF FIREARMS AND AMMUNITION. -
1. Upon issuance of a risk protection order under this section, including a temporary ex parte risk protection order, the court shall order the respondent to surrender to the local law enforcement agency all firearms and ammunition owned by the respondent in the respondent's custody, control, or possession except as provided in subsection (9), and any license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued under s. 790.06, held by the respondent.
2. The law enforcement officer serving a risk protection order under this section, including a temporary ex parte risk protection order, shall request that the respondent immediately surrender all firearms and ammunition owned by the respondent in his or her custody, control, or possession and any license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued under s. 790.06, held by the respondent. The law enforcement officer shall take possession of all firearms and ammunition owned by the respondent and any license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued under s. 790.06, held by the respondent, which are surrendered. Alternatively, if personal service by a law enforcement officer is not possible or is not required because the respondent was present at the risk protection order hearing, the respondent must surrender any firearms and ammunition owned by the respondent and any license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued under s. 790.06, held by the respondent, in a safe manner to the control of the local law enforcement agency immediately after being served with the order by service or immediately after the hearing at which the respondent was present. Notwithstanding ss. 933.02 and 933.18, a law enforcement officer may seek a search warrant from a court of competent jurisdiction to conduct a search for firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent if the officer has probable cause to believe that there are firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent in the respondent's custody, control, or possession which have not been surrendered.
3. At the time of surrender, a law enforcement officer taking possession of any firearm or ammunition owned by the respondent, or a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued under s. 790.06, held by the respondent shall issue a receipt identifying all firearms and the quantity and type of ammunition that have been surrendered, and any license surrendered and shall provide a copy of the receipt to the respondent. Within 72 hours after service of the order, the law enforcement officer serving the order shall file the original receipt with the court and shall ensure that his or her law enforcement agency retains a copy of the receipt.
4. Notwithstanding ss. 933.02 and 933.18, upon the sworn statement or testimony of any person alleging that the respondent has failed to comply with the surrender of firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent, as required by an order issued under this section, the court shall determine whether probable cause exists to believe that the respondent has failed to surrender all firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent in the respondent's custody, control, or possession. If the court finds that probable cause exists, the court must issue a warrant describing the firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent and authorizing a search of the locations where the firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent are reasonably believed to be found and the seizure of any firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent discovered pursuant to such search.
5. If a person other than the respondent claims title to any firearms or ammunition surrendered pursuant to this section and he or she is determined by the law enforcement agency to be the lawful owner of the firearm or ammunition, the firearm or ammunition shall be returned to him or her, if:
  1. The lawful owner agrees to store the firearm or ammunition in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearm or ammunition.
  2. The firearm or ammunition is not otherwise unlawfully possessed by the owner.
6. Upon the issuance of a risk protection order, the court shall order a new hearing date and require the respondent to appear no later than 3 business days after the issuance of the order. The court shall require proof that the respondent has surrendered any firearms or ammunition owned by the respondent in the respondent's custody, control, or possession. The court may cancel the hearing upon a satisfactory showing that the respondent is in compliance with the order.
7. All law enforcement agencies must develop policies and procedures regarding the acceptance, storage, and return of firearms, ammunition, or licenses required to be surrendered under this section.
RETURN AND DISPOSAL OF FIREARMS AND AMMUNITION. -
1. If a risk protection order is vacated or ends without extension, a law enforcement agency holding a firearm or any ammunition owned by the respondent or a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued under s. 790.06, held by the respondent, that has been surrendered or seized pursuant to this section must return such surrendered firearm, ammunition, or license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm issued under s. 790.06, as requested by a respondent only after confirming through a background check that the respondent is currently eligible to own or possess firearms and ammunition under federal and state law and after confirming with the court that the risk protection order has been vacated or has ended without extension.
2. If a risk protection order is vacated or ends without extension, the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, if it has suspended a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm pursuant to this section, must reinstate such license only after confirming that the respondent is currently eligible to have a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm pursuant to s. 790.06.
3. A law enforcement agency must provide notice to any family or household members of the respondent before the return of any surrendered firearm and ammunition owned by the respondent.
4. Any firearm and ammunition surrendered by a respondent pursuant to subsection (7) which remains unclaimed for 1 year by the lawful owner after an order to vacate the risk protection order shall be disposed of in accordance with the law enforcement agency's policies and procedures for the disposal of firearms in police custody.
TRANSFER OF FIREARMS AND AMMUNITION. -
respondent may elect to transfer all firearms and ammunition owned by the respondent that have been surrendered to or seized by a local law enforcement agency pursuant to subsection (7) to another person who is willing to receive the respondent's firearms and ammunition. The law enforcement agency must allow such a transfer only if it is determined that the chosen recipient:
1. Currently is eligible to own or possess a firearm and ammunition under federal and state law after confirmation through a background check;
2. Attests to storing the firearms and ammunition in a manner such that the respondent does not have access to or control of the firearms and ammunition until the risk protection order against the respondent is vacated or ends without extension; and
3. Attests not to transfer the firearms or ammunition back to the respondent until the risk protection order against the respondent is vacated or ends without extension.
REPORTING OF ORDERS. -
1. Within 24 hours after issuance, the clerk of the court shall enter any risk protection order or temporary ex parte risk protection order issued under this section into the uniform case reporting system.
2. Within 24 hours after issuance, the clerk of the court shall forward a copy of an order issued under this section to the appropriate law enforcement agency specified in the order. Upon receipt of the copy of the order, the law enforcement agency shall enter the order into the Florida Crime Information Center and National Crime Information Center. The order must remain in each system for the period stated in the order, and the law enforcement agency may only remove an order from the systems which has ended or been vacated. Entry of the order into the Florida Crime Information Center and National Crime Information Center constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the order. The order is fully enforceable in any county in this state.
3. The issuing court shall, within 3 business days after issuance of a risk protection order or temporary ex parte risk protection order, forward all available identifying information concerning the respondent, along with the date of order issuance, to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services. Upon receipt of the information, the department shall determine if the respondent has a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm. If the respondent does have a license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm, the department must immediately suspend the license.
4. If a risk protection order is vacated before its end date, the clerk of the court shall, on the day of the order to vacate, forward a copy of the order to the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services and the appropriate law enforcement agency specified in the order to vacate. Upon receipt of the order, the law enforcement agency shall promptly remove the order from any computer-based system in which it was entered pursuant to paragraph (b).
PENALTIES. -
1. A person who makes a false statement, which he or she does not believe to be true, under oath in a hearing under this section in regard to any material matter commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
2. A person who has in his or her custody or control a firearm or any ammunition or who purchases, possesses, or receives a firearm or any ammunition with knowledge that he or she is prohibited from doing so by an order issued under this section commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
LAW ENFORCEMENT RETAINS OTHER AUTHORITY. -
This section does not affect the ability of a law enforcement officer to remove a firearm or ammunition or license to carry a concealed weapon or concealed firearm from any person or to conduct any search and seizure for firearms or ammunition pursuant to other lawful authority.
LIABILITY.-
Except as provided in subsection (8) or subsection (11), this section does not impose criminal or civil liability on any person or entity for acts or omissions related to obtaining a risk protection order or temporary ex parte risk protection order, including, but not limited to, providing notice to the petitioner, a family or household member of the respondent, and any known third party who may be at risk of violence or failure to provide such notice, or reporting, declining to report, investigating, declining to investigate, filing, or declining to file, a petition under this section.
INSTRUCTIONAL AND INFORMATIONAL MATERIAL. -
1. The Office of the State Courts Administrator shall develop and prepare instructions and informational brochures, standard petitions and risk protection order forms, and a court staff handbook on the risk protection order process. The standard petition and order forms must be used after January 1, 2019, for all petitions filed and orders issued pursuant to this section. The office shall determine the significant non-English-speaking or limited English-speaking populations in the state and prepare the instructions and informational brochures and standard petitions and risk protection order forms in such languages. The instructions, brochures, forms, and handbook must be prepared in consultation with interested persons, including representatives of gun violence prevention groups, judges, and law enforcement personnel. Materials must be based on best practices and must be available online to the public.
  1. The instructions must be designed to assist petitioners in completing the petition and must include a sample of a standard petition and order for protection forms.
  2. The instructions and standard petition must include a means for the petitioner to identify, with only layman's knowledge, the firearms or ammunition the respondent may own, possess, receive, or have in his or her custody or control. The instructions must provide pictures of types of firearms and ammunition that the petitioner may choose from to identify the relevant firearms or ammunition, or must provide an equivalent means to allow petitioners to identify firearms or ammunition without requiring specific or technical knowledge regarding the firearms or ammunition.
  3. The informational brochure must describe the use of and the process for obtaining, extending, and vacating a risk protection order under this section and must provide relevant forms.
  4. The risk protection order form must include, in a conspicuous location, notice of criminal penalties resulting from violation of the order and the following statement: "You have the sole responsibility to avoid or refrain from violating this order's provisions. Only the court can change the order and only upon written request."
  5. The court staff handbook must allow for the addition of a community resource list by the clerk of the court.
2. Any clerk of court may create a community resource list of crisis intervention, mental health, substance abuse, interpreter, counseling, and other relevant resources serving the county in which the court is located. The court may make the community resource list available as part of or in addition to the informational brochures described in paragraph (a).
3. The Office of the State Courts Administrator shall distribute a master copy of the petition and order forms, instructions, and informational brochures to the clerks of court. Distribution of all documents shall, at a minimum, be in an electronic format or formats accessible to all courts and clerks of court in the state.
4. Within 90 days after receipt of the master copy from the Office of the State Courts Administrator, the clerk of the court shall make available the standardized forms, instructions, and informational brochures required by this subsection.
5. The Office of the State Courts Administrator shall update the instructions, brochures, standard petition and risk protection order forms, and court staff handbook as necessary, including when changes in the law make an update necessary.

History.--s. 16, ch. 2018-3.

Whenever the public official declares that a state of emergency exists, pursuant to s. 870.043, the following acts shall be prohibited during the period of said emergency throughout the jurisdiction:

The sale of, or offer to sell, with or without consideration, any ammunition or gun or other firearm of any size or description.
The intentional display, after the emergency is declared, by or in any store or shop of any ammunition or gun or other firearm of any size or description.
The intentional possession in a public place of a firearm by any person, except a duly authorized law enforcement official or person in military service acting in the official performance of her or his duty.

Nothing contained in this chapter shall be construed to authorize the seizure, taking, or confiscation of firearms that are lawfully possessed, unless a person is engaged in a criminal act.

History. -ss. 4, 5, ch. 70-990; s. 1401, ch. 97-102; s. 2, ch. 2006-100.

Florida Firearm Laws

Florida Constitution Article I, Section 8(a)

TITLE XVII - MILITARY AFFAIRS AND RELATED MATTERS

CHAPTER 252 - Emergency Management

§252.36 - Emergency management powers of the Governor

TITLE XXIX - PUBLIC HEALTH

CHAPTER 381 - Public Health: General Provisions

§381.026 - Florida Patients Bill of Rights and Responsibilities

TITLE XLVI - CRIMES

CHAPTER 776 - Justifiable Use Of Force

§776.012 - (2014) Use or threatened use of force in defense of person

§776.013 - (2014) Home protection; use or threatened use of deadly force; presumption of fear of death or great bodily harm

§776.031 - (2014) Use or threatened use of force in defense of property

§776.032 - (2017) Immunity from criminal prosecution and civil action for justifiable use or threatened use of force

§776.041 - (2014) Use or threatened use of force by aggressor

§776.05 - Law enforcement officers; use of force in making an arrest

§776.051 - (2014) Use or threatened use of force in resisting arrest or making an arrest or in the execution of a legal duty; prohibition

§776.06 - (2014) Deadly force by a law enforcement or correctional officer

§776.07 - Use of force to prevent escape

§776.08 - Forcible felony

§776.085 - Defense to civil action for damages; party convicted of forcible or attempted forcible felony

§776.09 - (2014) Retention of records pertaining to persons found to be acting in lawful self-defense; expunction of criminal history records

CHAPTER 784 - Assault; Battery; Culpable Negligence

§784.05 - Culpable negligence

CHAPTER 790 - Weapons And Firearms

§790.001 - (2016) Definitions

§790.01 - (2015) Unlicensed carrying of concealed weapons or concealed firearms

§790.015 - Nonresidents who are United States citizens and hold a concealed weapons license in another state; reciprocity

§790.02 - Officer to arrest without warrant and upon probable cause

§790.052 - (2019) Carrying concealed firearms; off-duty law enforcement officers

§790.053 - Open carrying of weapons

§790.054 - Prohibited use of self-defense weapon or device against law enforcement officer; penalties

§790.06 - (2014) License to carry concealed weapon or firearm

§790.0601 - (2019) Public records exemption for concealed weapons

§790.061 - Judges and justices; exceptions from licensure provisions

§790.062 - Members and veterans of United States Armed Forces; exceptions from licensure provisions

§790.0625 - (2014) Appointment of tax collectors to accept applications for a concealed weapon or firearm license; fees; penalties

§790.064 - (2018) Firearm possession and firearm ownership disability

§790.065 - (2019) Sale and delivery of firearms

§790.0655 - (2018) Purchase and delivery of firearms; mandatory waiting period; exceptions; penalties

§790.08 - Taking possession of weapons and arms; reports; disposition; custody

§790.10 - Improper exhibition of dangerous weapons or firearms

§790.115 - Possessing or discharging weapons or firearms at a school-sponsored event or on school property prohibited; penalties; exceptions

§790.145 - Crimes in pharmacies; possession of weapons; penalties

§790.15 - (2016) Discharging firearm in public or on residential property

§790.151 - Using firearm while under the influence of alcoholic beverages, chemical substances, or controlled substances; penalties

§790.153 - Tests for impairment or intoxication; right to refuse

§790.155 - Blood test for impairment or intoxication in cases of death or serious bodily injury; right to use reasonable force

§790.157 - Presumption of impairment; testing methods

§790.16 - Discharging machine guns; penalty

§790.17 - Furnishing weapons to minors under 18 years of age or persons of unsound mind and furnishing firearms to minors under 18 years of age prohibited

§790.173 - Legislative findings and intent

§790.174 - Safe storage of firearms required

§790.175 - Transfer or sale of firearms; required warnings; penalties

§790.18 - (2016) Sale or transfer of arms to minors by dealers

§790.22 - (2019) Use of BB guns, air or gas-operated guns, or electric weapons or devices by minor under 16; limitation; possession of firearms by minor under 18 prohibited; penalties

§790.221 - Possession of short-barreled rifle, short-barreled shotgun, or machine gun; penalty

§790.222 - Bump-fire stocks prohibited

§790.225 - Ballistic self-propelled knives; unlawful to manufacture, sell, or possess; forfeiture; penalty

§790.23 - (2016) Felons and delinquents; possession of firearms, ammunition, or electric weapons or devices unlawful

§790.233 - Possession of firearm or ammunition prohibited when person is subject to an injunction against committing acts of domestic violence, stalking, or cyberstalking; penalties

§790.235 - Possession of firearm or ammunition by violent career criminal unlawful; penalty

§790.25 - (2019) Lawful ownership, possession, and use of firearms and other weapons

§790.251 - Protection of the right to keep and bear arms in motor vehicles for self-defense and other lawful purposes; prohibited acts; duty of public and private employers; immunity from liability; enforcement

§790.27 - Alteration or removal of firearm serial number or possession, sale, or delivery of firearm with serial number altered or removed prohibited; penalties

§790.29 - Paramilitary training; teaching or participation prohibited

§790.31 - Armor-piercing or exploding ammunition or dragon's breath shotgun shells, bolo shells, or flechette shells prohibited

§790.33 - Field of regulation of firearms and ammunition preempted

§790.331 - Prohibition of civil actions against firearms or ammunition manufacturers, firearms trade associations, firearms or ammunition distributors, or firearms or ammunition dealers

§790.333 - Sport shooting and training range protection; liability; claims, expenses, and fees; penalties; preemption; construction

§790.335 - (2018) Prohibition of registration of firearms; electronic records

§790.336 - Lists, records, or registries to be destroyed

§790.338 - Medical privacy concerning firearms; prohibitions; penalties; exceptions

§790.401 - Risk protection orders

CHAPTER 870 - Affrays; Riots; Routs; Unlawful Assemblies

§870.044 - Automatic emergency measures