Rep. Brandon W. Phelps

Filed: 5/31/2013

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1
AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 2335
2 AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 2335, AS AMENDED,
3by replacing everything after the enacting clause with the
4following:
5 "Section 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the
6Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
7 Section 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:
8 "Applicant" means a person who is applying for a license to
9carry a concealed firearm under this Act.
10 "Board" means the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board.
11 "Concealed firearm" means a loaded or unloaded handgun
12carried on or about a person completely or mostly concealed
13from view of the public or on or about a person within a
14vehicle.
15 "Department" means the Department of State Police.
16 "Director" means the Director of State Police.

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1 "Handgun" means any device which is designed to expel a
2projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion,
3expansion of gas, or escape of gas that is designed to be held
4and fired by the use of a single hand. "Handgun" does not
5include:
6 (1) a stun gun or taser;
7 (2) a machine gun as defined in item (i) of paragraph
8 (7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code
9 of 2012;
10 (3) a short-barreled rifle or shotgun as defined in
11 item (ii) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section
12 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or
13 (4) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
14 B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not
15 exceeding .18 inch in diameter, or which has a maximum
16 muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second, or which
17 expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking
18 colors.
19 "Law enforcement agency" means any federal, State, or local
20law enforcement agency, including offices of State's Attorneys
21and the Office of the Attorney General.
22 "License" means a license issued by the Department of State
23Police to carry a concealed handgun.
24 "Licensee" means a person issued a license to carry a
25concealed handgun.
26 "Municipality" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1

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1of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
2 "Unit of local government" has the meaning ascribed to it
3in Section 1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
4 Section 10. Issuance of licenses to carry a concealed
5firearm.
6 (a) The Department shall issue a license to carry a
7concealed firearm under this Act to an applicant who:
8 (1) meets the qualifications of Section 25 of this Act;
9 (2) has provided the application and documentation
10 required in Section 30 of this Act;
11 (3) has submitted the requisite fees; and
12 (4) does not pose a danger to himself, herself, or
13 others, or a threat to public safety as determined by the
14 Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board in accordance with
15 Section 20.
16 (b) The Department shall issue a renewal, corrected, or
17duplicate license as provided in this Act.
18 (c) A license shall be valid throughout the State for a
19period of 5 years from the date of issuance. A license shall
20permit the licensee to:
21 (1) carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm, fully
22 concealed or partially concealed, on or about his or her
23 person; and
24 (2) keep or carry a loaded or unloaded concealed
25 firearm on or about his or her person within a vehicle.

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1 (d) The Department shall make applications for a license
2available no later than 180 days after the effective date of
3this Act. The Department shall establish rules for the
4availability and submission of applications in accordance with
5this Act.
6 (e) An application for a license submitted to the
7Department that contains all the information and materials
8required by this Act, including the requisite fee, shall be
9deemed completed. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, no
10later than 90 days after receipt of a completed application,
11the Department shall issue or deny the applicant a license.
12 (f) The Department shall deny the applicant a license if
13the applicant fails to meet the requirements under this Act or
14the Department receives a determination from the Board that the
15applicant is ineligible for a license. The Department must
16notify the applicant stating the grounds for the denial. The
17notice of denial must inform the applicant of his or her right
18to an appeal through administrative and judicial review.
19 (g) A licensee shall possess a license at all times the
20licensee carries a concealed firearm except:
21 (1) when the licensee is carrying or possessing a
22 concealed firearm on his or her land or in his or her
23 abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on
24 the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an
25 invitee with that person's permission;
26 (2) when the person is authorized to carry a firearm

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1 under Section 24-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except
2 subsection (a-5) of that Section; or
3 (3) when the handgun is broken down in a
4 non-functioning state, is not immediately accessible, or
5 is unloaded and enclosed in a case.
6 (h) If an officer of a law enforcement agency initiates an
7investigative stop, including but not limited to a traffic
8stop, of a licensee who is carrying a concealed firearm, upon
9the request of the officer the licensee shall disclose to the
10officer that he or she is in possession of a concealed firearm
11under this Act, present the license upon the request of the
12officer, and identify the location of the concealed firearm.
13 (i) The Department shall maintain a database of license
14applicants and licensees. The database shall be available to
15all federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies, State's
16Attorneys, the Attorney General, and authorized court
17personnel. Within 180 days after the effective date of this
18Act, the database shall be searchable and provide all
19information included in the application, including the
20applicant's previous addresses within the 10 years prior to the
21license application and any information related to violations
22of this Act. No law enforcement agency, State's Attorney,
23Attorney General, or member or staff of the judiciary shall
24provide any information to a requester who is not entitled to
25it by law.
26 (j) No later than 10 days after receipt of a completed

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1application, the Department shall enter the relevant
2information about the applicant into the database under
3subsection (i) of this Section which is accessible by law
4enforcement agencies.
5 Section 15. Objections by law enforcement agencies.
6 (a) Any law enforcement agency may submit an objection to a
7license applicant based upon a reasonable suspicion that the
8applicant is a danger to himself or herself or others, or a
9threat to public safety. The objection shall be made by the
10chief law enforcement officer of the law enforcement agency, or
11his or her designee, and must include any information relevant
12to the objection. If a law enforcement agency submits an
13objection within 30 days after the entry of an applicant into
14the database, the Department shall submit the objection and all
15information related to the application to the Board within 10
16days of completing all necessary background checks.
17 (b) If an applicant has 5 or more arrests for any reason,
18that have been entered into the Criminal History Records
19Information (CHRI) System, within the 7 years preceding the
20date of application for a license, or has 3 or more arrests
21within the 7 years preceding the date of application for a
22license for any combination of gang-related offenses, the
23Department shall object and submit the applicant's arrest
24record, the application materials, and any additional
25information submitted by a law enforcement agency to the Board.

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1For purposes of this subsection, "gang-related offense" is an
2offense described in Section 12-6.4, Section 24-1.8, Section
325-5, Section 33-4, or Section 33G-4, or in paragraph (1) of
4subsection (a) of Section 12-6.2, paragraph (2) of subsection
5(b) of Section 16-30, paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of
6Section 31-4, or item (iii) of paragraph (1.5) of subsection
7(i) of Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
8 (c) The referral of an objection under this Section to the
9Board shall toll the 90-day period for the Department to issue
10or deny the applicant a license under subsection (e) of Section
1110 of this Act, during the period of review and until the Board
12issues its decision.
13 (d) If no objection is made by a law enforcement agency or
14the Department under this Section, the Department shall process
15the application in accordance with this Act.
16 Section 20. Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board.
17 (a) There is hereby created a Concealed Carry Licensing
18Review Board to consider any objection to an applicant's
19eligibility to obtain a license under this Act submitted by a
20law enforcement agency or the Department under Section 15 of
21this Act. The Board shall consist of 7 commissioners to be
22appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the
23Senate, with 3 commissioners residing within the First Judicial
24District and one commissioner residing within each of the 4
25remaining Judicial Districts. No more than 4 commissioners

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1shall be members of the same political party. The Governor
2shall designate one commissioner as the Chairperson. The Board
3shall consist of:
4 (1) one commissioner with at least 5 years of service
5 as a federal judge;
6 (2) 2 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience
7 serving as an attorney with the United States Department of
8 Justice;
9 (3) 3 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience
10 as a federal agent or employee with investigative
11 experience or duties related to criminal justice under the
12 United States Department of Justice, Drug Enforcement
13 Administration, Department of Homeland Security, or
14 Federal Bureau of Investigation; and
15 (4) one member with at least 5 years of experience as a
16 licensed physician or clinical psychologist with expertise
17 in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.
18 (b) The initial terms of the commissioners shall end on
19January 12, 2015. Thereafter, the commissioners shall hold
20office for 4 years, with terms expiring on the second Monday in
21January of the fourth year. Commissioners may be reappointed.
22Vacancies in the office of commissioner shall be filled in the
23same manner as the original appointment, for the remainder of
24the unexpired term. The Governor may remove a commissioner for
25incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance, or inability to
26serve. Commissioners shall receive compensation in an amount

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1equal to the compensation of members of the Executive Ethics
2Commission and may be reimbursed for reasonable expenses
3actually incurred in the performance of their Board duties,
4from funds appropriated for that purpose.
5 (c) The Board shall meet at the call of the chairperson as
6often as necessary to consider objections to applications for a
7license under this Act. If necessary to ensure the
8participation of a commissioner, the Board shall allow a
9commissioner to participate in a Board meeting by electronic
10communication. Any commissioner participating electronically
11shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum
12and voting.
13 (d) The Board shall adopt rules for the conduct of
14hearings. The Board shall maintain a record of its decisions
15and all materials considered in making its decisions. All Board
16decisions and voting records shall be kept confidential and all
17materials considered by the Board shall be exempt from
18inspection except upon order of a court.
19 (e) In considering an objection of a law enforcement agency
20or the Department, the Board shall review the materials
21received with the objection from the law enforcement agency or
22the Department. By a vote of at least 4 commissioners, the
23Board may request additional information from the law
24enforcement agency, Department, or the applicant, or the
25testimony of the law enforcement agency, Department, or the
26applicant. The Board may only consider information submitted by

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1the Department, a law enforcement agency, or the applicant. The
2Board shall review each objection and determine by a majority
3of commissioners whether an applicant is eligible for a
4license.
5 (f) The Board shall issue a decision within 30 days of
6receipt of the objection from the Department. However, the
7Board need not issue a decision within 30 days if:
8 (1) the Board requests information from the applicant
9 in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, in which
10 case the Board shall make a decision within 30 days of
11 receipt of the required information from the applicant;
12 (2) the applicant agrees, in writing, to allow the
13 Board additional time to consider an objection; or
14 (3) the Board notifies the applicant and the Department
15 that the Board needs an additional 30 days to issue a
16 decision.
17 (g) If the Board determines by a preponderance of the
18evidence that the applicant poses a danger to himself or
19herself or others, or is a threat to public safety, then the
20Board shall affirm the objection of the law enforcement agency
21or the Department and shall notify the Department that the
22applicant is ineligible for a license. If the Board does not
23determine by a preponderance of the evidence that the applicant
24poses a danger to himself or herself or others, or is a threat
25to public safety, then the Board shall notify the Department
26that the applicant is eligible for a license.

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1 (h) Meetings of the Board shall not be subject to the Open
2Meetings Act and records of the Board shall not be subject to
3the Freedom of Information Act.
4 (i) The Board shall report monthly to the Governor and the
5General Assembly on the number of objections received and
6provide details of the circumstances in which the Board has
7determined to deny licensure based on law enforcement or
8Department objections under Section 15 of this Act. The report
9shall not contain any identifying information about the
10applicants.
11 Section 25. Qualifications for a license.
12 The Department shall issue a license to an applicant
13completing an application in accordance with Section 30 of this
14Act if the person:
15 (1) is at least 21 years of age;
16 (2) has a currently valid Firearm Owner's
17 Identification Card and at the time of application meets
18 the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's
19 Identification Card and is not prohibited under the Firearm
20 Owners Identification Card Act or federal law from
21 possessing or receiving a firearm;
22 (3) has not been convicted or found guilty in this
23 State or in any other state of:
24 (A) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of
25 physical force or violence to any person within the 5

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1 years preceding the date of the license application; or
2 (B) 2 or more violations related to driving while
3 under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
4 intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
5 thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the
6 license application; and
7 (4) is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant,
8 prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that
9 could lead to disqualification to own or possess a firearm;
10 (5) has not been in residential or court-ordered
11 treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug
12 treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the date
13 of the license application; and
14 (6) has completed firearms training and any education
15 component required under Section 75 of this Act.
16 Section 30. Contents of license application.
17 (a) The license application shall be in writing, under
18penalty of perjury, on a standard form adopted by the
19Department and shall be accompanied by the documentation
20required in this Section and the applicable fee. Each
21application form shall include the following statement printed
22in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form
23is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal
24Code of 2012."
25 (b) The application shall contain the following:

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1 (1) the applicant's name, current address, date and
2 year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color,
3 eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has
4 used or identified with, and any address where the
5 applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 10 years
6 preceding the date of the license application;
7 (2) the applicant's valid driver's license number or
8 valid state identification card number;
9 (3) a waiver of the applicant's privacy and
10 confidentiality rights and privileges under all federal
11 and state laws, including those limiting access to juvenile
12 court, criminal justice, psychological, or psychiatric
13 records or records relating to any institutionalization of
14 the applicant, and an affirmative request that a person
15 having custody of any of these records provide it or
16 information concerning it to the Department;
17 (4) an affirmation that the applicant possesses a
18 currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and
19 card number if possessed or notice the applicant is
20 applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in
21 conjunction with the license application;
22 (5) an affirmation that the applicant has not been
23 convicted or found guilty of:
24 (A) a felony;
25 (B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of
26 physical force or violence to any person within the 5

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1 years preceding the date of the application; or
2 (C) 2 or more violations related to driving while
3 under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
4 intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
5 thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the
6 license application; and
7 (6) whether the applicant has failed a drug test for a
8 drug for which the applicant did not have a prescription,
9 within the previous year, and if so, the provider of the
10 test, the specific substance involved, and the date of the
11 test;
12 (7) written consent for the Department to review and
13 use the applicant's Illinois digital driver's license or
14 Illinois identification card photograph and signature;
15 (8) a full set of fingerprints submitted to the
16 Department in electronic format, provided the Department
17 may accept an application submitted without a set of
18 fingerprints in which case the Department shall be granted
19 30 days in addition to the 90 days provided under
20 subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act to issue or deny a
21 license;
22 (9) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size
23 specified by the Department taken within the 30 days
24 preceding the date of the license application; and
25 (10) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence
26 of compliance with the training requirements under this

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1 Act.
2 Section 35. Investigation of the applicant.
3 The Department shall conduct a background check of the
4applicant to ensure compliance with the requirements of this
5Act and all federal, State, and local laws. The background
6check shall include a search of the following:
7 (1) the National Instant Criminal Background Check
8 System of the Federal Bureau of Investigation;
9 (2) all available state and local criminal history
10 record information files, including records of juvenile
11 adjudications;
12 (3) all available federal, state, and local records
13 regarding wanted persons;
14 (4) all available federal, state, and local records of
15 domestic violence restraining and protective orders;
16 (5) the files of the Department of Human Services
17 relating to mental health and developmental disabilities;
18 and
19 (6) all other available records of a federal, state, or
20 local agency or other public entity in any jurisdiction
21 likely to contain information relevant to whether the
22 applicant is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or
23 carrying a firearm under federal, state, or local law.
24 (7) Fingerprints collected under Section 30 shall be
25 checked against the Department of State Police and Federal

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1 Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases
2 now and hereafter filed. The Department shall charge
3 applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history
4 records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police
5 Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the
6 records check.
7 Section 40. Non-resident license applications.
8 (a) For the purposes of this Section, "non-resident" means
9a person who has not resided within this State for more than 30
10days and resides in another state or territory.
11 (b) The Department shall by rule allow for non-resident
12license applications from any state or territory of the United
13States with laws related to firearm ownership, possession, and
14carrying, that are substantially similar to the requirements to
15obtain a license under this Act.
16 (c) A resident of a state or territory approved by the
17Department under subsection (b) of this Section may apply for a
18non-resident license. The applicant shall apply to the
19Department and must meet all of the qualifications established
20in Section 25 of this Act, except for the Illinois residency
21requirement in item (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of
22Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The
23applicant shall submit:
24 (1) the application and documentation required under
25 Section 30 of this Act and the applicable fee;

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1 (2) a notarized document stating that the applicant:
2 (A) is eligible under federal law and the laws of
3 his or her state or territory of residence to own or
4 possess a firearm;
5 (B) if applicable, has a license or permit to carry
6 a firearm or concealed firearm issued by his or her
7 state or territory of residence and attach a copy of
8 the license or permit to the application;
9 (C) understands Illinois laws pertaining to the
10 possession and transport of firearms, and
11 (D) acknowledges that the applicant is subject to
12 the jurisdiction of the Department and Illinois courts
13 for any violation of this Act; and
14 (3) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence
15 of compliance with the training requirements under Section
16 75 of this Act; and
17 (4) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size
18 specified by the Department taken within the 30 days
19 preceding the date of the application.
20 (d) In lieu of an Illinois driver's license or Illinois
21identification card, a non-resident applicant shall provide
22similar documentation from his or her state or territory of
23residence. In lieu of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification
24Card, the applicant shall submit documentation and information
25required by the Department to obtain a Firearm Owner's
26Identification Card, including an affidavit that the

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1non-resident meets the mental health standards to obtain a
2firearm under Illinois law, and the Department shall ensure
3that the applicant would meet the eligibility criteria to
4obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification card if he or she was a
5resident of this State.
6 (e) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a non-resident from
7transporting a concealed firearm within his or her vehicle in
8Illinois, if the concealed firearm remains within his or her
9vehicle and the non-resident:
10 (1) is not prohibited from owning or possessing a
11 firearm under federal law;
12 (2) is eligible to carry a firearm in public under the
13 laws of his or her state or territory of residence; and
14 (3) is not in possession of a license under this Act.
15 If the non-resident leaves his or her vehicle unattended,
16he or she shall store the firearm within a locked vehicle or
17locked container within the vehicle in accordance with
18subsection (b) of Section 65 of this Act.
19 Section 45. Civil immunity; Board, employees, and agents.
20The Board, Department, local law enforcement agency, or the
21employees and agents of the Board, Department, or local law
22enforcement agency participating in the licensing process
23under this Act shall not be held liable for damages in any
24civil action arising from alleged wrongful or improper
25granting, denying, renewing, revoking, suspending, or failing

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1to grant, deny, renew, revoke, or suspend a license under this
2Act, except for willful or wanton misconduct.
3 Section 50. License renewal.
4 Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the
5Department. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years
6upon receipt of a completed renewal application, completion of
73 hours of training required under Section 75 of this Section,
8payment of the applicable renewal fee, and completion of an
9investigation under Section 35 of this Act. The renewal
10application shall contain the information required in Section
1130 of this Act, except that the applicant need not resubmit a
12full set of fingerprints.
13 Section 55. Change of address or name; lost, destroyed, or
14stolen licenses.
15 (a) A licensee shall notify the Department within 30 days
16of moving or changing residence or any change of name. The
17licensee shall submit:
18 (1) a notarized statement that the licensee has changed
19 his or her residence or his or her name, including the
20 prior and current address or name and the date the
21 applicant moved or changed his or her name; and
22 (2) the requisite fee.
23 (b) A licensee shall notify the Department within 10 days
24of discovering that a license has been lost, destroyed, or

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1stolen. A lost, destroyed, or stolen license is invalid. To
2request a replacement license, the licensee shall submit:
3 (1) a notarized statement that the licensee no longer
4 possesses the license, and that it was lost, destroyed, or
5 stolen;
6 (2) if applicable, a copy of a police report stating
7 that the license was stolen; and
8 (3) the requisite fee.
9 (c) A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a
10fine of $150 which shall be deposited into the Mental Health
11Reporting Fund.
12 Section 60. Fees.
13 (a) All fees collected under this Act shall be deposited as
14provided in this Section. Application, renewal, and
15replacement fees shall be non-refundable.
16 (b) An applicant for a new license or a renewal shall
17submit $150 with the application, of which $120 shall be
18apportioned to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $20
19shall be apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and
20$10 shall be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.
21 (c) A non-resident applicant for a new license or renewal
22shall submit $300 with the application, of which $250 shall be
23apportioned to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $40
24shall be apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and
25$10 shall be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

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1 (d) A licensee requesting a new license in accordance with
2Section 55 shall submit $75, of which $60 shall be apportioned
3to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $5 shall be
4apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and $10 shall
5be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.
6 Section 65. Prohibited areas.
7 (a) A licensee under this Act shall not knowingly carry a
8firearm on or into:
9 (1) Any building, real property, and parking area under
10 the control of a public or private elementary or secondary
11 school.
12 (2) Any building, real property, and parking area under
13 the control of a pre-school or child care facility,
14 including any room or portion of a building under the
15 control of a pre-school or child care facility. Nothing in
16 this paragraph shall prevent the operator of a child care
17 facility in a family home from owning or possessing a
18 firearm in the home or license under this Act, if no child
19 under child care at the home is present in the home or the
20 firearm in the home is stored in a locked container when a
21 child under child care at the home is present in the home.
22 (3) Any building, parking area, or portion of a
23 building under the control of an officer of the executive
24 or legislative branch of government, provided that nothing
25 in this paragraph shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a

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1 concealed firearm onto the real property, bikeway, or trail
2 in a park regulated by the Department of Natural Resources
3 or any other designated public hunting area or building
4 where firearm possession is permitted as established by the
5 Department of Natural Resources under Section 1.8 of the
6 Wildlife Code.
7 (4) Any building designated for matters before a
8 circuit court, appellate court, or the Supreme Court, or
9 any building or portion of a building under the control of
10 the Supreme Court.
11 (5) Any building or portion of a building under the
12 control of a unit of local government.
13 (6) Any building, real property, and parking area under
14 the control of an adult or juvenile detention or
15 correctional institution, prison, or jail.
16 (7) Any building, real property, and parking area under
17 the control of a public or private hospital or hospital
18 affiliate, mental health facility, or nursing home.
19 (8) Any bus, train, or form of transportation paid for
20 in whole or in part with public funds, and any building,
21 real property, and parking area under the control of a
22 public transportation facility paid for in whole or in part
23 with public funds.
24 (9) Any building, real property, and parking area under
25 the control of an establishment that serves alcohol on its
26 premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross

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1 receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of
2 alcohol. The owner of an establishment who knowingly fails
3 to prohibit concealed firearms on its premises as provided
4 in this paragraph or who knowingly makes a false statement
5 or record to avoid the prohibition on concealed firearms
6 under this paragraph is subject to the penalty under
7 subsection (c-5) of Section 10-1 of the Liquor Control Act
8 of 1934.
9 (10) Any public gathering or special event conducted on
10 property open to the public that requires the issuance of a
11 permit from the unit of local government, provided this
12 prohibition shall not apply to a licensee who must walk
13 through a public gathering in order to access his or her
14 residence, place of business, or vehicle.
15 (11) Any building or real property that has been issued
16 a Special Event Retailer's license as defined in Section
17 1-3.17.1 of the Liquor Control Act during the time
18 designated for the sale of alcohol by the Special Event
19 Retailer's license, or a Special use permit license as
20 defined in subsection (q) of Section 5-1 of the Liquor
21 Control Act during the time designated for the sale of
22 alcohol by the Special use permit license.
23 (12) Any public playground.
24 (13) Any public park, athletic area, or athletic
25 facility under the control of a municipality or park
26 district, provided nothing in this Section shall prohibit a

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1 licensee from carrying a concealed firearm while on a trail
2 or bikeway if only a portion of the trail or bikeway
3 includes a public park.
4 (14) Any real property under the control of the Cook
5 County Forest Preserve District.
6 (15) Any building, classroom, laboratory, medical
7 clinic, hospital, artistic venue, athletic venue,
8 entertainment venue, officially recognized
9 university-related organization property, whether owned or
10 leased, and any real property, including parking areas,
11 sidewalks, and common areas under the control of a public
12 or private community college, college, or university.
13 (16) Any building, real property, or parking area under
14 the control of a gaming facility licensed under the
15 Riverboat Gambling Act or the Illinois Horse Racing Act of
16 1975, including an inter-track wagering location licensee.
17 (17) Any stadium, arena, or the real property or
18 parking area under the control of a stadium, arena, or any
19 collegiate or professional sporting event.
20 (18) Any building, real property, or parking area under
21 the control of a public library.
22 (19) Any building, real property, or parking area under
23 the control of an airport.
24 (20) Any building, real property, or parking area under
25 the control of an amusement park.
26 (21) Any building, real property, or parking area under

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1 the control of a zoo or museum.
2 (22) Any street, driveway, parking area, property,
3 building, or facility, owned, leased, controlled, or used
4 by a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site
5 or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory
6 Commission. The licensee shall not under any circumstance
7 store a firearm or ammunition in his or her vehicle or in a
8 compartment or container within a vehicle located anywhere
9 in or on the street, driveway, parking area, property,
10 building, or facility described in this paragraph.
11 (23) Any area where firearms are prohibited under
12 federal law.
13 (a-5) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a public or
14private community college, college, or university from:
15 (1) prohibiting persons from carrying a firearm within
16 a vehicle owned, leased, or controlled by the college or
17 university;
18 (2) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies
19 regarding student, employee, or visitor misconduct and
20 discipline, including suspension and expulsion;
21 (3) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies
22 regarding the storage or maintenance of firearms, which
23 must include designated areas where persons can park
24 vehicles that carry firearms; and
25 (4) permitting the carrying or use of firearms for the
26 purpose of instruction and curriculum of officially

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1 recognized programs, including but not limited to military
2 science and law enforcement training programs, or in any
3 designated area used for hunting purposes or target
4 shooting.
5 (a-10) The owner of private real property of any type may
6prohibit the carrying of concealed firearms on the property
7under his or her control. The owner must post a sign in
8accordance with subsection (d) of this Section indicating that
9firearms are prohibited on the property, unless the property is
10a private residence.
11 (b) Notwithstanding subsections (a), (a-5), and (a-10) of
12this Section except under paragraph (22) or (23) of subsection
13(a), any licensee prohibited from carrying a concealed firearm
14into the parking area of a prohibited location specified in
15subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-10) of this Section shall be
16permitted to carry a concealed firearm on or about his or her
17person within a vehicle into the parking area and may store a
18firearm or ammunition concealed in a case within a locked
19vehicle or locked container out of plain view within the
20vehicle in the parking area. A licensee may carry a concealed
21firearm in the immediate area surrounding his or her vehicle
22within a prohibited parking lot area only for the limited
23purpose of storing or retrieving a firearm within the vehicle's
24trunk, provided the licensee ensures the concealed firearm is
25unloaded prior to exiting the vehicle. For purposes of this
26subsection, "case" includes a glove compartment or console that

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1completely encloses the concealed firearm or ammunition, the
2trunk of the vehicle, or a firearm carrying box, shipping box,
3or other container.
4 (c) A licensee shall not be in violation of this Section
5while he or she is traveling along a public right of way that
6touches or crosses any of the premises under subsection (a),
7(a-5), or (a-10) of this Section if the concealed firearm is
8carried on his or her person in accordance with the provisions
9of this Act or is being transported in a vehicle by the
10licensee in accordance with all other applicable provisions of
11law.
12 (d) Signs stating that the carrying of firearms is
13prohibited shall be clearly and conspicuously posted at the
14entrance of a building, premises, or real property specified in
15this Section as a prohibited area, unless the building or
16premises is a private residence. Signs shall be of a uniform
17design as established by the Department and shall be 4 inches
18by 6 inches in size. The Department shall adopt rules for
19standardized signs to be used under this subsection.
20 Section 70. Violations.
21 (a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be
22revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible
23for a license under this Act or the licensee no longer meets
24the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners
25Identification Card Act.

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1 (b) A license shall be suspended if an order of protection,
2including an emergency order of protection, plenary order of
3protection, or interim order of protection under Article 112A
4of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or under the Illinois
5Domestic Violence Act of 1986, is issued against a licensee for
6the duration of the order, or if the Department is made aware
7of a similar order issued against the licensee in any other
8jurisdiction. If an order of protection is issued against a
9licensee, the licensee shall surrender the license, as
10applicable, to the court at the time the order is entered or to
11the law enforcement agency or entity serving process at the
12time the licensee is served the order. The court, law
13enforcement agency, or entity responsible for serving the order
14of protection shall notify the Department within 7 days and
15transmit the license to the Department.
16 (c) A license is invalid upon expiration of the license,
17unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the
18license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a
19license under this Act.
20 (d) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while
21under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
22intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any
23combination thereof, under the standards set forth in
24subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
25 A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be
26guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation

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1and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Department may
2suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and
3shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation.
4 (e) Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation
5of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second
6or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The
7Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a
8second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3
9or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person
10convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150
11fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund, plus
12any applicable court costs or fees.
13 (f) A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of
14this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to
15carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the
16penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the
17penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of
18subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5)
19of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the
20Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this
21subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee
22from being subjected to penalties for violations other than
23those specified in this Act.
24 (g) A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or
25denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the
26revocation, suspension, or denial surrender his or her

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1concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency
2where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency
3shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the concealed
4carry license to the Department of State Police. If the
5licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked,
6suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of
7this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person
8resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to
9search for and seize the concealed carry license in the
10possession and under the custody or control of the licensee
11whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or
12denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the
13possession of a person whose license has been revoked,
14suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the
15arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A
16violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor.
17 (h) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be
18revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a
19Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the licensee no longer
20possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card. A
21licensee whose license is revoked under this subsection (h)
22shall surrender his or her concealed carry license as provided
23for in subsection (g) of this Section.
24 This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed
25an application with the State Police for renewal of a Firearm
26Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise ineligible

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1to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
2 Section 75. Applicant firearm training.
3 (a) Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the
4Department shall begin approval of firearm training courses and
5shall make a list of approved courses available of the
6Department's website.
7 (b) An applicant for a new license shall provide proof of
8completion of a firearms training course or combination of
9courses approved by the Department of at least 16 hours, which
10includes range qualification time under subsection (c) of this
11Section, that covers the following:
12 (1) firearm safety;
13 (2) the basic principles of marksmanship;
14 (3) care, cleaning, loading, and unloading of a
15 concealable firearm;
16 (4) all applicable State and federal laws relating to
17 the ownership, storage, carry, and transportation of a
18 firearm; and
19 (5) instruction on the appropriate and lawful
20 interaction with law enforcement while transporting or
21 carrying a concealed firearm.
22 (c) An applicant for a new license shall provide proof of
23certification by a certified instructor that the applicant
24passed a live fire exercise with a concealable firearm
25consisting of:

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1 (1) a minimum of 30 rounds; and
2 (2) 10 rounds from a distance of 5 yards; 10 rounds
3 from a distance of 7 yards; and 10 rounds from a distance
4 of 10 yards at a B-27 silhouette target approved by the
5 Department.
6 (d) An applicant for renewal of a license shall provide
7proof of completion of a firearms training course or
8combination of courses approved by the Department of at least 3
9hours.
10 (e) A certificate of completion for an applicant firearm
11training course shall not be issued to a student who:
12 (1) does not follow the orders of the certified
13 firearms instructor;
14 (2) in the judgment of the certified instructor,
15 handles a firearm in a manner that poses a danger to the
16 student or to others; or
17 (3) during the range firing portion of testing fails to
18 hit the target with 70% of the rounds fired.
19 (f) An instructor shall maintain a record of each student's
20performance for at least 5 years, and shall make all records
21available upon demand of authorized personnel of the
22Department.
23 (g) The Department and certified firearms instructor shall
24recognize up to 8 hours of training already completed toward
25the 16 hour training requirement under this Section if the
26training course is approved by the Department and recognized

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1under the laws of another state. Any remaining hours that the
2applicant completes must at least cover the classroom subject
3matter of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of this Section, and
4the range qualification in subsection (c) of this Section.
5 (h) A person who has qualified to carry a firearm as an
6active law enforcement officer, a person certified as a
7firearms instructor by this Act or by the Illinois Law
8Enforcement Training Standards Board, or a person who has
9completed the required training and has been issued a firearm
10control card by the Department of Financial and Professional
11Regulation shall be exempt from the requirements of this
12Section.
13 (i) The Department shall accept 8 hours of training as
14completed toward the 16 hour training requirement under this
15Section, if the applicant is an active, retired, or honorably
16discharged member of the United States Armed Forces.
17 Section 80. Firearms instructor training.
18 (a) Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the
19Department shall begin approval of certified firearms
20instructors and enter certified firearms instructors into an
21online registry on the Department's website.
22 (b) A person who is not a certified firearms instructor
23shall not teach applicant training courses or advertise or
24otherwise represent courses they teach as qualifying their
25students to meet the requirements to receive a license under

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1this Act. Each violation of this subsection is a business
2offense with a fine of at least $1,000 per violation.
3 (c) A person seeking to become a certified firearms
4instructor shall:
5 (1) be at least 21 years of age;
6 (2) be a legal resident of the United States; and
7 (3) meet the requirements of Section 25 of this Act,
8 and any additional uniformly applied requirements
9 established by the Department.
10 (d) A person seeking to become a certified firearms
11instructor trainer, in addition to the requirements of
12subsection (c) of this Section, shall:
13 (1) possess a high school diploma or GED certificate;
14 and
15 (2) have at least one of the following valid firearms
16 instructor certifications:
17 (A) certification from a law enforcement agency;
18 (B) certification from a firearm instructor course
19 offered by a State or federal governmental agency;
20 (C) certification from a firearm instructor
21 qualification course offered by the Illinois Law
22 Enforcement Training Standards Board; or
23 (D) certification from an entity approved by the
24 Department that offers firearm instructor education
25 and training in the use and safety of firearms.
26 (e) A person may have his or her firearms instructor

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1certification denied or revoked if he or she does not meet the
2requirements to obtain a license under this Act, provides false
3or misleading information to the Department, or has had a prior
4instructor certification revoked or denied by the Department.
5 Section 85. Background Checks for Sales.
6 A license to carry a concealed firearm issued by this
7State shall not exempt the licensee from the requirements of a
8background check, including a check of the National Instant
9Criminal Background Check System, upon purchase or transfer of
10a firearm.
11 Section 87. Administrative and judicial review.
12 (a) Whenever an application for a concealed carry license
13is denied, whenever the Department fails to act on an
14application within 90 days of its receipt, or whenever a
15license is revoked or suspended as provided in this Act, the
16aggrieved party may appeal to the Director for a hearing upon
17the denial, revocation, suspension, or failure to act on the
18application, unless the denial was made by the Concealed Carry
19Licensing Review Board, in which case the aggrieved party may
20petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or
21her residence for a hearing upon the denial.
22 (b) All final administrative decisions of the Department or
23the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under this Act shall
24be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the

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1Administrative Review Law. The term "administrative decision"
2is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
3 Section 90. Preemption.
4 The regulation, licensing, possession, registration, and
5transportation of handguns and ammunition for handguns by
6licensees are exclusive powers and functions of the State. Any
7ordinance or regulation, or portion thereof, enacted on or
8before the effective date of this Act that purports to impose
9regulations or restrictions on licensees or handguns and
10ammunition for handguns in a manner inconsistent with this Act
11shall be invalid in its application to licensees under this Act
12on the effective date of this Act. This Section is a denial and
13limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection
14(h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
15 Section 92. Consolidation of concealed carry license and
16Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
17 (a) The Director shall create a task force to develop a
18plan to incorporate and consolidate the concealed carry license
19under this Act and the Firearm Owner's Identification Card
20under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act into a
21designation on the Illinois driver's license or Illinois
22identification card of a person with authority to possess a
23firearm under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or
24authority to possess a firearm under the Firearm Owners

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1Identification Card Act and authority to carry a concealed
2firearm under this Act. The plan must provide for an
3alternative card for:
4 (1) a non-resident or a resident without an Illinois
5 driver's license or Illinois identification card, who has
6 been granted authority under this Act to carry a concealed
7 firearm in this State; and
8 (2) a resident without an Illinois driver's license or
9 Illinois identification card, who has been granted
10 authority to possess a firearm under the Firearm Owners
11 Identification Card Act.
12 The plan shall include statutory changes necessary to
13implement it.
14 (b) The task force shall consist of the following members:
15 (1) one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of
16 Representatives;
17 (2) one member appointed by the House of
18 Representatives Minority Leader;
19 (3) one member appointed by the President of the
20 Senate;
21 (4) one member appointed by the Senate Minority Leader;
22 (5) one member appointed by the Secretary of State;
23 (6) one member appointed by the Director of State
24 Police;
25 (7) one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of
26 Representatives representing the National Rifle

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1 Association;
2 (8) one member appointed by the Governor from the
3 Department of Natural Resources; and
4 (9) one member appointed by the Governor representing
5 the Chicago Police Department.
6 The task force shall elect a chairperson from its
7membership. Members shall serve without compensation.
8 (c) The task force shall file the plan supported by a
9majority of its members with the General Assembly and the
10Secretary of State on or before March 1, 2014.
11 (d) This Section is repealed on March 2, 2014.
12 Section 95. Procurement; rulemaking.
13 (a) The Department of State Police, in consultation with
14and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer,
15may procure a single contract or multiple contracts to
16implement the provisions of this Act. A contract or contracts
17under this paragraph are not subject to the provisions of the
18Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65,
1920-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that
20the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with
21justification, waive any certification required under Article
2250. This exemption shall be repealed one year from the
23effective date of this Act.
24 (b) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the
25provisions of this Act. The Department may adopt rules

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1necessary to implement the provisions of this Act through the
2use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of
3the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for a period not to
4exceed 180 days after the effective date of this Act.
5 Section 100. Short title. Sections 100 through 110 may be
6cited as the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health
7Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.
8 Section 105. Duty of school administrator. It is the duty
9of the principal of a public elementary or secondary school, or
10his or her designee, and the chief administrative officer of a
11private elementary or secondary school or a public or private
12community college, college, or university, or his or her
13designee, to report to the Department of State Police when a
14student is determined to pose a clear and present danger to
15himself, herself, or to others, within 24 hours of the
16determination as provided in Section 6-103.3 of the Mental
17Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. "Clear and present
18danger" has the meaning as provided in paragraph (2) of the
19definition of "clear and present danger" in Section 1.1 of the
20Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.
21 Section 110. Immunity. A principal or chief administrative
22officer, or the designee of a principal of chief administrative
23officer, making the determination and reporting under Section

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1105 of this Law shall not be held criminally, civilly, or
2professionally liable, except for willful or wanton
3misconduct.
4 Section 115. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing
5Section 2 as follows:
6 (5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)
7 Sec. 2. Open meetings.
8 (a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall
9be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and
10closed in accordance with Section 2a.
11 (b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained
12in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that
13public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions
14are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects
15clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not
16require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject
17included within an enumerated exception.
18 (c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to
19consider the following subjects:
20 (1) The appointment, employment, compensation,
21 discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific
22 employees of the public body or legal counsel for the
23 public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint
24 lodged against an employee of the public body or against

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1 legal counsel for the public body to determine its
2 validity.
3 (2) Collective negotiating matters between the public
4 body and its employees or their representatives, or
5 deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more
6 classes of employees.
7 (3) The selection of a person to fill a public office,
8 as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public
9 office, when the public body is given power to appoint
10 under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or
11 removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public
12 body is given power to remove the occupant under law or
13 ordinance.
14 (4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or
15 in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to
16 a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided
17 that the body prepares and makes available for public
18 inspection a written decision setting forth its
19 determinative reasoning.
20 (5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use
21 of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose
22 of discussing whether a particular parcel should be
23 acquired.
24 (6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of
25 property owned by the public body.
26 (7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or

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1 investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the
2 investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the
3 Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.
4 (8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and
5 equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a
6 reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees,
7 students, staff, the public, or public property.
8 (9) Student disciplinary cases.
9 (10) The placement of individual students in special
10 education programs and other matters relating to
11 individual students.
12 (11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or
13 on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and
14 is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or
15 when the public body finds that an action is probable or
16 imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be
17 recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed
18 meeting.
19 (12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of
20 claims as provided in the Local Governmental and
21 Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the
22 disposition of a claim or potential claim might be
23 prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or
24 risk management information, records, data, advice or
25 communications from or with respect to any insurer of the
26 public body or any intergovernmental risk management

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1 association or self insurance pool of which the public body
2 is a member.
3 (13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in
4 the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are
5 authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing
6 practices and creating a commission or administrative
7 agency for their enforcement.
8 (14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of
9 undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or
10 future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public
11 body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.
12 (15) Professional ethics or performance when
13 considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a
14 licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the
15 advisory body's field of competence.
16 (16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or
17 professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of
18 a statewide association of which the public body is a
19 member.
20 (17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or
21 formal peer review of physicians or other health care
22 professionals for a hospital, or other institution
23 providing medical care, that is operated by the public
24 body.
25 (18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner
26 Review Board.

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1 (19) Review or discussion of applications received
2 under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures
3 Act.
4 (20) The classification and discussion of matters
5 classified as confidential or continued confidential by
6 the State Government Suggestion Award Board.
7 (21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed
8 under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the
9 body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as
10 mandated by Section 2.06.
11 (22) Deliberations for decisions of the State
12 Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.
13 (23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal
14 utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or
15 municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves
16 (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery
17 of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or
18 conclusions of load forecast studies.
19 (24) Meetings of a residential health care facility
20 resident sexual assault and death review team or the
21 Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team
22 Act.
23 (25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under
24 Brian's Law.
25 (26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed
26 under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review

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1 Team Act.
2 (27) Confidential information, when discussed by one
3 or more members of an elder abuse fatality review team,
4 designated under Section 15 of the Elder Abuse and Neglect
5 Act, while participating in a review conducted by that team
6 of the death of an elderly person in which abuse or neglect
7 is suspected, alleged, or substantiated; provided that
8 before the review team holds a closed meeting, or closes an
9 open meeting, to discuss the confidential information,
10 each participating review team member seeking to disclose
11 the confidential information in the closed meeting or
12 closed portion of the meeting must state on the record
13 during an open meeting or the open portion of a meeting the
14 nature of the information to be disclosed and the legal
15 basis for otherwise holding that information confidential.
16 (28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be
17 disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii)
18 that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public
19 Aid Code.
20 (29) Meetings between internal or external auditors
21 and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and
22 their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal
23 control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk
24 areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews
25 conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing
26 standards of the United States of America.

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1 (30) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the
2 Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm
3 Concealed Carry Act.
4 (d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
5 "Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose
6relationship with the public body constitutes an
7employer-employee relationship under the usual common law
8rules, and who is not an independent contractor.
9 "Public office" means a position created by or under the
10Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is
11charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign
12power of this State. The term "public office" shall include
13members of the public body, but it shall not include
14organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether
15established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to
16assist the body in the conduct of its business.
17 "Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body
18charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct
19hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make
20determinations based thereon, but does not include local
21electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition
22challenges.
23 (e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed
24meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of
25the nature of the matter being considered and other information
26that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

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1(Source: P.A. 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10;
296-1428, eff. 8-11-10; 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff.
38-12-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876,
4eff. 8-1-12.)
5 Section 120. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by
6changing Section 7.5 as follows:
7 (5 ILCS 140/7.5)
8 Sec. 7.5. Statutory Exemptions. To the extent provided for
9by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt
10from inspection and copying:
11 (a) All information determined to be confidential under
12Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.
13 (b) Library circulation and order records identifying
14library users with specific materials under the Library Records
15Confidentiality Act.
16 (c) Applications, related documents, and medical records
17received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures
18Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by
19the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its
20staff relating to applications it has received.
21 (d) Information and records held by the Department of
22Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to
23known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or
24any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the

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1Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.
2 (e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under
3Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.
4 (f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the
5Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications
6Based Selection Act.
7 (g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and
8exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.
9 (h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under
10the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of
11any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office
12that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive
13Inspector General's office under that Act.
14 (i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan
15submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local
16emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section
1711-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
18 (j) Information and data concerning the distribution of
19surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers
20under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.
21 (k) Law enforcement officer identification information or
22driver identification information compiled by a law
23enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under
24Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
25 (l) Records and information provided to a residential
26health care facility resident sexual assault and death review

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1team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review
2Team Act.
3 (m) Information provided to the predatory lending database
4created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property
5Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that
6Article.
7 (n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of
8compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as
9provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes
10Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the
11conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution
12chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or
13sentencing.
14 (o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed
15under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances
16Registry Act.
17 (p) Security portions of system safety program plans,
18investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or
19information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the
20Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the
21Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County
22Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.
23 (q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
24Personnel Records Review Act.
25 (r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
26Illinois School Student Records Act.

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1 (s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under
2Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
3 (t) All identified or deidentified health information in
4the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored
5in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois
6Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified
7health information in the form of health data and medical
8records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the
9possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange
10Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health
11Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and
12"deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health
13Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public
14Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any
15regulations promulgated thereunder.
16 (u) Records and information provided to an independent team
17of experts under Brian's Law.
18 (v) Names and information of people who have applied for or
19received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the
20Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or
21received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed
22Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed
23Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,
24records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the
25Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency
26objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

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1 (w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted
2from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the
3Toll Highway Act.
4 (x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under
5Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the
6Illinois Municipal Code.
7(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11;
896-1331, eff. 7-27-10; 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff.
98-12-11; 97-342, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976,
10eff. 1-1-13.)
11 Section 122. The Secretary of State Act is amended by
12adding Section 13.5 as follows:
13 (15 ILCS 305/13.5 new)
14 Sec. 13.5. Department of State Police access to driver's
15license and identification card photographs.
16 The Secretary of State shall allow the Department of State
17Police to access the driver's license or Illinois
18Identification card photograph, if available, of an applicant
19for a firearm concealed carry license under the Firearm
20Concealed Carry Act for the purpose of identifying the firearm
21concealed carry license applicant and issuing a license to the
22applicant.
23 Section 125. The Department of State Police Law of the

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1Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing
2Section 2605-300 and by adding Section 2605-595 as follows:
3 (20 ILCS 2605/2605-300) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)
4 Sec. 2605-300. Records; crime laboratories; personnel. To
5do the following:
6 (1) Be a central repository and custodian of criminal
7 statistics for the State.
8 (2) Be a central repository for criminal history record
9 information.
10 (3) Procure and file for record information that is
11 necessary and helpful to plan programs of crime prevention,
12 law enforcement, and criminal justice.
13 (4) Procure and file for record copies of fingerprints
14 that may be required by law.
15 (5) Establish general and field crime laboratories.
16 (6) Register and file for record information that may
17 be required by law for the issuance of firearm owner's
18 identification cards under the Firearm Owners
19 Identification Card Act and concealed carry licenses under
20 the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
21 (7) Employ polygraph operators, laboratory
22 technicians, and other specially qualified persons to aid
23 in the identification of criminal activity.
24 (8) Undertake other identification, information,
25 laboratory, statistical, or registration activities that

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1 may be required by law.
2(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-130, eff. 1-1-98; 90-372,
3eff. 7-1-98; 90-590, eff. 1-1-00; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 90-793,
4eff. 8-14-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)
5 (20 ILCS 2605/2605-595 new)
6 Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.
7 (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
8known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund shall
9receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and
10Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The
11Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants,
12donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.
13 (b) The Department of State Police may use moneys in the
14Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates,
15functions, and duties under the Firearm Owners Identification
16Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, including the
17cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's
18Identification Cards, concealed carry licenses, the prompt and
19efficient processing of applications under the Firearm Owners
20Identification Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,
21the improved efficiency and reporting of the LEADS and federal
22NICS law enforcement data systems, and support for
23investigations required under these Acts and law. Any surplus
24funds beyond what is needed to comply with the aforementioned
25purposes shall be used by the Department to improve the Law

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1Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) and criminal history
2background check system.
3 (c) Investment income that is attributable to the
4investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund
5for the uses specified in this Section.
6 Section 130. The State Finance Act is amended by adding
7Sections 5.826, 5.827, and 6z-98 as follows:
8 (30 ILCS 105/5.826 new)
9 Sec. 5.826. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.
10 (30 ILCS 105/5.827 new)
11 Sec. 5.827. The State Police Firearm Services Fund.
12 (30 ILCS 105/6z-98 new)
13 Sec. 6z-98. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.
14 (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
15known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall
16receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The Fund
17may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants,
18donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.
19 (b) The Department of State Police and Department of Human
20Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance
21their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on
22mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm

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1possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the
2Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners
3Identification Card Act. Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is
4necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting
5under these Acts shall be used by the Department of Human
6Services for mental health treatment programs.
7 (c) Investment income that is attributable to the
8investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund
9for the uses specified in this Section.
10 (30 ILCS 105/5.206 rep.)
11 Section 135. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing
12Section 5.206.
13 Section 140. The Illinois Explosives Act is amended by
14changing Section 2005 as follows:
15 (225 ILCS 210/2005) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1-2005)
16 Sec. 2005. Qualifications for licensure.
17 (a) No person shall qualify to hold a license who:
18 (1) is under 21 years of age;
19 (2) has been convicted in any court of a crime
20 punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;
21 (3) is under indictment for a crime punishable by
22 imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;
23 (4) is a fugitive from justice;

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1 (5) is an unlawful user of or addicted to any
2 controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the
3 federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 802 et
4 seq.);
5 (6) has been adjudicated a mentally disabled person as
6 defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
7 Card Act mental defective; or
8 (7) is not a legal citizen of the United States.
9 (b) A person who has been granted a "relief from
10disabilities" regarding criminal convictions and indictments,
11pursuant to the federal Safe Explosives Act (18 U.S.C. Sec.
12845) may receive a license provided all other qualifications
13under this Act are met.
14(Source: P.A. 96-1194, eff. 1-1-11.)
15 Section 142. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by
16changing Section 10-1 as follows:
17 (235 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 183)
18 Sec. 10-1. Violations; penalties. Whereas a substantial
19threat to the sound and careful control, regulation, and
20taxation of the manufacture, sale, and distribution of
21alcoholic liquors exists by virtue of individuals who
22manufacture, import, distribute, or sell alcoholic liquors
23within the State without having first obtained a valid license
24to do so, and whereas such threat is especially serious along

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1the borders of this State, and whereas such threat requires
2immediate correction by this Act, by active investigation and
3prosecution by law enforcement officials and prosecutors, and
4by prompt and strict enforcement through the courts of this
5State to punish violators and to deter such conduct in the
6future:
7 (a) Any person who manufactures, imports for distribution
8or use, or distributes or sells alcoholic liquor at any place
9within the State without having first obtained a valid license
10to do so under the provisions of this Act shall be guilty of a
11business offense and fined not more than $1,000 for the first
12such offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each
13subsequent offense.
14 (b) (1) Any retailer, licensed in this State, who knowingly
15causes to furnish, give, sell, or otherwise being within the
16State, any alcoholic liquor destined to be used, distributed,
17consumed or sold in another state, unless such alcoholic liquor
18was received in this State by a duly licensed distributor, or
19importing distributors shall have his license suspended for 7
20days for the first offense and for the second offense, shall
21have his license revoked by the Commission.
22 (2) In the event the Commission receives a certified copy
23of a final order from a foreign jurisdiction that an Illinois
24retail licensee has been found to have violated that foreign
25jurisdiction's laws, rules, or regulations concerning the
26importation of alcoholic liquor into that foreign

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1jurisdiction, the violation may be grounds for the Commission
2to revoke, suspend, or refuse to issue or renew a license, to
3impose a fine, or to take any additional action provided by
4this Act with respect to the Illinois retail license or
5licensee. Any such action on the part of the Commission shall
6be in accordance with this Act and implementing rules.
7 For the purposes of paragraph (2): (i) "foreign
8jurisdiction" means a state, territory, or possession of the
9United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of
10Puerto Rico, and (ii) "final order" means an order or judgment
11of a court or administrative body that determines the rights of
12the parties respecting the subject matter of the proceeding,
13that remains in full force and effect, and from which no appeal
14can be taken.
15 (c) Any person who shall make any false statement or
16otherwise violates any of the provisions of this Act in
17obtaining any license hereunder, or who having obtained a
18license hereunder shall violate any of the provisions of this
19Act with respect to the manufacture, possession, distribution
20or sale of alcoholic liquor, or with respect to the maintenance
21of the licensed premises, or shall violate any other provision
22of this Act, shall for a first offense be guilty of a petty
23offense and fined not more than $500, and for a second or
24subsequent offense shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.
25 (c-5) Any owner of an establishment that serves alcohol on
26its premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross

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1receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of alcohol,
2who knowingly fails to prohibit concealed firearms on its
3premises or who knowingly makes a false statement or record to
4avoid the prohibition of concealed firearms on its premises
5under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act shall be guilty of a
6business offense with a fine up to $5,000.
7 (d) Each day any person engages in business as a
8manufacturer, foreign importer, importing distributor,
9distributor or retailer in violation of the provisions of this
10Act shall constitute a separate offense.
11 (e) Any person, under the age of 21 years who, for the
12purpose of buying, accepting or receiving alcoholic liquor from
13a licensee, represents that he is 21 years of age or over shall
14be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
15 (f) In addition to the penalties herein provided, any
16person licensed as a wine-maker in either class who
17manufactures more wine than authorized by his license shall be
18guilty of a business offense and shall be fined $1 for each
19gallon so manufactured.
20 (g) A person shall be exempt from prosecution for a
21violation of this Act if he is a peace officer in the
22enforcement of the criminal laws and such activity is approved
23in writing by one of the following:
24 (1) In all counties, the respective State's Attorney;
25 (2) The Director of State Police under Section 2605-10,
26 2605-15, 2605-75, 2605-100, 2605-105, 2605-110, 2605-115,

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1 2605-120, 2605-130, 2605-140, 2605-190, 2605-200,
2 2605-205, 2605-210, 2605-215, 2605-250, 2605-275,
3 2605-300, 2605-305, 2605-315, 2605-325, 2605-335,
4 2605-340, 2605-350, 2605-355, 2605-360, 2605-365,
5 2605-375, 2605-390, 2605-400, 2605-405, 2605-420,
6 2605-430, 2605-435, 2605-500, 2605-525, or 2605-550 of the
7 Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-10,
8 2605/2605-15, 2605/2605-75, 2605/2605-100, 2605/2605-105,
9 2605/2605-110, 2605/2605-115, 2605/2605-120,
10 2605/2605-130, 2605/2605-140, 2605/2605-190,
11 2605/2605-200, 2605/2605-205, 2605/2605-210,
12 2605/2605-215, 2605/2605-250, 2605/2605-275,
13 2605/2605-300, 2605/2605-305, 2605/2605-315,
14 2605/2605-325, 2605/2605-335, 2605/2605-340,
15 2605/2605-350, 2605/2605-355, 2605/2605-360,
16 2605/2605-365, 2605/2605-375, 2605/2605-390,
17 2605/2605-400, 2605/2605-405, 2605/2605-420,
18 2605/2605-430, 2605/2605-435, 2605/2605-500,
19 2605/2605-525, or 2605/2605-550); or
20 (3) In cities over 1,000,000, the Superintendent of
21 Police.
22(Source: P.A. 90-739, eff. 8-13-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)
23 Section 145. The Mental Health and Developmental
24Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 6-103.1 and by
25adding Sections 6-103.2 and 6-103.3 as follows:

09800SB2335ham002- 61 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (405 ILCS 5/6-103.1)
2 Sec. 6-103.1. Adjudication as a mentally disabled person
3mental defective.
4 When a person has been adjudicated as a mentally disabled
5person mental defective as defined in Section 1.1 of the
6Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, including, but not
7limited to, an adjudication as a disabled person as defined in
8Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, the court shall
9direct the circuit court clerk to immediately notify the
10Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification
11(FOID) Office, in a form and manner prescribed by the
12Department of State Police, and shall forward a copy of the
13court order to the Department no later than 7 days after the
14entry of the order. Upon receipt of the order, the Department
15of State Police shall provide notification to the National
16Instant Criminal Background Check System.
17(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)
18 (405 ILCS 5/6-103.2 new)
19 Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice.
20 For purposes of this Section, if a person is determined to
21be developmentally disabled as defined in Section 1.1 of the
22Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by a physician, clinical
23psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether practicing at a
24public or by a private mental health facility or developmental

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1disability facility, the physician, clinical psychologist, or
2qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human
3Services within 24 hours of making the determination that the
4person has a developmental disability. The Department of Human
5Services shall immediately update its records and information
6relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and
7if appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in
8a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.
9Information disclosed under this Section shall remain
10privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed,
11except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the
12Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other
13purpose. The method of providing this information shall
14guarantee that the information is not released beyond that
15which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be
16provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The
17identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not
18be disclosed to the subject of the report.
19 The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified
20examiner making the determination and his or her employer may
21not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for
22making or not making the notification required under this
23Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct.
24 (405 ILCS 5/6-103.3 new)
25 Sec. 6-103.3. Clear and present danger; notice.

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1 If a person is determined to pose a clear and present
2danger to himself, herself, or to others by a physician,
3clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed
4by the State, by any public or private mental health facility
5or part thereof, or by a law enforcement official or a school
6administrator, then the physician, clinical psychologist,
7qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human
8Services and a law enforcement official or school administrator
9shall notify the Department of State Police, within 24 hours of
10making the determination that the person poses a clear and
11present danger. The Department of Human Services shall
12immediately update its records and information relating to
13mental health and developmental disabilities, and if
14appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a
15form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.
16Information disclosed under this Section shall remain
17privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed,
18except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the
19Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other
20purpose. The method of providing this information shall
21guarantee that the information is not released beyond that
22which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be
23provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The
24identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not
25be disclosed to the subject of the report. The physician,
26clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law enforcement

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1official, or school administrator making the determination and
2his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or
3professionally liable for making or not making the notification
4required under this Section, except for willful or wanton
5misconduct. This Section does not apply to a law enforcement
6official, if making the notification under this Section will
7interfere with an ongoing or pending criminal investigation.
8 For the purposes of this Section:
9 "Clear and present danger" has the meaning ascribed to
10 it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
11 Act.
12 "School administrator" means the person required to
13 report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental
14 Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.
15 Section 150. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
16amended by changing Sections 1.1, 3.1, 4, 5, 8, 8.1, 9, 10,
1713.1, and 13.2 and by adding Sections 5.1 and 9.5 as follows:
18 (430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)
19 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
20 Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:
21 "Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:
22 (1) convicted of an offense involving the use or
23 possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or
24 methamphetamine within the past year; or

09800SB2335ham002- 65 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (2) determined by the Department of State Police to be
2 addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal
3 guidelines.
4 "Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use
5of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and
6authority of a physician or other person authorized to
7prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled
8substance is used in the prescribed manner.
9 "Adjudicated Has been adjudicated as a mentally disabled
10person mental defective" means the person is the subject of a
11determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful
12authority that the a person, as a result of marked subnormal
13intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment,
14incompetency, condition, or disease:
15 (1) presents a clear and present is a danger to
16 himself, herself, or to others;
17 (2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own
18 affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in
19 Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;
20 (3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of
21 insanity, mental disease or defect;
22 (3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in
23 Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;
24 (4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;
25 (5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental
26 responsibility under pursuant to Articles 50a and 72b of

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1 the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a,
2 876b; .
3 (6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f)
4 of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment
5 Act;
6 (7) has been found to be a sexually dangerous person
7 under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;
8 (8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court
9 Act of 1987;
10 (9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the
11 Juvenile Court Act of 1987;
12 (10) is subject to involuntary admission as an
13 inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health
14 and Development Disabilities Code;
15 (11) is subject to involuntary admission as an
16 outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental
17 Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
18 (12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in
19 Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental
20 Disabilities Code; or
21 (13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate
22 Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.
23 "Clear and present danger" means a person who:
24 (1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence
25 against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear
26 and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself,

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1 herself, or another person as determined by a physician,
2 clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or
3 (2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal
4 behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive
5 threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a
6 physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner,
7 school administrator, or law enforcement official.
8 "Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in
9Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental
10Disabilities Code.
11 "Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or
12controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois
13Controlled Substances Act.
14 "Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal
15authority, with intent to deceive.
16 "Developmentally disabled" means a disability which is
17attributable to any other condition which results in impairment
18similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which
19requires services similar to those required by intellectually
20disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age
21of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and
22constitute a substantial handicap.
23 "Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is
24licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the
25federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).
26 "Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which

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1is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action
2of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,
3however:
4 (1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
5 B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not
6 exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum
7 muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;
8 (1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
9 B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing
10 washable marking colors;
11 (2) any device used exclusively for signalling or
12 safety and required or recommended by the United States
13 Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;
14 (3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud
15 cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial
16 ammunition; and
17 (4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun)
18 which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of
19 State Police finds by reason of the date of its
20 manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is
21 primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used
22 as a weapon.
23 "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or
24shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be
25used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:
26 (1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a

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1 device used exclusively for signalling or safety and
2 required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or
3 the Interstate Commerce Commission; and
4 (2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a
5 stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial
6 ammunition.
7 "Gun show" means an event or function:
8 (1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the
9 regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more
10 firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale,
11 transfer, or exchange; or
12 (2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display,
13 offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange
14 firearms.
15 "Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an
16event or function, including parking areas for the event or
17function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale,
18transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.
19 "Gun show" does not include training or safety classes,
20competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun
21matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners,
22banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or
23transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.
24 "Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or
25operates a gun show.
26 "Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells,

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1offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun
2show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show
3promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell,
4offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.
5 "Intellectually disabled" means significantly subaverage
6general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently
7with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates
8before the age of 18 years.
9 "Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in
10Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and
11Developmental Disabilities Code.
12 "Mental health facility" means any licensed private
13hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or
14part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by
15the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide
16treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all
17hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities,
18mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care
19facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide
20treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the
21primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental
22illness.
23 "Patient" means:
24 (1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health
25 treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or
26 private mental health facility, unless the treatment was

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1 solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary
2 substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or
3 (2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health
4 treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a
5 public or private mental health facility, and who poses a
6 clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.
7 "Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of
8the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
9 "Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section
101-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
11 "Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting
12contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting
13sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice
14conducted in conjunction with the event.
15 "School administrator" means the person required to report
16under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear
17and Present Danger Determinations Law.
18 "Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in
19Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
20(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
21 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
22 Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:
23 "Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:
24 (1) convicted of an offense involving the use or
25 possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or

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1 methamphetamine within the past year; or
2 (2) determined by the Department of State Police to be
3 addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal
4 guidelines.
5 "Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use
6of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and
7authority of a physician or other person authorized to
8prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled
9substance is used in the prescribed manner.
10 "Adjudicated Has been adjudicated as a mentally disabled
11person mental defective" means the person is the subject of a
12determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful
13authority that the a person, as a result of marked subnormal
14intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment,
15incompetency, condition, or disease:
16 (1) presents a clear and present is a danger to
17 himself, herself, or to others;
18 (2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own
19 affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in
20 Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;
21 (3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of
22 insanity, mental disease or defect;
23 (3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in
24 Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;
25 (4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;
26 (5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental

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1 responsibility under pursuant to Articles 50a and 72b of
2 the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a,
3 876b; .
4 (6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f)
5 of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment
6 Act;
7 (7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually
8 Dangerous Persons Act;
9 (8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court
10 Act of 1987;
11 (9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the
12 Juvenile Court Act of 1987;
13 (10) is subject to involuntary admission as an
14 inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health
15 and Development Disabilities Code;
16 (11) is subject to involuntary admission as an
17 outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental
18 Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;
19 (12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in
20 Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental
21 Disabilities Code; or
22 (13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate
23 Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.
24 "Clear and present danger" means a person who:
25 (1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence
26 against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear

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1 and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself,
2 herself, or another person as determined by a physician,
3 clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or
4 (2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal
5 behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive
6 threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a
7 physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner,
8 school administrator, or law enforcement official.
9 "Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in
10Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental
11Disabilities Code.
12 "Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or
13controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois
14Controlled Substances Act.
15 "Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal
16authority, with intent to deceive.
17 "Developmentally disabled" means a disability which is
18attributable to any other condition which results in impairment
19similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which
20requires services similar to those required by intellectually
21disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age
22of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and
23constitute a substantial handicap.
24 "Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is
25licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the
26federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

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1 "Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which
2is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action
3of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,
4however:
5 (1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
6 B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not
7 exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum
8 muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;
9 (1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or
10 B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing
11 washable marking colors;
12 (2) any device used exclusively for signalling or
13 safety and required or recommended by the United States
14 Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;
15 (3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud
16 cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial
17 ammunition; and
18 (4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun)
19 which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of
20 State Police finds by reason of the date of its
21 manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is
22 primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used
23 as a weapon.
24 "Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or
25shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be
26used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

09800SB2335ham002- 76 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a
2 device used exclusively for signalling or safety and
3 required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or
4 the Interstate Commerce Commission; and
5 (2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a
6 stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial
7 ammunition.
8 "Gun show" means an event or function:
9 (1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the
10 regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more
11 firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale,
12 transfer, or exchange; or
13 (2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display,
14 offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange
15 firearms.
16 "Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an
17event or function, including parking areas for the event or
18function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale,
19transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.
20 "Gun show" does not include training or safety classes,
21competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun
22matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners,
23banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or
24transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.
25 "Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or
26operates a gun show.

09800SB2335ham002- 77 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 "Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells,
2offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun
3show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show
4promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell,
5offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.
6 "Intellectually disabled" means significantly subaverage
7general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently
8with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates
9before the age of 18 years.
10 "Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in
11Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and
12Developmental Disabilities Code.
13 "Mental health facility institution" means any licensed
14private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or
15facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof,
16operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which
17provide clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or
18part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment
19of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals,
20institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health
21centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities,
22and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of
23persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose
24is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.
25 "Patient" means:
26 (1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health

09800SB2335ham002- 78 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or
2 private mental health facility, unless the treatment was
3 solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary
4 substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or
5 (2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health
6 treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a
7 public or private mental health facility, and who poses a
8 clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.
9 "Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of
10the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
11 "Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section
121-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
13 "Patient in a mental institution" means the person was
14admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental
15institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment
16was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no
17other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.
18 "Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting
19contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting
20sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice
21conducted in conjunction with the event.
22 "School administrator" means the person required to report
23under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear
24and Present Danger Determinations Law.
25 "Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in
26Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

09800SB2335ham002- 79 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
297-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)
3 (430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)
4 Sec. 3.1. Dial up system.
5 (a) The Department of State Police shall provide a dial up
6telephone system or utilize other existing technology which
7shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun
8show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm,
9stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The
10Department of State Police may utilize existing technology
11which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2.
12Fees collected by the Department of State Police shall be
13deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used to provide
14the service.
15 (b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed
16firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the
17Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within
18the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal
19Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and
20tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun
21show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the
22transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or
23taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State
24Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its
25criminal history record information files and those of the

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1Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National
2Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of
3the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and
4developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or
5patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a
6person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently
7valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
8 (c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3
9of the Criminal Code of 2012, federal law, or this Act the
10Department of State Police shall:
11 (1) assign a unique identification number to the
12 transfer; and
13 (2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun
14 show vendor with the number.
15 (d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for
16the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date
17of issue.
18 (e) (1) The Department of State Police must act as the
19Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal
20Background Check System.
21 (2) The Department of State Police and the Department of
22Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law
23regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of
24understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the
25purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal
26Background Check System in the State. The Department of State

09800SB2335ham002- 81 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical
2description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm
3pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18
4U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal
5Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.
6 (3) The Department of State Police shall provide notice of
7the disqualification of a person under subsection (b) of this
8Section or the revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's
9Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act, and the reason
10for the disqualification or revocation, to all law enforcement
11agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the
12person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
13 (f) The Department of State Police shall adopt promulgate
14rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this
15system.
16(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
17 (430 ILCS 65/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)
18 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
19 Sec. 4. (a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's
20Identification Card must:
21 (1) Make application on blank forms prepared and
22 furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by
23 the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if
24 and when made available by the Department of State Police;
25 and

09800SB2335ham002- 82 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police
2 that:
3 (i) He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he
4 or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the
5 written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian
6 to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition
7 and that he or she has never been convicted of a
8 misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
9 delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or
10 legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from
11 having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files
12 an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the
13 Department stating that he or she is not an individual
14 prohibited from having a Card;
15 (ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony
16 under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;
17 (iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;
18 (iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental
19 health facility institution within the past 5 years or,
20 if he or she has been a patient in a mental health
21 facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification
22 required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act
23 and he or she has not been adjudicated as a mental
24 defective;
25 (v) He or she is not intellectually disabled;
26 (vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully

09800SB2335ham002- 83 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 present in the United States under the laws of the
2 United States;
3 (vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order
4 of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a
5 firearm;
6 (viii) He or she has not been convicted within the
7 past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault,
8 violation of an order of protection, or a substantially
9 similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a
10 firearm was used or possessed;
11 (ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic
12 battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a
13 substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction
14 committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the
15 effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant
16 knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an
17 offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury,
18 and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a
19 conviction for an offense in which a domestic
20 relationship is not a required element of the offense
21 but in which a determination of the applicability of 18
22 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the
23 Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the
24 court of a judgment of conviction for that offense
25 shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm
26 Owner's Identification Card under this Section;

09800SB2335ham002- 84 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (x) (Blank);
2 (xi) He or she is not an alien who has been
3 admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant
4 visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of
5 the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.
6 1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has
7 been lawfully admitted to the United States under a
8 non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
9 (1) admitted to the United States for lawful
10 hunting or sporting purposes;
11 (2) an official representative of a foreign
12 government who is:
13 (A) accredited to the United States
14 Government or the Government's mission to an
15 international organization having its
16 headquarters in the United States; or
17 (B) en route to or from another country to
18 which that alien is accredited;
19 (3) an official of a foreign government or
20 distinguished foreign visitor who has been so
21 designated by the Department of State;
22 (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a
23 friendly foreign government entering the United
24 States on official business; or
25 (5) one who has received a waiver from the
26 Attorney General of the United States pursuant to

09800SB2335ham002- 85 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);
2 (xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a
3 petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile
4 Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a
5 delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that
6 if committed by an adult would be a felony;
7 (xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been
8 adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile
9 Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that
10 if committed by an adult would be a felony; and
11 (xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of
12 Illinois; and
13 (xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a
14 mentally disabled person;
15 (xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted
16 into a mental health facility; and
17 (xvii) He or she is not developmentally disabled;
18 and
19 (3) Upon request by the Department of State Police,
20 sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of
21 State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and
22 requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police
23 of limited mental health institution admission information
24 from another state, the District of Columbia, any other
25 territory of the United States, or a foreign nation
26 concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of

09800SB2335ham002- 86 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a
2 mental health institution and disqualified because of that
3 status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification
4 Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be
5 requested. The information received shall be destroyed
6 within one year of receipt.
7 (a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
8Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department
9of State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license
10number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as
11provided in subsection (a-10).
12 (a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
13Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed
14security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military
15permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois
16resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his
17or her driver's license number or state identification card
18number from his or her state of residence. The Department of
19State Police may adopt promulgate rules to enforce the
20provisions of this subsection (a-10).
21 (a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's
22Identification Card moves from the residence address named in
23the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form
24and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police of that
25change of address.
26 (a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification

09800SB2335ham002- 87 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1Card shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her
2photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older
3seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement
4must furnish with the application an approved copy of United
5States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form
64029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age
7seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement
8shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by
9the Department with his or her application.
10 (b) Each application form shall include the following
11statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false
12information on an application for a Firearm Owner's
13Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in
14accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm
15Owners Identification Card Act.".
16 (c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4,
17paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the
18consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the
19applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.
20(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
21eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)
22 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
23 Sec. 4. (a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's
24Identification Card must:
25 (1) Make application on blank forms prepared and

09800SB2335ham002- 88 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by
2 the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if
3 and when made available by the Department of State Police;
4 and
5 (2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police
6 that:
7 (i) He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he
8 or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the
9 written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian
10 to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition
11 and that he or she has never been convicted of a
12 misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
13 delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or
14 legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from
15 having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files
16 an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the
17 Department stating that he or she is not an individual
18 prohibited from having a Card;
19 (ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony
20 under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;
21 (iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;
22 (iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental
23 health facility institution within the past 5 years or,
24 if he or she has been a patient in a mental health
25 facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification
26 required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act;

09800SB2335ham002- 89 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (v) He or she is not intellectually disabled;
2 (vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully
3 present in the United States under the laws of the
4 United States;
5 (vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order
6 of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a
7 firearm;
8 (viii) He or she has not been convicted within the
9 past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault,
10 violation of an order of protection, or a substantially
11 similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a
12 firearm was used or possessed;
13 (ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic
14 battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a
15 substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction
16 committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the
17 effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant
18 knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an
19 offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury,
20 and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a
21 conviction for an offense in which a domestic
22 relationship is not a required element of the offense
23 but in which a determination of the applicability of 18
24 U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the
25 Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the
26 court of a judgment of conviction for that offense

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1 shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm
2 Owner's Identification Card under this Section;
3 (x) (Blank);
4 (xi) He or she is not an alien who has been
5 admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant
6 visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of
7 the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.
8 1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has
9 been lawfully admitted to the United States under a
10 non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
11 (1) admitted to the United States for lawful
12 hunting or sporting purposes;
13 (2) an official representative of a foreign
14 government who is:
15 (A) accredited to the United States
16 Government or the Government's mission to an
17 international organization having its
18 headquarters in the United States; or
19 (B) en route to or from another country to
20 which that alien is accredited;
21 (3) an official of a foreign government or
22 distinguished foreign visitor who has been so
23 designated by the Department of State;
24 (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a
25 friendly foreign government entering the United
26 States on official business; or

09800SB2335ham002- 91 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (5) one who has received a waiver from the
2 Attorney General of the United States pursuant to
3 18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);
4 (xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a
5 petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile
6 Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a
7 delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that
8 if committed by an adult would be a felony;
9 (xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been
10 adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile
11 Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that
12 if committed by an adult would be a felony;
13 (xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of
14 Illinois; and
15 (xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a
16 mentally disabled person mental defective; and
17 (xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted
18 into a mental health facility; and
19 (xvii) He or she is not developmentally disabled;
20 and
21 (3) Upon request by the Department of State Police,
22 sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of
23 State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and
24 requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police
25 of limited mental health institution admission information
26 from another state, the District of Columbia, any other

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1 territory of the United States, or a foreign nation
2 concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of
3 determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a
4 mental health institution and disqualified because of that
5 status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification
6 Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be
7 requested. The information received shall be destroyed
8 within one year of receipt.
9 (a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
10Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department
11of State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license
12number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as
13provided in subsection (a-10).
14 (a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
15Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed
16security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military
17permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois
18resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his
19or her driver's license number or state identification card
20number from his or her state of residence. The Department of
21State Police may adopt promulgate rules to enforce the
22provisions of this subsection (a-10).
23 (a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's
24Identification Card moves from the residence address named in
25the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form
26and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police of that

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1change of address.
2 (a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification
3Card shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her
4photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older
5seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement
6must furnish with the application an approved copy of United
7States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form
84029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age
9seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement
10shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by
11the Department with his or her application.
12 (b) Each application form shall include the following
13statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false
14information on an application for a Firearm Owner's
15Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in
16accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm
17Owners Identification Card Act.".
18 (c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4,
19paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the
20consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the
21applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.
22(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
23eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)
24 (430 ILCS 65/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-5)
25 Sec. 5. The Department of State Police shall either approve

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1or deny all applications within 30 days from the date they are
2received, and every applicant found qualified under pursuant to
3Section 8 of this Act by the Department shall be entitled to a
4Firearm Owner's Identification Card upon the payment of a $10
5fee. Any applicant who is an active duty member of the Armed
6Forces of the United States, a member of the Illinois National
7Guard, or a member of the Reserve Forces of the United States
8is exempt from the application fee. $6 of each fee derived from
9the issuance of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, or
10renewals thereof, shall be deposited in the Wildlife and Fish
11Fund in the State Treasury; $1 of the such fee shall be
12deposited in the State Police Services Fund and $3 of the such
13fee shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services
14Fund. Firearm Owner's Notification Fund. Monies in the Firearm
15Owner's Notification Fund shall be used exclusively to pay for
16the cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's
17Identification Cards under Section 13.2 of this Act. Excess
18monies in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund shall be used
19to ensure the prompt and efficient processing of applications
20received under Section 4 of this Act.
21(Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08; 96-91, eff. 7-27-09.)
22 (430 ILCS 65/5.1 new)
23 Sec. 5.1. State Police Firearm Services Fund. All moneys
24remaining in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund on the
25effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General

09800SB2335ham002- 95 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1Assembly shall be transferred into the State Police Firearm
2Services Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury, to
3be expended by the Department of State Police, for the purposes
4specified in this Act and Section 2605-595 of the Department of
5State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
6 (430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)
7 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
8 Sec. 8. The Department of State Police has authority to
9deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm
10Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act
11only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person
12to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:
13 (a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted
14of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
15delinquent;
16 (b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the
17written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and
18possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or
19guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent
20or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's
21Identification Card;
22 (c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this
23or any other jurisdiction;
24 (d) A person addicted to narcotics;
25 (e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health

09800SB2335ham002- 96 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1facility institution within the past 5 years or a person who
2has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5
3years ago who has not received the certification required under
4subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement
5officer employed by a unit of government who is denied,
6revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card
7seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described
8in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer
9did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another
10person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical
11psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health
12treatment; or has been adjudicated as a mental defective;
13 (f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature
14that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any
15other person or persons or the community;
16 For the purposes of this Section, "mental condition" means
17a state of mind manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening or
18assaultive behavior.
19 (g) A person who is intellectually disabled;
20 (h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in
21the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;
22 (i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States
23under the laws of the United States;
24 (i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States
25under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section
26101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.

09800SB2335ham002- 97 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
11101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply
2to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United
3States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
4 (1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or
5 sporting purposes;
6 (2) an official representative of a foreign government
7 who is:
8 (A) accredited to the United States Government or
9 the Government's mission to an international
10 organization having its headquarters in the United
11 States; or
12 (B) en route to or from another country to which
13 that alien is accredited;
14 (3) an official of a foreign government or
15 distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by
16 the Department of State;
17 (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly
18 foreign government entering the United States on official
19 business; or
20 (5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney
21 General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.
22 922(y)(3);
23 (j) (Blank);
24 (k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years
25of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order
26of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another

09800SB2335ham002- 98 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;
2 (l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery,
3aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar
4offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after
5January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If
6the applicant or person who has been previously issued a
7Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly
8and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described
9in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or
10otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a
11domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense
12but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C.
13922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of
14Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment
15of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an
16application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's
17Identification Card previously issued to the person under this
18Act;
19 (m) (Blank);
20 (n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing
21firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or
22by federal law;
23 (o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520
24of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a
25delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if
26committed by an adult would be a felony;

09800SB2335ham002- 99 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor
2under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an
3offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or
4 (q) A person who is not a resident of the State of
5Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section
64; .
7 (r) A person who has been adjudicated as a mentally
8disabled person;
9 (s) A person who has been found to be developmentally
10disabled;
11 (t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health
12facility;
13 (u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's
14Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of
15this Section or item (iv) of Section 4 of this Act because he
16or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in
17item (2) of subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be
18permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card,
19after the 5 year period has lapsed, unless he or she has
20received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical
21psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined
22in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and
23has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and
24present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician,
25clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the
26certification and his or her employer shall not be held

09800SB2335ham002- 100 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not
2making the certification required under this subsection,
3except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does
4not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been
5restored through administrative or judicial action under
6Section 10 or 11 of this Act; or
7 (v) Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's
8Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall
9provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with
10Section 9.5 of this Act.
11(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227,
12eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)
13 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
14 Sec. 8. The Department of State Police has authority to
15deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm
16Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act
17only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person
18to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:
19 (a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted
20of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged
21delinquent;
22 (b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the
23written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and
24possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or
25guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent

09800SB2335ham002- 101 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's
2Identification Card;
3 (c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this
4or any other jurisdiction;
5 (d) A person addicted to narcotics;
6 (e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health
7facility institution within the past 5 years or a person who
8has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5
9years ago who has not received the certification required under
10subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement
11officer employed by a unit of government who is denied,
12revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card
13seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described
14in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer
15did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another
16person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical
17psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health
18treatment;
19 (f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature
20that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any
21other person or persons or the community;
22 For the purposes of this Section, "mental condition" means
23a state of mind manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening or
24assaultive behavior.
25 (g) A person who is intellectually disabled;
26 (h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in

09800SB2335ham002- 102 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;
2 (i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States
3under the laws of the United States;
4 (i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States
5under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section
6101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.
71101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply
8to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United
9States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:
10 (1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or
11 sporting purposes;
12 (2) an official representative of a foreign government
13 who is:
14 (A) accredited to the United States Government or
15 the Government's mission to an international
16 organization having its headquarters in the United
17 States; or
18 (B) en route to or from another country to which
19 that alien is accredited;
20 (3) an official of a foreign government or
21 distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by
22 the Department of State;
23 (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly
24 foreign government entering the United States on official
25 business; or
26 (5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney

09800SB2335ham002- 103 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.
2 922(y)(3);
3 (j) (Blank);
4 (k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years
5of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order
6of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another
7jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;
8 (l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery,
9aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar
10offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after
11January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If
12the applicant or person who has been previously issued a
13Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly
14and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described
15in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or
16otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a
17domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense
18but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C.
19922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of
20Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment
21of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an
22application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's
23Identification Card previously issued to the person under this
24Act;
25 (m) (Blank);
26 (n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing

09800SB2335ham002- 104 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or
2by federal law;
3 (o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520
4of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a
5delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if
6committed by an adult would be a felony;
7 (p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor
8under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an
9offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
10 (q) A person who is not a resident of the State of
11Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4;
12or
13 (r) A person who has been adjudicated as a mentally
14disabled person; mental defective.
15 (s) A person who has been found to be developmentally
16disabled;
17 (t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health
18facility;
19 (u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's
20Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of
21this Section or item (iv) of Section 4 of this Act because he
22or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in
23item (2) of subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be
24permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card,
25after the 5 year period has lapsed, unless he or she has
26received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical

09800SB2335ham002- 105 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined
2in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and
3has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and
4present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician,
5clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the
6certification and his or her employer shall not be held
7criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not
8making the certification required under this subsection,
9except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does
10not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been
11restored through administrative or judicial action under
12Section 10 or 11 of this Act; or
13 (v) Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's
14Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall
15provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with
16Section 9.5 of this Act.
17(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227,
18eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13;
1997-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)
20 (430 ILCS 65/8.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8.1)
21 Sec. 8.1. Notifications to the Circuit Clerk to notify
22Department of State Police.
23 (a) The Circuit Clerk shall, in the form and manner
24required by the Supreme Court, notify the Department of State
25Police of all final dispositions of cases for which the

09800SB2335ham002- 106 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1Department has received information reported to it under
2Sections 2.1 and 2.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.
3 (b) Upon adjudication of any individual as a mentally
4disabled person mental defective, as defined in Section 1.1 of
5this Act or a finding that a person has been involuntarily
6admitted or as provided in paragraph (3.5) of subsection (c) of
7Section 104-26 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the
8court shall direct the circuit court clerk to immediately
9notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's
10Identification (FOID) department, and shall forward a copy of
11the court order to the Department.
12 (c) The Department of Human Services shall, in the form and
13manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, report all
14information collected under subsection (b) of Section 12 of the
15Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality
16Act for the purpose of determining whether a person who may be
17or may have been a patient in a mental health facility is
18disqualified under State or federal law from receiving or
19retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or purchasing
20a weapon.
21 (d) If a person is determined to pose a clear and present
22danger to himself, herself, or to others by a physician,
23clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law enforcement
24official, or school administrator, or is determined to be
25developmentally disabled by a physician, clinical
26psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the

09800SB2335ham002- 107 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1State or by a private mental health facility, then the
2physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner shall,
3within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the
4Department of Human Services that the person poses a clear and
5present danger. The Department of Human Services shall
6immediately update its records and information relating to
7mental health and developmental disabilities, and if
8appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a
9form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.
10The Department of State Police shall determine whether to
11revoke the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under
12Section 8 of this Act. Any information disclosed under this
13subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall
14not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of
15Section 3.1 of this Act, nor used for any other purpose. The
16method of providing this information shall guarantee that the
17information is not released beyond what is necessary for the
18purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the
19Department of Human Services. The identity of the person
20reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the
21subject of the report. The physician, clinical psychologist,
22qualified examiner, law enforcement official, or school
23administrator making the determination and his or her employer
24shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable
25for making or not making the notification required under this
26subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

09800SB2335ham002- 108 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (e) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules to
2implement this Section.
3(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)
4 (430 ILCS 65/9) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-9)
5 Sec. 9. Every person whose application for a Firearm
6Owner's Identification Card is denied, and every holder of such
7a Card whose Card is revoked or seized, shall receive a written
8notice from the Department of State Police stating specifically
9the grounds upon which his application has been denied or upon
10which his Identification Card has been revoked. The written
11notice shall include the requirements of Section 9.5 of this
12Act and the persons's right to administrative or judicial
13review under Section 10 and 11 of this Act. A copy of the
14written notice shall be provided to the sheriff and law
15enforcement agency where the person resides.
16(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)
17 (430 ILCS 65/9.5 new)
18 Sec. 9.5. Revocation of Firearm Owner's Identification
19Card.
20 (a) A person who receives a revocation notice under Section
219 of this Act shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the
22revocation:
23 (1) surrender his or her Firearm Owner's
24 Identification Card to the local law enforcement agency

09800SB2335ham002- 109 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency
2 shall provide the person a receipt and transmit the Firearm
3 Owner's Identification Card to the Department of State
4 Police; and
5 (2) complete a Firearm Disposition Record on a form
6 prescribed by the Department of State Police and place his
7 or her firearms in the location or with the person reported
8 in the Firearm Disposition Record. The form shall require
9 the person to disclose:
10 (A) the make, model, and serial number of each
11 firearm owned by or under the custody and control of
12 the revoked person;
13 (B) the location where each firearm will be
14 maintained during the prohibited term; and
15 (C) if any firearm will be transferred to the
16 custody of another person, the name, address and
17 Firearm Owner's Identification Card number of the
18 transferee.
19 (b) The local law enforcement agency shall provide a copy
20of the Firearm Disposition Record to the person whose Firearm
21Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and to the
22Department of State Police.
23 (c) If the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card
24has been revoked fails to comply with the requirements of this
25Section, the sheriff or law enforcement agency where the person
26resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to

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1search for and seize the Firearm Owner's Identification Card
2and firearms in the possession or under the custody or control
3of the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has
4been revoked.
5 (d) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a
6Class A misdemeanor.
7 (e) The observation of a Firearm Owner's Identification
8Card in the possession of a person whose Firearm Owner's
9Identification Card has been revoked constitutes a sufficient
10basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this
11Section.
12 (f) Within 30 days after the effective date of this
13amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Department of
14State Police shall provide written notice of the requirements
15of this Section to persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification
16Cards have been revoked, suspended, or expired and who have
17failed to surrender their cards to the Department.
18 (g) A person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has
19been revoked and who received notice under subsection (f) shall
20comply with the requirements of this Section within 48 hours of
21receiving notice.
22 (430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)
23 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
24 Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm
25prohibitions.

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1 (a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's
2Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to
3act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or
4whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in
5Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the
6Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial,
7revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or
8seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated
9stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois
10Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and
11Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is
12classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation
13of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
14of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the
15commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be
16a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the
17circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence
18for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.
19 (b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit
20court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney
21with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to
22the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court
23shall determine whether substantial justice has been done.
24Should the court determine that substantial justice has not
25been done, the court shall issue an order directing the
26Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court

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1shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise
2prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under
3federal law.
4 (c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under
5Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or
6acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8
7of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or
8petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner
9resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection
10(a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition
11and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is
12established by the applicant to the court's or Director's
13satisfaction that:
14 (0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney
15 has been served with a written copy of the petition at
16 least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court
17 and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an
18 opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;
19 (1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible
20 felony under the laws of this State or any other
21 jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's
22 application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or
23 at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period
24 of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;
25 (2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,
26 where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his

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1 reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely
2 to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;
3 (3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public
4 interest; and
5 (4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
6 law.
7 (c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by
8 a unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or
9 her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under
10 subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the
11 Director of State Police requesting relief if the officer
12 did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another
13 person, or the public as determined by the treating
14 clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his
15 or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily
16 seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed
17 clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified
18 examiner, and:
19 (A) the officer has not received treatment
20 involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless
21 of the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily
22 admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30
23 days and not for more than one incident within the past
24 5 years; and
25 (B) the officer has not left the mental institution
26 against medical advice.

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1 (2) The Director of State Police shall grant expedited
2 relief to active law enforcement officers described in
3 paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination
4 by the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm
5 does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public
6 safety. The Director shall act on the request for relief
7 within 30 business days of receipt of:
8 (A) a notarized statement from the officer in the
9 form prescribed by the Director detailing the
10 circumstances that led to the hospitalization;
11 (B) all documentation regarding the admission,
12 evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating
13 licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the
14 officer;
15 (C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of
16 the person completed after the time of discharge; and
17 (D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by
18 the Director from the treating licensed clinical
19 psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set
20 forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have
21 been met, the person successfully completed treatment,
22 and their professional opinion regarding the person's
23 ability to possess firearms.
24 (3) Officers eligible for the expedited relief in
25 paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of
26 proof on eligibility and must provide all information

09800SB2335ham002- 115 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 required. The Director may not consider granting expedited
2 relief until the proof and information is received.
3 (4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and
4 "qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as
5 provided in Chapter 1 of the Mental Health and
6 Developmental Disabilities Code.
7 (d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense
8which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court
9shall notify the Department of State Police.
10 (e) The court shall review the denial of an application or
11the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a
12person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that
13if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application
14for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the
15adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the
16applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a
17Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants
18relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police
19that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is
20eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
21 (f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18
22U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act
23of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred
24under the laws of this State or who was determined to be
25subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of
26Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State

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1Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director
2shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance
3of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a
4manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief
5would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this
6determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning
7(i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from
8which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and
9criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's
10reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness
11statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv)
12changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since
13the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If
14relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court
15under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable
16but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct,
17modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the
18Department of State Police makes available to the National
19Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United
20States Attorney General that the basis for the record being
21made available no longer applies. The Department of State
22Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section
23subsection (f).
24(Source: P.A. 96-1368, eff. 7-28-10; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13;
2597-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

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1 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)
2 Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm
3prohibitions.
4 (a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's
5Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to
6act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or
7whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in
8Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the
9Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial,
10revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or
11seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated
12stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois
13Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and
14Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is
15classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation
16of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
17of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the
18commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be
19a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the
20circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence
21for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.
22 (b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit
23court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney
24with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to
25the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court
26shall determine whether substantial justice has been done.

09800SB2335ham002- 118 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1Should the court determine that substantial justice has not
2been done, the court shall issue an order directing the
3Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court
4shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise
5prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under
6federal law.
7 (c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under
8Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or
9acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8
10of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or
11petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner
12resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection
13(a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition
14and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is
15established by the applicant to the court's or Director's
16satisfaction that:
17 (0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney
18 has been served with a written copy of the petition at
19 least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court
20 and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an
21 opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;
22 (1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible
23 felony under the laws of this State or any other
24 jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's
25 application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or
26 at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period

09800SB2335ham002- 119 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;
2 (2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,
3 where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his
4 reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely
5 to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;
6 (3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public
7 interest; and
8 (4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
9 law.
10 (c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by
11 a unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or
12 her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under
13 subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the
14 Director of State Police requesting relief if the officer
15 did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another
16 person, or the public as determined by the treating
17 clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his
18 or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily
19 seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed
20 clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified
21 examiner, and:
22 (A) the officer has not received treatment
23 involuntarily at a mental health facility institution,
24 regardless of the length of admission; or has not been
25 voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility
26 institution for more than 30 days and not for more than

09800SB2335ham002- 120 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 one incident within the past 5 years; and
2 (B) the officer has not left the mental institution
3 against medical advice.
4 (2) The Director of State Police shall grant expedited
5 relief to active law enforcement officers described in
6 paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination
7 by the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm
8 does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public
9 safety. The Director shall act on the request for relief
10 within 30 business days of receipt of:
11 (A) a notarized statement from the officer in the
12 form prescribed by the Director detailing the
13 circumstances that led to the hospitalization;
14 (B) all documentation regarding the admission,
15 evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating
16 licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the
17 officer;
18 (C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of
19 the person completed after the time of discharge; and
20 (D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by
21 the Director from the treating licensed clinical
22 psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set
23 forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have
24 been met, the person successfully completed treatment,
25 and their professional opinion regarding the person's
26 ability to possess firearms.

09800SB2335ham002- 121 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (3) Officers eligible for the expedited relief in
2 paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of
3 proof on eligibility and must provide all information
4 required. The Director may not consider granting expedited
5 relief until the proof and information is received.
6 (4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and
7 "qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as
8 provided in Chapter 1 of the Mental Health and
9 Developmental Disabilities Code.
10 (d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense
11which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court
12shall notify the Department of State Police.
13 (e) The court shall review the denial of an application or
14the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a
15person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that
16if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application
17for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the
18adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the
19applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a
20Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants
21relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police
22that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is
23eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
24 (f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18
25U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act
26of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred

09800SB2335ham002- 122 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1under the laws of this State or who was determined to be
2subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of
3Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State
4Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director
5shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance
6of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a
7manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief
8would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this
9determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning
10(i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from
11which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and
12criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's
13reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness
14statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv)
15changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since
16the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If
17relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court
18under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable
19but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct,
20modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the
21Department of State Police makes available to the National
22Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United
23States Attorney General that the basis for the record being
24made available no longer applies. The Department of State
25Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section
26subsection (f).

09800SB2335ham002- 123 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1(Source: P.A. 96-1368, eff. 7-28-10; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13;
297-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)
3 (430 ILCS 65/13.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.1)
4 Sec. 13.1. Preemption.
5 (a) Except as otherwise provided in the Firearm Concealed
6Carry Act and subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, the The
7provisions of any ordinance enacted by any municipality which
8requires registration or imposes greater restrictions or
9limitations on the acquisition, possession and transfer of
10firearms than are imposed by this Act, are not invalidated or
11affected by this Act.
12 (b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the
13regulation, licensing, possession, and registration of
14handguns and ammunition for a handgun, and the transportation
15of any firearm and ammunition by a holder of a valid Firearm
16Owner's Identification Card issued by the Department of State
17Police under this Act are exclusive powers and functions of
18this State. Any ordinance or regulation, or portion of that
19ordinance or regulation, enacted on or before the effective
20date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly that
21purports to impose regulations or restrictions on a holder of a
22valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the
23Department of State Police under this Act in a manner that is
24inconsistent with this Act, on the effective date of this
25amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall be invalid

09800SB2335ham002- 124 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1in its application to a holder of valid Firearm Owner's
2Identification Card issued by the Department of State Police
3under this Act.
4 (c) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the
5regulation of the possession or ownership of assault weapons
6are exclusive powers and functions of this State. Any ordinance
7or regulation, or portion of that ordinance or regulation, that
8purports to regulate the possession or ownership of assault
9weapons in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act, shall
10be invalid unless the ordinance or regulation is enacted on,
11before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this
12amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. Any ordinance or
13regulation described in this subsection (c) enacted more than
1410 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
1598th General Assembly is invalid. An ordinance enacted on,
16before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this
17amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be amended. The
18enactment or amendment of ordinances under this subsection (c)
19are subject to the submission requirements of Section 13.3. For
20the purposes of this subsection, "assault weapons" means
21firearms designated by either make or model or by a test or
22list of cosmetic features that cumulatively would place the
23firearm into a definition of "assault weapon" under the
24ordinance.
25 (d) For the purposes of this Section, "handgun" has the
26meaning ascribed to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed

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1Carry Act.
2 (e) This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule
3powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of
4Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
5(Source: P.A. 76-1939.)
6 (430 ILCS 65/13.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.2)
7 Sec. 13.2. The Department of State Police shall, 60 days
8prior to the expiration of a Firearm Owner's Identification
9Card, forward by first class mail to each person whose card is
10to expire a notification of the expiration of the card and an
11application which may be used to apply for renewal of the card.
12It is the obligation of the holder of a Firearm Owner's
13Identification Card to notify the Department of State Police of
14any address change since the issuance of the Firearm Owner's
15Identification Card. Whenever any person moves from the
16residence address named on his or her card, the person shall
17within 21 calendar days thereafter notify in a form and manner
18prescribed by the Department of his or her old and new
19residence addresses and the card number held by him or her. Any
20person whose legal name has changed from the name on the card
21that he or she has been previously issued must apply for a
22corrected card within 30 calendar days after the change. The
23cost for a corrected card shall be $5 which shall be deposited
24into the State Police Firearm Services Fund Firearm Owner's
25Notification Fund.

09800SB2335ham002- 126 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)
2 Section 155. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by
3changing Sections 24-1.6 and 24-2 as follows:
4 (720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)
5 Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.
6 (a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use
7of a weapon when he or she knowingly:
8 (1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any
9 vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except
10 when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal
11 dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in
12 the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with
13 that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or
14 taser or other firearm; or
15 (2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person,
16 upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within
17 the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated
18 town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the
19 purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful
20 commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land
21 or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place
22 of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of
23 another person as an invitee with that person's permission,
24 any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm;

09800SB2335ham002- 127 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 and
2 (3) One of the following factors is present:
3 (A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or
4 handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and
5 immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or
6 (A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed
7 was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the
8 time of the offense and the person possessing the
9 pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a
10 currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed
11 Carry Act; or
12 (B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or
13 handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the
14 ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible
15 at the time of the offense; or
16 (B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed
17 was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the
18 weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the
19 offense and the person possessing the pistol,
20 revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently
21 valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or
22 (C) the person possessing the firearm has not been
23 issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's
24 Identification Card; or
25 (D) the person possessing the weapon was
26 previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the

09800SB2335ham002- 128 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed
2 by an adult would be a felony; or
3 (E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in
4 a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in
5 a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled
6 Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the
7 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;
8 or
9 (F) (blank); or
10 (G) the person possessing the weapon had a order of
11 protection issued against him or her within the
12 previous 2 years; or
13 (H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in
14 the commission or attempted commission of a
15 misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence
16 against the person or property of another; or
17 (I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21
18 years of age and in possession of a handgun as defined
19 in Section 24-3, unless the person under 21 is engaged
20 in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or
21 described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or
22 24-2(f).
23 (a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning
24given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
25 (b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the
26same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

09800SB2335ham002- 129 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 (c) This Section does not apply to or affect the
2transportation or possession of weapons that:
3 (i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or
4 (ii) are not immediately accessible; or
5 (iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
6 carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a
7 person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm
8 Owner's Identification Card.
9 (d) Sentence.
10 (1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4
11 felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony
12 for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of
13 imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7
14 years.
15 (2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and
16 (4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated
17 unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a
18 person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in
19 both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of
20 paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4
21 felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term
22 of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than
23 3 years.
24 (3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who
25 has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or
26 another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the

09800SB2335ham002- 130 -LRB098 07039 MRW 46774 a
1 person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not
2 less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.
3 (4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing
4 or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1
5 by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms
6 Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of
7 the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X
8 felony.
9 (e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this
10Section constitutes a single and separate violation.
11(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09;
1296-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1107, eff. 1-1-11.)
13 (720 ILCS 5/24-2)
14 Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.
15 (a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and
1624-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of
17the following:
18 (1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace
19 officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the
20 peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.
21 (2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,
22 penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the
23 detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense,
24 while in the performance of their official duty, or while
25 commuting between their homes and places of employment.

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1 (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
2 the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the
3 Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance
4 of their official duty.
5 (4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public
6 utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored
7 car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of
8 the duties of their employment or commuting between their
9 homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually
10 engaged in the performance of the duties of their
11 employment.
12 (5) Persons licensed as private security contractors,
13 private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or
14 employed by an agency certified by the Department of
15 Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties
16 include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of
17 the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security,
18 Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while
19 actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their
20 employment or commuting between their homes and places of
21 employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished
22 within one hour from departure from home or place of
23 employment, as the case may be. A person shall be
24 considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has
25 completed the required 20 hours of training for a private
26 security contractor, private detective, or private alarm

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1 contractor, or employee of a licensed agency and 20 hours
2 of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm
3 control card by the Department of Financial and
4 Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of
5 firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this
6 Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under
7 the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm,
8 Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of
9 2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the
10 private security contractor, private detective, or private
11 alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed agency at all
12 times when he or she is in possession of a concealable
13 weapon.
14 (6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or
15 industrial operation as a security guard for the protection
16 of persons employed and private property related to such
17 commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged
18 in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between
19 sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as
20 a security guard, is a member of a security force of at
21 least 5 persons registered with the Department of Financial
22 and Professional Regulation; provided that such security
23 guard has successfully completed a course of study,
24 approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial
25 and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40
26 hours of training that includes the theory of law

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1 enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of
2 weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this
3 exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours
4 of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required
5 firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control
6 card by the Department of Financial and Professional
7 Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control
8 cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be
9 the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of
10 the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security,
11 Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm
12 control card shall be carried by the security guard at all
13 times when he or she is in possession of a concealable
14 weapon.
15 (7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois
16 Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the
17 Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections
18 24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of
19 any investigation for the Commission.
20 (8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the
21 protection of other employees and property related to such
22 financial institution, while actually engaged in the
23 performance of their duties, commuting between their homes
24 and places of employment, or traveling between sites or
25 properties owned or operated by such financial
26 institution, provided that any person so employed has

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1 successfully completed a course of study, approved by and
2 supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional
3 Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of
4 training which includes theory of law enforcement,
5 liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person
6 shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he
7 or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for
8 a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm
9 training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the
10 Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
11 Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued
12 under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as
13 for those issued under the provisions of the Private
14 Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint
15 Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control
16 card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times
17 when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon.
18 For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution"
19 means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or
20 company providing armored car services.
21 (9) Any person employed by an armored car company to
22 drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the
23 performance of his duties.
24 (10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers
25 pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.
26 (11) Investigators of the Office of the State's

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1 Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of
2 governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate
3 Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the
4 State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.
5 (12) Special investigators appointed by a State's
6 Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.
7 (12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of
8 their duties, or while commuting between their homes,
9 places of employment or specific locations that are part of
10 their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge
11 of the circuit for which they are employed.
12 (13) Court Security Officers while in the performance
13 of their official duties, or while commuting between their
14 homes and places of employment, with the consent of the
15 Sheriff.
16 (13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at
17 a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or
18 facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission
19 who has completed the background screening and training
20 mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear
21 Regulatory Commission.
22 (14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons
23 to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through
24 (13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.
25 (a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply
26to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver,

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1or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid
2license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of
3the commission of the offense.
4 (b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section
524-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:
6 (1) Members of any club or organization organized for
7 the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon
8 established target ranges, whether public or private, and
9 patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are
10 using their firearms on those target ranges.
11 (2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations
12 while parading, with the special permission of the
13 Governor.
14 (3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or
15 permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.
16 (4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a
17 non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.
18 (5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun
19 gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal
20 dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's
21 permission.
22 (c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any
23of the following:
24 (1) Peace officers while in performance of their
25 official duties.
26 (2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,

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1 penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the
2 detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.
3 (3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
4 the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in
5 the performance of their official duty.
6 (4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine
7 guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through
8 (3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the
9 machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or
10 are not immediately accessible.
11 (5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture
12 any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be
13 discharged by a single function of the firing device, or
14 ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the
15 business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but
16 only with respect to activities which are within the lawful
17 scope of such business, such as the manufacture,
18 transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition.
19 This exemption does not authorize the general private
20 possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or
21 bullets can be discharged by a single function of the
22 firing device, but only such possession and activities as
23 are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing
24 business described in this paragraph.
25 During transportation, such weapons shall be broken
26 down in a non-functioning state or not immediately

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1 accessible.
2 (6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery,
3 transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental
4 activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and
5 weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for
6 such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a
7 person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant
8 to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply
9 of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the
10 United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces
11 of the United States, when such activities are necessary
12 and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
13 The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6)
14 shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such
15 contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the
16 scope of his employment, where such activities involving
17 such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and
18 incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.
19 During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken
20 down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately
21 accessible.
22 (7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or
23 barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person
24 has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S.
25 Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B)
26 the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally

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1 recognized military re-enacting group and the modification
2 is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon
3 for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in
4 possession of a valid and current re-enacting group
5 membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon
6 as modified is not less than 26 inches.
7 During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken
8 down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately
9 accessible.
10 (d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase,
11possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace
12officer.
13 (e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner,
14manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that
15subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.
16 (f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and
17Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or
18organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting
19at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or
20private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.
21 (g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply
22to:
23 (1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of
24 the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in
25 the performance of their official duty.
26 (2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military

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1 ordinance.
2 (3) Laboratories having a department of forensic
3 ballistics, or specializing in the development of
4 ammunition or explosive ordinance.
5 (4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of
6 explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed
7 by the federal government, in connection with the supply of
8 those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision
9 (g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons
10 outside this State, or the transportation of explosive
11 bullets to any organization or person exempted in this
12 Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased
13 by an exempted manufacturer.
14 (g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect
15persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or
16attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in
17silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition
18for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually
19engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices,
20firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities
21that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the
22manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices,
23firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the
24general private possession of any device or attachment of any
25kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the
26report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities

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1as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing
2business described in this subsection (g-5). During
3transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon
4or not immediately accessible.
5 (g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section
624-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole
7supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions
8prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of
9Corrections.
10 (g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace
11officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team
12or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally
13own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any
14kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the
15report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and
16maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose
17duties include the investigation of criminal acts.
18 (g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and
1924-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an
20athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and
21Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of
22competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic
23Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the
24International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in
25connection with such athlete's training for and participation
26in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic

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1Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic
2and Paralympic Games.
3 (h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of
4any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions
5contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden
6of proving such an exemption.
7 (i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or
8affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any
9pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned
10to a common carrier operating under license of the State of
11Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation,
12carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful
13transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and
14nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the
15transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol,
16revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of
17and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of
18this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm
19carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the
20possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.
21(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-230, eff. 1-1-10; 96-742,
22eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-465, eff. 8-22-11;
2397-676, eff. 6-1-12; 97-936, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1010, eff. 1-1-13;
24revised 8-23-12.)
25 Section 160. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is

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1amended by changing Section 112A-14 as follows:
2 (725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)
3 Sec. 112A-14. Order of protection; remedies.
4 (a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner
5has been abused by a family or household member, as defined in
6this Article, an order of protection prohibiting such abuse
7shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the
8requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate:
9Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim
10orders, or Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall
11not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or
12respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or
13not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical
14manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.
15Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall
16be in accordance with this Article.
17 (b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in
18an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with
19this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate:
20Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim
21orders, and Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. The remedies
22listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil
23or criminal remedies available to petitioner.
24 (1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's
25 harassment, interference with personal liberty,

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1 intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse or willful
2 deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has
3 occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not
4 prohibited.
5 (2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence.
6 Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any
7 residence, household, or premises of the petitioner,
8 including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner
9 has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive
10 possession of the residence, household, or premises shall
11 not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be
12 limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the
13 Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.
14 (A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to
15 occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely
16 or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's
17 spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that
18 party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any
19 person or entity other than the opposing party that
20 authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic
21 violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph
22 (B) shall not preclude equitable relief.
23 (B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and
24 respondent each has the right to occupancy of a
25 residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the
26 hardships to respondent and any minor child or

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1 dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from
2 entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to
3 petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in
4 petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to
5 the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the
6 residence or household) or from loss of possession of
7 the residence or household (should petitioner leave to
8 avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance
9 of hardships, the court shall also take into account
10 the accessibility of the residence or household.
11 Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not
12 have a right to occupancy.
13 The balance of hardships is presumed to favor
14 possession by petitioner unless the presumption is
15 rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing
16 that the hardships to respondent substantially
17 outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor
18 child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The
19 court, on the request of petitioner or on its own
20 motion, may order respondent to provide suitable,
21 accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead
22 of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or
23 household.
24 (3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order
25 respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person
26 protected by the order of protection, or prohibit

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1 respondent from entering or remaining present at
2 petitioner's school, place of employment, or other
3 specified places at times when petitioner is present, or
4 both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships.
5 Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a
6 stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no
7 right to enter the premises.
8 If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive
9 possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from
10 entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away
11 from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court
12 may allow respondent access to the residence to remove
13 items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively
14 by respondent, medications, and other items as the court
15 directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one
16 occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an
17 agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.
18 (4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to
19 undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social
20 worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist,
21 family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program,
22 mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing
23 services to elders, program designed for domestic violence
24 abusers or any other guidance service the court deems
25 appropriate. The court may order the respondent in any
26 intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois

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1 Department of Human Services protocol approved partner
2 abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow
3 all recommended treatment.
4 (5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In
5 order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or
6 unwarranted separation from the person who has been the
7 minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect
8 the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either
9 or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical
10 care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii)
11 order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove
12 a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person
13 in loco parentis.
14 If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has
15 committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor
16 child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that
17 awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the
18 minor child's best interest.
19 (6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal
20 custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the
21 Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the
22 Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, and this State's Uniform
23 Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.
24 If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has
25 committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor
26 child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that

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1 awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be
2 in the child's best interest.
3 (7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if
4 any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards
5 physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child
6 to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny
7 respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court
8 finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of
9 the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during
10 visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to
11 abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or
12 household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the
13 minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not
14 in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall
15 not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1
16 of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.
17 If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify
18 dates and times for the visitation to take place or other
19 specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No
20 order for visitation shall refer merely to the term
21 "reasonable visitation".
22 Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor
23 child if, when respondent arrives for visitation,
24 respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and
25 constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of
26 petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in

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1 a violent or abusive manner.
2 If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's
3 family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be
4 prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet
5 the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall
6 submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable
7 alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be
8 approved to supervise visitation only after filing an
9 affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging
10 accountability to the court.
11 (8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit
12 respondent from removing a minor child from the State or
13 concealing the child within the State.
14 (9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in
15 court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse,
16 neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the
17 child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit
18 any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or
19 the respondent.
20 (10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner
21 exclusive possession of personal property and, if
22 respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to
23 promptly make it available to petitioner, if:
24 (i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the
25 property; or
26 (ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing

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1 it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is
2 impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors
3 temporary possession by petitioner.
4 If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property
5 is that it is marital property, the court may award
6 petitioner temporary possession thereof under the
7 standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a
8 proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois
9 Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or
10 hereafter amended.
11 No order under this provision shall affect title to
12 property.
13 (11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent
14 from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing,
15 damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal
16 property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:
17 (i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the
18 property; or
19 (ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the
20 balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.
21 If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property
22 is that it is marital property, the court may grant
23 petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this
24 paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under
25 the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as
26 now or hereafter amended.

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1 The court may further prohibit respondent from
2 improperly using the financial or other resources of an
3 aged member of the family or household for the profit or
4 advantage of respondent or of any other person.
5 (11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the
6 exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned,
7 possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner
8 or the respondent or a minor child residing in the
9 residence or household of either the petitioner or the
10 respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the
11 animal and forbid the respondent from taking,
12 transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or
13 otherwise disposing of the animal.
14 (12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to
15 pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in
16 the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a
17 legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with
18 the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act,
19 which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of
20 support, payment through the clerk and withholding of
21 income to secure payment. An order for child support may be
22 granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or
23 custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical
24 care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal
25 custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a
26 valid order granting legal custody to another, unless

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1 otherwise provided in the custody order.
2 (13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to
3 pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of
4 the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited
5 to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support,
6 repair or replacement of property damaged or taken,
7 reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other
8 travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses
9 for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.
10 (i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is
11 entitled to seek maintenance, child support or
12 property distribution from the other party under the
13 Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as
14 now or hereafter amended, the court may order
15 respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to
16 the extent that such reimbursement would be
17 "appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by
18 subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.
19 (ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an
20 improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the
21 court may order respondent to pay the reasonable
22 expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for
23 and recovery of the minor child, including but not
24 limited to legal fees, court costs, private
25 investigator fees, and travel costs.
26 (14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent

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1 from entering or remaining in the residence or household
2 while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or
3 drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being
4 of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.
5 (14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.
6 (A) A person who is subject to an existing order of
7 protection, interim order of protection, emergency
8 order of protection, or plenary order of protection,
9 issued under this Code may not lawfully possess weapons
10 under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification
11 Card Act. (a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an
12 order of protection was issued from possessing any
13 firearms during the duration of the order if the order:
14 (1) was issued after a hearing of which such
15 person received actual notice, and at which such
16 person had an opportunity to participate;
17 (2) restrains such person from harassing,
18 stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of
19 such person or child of such intimate partner or
20 person, or engaging in other conduct that would
21 place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of
22 bodily injury to the partner or child; and
23 (3)(i) includes a finding that such person
24 represents a credible threat to the physical
25 safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii)
26 by its terms explicitly prohibits the use,

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1 attempted use, or threatened use of physical force
2 against such intimate partner or child that would
3 reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.
4 (B) Any firearms in the possession of the respondent,
5 except as provided in subparagraph (C) of this
6 paragraph (14.5) subsection (b), shall be ordered by
7 the court to be turned over to a person with a valid
8 Firearm Owner's Identification Card the local law
9 enforcement agency for safekeeping. The court shall
10 issue an order that the respondent's Firearm Owner's
11 Identification Card be turned over to the local law
12 enforcement agency, which in turn shall immediately
13 mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm
14 Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping.
15 The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of
16 the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and
17 Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired,
18 shall at the respondent's request be returned to the
19 respondent at expiration of the order of protection.
20 (C) (b) If the respondent is a peace officer as
21 defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
22 the court shall order that any firearms used by the
23 respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a
24 peace officer be surrendered to the chief law
25 enforcement executive of the agency in which the
26 respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms

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1 for safekeeping for the duration of the order of
2 protection.
3 (D) (c) Upon expiration of the period of
4 safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's
5 Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent
6 because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond
7 to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not
8 lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition
9 from the local law enforcement agency, the court may
10 order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the
11 firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or
12 for any other application as deemed appropriate by the
13 local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be
14 turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible
15 to possess firearms, and who does not reside with
16 respondent.
17 (15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of
18 protection prohibits respondent from having contact with
19 the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted
20 under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5, or if necessary to
21 prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor
22 child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and
23 prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or
24 attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other
25 records of the minor child who is in the care of
26 petitioner.

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1 (16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order
2 respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary
3 housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the
4 cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and
5 deemed reasonable by the court.
6 (17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive
7 relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of
8 a family or household member or to effectuate one of the
9 granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships.
10 If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or
11 any other harm that one of the remedies listed in
12 paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed
13 to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to establish
14 that the harm is an irreparable injury.
15 (c) Relevant factors; findings.
16 (1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy,
17 other than payment of support, the court shall consider
18 relevant factors, including but not limited to the
19 following:
20 (i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and
21 consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the
22 petitioner or any family or household member,
23 including the concealment of his or her location in
24 order to evade service of process or notice, and the
25 likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or
26 any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or

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1 household; and
2 (ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused
3 or neglected or improperly removed from the
4 jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or
5 improperly separated from the child's primary
6 caretaker.
7 (2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the
8 parties from loss of possession of the family home, the
9 court shall consider relevant factors, including but not
10 limited to the following:
11 (i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety,
12 adequacy, location and other characteristics of
13 alternate housing for each party and any minor child or
14 dependent adult in the party's care;
15 (ii) the effect on the party's employment; and
16 (iii) the effect on the relationship of the party,
17 and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's
18 care, to family, school, church and community.
19 (3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph
20 (4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings
21 in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum
22 set forth the following:
23 (i) That the court has considered the applicable
24 relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of
25 this subsection.
26 (ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent,

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1 unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm
2 or continued abuse.
3 (iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the
4 requested relief in order to protect petitioner or
5 other alleged abused persons.
6 (4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order
7 of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a
8 supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs
9 (c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use
10 the following procedure:
11 When a verified petition for an emergency order of
12 protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections
13 112A-5 and 112A-17 is presented to the court, the court
14 shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An
15 emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court
16 if it appears from the contents of the petition and the
17 examination of petitioner that the averments are
18 sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support
19 the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency
20 order of protection.
21 (5) Never married parties. No rights or
22 responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage
23 attach to a putative father until a father and child
24 relationship has been established under the Illinois
25 Parentage Act of 1984. Absent such an adjudication, no
26 putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the

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1 minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical
2 care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order
3 of payment for support of the minor child be entered.
4 (d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that
5the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a
6remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of
7subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such
8balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall
9include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result
10in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the
11hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings
12shall be an official record or in writing.
13 (e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be
14based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:
15 (1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless
16 that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of
17 force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;
18 (2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;
19 (3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of
20 another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such
21 force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code
22 of 2012;
23 (4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense
24 of another;
25 (5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid
26 further abuse by respondent;

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1 (6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household
2 to avoid further abuse by respondent;
3 (7) Conduct by any family or household member excused
4 the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would
5 have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family
6 or household members.
7(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1239, eff. 1-1-11;
897-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff.
91-25-13.)
10 Section 165. The Mental Health and Developmental
11Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing
12Section 12 as follows:
13 (740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)
14 Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the
15Department of State Police requests information from a mental
16health or developmental disability facility, as defined in
17Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental
18Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the
19facility director determines that disclosure of such
20information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to
21prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public
22official, or a person under the protection of the United States
23Secret Service, only the following information may be
24disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date

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1of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any
2information which would indicate whether or not the recipient
3has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to
4the person under protection. Any information so disclosed shall
5be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be
6publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith
7in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this
8provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil,
9criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed relying
10upon the representation of an officer of the United States
11Secret Service or the Department of State Police that a person
12is under the protection of the United States Secret Service or
13is a public official.
14 For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public
15official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney
16General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State
17Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the United
18States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined in 28
19U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28
20U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28
21U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or
22Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of
23Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or
24children of a public official.
25 (b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor
26to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental

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1Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental
2health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this
3subsection, to furnish the Department of State Police only such
4information as may be required for the sole purpose of
5determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a
6patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving
7or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or falls
8within the federal prohibitors under subsection (e), (f), (g),
9(r), (s), or (t) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners
10Identification Card Act, or falls within the federal
11prohibitors in under subsection (e) or (f) of Section 8 of the
12Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and
13(n). All physicians, clinical psychologists, or qualified
14examiners at public or private hospitals and mental health
15facilities or parts thereof as defined in this subsection
16shall, in the form and manner required by the Department,
17provide notice directly to the Department of Human Services, or
18to his or her employer who shall then report to the Department,
19within 24 hours after determining that a patient as described
20in clause (2) of the definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of
21the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act poses a clear and
22present danger to himself, herself, or others, or is determined
23to be developmentally disabled such information as shall be
24necessary for the Department to comply with the reporting
25requirements to the Department of State Police. This Such
26information shall be furnished within 24 hours after the

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1physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner has
2made a determination, or within 7 days after admission to a
3public or private hospital or mental health facility or the
4provision of services to a patient described in clause (1) of
5the definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm
6Owners Identification Card Act clause (2) of this subsection
7(b). Any such information disclosed under this subsection shall
8remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be
9redisclosed, except as required by subsection (e) clause (e)(2)
10of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act,
11nor utilized for any other purpose. The method of requiring the
12providing of such information shall guarantee that no
13information is released beyond what is necessary for this
14purpose. In addition, the information disclosed shall be
15provided by the Department within the time period established
16by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the
17delivery of firearms. The method used shall be sufficient to
18provide the necessary information within the prescribed time
19period, which may include periodically providing lists to the
20Department of Human Services or any public or private hospital
21or mental health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification
22Card applicants on which the Department or hospital shall
23indicate the identities of those individuals who are to its
24knowledge disqualified from having a Firearm Owner's
25Identification Card for reasons described herein. The
26Department may provide for a centralized source of information

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1for the State on this subject under its jurisdiction. The
2identity of the person reporting under this subsection shall
3not be disclosed to the subject of the report. For the purposes
4of this subsection, the physician, clinical psychologist, or
5qualified examiner making the determination and his or her
6employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or
7professionally liable for making or not making the notification
8required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton
9misconduct.
10 Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act,
11participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of
12records and communications otherwise in accordance with this
13provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by
14the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil,
15criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the
16action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal,
17arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this
18provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency
19so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full extent
20of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall apply to
21any person, institution or agency that fails to make a report
22or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report or
23disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the
24confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records
25implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.
26 For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following

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1terms shall have the meaning prescribed:
2 (1) (Blank). "Hospital" means only that type of
3 institution which is providing full-time residential
4 facilities and treatment.
5 (1.3) "Clear and present danger" has the meaning as
6 defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
7 Card Act.
8 (1.5) "Developmentally disabled" has the meaning as
9 defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification
10 Card Act.
11 (2) "Patient" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1
12 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall include
13 only: (i) a person who is an in-patient or resident of any
14 public or private hospital or mental health facility or
15 (ii) a person who is an out-patient or provided services by
16 a public or private hospital or mental health facility
17 whose mental condition is of such a nature that it is
18 manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening, or
19 assaultive behavior or reported behavior, for which there
20 is a reasonable belief by a physician, clinical
21 psychologist, or qualified examiner that the condition
22 poses a clear and present or imminent danger to the
23 patient, any other person or the community meaning the
24 patient's condition poses a clear and present danger in
25 accordance with subsection (f) of Section 8 of the Firearm
26 Owners Identification Card Act. The terms physician,

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1 clinical psychologist, and qualified examiner are defined
2 in Sections 1-120, 1-103, and 1-122 of the Mental Health
3 and Developmental Disabilities Code.
4 (3) "Mental health facility" has the meaning as defined
5 in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
6 Act is defined by Section 1-114 of the Mental Health and
7 Developmental Disabilities Code.
8 (c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person
9into custody and transports such person to a mental health or
10developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or
114-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code
12or who transports a person from such facility, a facility
13director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address,
14age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported
15to or from the mental health or developmental disability
16facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to
17the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis,
18treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical
19health.
20 For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental
21health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer"
22and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to
23them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.
24 (d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting
25authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a
26criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from

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1justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is
2present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or
3prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant
4issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the
5person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the
6facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future
7discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or
8prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the
9purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant
10at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency
11participating in good faith in disclosing such information in
12accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any
13liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by
14reason of the action.
15(Source: P.A. 96-193, eff. 8-10-09; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
16 Section 170. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by adding
17Section 11a-24 as follows:
18 (755 ILCS 5/11a-24 new)
19 Sec. 11a-24. Notification; Department of State Police.
20When a court adjudges a respondent to be a disabled person
21under this Article, the court shall direct the circuit court
22clerk to notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's
23Identification (FOID) Office, in a form and manner prescribed
24by the Department of State Police, and shall forward a copy of

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1the court order to the Department no later than 7 days after
2the entry of the order. Upon receipt of the order, the
3Department of State Police shall provide notification to the
4National Instant Criminal Background Check System.
5 Section 195. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes
6changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text
7that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section
8represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does
9not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes
10made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other
11Public Act.
12 Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
13becoming law.".