Public Act 098-0063

HB0183 Enrolled LRB098 05760 MGM 35799 b

AN ACT concerning regulation.

Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,

represented in the General Assembly:

Section 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the

Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

Section 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:

"Applicant" means a person who is applying for a license to

carry a concealed firearm under this Act.

"Board" means the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board.

"Concealed firearm" means a loaded or unloaded handgun

carried on or about a person completely or mostly concealed

from view of the public or on or about a person within a

vehicle.

"Department" means the Department of State Police.

"Director" means the Director of State Police.

"Handgun" means any device which is designed to expel a

projectile or projectiles by the action of an explosion,

expansion of gas, or escape of gas that is designed to be held

and fired by the use of a single hand. "Handgun" does not

include:

(1) a stun gun or taser;

(2) a machine gun as defined in item (i) of paragraph

(7) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code

of 2012;

(3) a short-barreled rifle or shotgun as defined in

item (ii) of paragraph (7) of subsection (a) of Section

24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or

(4) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or

B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not

exceeding .18 inch in diameter, or which has a maximum

muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second, or which

expels breakable paint balls containing washable marking

colors.

"Law enforcement agency" means any federal, State, or local

law enforcement agency, including offices of State's Attorneys

and the Office of the Attorney General.

"License" means a license issued by the Department of State

Police to carry a concealed handgun.

"Licensee" means a person issued a license to carry a

concealed handgun.

"Municipality" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1

of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

"Unit of local government" has the meaning ascribed to it

in Section 1 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

Section 10. Issuance of licenses to carry a concealed

firearm.

(a) The Department shall issue a license to carry a

concealed firearm under this Act to an applicant who:

(1) meets the qualifications of Section 25 of this Act;

(2) has provided the application and documentation

required in Section 30 of this Act;

(3) has submitted the requisite fees; and

(4) does not pose a danger to himself, herself, or

others, or a threat to public safety as determined by the

Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board in accordance with

Section 20.

(b) The Department shall issue a renewal, corrected, or

duplicate license as provided in this Act.

(c) A license shall be valid throughout the State for a

period of 5 years from the date of issuance. A license shall

permit the licensee to:

(1) carry a loaded or unloaded concealed firearm, fully

concealed or partially concealed, on or about his or her

person; and

(2) keep or carry a loaded or unloaded concealed

firearm on or about his or her person within a vehicle.

(d) The Department shall make applications for a license

available no later than 180 days after the effective date of

this Act. The Department shall establish rules for the

availability and submission of applications in accordance with

this Act.

(e) An application for a license submitted to the

Department that contains all the information and materials

required by this Act, including the requisite fee, shall be

deemed completed. Except as otherwise provided in this Act, no

later than 90 days after receipt of a completed application,

the Department shall issue or deny the applicant a license.

(f) The Department shall deny the applicant a license if

the applicant fails to meet the requirements under this Act or

the Department receives a determination from the Board that the

applicant is ineligible for a license. The Department must

notify the applicant stating the grounds for the denial. The

notice of denial must inform the applicant of his or her right

to an appeal through administrative and judicial review.

(g) A licensee shall possess a license at all times the

licensee carries a concealed firearm except:

(1) when the licensee is carrying or possessing a

concealed firearm on his or her land or in his or her

abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on

the land or in the legal dwelling of another person as an

invitee with that person's permission;

(2) when the person is authorized to carry a firearm

under Section 24-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012, except

subsection (a-5) of that Section; or

(3) when the handgun is broken down in a

non-functioning state, is not immediately accessible, or

is unloaded and enclosed in a case.

(h) If an officer of a law enforcement agency initiates an

investigative stop, including but not limited to a traffic

stop, of a licensee who is carrying a concealed firearm, upon

the request of the officer the licensee shall disclose to the

officer that he or she is in possession of a concealed firearm

under this Act, present the license upon the request of the

officer, and identify the location of the concealed firearm.

(i) The Department shall maintain a database of license

applicants and licensees. The database shall be available to

all federal, State, and local law enforcement agencies, State's

Attorneys, the Attorney General, and authorized court

personnel. Within 180 days after the effective date of this

Act, the database shall be searchable and provide all

information included in the application, including the

applicant's previous addresses within the 10 years prior to the

license application and any information related to violations

of this Act. No law enforcement agency, State's Attorney,

Attorney General, or member or staff of the judiciary shall

provide any information to a requester who is not entitled to

it by law.

(j) No later than 10 days after receipt of a completed

application, the Department shall enter the relevant

information about the applicant into the database under

subsection (i) of this Section which is accessible by law

enforcement agencies.

Section 15. Objections by law enforcement agencies.

(a) Any law enforcement agency may submit an objection to a

license applicant based upon a reasonable suspicion that the

applicant is a danger to himself or herself or others, or a

threat to public safety. The objection shall be made by the

chief law enforcement officer of the law enforcement agency, or

his or her designee, and must include any information relevant

to the objection. If a law enforcement agency submits an

objection within 30 days after the entry of an applicant into

the database, the Department shall submit the objection and all

information related to the application to the Board within 10

days of completing all necessary background checks.

(b) If an applicant has 5 or more arrests for any reason,

that have been entered into the Criminal History Records

Information (CHRI) System, within the 7 years preceding the

date of application for a license, or has 3 or more arrests

within the 7 years preceding the date of application for a

license for any combination of gang-related offenses, the

Department shall object and submit the applicant's arrest

record, the application materials, and any additional

information submitted by a law enforcement agency to the Board.

For purposes of this subsection, "gang-related offense" is an

offense described in Section 12-6.4, Section 24-1.8, Section

25-5, Section 33-4, or Section 33G-4, or in paragraph (1) of

subsection (a) of Section 12-6.2, paragraph (2) of subsection

(b) of Section 16-30, paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of

Section 31-4, or item (iii) of paragraph (1.5) of subsection

(i) of Section 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(c) The referral of an objection under this Section to the

Board shall toll the 90-day period for the Department to issue

or deny the applicant a license under subsection (e) of Section

10 of this Act, during the period of review and until the Board

issues its decision.

(d) If no objection is made by a law enforcement agency or

the Department under this Section, the Department shall process

the application in accordance with this Act.

Section 20. Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board.

(a) There is hereby created a Concealed Carry Licensing

Review Board to consider any objection to an applicant's

eligibility to obtain a license under this Act submitted by a

law enforcement agency or the Department under Section 15 of

this Act. The Board shall consist of 7 commissioners to be

appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the

Senate, with 3 commissioners residing within the First Judicial

District and one commissioner residing within each of the 4

remaining Judicial Districts. No more than 4 commissioners

shall be members of the same political party. The Governor

shall designate one commissioner as the Chairperson. The Board

shall consist of:

(1) one commissioner with at least 5 years of service

as a federal judge;

(2) 2 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience

serving as an attorney with the United States Department of

Justice;

(3) 3 commissioners with at least 5 years of experience

as a federal agent or employee with investigative

experience or duties related to criminal justice under the

United States Department of Justice, Drug Enforcement

Administration, Department of Homeland Security, or

Federal Bureau of Investigation; and

(4) one member with at least 5 years of experience as a

licensed physician or clinical psychologist with expertise

in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness.

(b) The initial terms of the commissioners shall end on

January 12, 2015. Thereafter, the commissioners shall hold

office for 4 years, with terms expiring on the second Monday in

January of the fourth year. Commissioners may be reappointed.

Vacancies in the office of commissioner shall be filled in the

same manner as the original appointment, for the remainder of

the unexpired term. The Governor may remove a commissioner for

incompetence, neglect of duty, malfeasance, or inability to

serve. Commissioners shall receive compensation in an amount

equal to the compensation of members of the Executive Ethics

Commission and may be reimbursed for reasonable expenses

actually incurred in the performance of their Board duties,

from funds appropriated for that purpose.

(c) The Board shall meet at the call of the chairperson as

often as necessary to consider objections to applications for a

license under this Act. If necessary to ensure the

participation of a commissioner, the Board shall allow a

commissioner to participate in a Board meeting by electronic

communication. Any commissioner participating electronically

shall be deemed present for purposes of establishing a quorum

and voting.

(d) The Board shall adopt rules for the conduct of

hearings. The Board shall maintain a record of its decisions

and all materials considered in making its decisions. All Board

decisions and voting records shall be kept confidential and all

materials considered by the Board shall be exempt from

inspection except upon order of a court.

(e) In considering an objection of a law enforcement agency

or the Department, the Board shall review the materials

received with the objection from the law enforcement agency or

the Department. By a vote of at least 4 commissioners, the

Board may request additional information from the law

enforcement agency, Department, or the applicant, or the

testimony of the law enforcement agency, Department, or the

applicant. The Board may only consider information submitted by

the Department, a law enforcement agency, or the applicant. The

Board shall review each objection and determine by a majority

of commissioners whether an applicant is eligible for a

license.

(f) The Board shall issue a decision within 30 days of

receipt of the objection from the Department. However, the

Board need not issue a decision within 30 days if:

(1) the Board requests information from the applicant

in accordance with subsection (e) of this Section, in which

case the Board shall make a decision within 30 days of

receipt of the required information from the applicant;

(2) the applicant agrees, in writing, to allow the

Board additional time to consider an objection; or

(3) the Board notifies the applicant and the Department

that the Board needs an additional 30 days to issue a

decision.

(g) If the Board determines by a preponderance of the

evidence that the applicant poses a danger to himself or

herself or others, or is a threat to public safety, then the

Board shall affirm the objection of the law enforcement agency

or the Department and shall notify the Department that the

applicant is ineligible for a license. If the Board does not

determine by a preponderance of the evidence that the applicant

poses a danger to himself or herself or others, or is a threat

to public safety, then the Board shall notify the Department

that the applicant is eligible for a license.

(h) Meetings of the Board shall not be subject to the Open

Meetings Act and records of the Board shall not be subject to

the Freedom of Information Act.

(i) The Board shall report monthly to the Governor and the

General Assembly on the number of objections received and

provide details of the circumstances in which the Board has

determined to deny licensure based on law enforcement or

Department objections under Section 15 of this Act. The report

shall not contain any identifying information about the

applicants.

Section 25. Qualifications for a license.

The Department shall issue a license to an applicant

completing an application in accordance with Section 30 of this

Act if the person:

(1) is at least 21 years of age;

(2) has a currently valid Firearm Owner's

Identification Card and at the time of application meets

the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card and is not prohibited under the Firearm

Owners Identification Card Act or federal law from

possessing or receiving a firearm;

(3) has not been convicted or found guilty in this

State or in any other state of:

(A) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of

physical force or violence to any person within the 5

years preceding the date of the license application; or

(B) 2 or more violations related to driving while

under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,

intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination

thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the

license application; and

(4) is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant,

prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that

could lead to disqualification to own or possess a firearm;

(5) has not been in residential or court-ordered

treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug

treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the date

of the license application; and

(6) has completed firearms training and any education

component required under Section 75 of this Act.

Section 30. Contents of license application.

(a) The license application shall be in writing, under

penalty of perjury, on a standard form adopted by the

Department and shall be accompanied by the documentation

required in this Section and the applicable fee. Each

application form shall include the following statement printed

in bold type: "Warning: Entering false information on this form

is punishable as perjury under Section 32-2 of the Criminal

Code of 2012."

(b) The application shall contain the following:

(1) the applicant's name, current address, date and

year of birth, place of birth, height, weight, hair color,

eye color, maiden name or any other name the applicant has

used or identified with, and any address where the

applicant resided for more than 30 days within the 10 years

preceding the date of the license application;

(2) the applicant's valid driver's license number or

valid state identification card number;

(3) a waiver of the applicant's privacy and

confidentiality rights and privileges under all federal

and state laws, including those limiting access to juvenile

court, criminal justice, psychological, or psychiatric

records or records relating to any institutionalization of

the applicant, and an affirmative request that a person

having custody of any of these records provide it or

information concerning it to the Department;

(4) an affirmation that the applicant possesses a

currently valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card and

card number if possessed or notice the applicant is

applying for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card in

conjunction with the license application;

(5) an affirmation that the applicant has not been

convicted or found guilty of:

(A) a felony;

(B) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of

physical force or violence to any person within the 5

years preceding the date of the application; or

(C) 2 or more violations related to driving while

under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,

intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination

thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the

license application; and

(6) whether the applicant has failed a drug test for a

drug for which the applicant did not have a prescription,

within the previous year, and if so, the provider of the

test, the specific substance involved, and the date of the

test;

(7) written consent for the Department to review and

use the applicant's Illinois digital driver's license or

Illinois identification card photograph and signature;

(8) a full set of fingerprints submitted to the

Department in electronic format, provided the Department

may accept an application submitted without a set of

fingerprints in which case the Department shall be granted

30 days in addition to the 90 days provided under

subsection (e) of Section 10 of this Act to issue or deny a

license;

(9) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size

specified by the Department taken within the 30 days

preceding the date of the license application; and

(10) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence

of compliance with the training requirements under this

Act.

Section 35. Investigation of the applicant.

The Department shall conduct a background check of the

applicant to ensure compliance with the requirements of this

Act and all federal, State, and local laws. The background

check shall include a search of the following:

(1) the National Instant Criminal Background Check

System of the Federal Bureau of Investigation;

(2) all available state and local criminal history

record information files, including records of juvenile

adjudications;

(3) all available federal, state, and local records

regarding wanted persons;

(4) all available federal, state, and local records of

domestic violence restraining and protective orders;

(5) the files of the Department of Human Services

relating to mental health and developmental disabilities;

and

(6) all other available records of a federal, state, or

local agency or other public entity in any jurisdiction

likely to contain information relevant to whether the

applicant is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or

carrying a firearm under federal, state, or local law.

(7) Fingerprints collected under Section 30 shall be

checked against the Department of State Police and Federal

Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases

now and hereafter filed. The Department shall charge

applicants a fee for conducting the criminal history

records check, which shall be deposited in the State Police

Services Fund and shall not exceed the actual cost of the

records check.

Section 40. Non-resident license applications.

(a) For the purposes of this Section, "non-resident" means

a person who has not resided within this State for more than 30

days and resides in another state or territory.

(b) The Department shall by rule allow for non-resident

license applications from any state or territory of the United

States with laws related to firearm ownership, possession, and

carrying, that are substantially similar to the requirements to

obtain a license under this Act.

(c) A resident of a state or territory approved by the

Department under subsection (b) of this Section may apply for a

non-resident license. The applicant shall apply to the

Department and must meet all of the qualifications established

in Section 25 of this Act, except for the Illinois residency

requirement in item (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of

Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The

applicant shall submit:

(1) the application and documentation required under

Section 30 of this Act and the applicable fee;

(2) a notarized document stating that the applicant:

(A) is eligible under federal law and the laws of

his or her state or territory of residence to own or

possess a firearm;

(B) if applicable, has a license or permit to carry

a firearm or concealed firearm issued by his or her

state or territory of residence and attach a copy of

the license or permit to the application;

(C) understands Illinois laws pertaining to the

possession and transport of firearms, and

(D) acknowledges that the applicant is subject to

the jurisdiction of the Department and Illinois courts

for any violation of this Act; and

(3) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence

of compliance with the training requirements under Section

75 of this Act; and

(4) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size

specified by the Department taken within the 30 days

preceding the date of the application.

(d) In lieu of an Illinois driver's license or Illinois

identification card, a non-resident applicant shall provide

similar documentation from his or her state or territory of

residence. In lieu of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification

Card, the applicant shall submit documentation and information

required by the Department to obtain a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card, including an affidavit that the

non-resident meets the mental health standards to obtain a

firearm under Illinois law, and the Department shall ensure

that the applicant would meet the eligibility criteria to

obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification card if he or she was a

resident of this State.

(e) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a non-resident from

transporting a concealed firearm within his or her vehicle in

Illinois, if the concealed firearm remains within his or her

vehicle and the non-resident:

(1) is not prohibited from owning or possessing a

firearm under federal law;

(2) is eligible to carry a firearm in public under the

laws of his or her state or territory of residence; and

(3) is not in possession of a license under this Act.

If the non-resident leaves his or her vehicle unattended,

he or she shall store the firearm within a locked vehicle or

locked container within the vehicle in accordance with

subsection (b) of Section 65 of this Act.

Section 45. Civil immunity; Board, employees, and agents.

The Board, Department, local law enforcement agency, or the

employees and agents of the Board, Department, or local law

enforcement agency participating in the licensing process

under this Act shall not be held liable for damages in any

civil action arising from alleged wrongful or improper

granting, denying, renewing, revoking, suspending, or failing

to grant, deny, renew, revoke, or suspend a license under this

Act, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

Section 50. License renewal.

Applications for renewal of a license shall be made to the

Department. A license shall be renewed for a period of 5 years

upon receipt of a completed renewal application, completion of

3 hours of training required under Section 75 of this Section,

payment of the applicable renewal fee, and completion of an

investigation under Section 35 of this Act. The renewal

application shall contain the information required in Section

30 of this Act, except that the applicant need not resubmit a

full set of fingerprints.

Section 55. Change of address or name; lost, destroyed, or

stolen licenses.

(a) A licensee shall notify the Department within 30 days

of moving or changing residence or any change of name. The

licensee shall submit:

(1) a notarized statement that the licensee has changed

his or her residence or his or her name, including the

prior and current address or name and the date the

applicant moved or changed his or her name; and

(2) the requisite fee.

(b) A licensee shall notify the Department within 10 days

of discovering that a license has been lost, destroyed, or

stolen. A lost, destroyed, or stolen license is invalid. To

request a replacement license, the licensee shall submit:

(1) a notarized statement that the licensee no longer

possesses the license, and that it was lost, destroyed, or

stolen;

(2) if applicable, a copy of a police report stating

that the license was stolen; and

(3) the requisite fee.

(c) A violation of this Section is a petty offense with a

fine of $150 which shall be deposited into the Mental Health

Reporting Fund.

Section 60. Fees.

(a) All fees collected under this Act shall be deposited as

provided in this Section. Application, renewal, and

replacement fees shall be non-refundable.

(b) An applicant for a new license or a renewal shall

submit $150 with the application, of which $120 shall be

apportioned to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $20

shall be apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and

$10 shall be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(c) A non-resident applicant for a new license or renewal

shall submit $300 with the application, of which $250 shall be

apportioned to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $40

shall be apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and

$10 shall be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

(d) A licensee requesting a new license in accordance with

Section 55 shall submit $75, of which $60 shall be apportioned

to the State Police Firearm Services Fund, $5 shall be

apportioned to the Mental Health Reporting Fund, and $10 shall

be apportioned to the State Crime Laboratory Fund.

Section 65. Prohibited areas.

(a) A licensee under this Act shall not knowingly carry a

firearm on or into:

(1) Any building, real property, and parking area under

the control of a public or private elementary or secondary

school.

(2) Any building, real property, and parking area under

the control of a pre-school or child care facility,

including any room or portion of a building under the

control of a pre-school or child care facility. Nothing in

this paragraph shall prevent the operator of a child care

facility in a family home from owning or possessing a

firearm in the home or license under this Act, if no child

under child care at the home is present in the home or the

firearm in the home is stored in a locked container when a

child under child care at the home is present in the home.

(3) Any building, parking area, or portion of a

building under the control of an officer of the executive

or legislative branch of government, provided that nothing

in this paragraph shall prohibit a licensee from carrying a

concealed firearm onto the real property, bikeway, or trail

in a park regulated by the Department of Natural Resources

or any other designated public hunting area or building

where firearm possession is permitted as established by the

Department of Natural Resources under Section 1.8 of the

Wildlife Code.

(4) Any building designated for matters before a

circuit court, appellate court, or the Supreme Court, or

any building or portion of a building under the control of

the Supreme Court.

(5) Any building or portion of a building under the

control of a unit of local government.

(6) Any building, real property, and parking area under

the control of an adult or juvenile detention or

correctional institution, prison, or jail.

(7) Any building, real property, and parking area under

the control of a public or private hospital or hospital

affiliate, mental health facility, or nursing home.

(8) Any bus, train, or form of transportation paid for

in whole or in part with public funds, and any building,

real property, and parking area under the control of a

public transportation facility paid for in whole or in part

with public funds.

(9) Any building, real property, and parking area under

the control of an establishment that serves alcohol on its

premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross

receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of

alcohol. The owner of an establishment who knowingly fails

to prohibit concealed firearms on its premises as provided

in this paragraph or who knowingly makes a false statement

or record to avoid the prohibition on concealed firearms

under this paragraph is subject to the penalty under

subsection (c-5) of Section 10-1 of the Liquor Control Act

of 1934.

(10) Any public gathering or special event conducted on

property open to the public that requires the issuance of a

permit from the unit of local government, provided this

prohibition shall not apply to a licensee who must walk

through a public gathering in order to access his or her

residence, place of business, or vehicle.

(11) Any building or real property that has been issued

a Special Event Retailer's license as defined in Section

1-3.17.1 of the Liquor Control Act during the time

designated for the sale of alcohol by the Special Event

Retailer's license, or a Special use permit license as

defined in subsection (q) of Section 5-1 of the Liquor

Control Act during the time designated for the sale of

alcohol by the Special use permit license.

(12) Any public playground.

(13) Any public park, athletic area, or athletic

facility under the control of a municipality or park

district, provided nothing in this Section shall prohibit a

licensee from carrying a concealed firearm while on a trail

or bikeway if only a portion of the trail or bikeway

includes a public park.

(14) Any real property under the control of the Cook

County Forest Preserve District.

(15) Any building, classroom, laboratory, medical

clinic, hospital, artistic venue, athletic venue,

entertainment venue, officially recognized

university-related organization property, whether owned or

leased, and any real property, including parking areas,

sidewalks, and common areas under the control of a public

or private community college, college, or university.

(16) Any building, real property, or parking area under

the control of a gaming facility licensed under the

Riverboat Gambling Act or the Illinois Horse Racing Act of

1975, including an inter-track wagering location licensee.

(17) Any stadium, arena, or the real property or

parking area under the control of a stadium, arena, or any

collegiate or professional sporting event.

(18) Any building, real property, or parking area under

the control of a public library.

(19) Any building, real property, or parking area under

the control of an airport.

(20) Any building, real property, or parking area under

the control of an amusement park.

(21) Any building, real property, or parking area under

the control of a zoo or museum.

(22) Any street, driveway, parking area, property,

building, or facility, owned, leased, controlled, or used

by a nuclear energy, storage, weapons, or development site

or facility regulated by the federal Nuclear Regulatory

Commission. The licensee shall not under any circumstance

store a firearm or ammunition in his or her vehicle or in a

compartment or container within a vehicle located anywhere

in or on the street, driveway, parking area, property,

building, or facility described in this paragraph.

(23) Any area where firearms are prohibited under

federal law.

(a-5) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a public or

private community college, college, or university from:

(1) prohibiting persons from carrying a firearm within

a vehicle owned, leased, or controlled by the college or

university;

(2) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies

regarding student, employee, or visitor misconduct and

discipline, including suspension and expulsion;

(3) developing resolutions, regulations, or policies

regarding the storage or maintenance of firearms, which

must include designated areas where persons can park

vehicles that carry firearms; and

(4) permitting the carrying or use of firearms for the

purpose of instruction and curriculum of officially

recognized programs, including but not limited to military

science and law enforcement training programs, or in any

designated area used for hunting purposes or target

shooting.

(a-10) The owner of private real property of any type may

prohibit the carrying of concealed firearms on the property

under his or her control. The owner must post a sign in

accordance with subsection (d) of this Section indicating that

firearms are prohibited on the property, unless the property is

a private residence.

(b) Notwithstanding subsections (a), (a-5), and (a-10) of

this Section except under paragraph (22) or (23) of subsection

(a), any licensee prohibited from carrying a concealed firearm

into the parking area of a prohibited location specified in

subsection (a), (a-5), or (a-10) of this Section shall be

permitted to carry a concealed firearm on or about his or her

person within a vehicle into the parking area and may store a

firearm or ammunition concealed in a case within a locked

vehicle or locked container out of plain view within the

vehicle in the parking area. A licensee may carry a concealed

firearm in the immediate area surrounding his or her vehicle

within a prohibited parking lot area only for the limited

purpose of storing or retrieving a firearm within the vehicle's

trunk, provided the licensee ensures the concealed firearm is

unloaded prior to exiting the vehicle. For purposes of this

subsection, "case" includes a glove compartment or console that

completely encloses the concealed firearm or ammunition, the

trunk of the vehicle, or a firearm carrying box, shipping box,

or other container.

(c) A licensee shall not be in violation of this Section

while he or she is traveling along a public right of way that

touches or crosses any of the premises under subsection (a),

(a-5), or (a-10) of this Section if the concealed firearm is

carried on his or her person in accordance with the provisions

of this Act or is being transported in a vehicle by the

licensee in accordance with all other applicable provisions of

law.

(d) Signs stating that the carrying of firearms is

prohibited shall be clearly and conspicuously posted at the

entrance of a building, premises, or real property specified in

this Section as a prohibited area, unless the building or

premises is a private residence. Signs shall be of a uniform

design as established by the Department and shall be 4 inches

by 6 inches in size. The Department shall adopt rules for

standardized signs to be used under this subsection.

Section 70. Violations.

(a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be

revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible

for a license under this Act or the licensee no longer meets

the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners

Identification Card Act.

(b) A license shall be suspended if an order of protection,

including an emergency order of protection, plenary order of

protection, or interim order of protection under Article 112A

of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or under the Illinois

Domestic Violence Act of 1986, is issued against a licensee for

the duration of the order, or if the Department is made aware

of a similar order issued against the licensee in any other

jurisdiction. If an order of protection is issued against a

licensee, the licensee shall surrender the license, as

applicable, to the court at the time the order is entered or to

the law enforcement agency or entity serving process at the

time the licensee is served the order. The court, law

enforcement agency, or entity responsible for serving the order

of protection shall notify the Department within 7 days and

transmit the license to the Department.

(c) A license is invalid upon expiration of the license,

unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the

license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a

license under this Act.

(d) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while

under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,

intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any

combination thereof, under the standards set forth in

subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be

guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation

and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Department may

suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and

shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation.

(e) Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation

of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second

or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The

Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a

second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3

or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person

convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150

fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund, plus

any applicable court costs or fees.

(f) A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of

this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to

carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the

penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the

penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of

subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5)

of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the

Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this

subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee

from being subjected to penalties for violations other than

those specified in this Act.

(g) A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or

denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the

revocation, suspension, or denial surrender his or her

concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency

where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency

shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the concealed

carry license to the Department of State Police. If the

licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked,

suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of

this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person

resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to

search for and seize the concealed carry license in the

possession and under the custody or control of the licensee

whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or

denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the

possession of a person whose license has been revoked,

suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the

arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A

violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor.

(h) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be

revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a

Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the licensee no longer

possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card. A

licensee whose license is revoked under this subsection (h)

shall surrender his or her concealed carry license as provided

for in subsection (g) of this Section.

This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed

an application with the State Police for renewal of a Firearm

Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise ineligible

to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

Section 75. Applicant firearm training.

(a) Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the

Department shall begin approval of firearm training courses and

shall make a list of approved courses available on the

Department's website.

(b) An applicant for a new license shall provide proof of

completion of a firearms training course or combination of

courses approved by the Department of at least 16 hours, which

includes range qualification time under subsection (c) of this

Section, that covers the following:

(1) firearm safety;

(2) the basic principles of marksmanship;

(3) care, cleaning, loading, and unloading of a

concealable firearm;

(4) all applicable State and federal laws relating to

the ownership, storage, carry, and transportation of a

firearm; and

(5) instruction on the appropriate and lawful

interaction with law enforcement while transporting or

carrying a concealed firearm.

(c) An applicant for a new license shall provide proof of

certification by a certified instructor that the applicant

passed a live fire exercise with a concealable firearm

consisting of:

(1) a minimum of 30 rounds; and

(2) 10 rounds from a distance of 5 yards; 10 rounds

from a distance of 7 yards; and 10 rounds from a distance

of 10 yards at a B-27 silhouette target approved by the

Department.

(d) An applicant for renewal of a license shall provide

proof of completion of a firearms training course or

combination of courses approved by the Department of at least 3

hours.

(e) A certificate of completion for an applicant's firearm

training course shall not be issued to a student who:

(1) does not follow the orders of the certified

firearms instructor;

(2) in the judgment of the certified instructor,

handles a firearm in a manner that poses a danger to the

student or to others; or

(3) during the range firing portion of testing fails to

hit the target with 70% of the rounds fired.

(f) An instructor shall maintain a record of each student's

performance for at least 5 years, and shall make all records

available upon demand of authorized personnel of the

Department.

(g) The Department and certified firearms instructor shall

recognize up to 8 hours of training already completed toward

the 16 hour training requirement under this Section if the

training course is approved by the Department and recognized

under the laws of another state. Any remaining hours that the

applicant completes must at least cover the classroom subject

matter of paragraph (4) of subsection (b) of this Section, and

the range qualification in subsection (c) of this Section.

(h) A person who has qualified to carry a firearm as an

active law enforcement officer, a person certified as a

firearms instructor by this Act or by the Illinois Law

Enforcement Training Standards Board, or a person who has

completed the required training and has been issued a firearm

control card by the Department of Financial and Professional

Regulation shall be exempt from the requirements of this

Section.

(i) The Department shall accept 8 hours of training as

completed toward the 16 hour training requirement under this

Section, if the applicant is an active, retired, or honorably

discharged member of the United States Armed Forces.

Section 80. Firearms instructor training.

(a) Within 60 days of the effective date of this Act, the

Department shall begin approval of certified firearms

instructors and enter certified firearms instructors into an

online registry on the Department's website.

(b) A person who is not a certified firearms instructor

shall not teach applicant training courses or advertise or

otherwise represent courses they teach as qualifying their

students to meet the requirements to receive a license under

this Act. Each violation of this subsection is a business

offense with a fine of at least $1,000 per violation.

(c) A person seeking to become a certified firearms

instructor shall:

(1) be at least 21 years of age;

(2) be a legal resident of the United States; and

(3) meet the requirements of Section 25 of this Act,

and any additional uniformly applied requirements

established by the Department.

(d) A person seeking to become a certified firearms

instructor trainer, in addition to the requirements of

subsection (c) of this Section, shall:

(1) possess a high school diploma or GED certificate;

and

(2) have at least one of the following valid firearms

instructor certifications:

(A) certification from a law enforcement agency;

(B) certification from a firearm instructor course

offered by a State or federal governmental agency;

(C) certification from a firearm instructor

qualification course offered by the Illinois Law

Enforcement Training Standards Board; or

(D) certification from an entity approved by the

Department that offers firearm instructor education

and training in the use and safety of firearms.

(e) A person may have his or her firearms instructor

certification denied or revoked if he or she does not meet the

requirements to obtain a license under this Act, provides false

or misleading information to the Department, or has had a prior

instructor certification revoked or denied by the Department.

Section 85. Background Checks for Sales.

A license to carry a concealed firearm issued by this

State shall not exempt the licensee from the requirements of a

background check, including a check of the National Instant

Criminal Background Check System, upon purchase or transfer of

a firearm.

Section 87. Administrative and judicial review.

(a) Whenever an application for a concealed carry license

is denied, whenever the Department fails to act on an

application within 90 days of its receipt, or whenever a

license is revoked or suspended as provided in this Act, the

aggrieved party may appeal to the Director for a hearing upon

the denial, revocation, suspension, or failure to act on the

application, unless the denial was made by the Concealed Carry

Licensing Review Board, in which case the aggrieved party may

petition the circuit court in writing in the county of his or

her residence for a hearing upon the denial.

(b) All final administrative decisions of the Department or

the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under this Act shall

be subject to judicial review under the provisions of the

Administrative Review Law. The term "administrative decision"

is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Section 90. Preemption.

The regulation, licensing, possession, registration, and

transportation of handguns and ammunition for handguns by

licensees are exclusive powers and functions of the State. Any

ordinance or regulation, or portion thereof, enacted on or

before the effective date of this Act that purports to impose

regulations or restrictions on licensees or handguns and

ammunition for handguns in a manner inconsistent with this Act

shall be invalid in its application to licensees under this Act

on the effective date of this Act. This Section is a denial and

limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection

(h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

Section 92. Consolidation of concealed carry license and

Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(a) The Director shall create a task force to develop a

plan to incorporate and consolidate the concealed carry license

under this Act and the Firearm Owner's Identification Card

under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act into a

designation on the Illinois driver's license or Illinois

identification card of a person with authority to possess a

firearm under the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, or

authority to possess a firearm under the Firearm Owners

Identification Card Act and authority to carry a concealed

firearm under this Act. The plan must provide for an

alternative card for:

(1) a non-resident or a resident without an Illinois

driver's license or Illinois identification card, who has

been granted authority under this Act to carry a concealed

firearm in this State; and

(2) a resident without an Illinois driver's license or

Illinois identification card, who has been granted

authority to possess a firearm under the Firearm Owners

Identification Card Act.

The plan shall include statutory changes necessary to

implement it.

(b) The task force shall consist of the following members:

(1) one member appointed by the Speaker of the House of

Representatives;

(2) one member appointed by the House of

Representatives Minority Leader;

(3) one member appointed by the President of the

Senate;

(4) one member appointed by the Senate Minority Leader;

(5) one member appointed by the Secretary of State;

(6) one member appointed by the Director of State

Police;

(7) one member appointed by the Secretary of State

representing the National Rifle Association;

(8) one member appointed by the Governor from the

Department of Natural Resources; and

(9) one member appointed by the Governor representing

the Chicago Police Department.

The task force shall elect a chairperson from its

membership. Members shall serve without compensation.

(c) The task force shall file the plan supported by a

majority of its members with the General Assembly and the

Secretary of State on or before March 1, 2014.

(d) This Section is repealed on March 2, 2014.

Section 95. Procurement; rulemaking.

(a) The Department of State Police, in consultation with

and subject to the approval of the Chief Procurement Officer,

may procure a single contract or multiple contracts to

implement the provisions of this Act. A contract or contracts

under this paragraph are not subject to the provisions of the

Illinois Procurement Code, except for Sections 20-60, 20-65,

20-70, and 20-160 and Article 50 of that Code, provided that

the Chief Procurement Officer may, in writing with

justification, waive any certification required under Article

50. This exemption shall be repealed one year from the

effective date of this Act.

(b) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the

provisions of this Act. The Department may adopt rules

necessary to implement the provisions of this Act through the

use of emergency rulemaking in accordance with Section 5-45 of

the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act for a period not to

exceed 180 days after the effective date of this Act.

Section 100. Short title. Sections 100 through 110 may be

cited as the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health

Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

Section 105. Duty of school administrator. It is the duty

of the principal of a public elementary or secondary school, or

his or her designee, and the chief administrative officer of a

private elementary or secondary school or a public or private

community college, college, or university, or his or her

designee, to report to the Department of State Police when a

student is determined to pose a clear and present danger to

himself, herself, or to others, within 24 hours of the

determination as provided in Section 6-103.3 of the Mental

Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. "Clear and present

danger" has the meaning as provided in paragraph (2) of the

definition of "clear and present danger" in Section 1.1 of the

Firearm Owners Identification Card Act.

Section 110. Immunity. A principal or chief administrative

officer, or the designee of a principal or chief administrative

officer, making the determination and reporting under Section

105 of this Law shall not be held criminally, civilly, or

professionally liable, except for willful or wanton

misconduct.

Section 115. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing

Section 2 as follows:

(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)

Sec. 2. Open meetings.

(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall

be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and

closed in accordance with Section 2a.

(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained

in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that

public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions

are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects

clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not

require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject

included within an enumerated exception.

(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to

consider the following subjects:

(1) The appointment, employment, compensation,

discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific

employees of the public body or legal counsel for the

public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint

lodged against an employee of the public body or against

legal counsel for the public body to determine its

validity.

(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public

body and its employees or their representatives, or

deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more

classes of employees.

(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office,

as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public

office, when the public body is given power to appoint

under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or

removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public

body is given power to remove the occupant under law or

ordinance.

(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or

in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to

a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided

that the body prepares and makes available for public

inspection a written decision setting forth its

determinative reasoning.

(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use

of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose

of discussing whether a particular parcel should be

acquired.

(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of

property owned by the public body.

(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or

investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the

investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the

Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.

(8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and

equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a

reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees,

students, staff, the public, or public property.

(9) Student disciplinary cases.

(10) The placement of individual students in special

education programs and other matters relating to

individual students.

(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or

on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and

is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or

when the public body finds that an action is probable or

imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be

recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed

meeting.

(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of

claims as provided in the Local Governmental and

Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the

disposition of a claim or potential claim might be

prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or

risk management information, records, data, advice or

communications from or with respect to any insurer of the

public body or any intergovernmental risk management

association or self insurance pool of which the public body

is a member.

(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in

the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are

authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing

practices and creating a commission or administrative

agency for their enforcement.

(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of

undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or

future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public

body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.

(15) Professional ethics or performance when

considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a

licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the

advisory body's field of competence.

(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or

professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of

a statewide association of which the public body is a

member.

(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or

formal peer review of physicians or other health care

professionals for a hospital, or other institution

providing medical care, that is operated by the public

body.

(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner

Review Board.

(19) Review or discussion of applications received

under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures

Act.

(20) The classification and discussion of matters

classified as confidential or continued confidential by

the State Government Suggestion Award Board.

(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed

under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the

body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as

mandated by Section 2.06.

(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State

Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.

(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal

utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or

municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves

(i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery

of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or

conclusions of load forecast studies.

(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility

resident sexual assault and death review team or the

Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team

Act.

(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under

Brian's Law.

(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed

under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review

Team Act.

(27) Confidential information, when discussed by one

or more members of an elder abuse fatality review team,

designated under Section 15 of the Elder Abuse and Neglect

Act, while participating in a review conducted by that team

of the death of an elderly person in which abuse or neglect

is suspected, alleged, or substantiated; provided that

before the review team holds a closed meeting, or closes an

open meeting, to discuss the confidential information,

each participating review team member seeking to disclose

the confidential information in the closed meeting or

closed portion of the meeting must state on the record

during an open meeting or the open portion of a meeting the

nature of the information to be disclosed and the legal

basis for otherwise holding that information confidential.

(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be

disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii)

that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public

Aid Code.

(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors

and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and

their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal

control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk

areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews

conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing

standards of the United States of America.

(30) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the

Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm

Concealed Carry Act.

(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:

"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose

relationship with the public body constitutes an

employer-employee relationship under the usual common law

rules, and who is not an independent contractor.

"Public office" means a position created by or under the

Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is

charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign

power of this State. The term "public office" shall include

members of the public body, but it shall not include

organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether

established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to

assist the body in the conduct of its business.

"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body

charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct

hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make

determinations based thereon, but does not include local

electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition

challenges.

(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed

meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of

the nature of the matter being considered and other information

that will inform the public of the business being conducted.

(Source: P.A. 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1378, eff. 7-29-10;

96-1428, eff. 8-11-10; 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff.

8-12-11; 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876,

eff. 8-1-12.)

Section 120. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by

changing Section 7.5 as follows:

(5 ILCS 140/7.5)

Sec. 7.5. Statutory Exemptions. To the extent provided for

by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt

from inspection and copying:

(a) All information determined to be confidential under

Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.

(b) Library circulation and order records identifying

library users with specific materials under the Library Records

Confidentiality Act.

(c) Applications, related documents, and medical records

received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures

Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by

the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its

staff relating to applications it has received.

(d) Information and records held by the Department of

Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to

known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or

any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the

Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.

(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under

Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.

(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the

Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications

Based Selection Act.

(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and

exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.

(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under

the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of

any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office

that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive

Inspector General's office under that Act.

(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan

submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local

emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section

11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

(j) Information and data concerning the distribution of

surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers

under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.

(k) Law enforcement officer identification information or

driver identification information compiled by a law

enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under

Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.

(l) Records and information provided to a residential

health care facility resident sexual assault and death review

team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review

Team Act.

(m) Information provided to the predatory lending database

created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property

Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that

Article.

(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of

compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as

provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes

Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the

conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution

chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or

sentencing.

(o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed

under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances

Registry Act.

(p) Security portions of system safety program plans,

investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or

information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the

Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the

Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County

Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.

(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the

Personnel Records Review Act.

(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the

Illinois School Student Records Act.

(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under

Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.

(t) All identified or deidentified health information in

the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored

in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois

Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified

health information in the form of health data and medical

records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the

possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange

Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health

Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and

"deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health

Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public

Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any

regulations promulgated thereunder.

(u) Records and information provided to an independent team

of experts under Brian's Law.

(v) Names and information of people who have applied for or

received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the

Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or

received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed

Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed

Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,

records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the

Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency

objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted

from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the

Toll Highway Act.

(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under

Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the

Illinois Municipal Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-542, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1235, eff. 1-1-11;

96-1331, eff. 7-27-10; 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff.

8-12-11; 97-342, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976,

eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 122. The Secretary of State Act is amended by

adding Section 13.5 as follows:

(15 ILCS 305/13.5 new)

Sec. 13.5. Department of State Police access to driver's

license and identification card photographs.

The Secretary of State shall allow the Department of State

Police to access the driver's license or Illinois

Identification card photograph, if available, of an applicant

for a firearm concealed carry license under the Firearm

Concealed Carry Act for the purpose of identifying the firearm

concealed carry license applicant and issuing a license to the

applicant.

Section 125. The Department of State Police Law of the

Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by changing

Section 2605-300 and by adding Section 2605-595 as follows:

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-300) (was 20 ILCS 2605/55a in part)

Sec. 2605-300. Records; crime laboratories; personnel. To

do the following:

(1) Be a central repository and custodian of criminal

statistics for the State.

(2) Be a central repository for criminal history record

information.

(3) Procure and file for record information that is

necessary and helpful to plan programs of crime prevention,

law enforcement, and criminal justice.

(4) Procure and file for record copies of fingerprints

that may be required by law.

(5) Establish general and field crime laboratories.

(6) Register and file for record information that may

be required by law for the issuance of firearm owner's

identification cards under the Firearm Owners

Identification Card Act and concealed carry licenses under

the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(7) Employ polygraph operators, laboratory

technicians, and other specially qualified persons to aid

in the identification of criminal activity.

(8) Undertake other identification, information,

laboratory, statistical, or registration activities that

may be required by law.

(Source: P.A. 90-18, eff. 7-1-97; 90-130, eff. 1-1-98; 90-372,

eff. 7-1-98; 90-590, eff. 1-1-00; 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; 90-793,

eff. 8-14-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

(20 ILCS 2605/2605-595 new)

Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund

known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund shall

receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and

Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The

Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants,

donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Department of State Police may use moneys in the

Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates,

functions, and duties under the Firearm Owners Identification

Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, including the

cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's

Identification Cards, concealed carry licenses, the prompt and

efficient processing of applications under the Firearm Owners

Identification Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,

the improved efficiency and reporting of the LEADS and federal

NICS law enforcement data systems, and support for

investigations required under these Acts and law. Any surplus

funds beyond what is needed to comply with the aforementioned

purposes shall be used by the Department to improve the Law

Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) and criminal history

background check system.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the

investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund

for the uses specified in this Section.

Section 130. The State Finance Act is amended by adding

Sections 5.826, 5.827, and 6z-98 as follows:

(30 ILCS 105/5.826 new)

Sec. 5.826. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(30 ILCS 105/5.827 new)

Sec. 5.827. The State Police Firearm Services Fund.

(30 ILCS 105/6z-98 new)

Sec. 6z-98. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.

(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund

known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall

receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The Fund

may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants,

donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.

(b) The Department of State Police and Department of Human

Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance

their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on

mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm

possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the

Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners

Identification Card Act. Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is

necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting

under these Acts shall be used by the Department of Human

Services for mental health treatment programs.

(c) Investment income that is attributable to the

investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund

for the uses specified in this Section.

(30 ILCS 105/5.206 rep.)

Section 135. The State Finance Act is amended by repealing

Section 5.206.

Section 140. The Illinois Explosives Act is amended by

changing Section 2005 as follows:

(225 ILCS 210/2005) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 1-2005)

Sec. 2005. Qualifications for licensure.

(a) No person shall qualify to hold a license who:

(1) is under 21 years of age;

(2) has been convicted in any court of a crime

punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;

(3) is under indictment for a crime punishable by

imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;

(4) is a fugitive from justice;

(5) is an unlawful user of or addicted to any

controlled substance as defined in Section 102 of the

federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. Sec. 802 et

seq.);

(6) has been adjudicated a mentally disabled person as

defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification

Card Act mental defective; or

(7) is not a legal citizen of the United States.

(b) A person who has been granted a "relief from

disabilities" regarding criminal convictions and indictments,

pursuant to the federal Safe Explosives Act (18 U.S.C. Sec.

845) may receive a license provided all other qualifications

under this Act are met.

(Source: P.A. 96-1194, eff. 1-1-11.)

Section 142. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by

changing Section 10-1 as follows:

(235 ILCS 5/10-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 183)

Sec. 10-1. Violations; penalties. Whereas a substantial

threat to the sound and careful control, regulation, and

taxation of the manufacture, sale, and distribution of

alcoholic liquors exists by virtue of individuals who

manufacture, import, distribute, or sell alcoholic liquors

within the State without having first obtained a valid license

to do so, and whereas such threat is especially serious along

the borders of this State, and whereas such threat requires

immediate correction by this Act, by active investigation and

prosecution by law enforcement officials and prosecutors, and

by prompt and strict enforcement through the courts of this

State to punish violators and to deter such conduct in the

future:

(a) Any person who manufactures, imports for distribution

or use, or distributes or sells alcoholic liquor at any place

within the State without having first obtained a valid license

to do so under the provisions of this Act shall be guilty of a

business offense and fined not more than $1,000 for the first

such offense and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for each

subsequent offense.

(b) (1) Any retailer, licensed in this State, who knowingly

causes to furnish, give, sell, or otherwise being within the

State, any alcoholic liquor destined to be used, distributed,

consumed or sold in another state, unless such alcoholic liquor

was received in this State by a duly licensed distributor, or

importing distributors shall have his license suspended for 7

days for the first offense and for the second offense, shall

have his license revoked by the Commission.

(2) In the event the Commission receives a certified copy

of a final order from a foreign jurisdiction that an Illinois

retail licensee has been found to have violated that foreign

jurisdiction's laws, rules, or regulations concerning the

importation of alcoholic liquor into that foreign

jurisdiction, the violation may be grounds for the Commission

to revoke, suspend, or refuse to issue or renew a license, to

impose a fine, or to take any additional action provided by

this Act with respect to the Illinois retail license or

licensee. Any such action on the part of the Commission shall

be in accordance with this Act and implementing rules.

For the purposes of paragraph (2): (i) "foreign

jurisdiction" means a state, territory, or possession of the

United States, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of

Puerto Rico, and (ii) "final order" means an order or judgment

of a court or administrative body that determines the rights of

the parties respecting the subject matter of the proceeding,

that remains in full force and effect, and from which no appeal

can be taken.

(c) Any person who shall make any false statement or

otherwise violates any of the provisions of this Act in

obtaining any license hereunder, or who having obtained a

license hereunder shall violate any of the provisions of this

Act with respect to the manufacture, possession, distribution

or sale of alcoholic liquor, or with respect to the maintenance

of the licensed premises, or shall violate any other provision

of this Act, shall for a first offense be guilty of a petty

offense and fined not more than $500, and for a second or

subsequent offense shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.

(c-5) Any owner of an establishment that serves alcohol on

its premises, if more than 50% of the establishment's gross

receipts within the prior 3 months is from the sale of alcohol,

who knowingly fails to prohibit concealed firearms on its

premises or who knowingly makes a false statement or record to

avoid the prohibition of concealed firearms on its premises

under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act shall be guilty of a

business offense with a fine up to $5,000.

(d) Each day any person engages in business as a

manufacturer, foreign importer, importing distributor,

distributor or retailer in violation of the provisions of this

Act shall constitute a separate offense.

(e) Any person, under the age of 21 years who, for the

purpose of buying, accepting or receiving alcoholic liquor from

a licensee, represents that he is 21 years of age or over shall

be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.

(f) In addition to the penalties herein provided, any

person licensed as a wine-maker in either class who

manufactures more wine than authorized by his license shall be

guilty of a business offense and shall be fined $1 for each

gallon so manufactured.

(g) A person shall be exempt from prosecution for a

violation of this Act if he is a peace officer in the

enforcement of the criminal laws and such activity is approved

in writing by one of the following:

(1) In all counties, the respective State's Attorney;

(2) The Director of State Police under Section 2605-10,

2605-15, 2605-75, 2605-100, 2605-105, 2605-110, 2605-115,

2605-120, 2605-130, 2605-140, 2605-190, 2605-200,

2605-205, 2605-210, 2605-215, 2605-250, 2605-275,

2605-300, 2605-305, 2605-315, 2605-325, 2605-335,

2605-340, 2605-350, 2605-355, 2605-360, 2605-365,

2605-375, 2605-390, 2605-400, 2605-405, 2605-420,

2605-430, 2605-435, 2605-500, 2605-525, or 2605-550 of the

Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-10,

2605/2605-15, 2605/2605-75, 2605/2605-100, 2605/2605-105,

2605/2605-110, 2605/2605-115, 2605/2605-120,

2605/2605-130, 2605/2605-140, 2605/2605-190,

2605/2605-200, 2605/2605-205, 2605/2605-210,

2605/2605-215, 2605/2605-250, 2605/2605-275,

2605/2605-300, 2605/2605-305, 2605/2605-315,

2605/2605-325, 2605/2605-335, 2605/2605-340,

2605/2605-350, 2605/2605-355, 2605/2605-360,

2605/2605-365, 2605/2605-375, 2605/2605-390,

2605/2605-400, 2605/2605-405, 2605/2605-420,

2605/2605-430, 2605/2605-435, 2605/2605-500,

2605/2605-525, or 2605/2605-550); or

(3) In cities over 1,000,000, the Superintendent of

Police.

(Source: P.A. 90-739, eff. 8-13-98; 91-239, eff. 1-1-00.)

Section 145. The Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 6-103.1 and by

adding Sections 6-103.2 and 6-103.3 as follows:

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.1)

Sec. 6-103.1. Adjudication as a mentally disabled person

mental defective.

When a person has been adjudicated as a mentally disabled

person mental defective as defined in Section 1.1 of the

Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, including, but not

limited to, an adjudication as a disabled person as defined in

Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975, the court shall

direct the circuit court clerk to immediately notify the

Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's Identification

(FOID) Office, in a form and manner prescribed by the

Department of State Police, and shall forward a copy of the

court order to the Department no later than 7 days after the

entry of the order. Upon receipt of the order, the Department

of State Police shall provide notification to the National

Instant Criminal Background Check System.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.2 new)

Sec. 6-103.2. Developmental disability; notice.

For purposes of this Section, if a person is determined to

be developmentally disabled as defined in Section 1.1 of the

Firearm Owners Identification Card Act by a physician, clinical

psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether practicing at a

public or by a private mental health facility or developmental

disability facility, the physician, clinical psychologist, or

qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human

Services within 24 hours of making the determination that the

person has a developmental disability. The Department of Human

Services shall immediately update its records and information

relating to mental health and developmental disabilities, and

if appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in

a form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

Information disclosed under this Section shall remain

privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed,

except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the

Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other

purpose. The method of providing this information shall

guarantee that the information is not released beyond that

which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be

provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The

identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not

be disclosed to the subject of the report.

The physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified

examiner making the determination and his or her employer may

not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for

making or not making the notification required under this

Section, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(405 ILCS 5/6-103.3 new)

Sec. 6-103.3. Clear and present danger; notice.

If a person is determined to pose a clear and present

danger to himself, herself, or to others by a physician,

clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed

by the State, by any public or private mental health facility

or part thereof, or by a law enforcement official or a school

administrator, then the physician, clinical psychologist,

qualified examiner shall notify the Department of Human

Services and a law enforcement official or school administrator

shall notify the Department of State Police, within 24 hours of

making the determination that the person poses a clear and

present danger. The Department of Human Services shall

immediately update its records and information relating to

mental health and developmental disabilities, and if

appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a

form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

Information disclosed under this Section shall remain

privileged and confidential, and shall not be redisclosed,

except as required under subsection (e) of Section 3.1 of the

Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, nor used for any other

purpose. The method of providing this information shall

guarantee that the information is not released beyond that

which is necessary for the purpose of this Section and shall be

provided by rule by the Department of Human Services. The

identity of the person reporting under this Section shall not

be disclosed to the subject of the report. The physician,

clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law enforcement

official, or school administrator making the determination and

his or her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or

professionally liable for making or not making the notification

required under this Section, except for willful or wanton

misconduct. This Section does not apply to a law enforcement

official, if making the notification under this Section will

interfere with an ongoing or pending criminal investigation.

For the purposes of this Section:

"Clear and present danger" has the meaning ascribed to

it in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card

Act.

"School administrator" means the person required to

report under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental

Health Clear and Present Danger Determinations Law.

Section 150. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is

amended by changing Sections 1.1, 3.1, 4, 5, 8, 8.1, 9, 10,

13.1, and 13.2 and by adding Sections 5.1 and 9.5 as follows:

(430 ILCS 65/1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-1.1)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or

possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or

methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Department of State Police to be

addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal

guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use

of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and

authority of a physician or other person authorized to

prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled

substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated Has been adjudicated as a mentally disabled

person mental defective" means the person is the subject of a

determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful

authority that the a person, as a result of marked subnormal

intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment,

incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present is a danger to

himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own

affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in

Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of

insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in

Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental

responsibility under pursuant to Articles 50a and 72b of

the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a,

876b; .

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f)

of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment

Act;

(7) has been found to be a sexually dangerous person

under the Sexually Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court

Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the

Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an

inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health

and Development Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an

outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental

Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in

Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate

Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence

against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear

and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself,

herself, or another person as determined by a physician,

clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal

behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive

threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a

physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner,

school administrator, or law enforcement official.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in

Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or

controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois

Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal

authority, with intent to deceive.

"Developmentally disabled" means a disability which is

attributable to any other condition which results in impairment

similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which

requires services similar to those required by intellectually

disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age

of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and

constitute a substantial handicap.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is

licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the

federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which

is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action

of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,

however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or

B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not

exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum

muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or

B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing

washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or

safety and required or recommended by the United States

Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud

cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial

ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun)

which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of

State Police finds by reason of the date of its

manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is

primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used

as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or

shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be

used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a

device used exclusively for signalling or safety and

required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or

the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a

stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial

ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the

regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more

firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale,

transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display,

offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange

firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an

event or function, including parking areas for the event or

function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale,

transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.

"Gun show" does not include training or safety classes,

competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun

matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners,

banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or

transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or

operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells,

offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun

show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show

promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell,

offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Intellectually disabled" means significantly subaverage

general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently

with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates

before the age of 18 years.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in

Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and

Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility" means any licensed private

hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or facility, or

part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof, operated by

the State or a political subdivision thereof which provide

treatment of persons with mental illness and includes all

hospitals, institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities,

mental health centers, colleges, universities, long-term care

facilities, and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide

treatment of persons with mental illness whether or not the

primary purpose is to provide treatment of persons with mental

illness.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health

treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or

private mental health facility, unless the treatment was

solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary

substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health

treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a

public or private mental health facility, and who poses a

clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of

the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section

1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting

contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting

sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice

conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report

under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear

and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in

Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 1.1. For purposes of this Act:

"Addicted to narcotics" means a person who has been:

(1) convicted of an offense involving the use or

possession of cannabis, a controlled substance, or

methamphetamine within the past year; or

(2) determined by the Department of State Police to be

addicted to narcotics based upon federal law or federal

guidelines.

"Addicted to narcotics" does not include possession or use

of a prescribed controlled substance under the direction and

authority of a physician or other person authorized to

prescribe the controlled substance when the controlled

substance is used in the prescribed manner.

"Adjudicated Has been adjudicated as a mentally disabled

person mental defective" means the person is the subject of a

determination by a court, board, commission or other lawful

authority that the a person, as a result of marked subnormal

intelligence, or mental illness, mental impairment,

incompetency, condition, or disease:

(1) presents a clear and present is a danger to

himself, herself, or to others;

(2) lacks the mental capacity to manage his or her own

affairs or is adjudicated a disabled person as defined in

Section 11a-2 of the Probate Act of 1975;

(3) is not guilty in a criminal case by reason of

insanity, mental disease or defect;

(3.5) is guilty but mentally ill, as provided in

Section 5-2-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections;

(4) is incompetent to stand trial in a criminal case;

(5) is not guilty by reason of lack of mental

responsibility under pursuant to Articles 50a and 72b of

the Uniform Code of Military Justice, 10 U.S.C. 850a,

876b; .

(6) is a sexually violent person under subsection (f)

of Section 5 of the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment

Act;

(7) is a sexually dangerous person under the Sexually

Dangerous Persons Act;

(8) is unfit to stand trial under the Juvenile Court

Act of 1987;

(9) is not guilty by reason of insanity under the

Juvenile Court Act of 1987;

(10) is subject to involuntary admission as an

inpatient as defined in Section 1-119 of the Mental Health

and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(11) is subject to involuntary admission as an

outpatient as defined in Section 1-119.1 of the Mental

Health and Developmental Disabilities Code;

(12) is subject to judicial admission as set forth in

Section 4-500 of the Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities Code; or

(13) is subject to the provisions of the Interstate

Agreements on Sexually Dangerous Persons Act.

"Clear and present danger" means a person who:

(1) communicates a serious threat of physical violence

against a reasonably identifiable victim or poses a clear

and imminent risk of serious physical injury to himself,

herself, or another person as determined by a physician,

clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner; or

(2) demonstrates threatening physical or verbal

behavior, such as violent, suicidal, or assaultive

threats, actions, or other behavior, as determined by a

physician, clinical psychologist, qualified examiner,

school administrator, or law enforcement official.

"Clinical psychologist" has the meaning provided in

Section 1-103 of the Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities Code.

"Controlled substance" means a controlled substance or

controlled substance analog as defined in the Illinois

Controlled Substances Act.

"Counterfeit" means to copy or imitate, without legal

authority, with intent to deceive.

"Developmentally disabled" means a disability which is

attributable to any other condition which results in impairment

similar to that caused by an intellectual disability and which

requires services similar to those required by intellectually

disabled persons. The disability must originate before the age

of 18 years, be expected to continue indefinitely, and

constitute a substantial handicap.

"Federally licensed firearm dealer" means a person who is

licensed as a federal firearms dealer under Section 923 of the

federal Gun Control Act of 1968 (18 U.S.C. 923).

"Firearm" means any device, by whatever name known, which

is designed to expel a projectile or projectiles by the action

of an explosion, expansion of gas or escape of gas; excluding,

however:

(1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or

B-B gun which expels a single globular projectile not

exceeding .18 inch in diameter or which has a maximum

muzzle velocity of less than 700 feet per second;

(1.1) any pneumatic gun, spring gun, paint ball gun, or

B-B gun which expels breakable paint balls containing

washable marking colors;

(2) any device used exclusively for signalling or

safety and required or recommended by the United States

Coast Guard or the Interstate Commerce Commission;

(3) any device used exclusively for the firing of stud

cartridges, explosive rivets or similar industrial

ammunition; and

(4) an antique firearm (other than a machine-gun)

which, although designed as a weapon, the Department of

State Police finds by reason of the date of its

manufacture, value, design, and other characteristics is

primarily a collector's item and is not likely to be used

as a weapon.

"Firearm ammunition" means any self-contained cartridge or

shotgun shell, by whatever name known, which is designed to be

used or adaptable to use in a firearm; excluding, however:

(1) any ammunition exclusively designed for use with a

device used exclusively for signalling or safety and

required or recommended by the United States Coast Guard or

the Interstate Commerce Commission; and

(2) any ammunition designed exclusively for use with a

stud or rivet driver or other similar industrial

ammunition.

"Gun show" means an event or function:

(1) at which the sale and transfer of firearms is the

regular and normal course of business and where 50 or more

firearms are displayed, offered, or exhibited for sale,

transfer, or exchange; or

(2) at which not less than 10 gun show vendors display,

offer, or exhibit for sale, sell, transfer, or exchange

firearms.

"Gun show" includes the entire premises provided for an

event or function, including parking areas for the event or

function, that is sponsored to facilitate the purchase, sale,

transfer, or exchange of firearms as described in this Section.

"Gun show" does not include training or safety classes,

competitive shooting events, such as rifle, shotgun, or handgun

matches, trap, skeet, or sporting clays shoots, dinners,

banquets, raffles, or any other event where the sale or

transfer of firearms is not the primary course of business.

"Gun show promoter" means a person who organizes or

operates a gun show.

"Gun show vendor" means a person who exhibits, sells,

offers for sale, transfers, or exchanges any firearms at a gun

show, regardless of whether the person arranges with a gun show

promoter for a fixed location from which to exhibit, sell,

offer for sale, transfer, or exchange any firearm.

"Intellectually disabled" means significantly subaverage

general intellectual functioning which exists concurrently

with impairment in adaptive behavior and which originates

before the age of 18 years.

"Involuntarily admitted" has the meaning as prescribed in

Sections 1-119 and 1-119.1 of the Mental Health and

Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Mental health facility institution" means any licensed

private hospital or hospital affiliate, institution, or

facility, or part thereof, and any facility, or part thereof,

operated by the State or a political subdivision thereof which

provide clinic, evaluation facility, mental health center, or

part thereof, which is used primarily for the care or treatment

of persons with mental illness and includes all hospitals,

institutions, clinics, evaluation facilities, mental health

centers, colleges, universities, long-term care facilities,

and nursing homes, or parts thereof, which provide treatment of

persons with mental illness whether or not the primary purpose

is to provide treatment of persons with mental illness.

"Patient" means:

(1) a person who voluntarily receives mental health

treatment as an in-patient or resident of any public or

private mental health facility, unless the treatment was

solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no other secondary

substance abuse disorder or mental illness; or

(2) a person who voluntarily receives mental health

treatment as an out-patient or is provided services by a

public or private mental health facility, and who poses a

clear and present danger to himself, herself, or to others.

"Physician" has the meaning as defined in Section 1-120 of

the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Qualified examiner" has the meaning provided in Section

1-122 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

"Patient in a mental institution" means the person was

admitted, either voluntarily or involuntarily, to a mental

institution for mental health treatment, unless the treatment

was voluntary and solely for an alcohol abuse disorder and no

other secondary substance abuse disorder or mental illness.

"Sanctioned competitive shooting event" means a shooting

contest officially recognized by a national or state shooting

sport association, and includes any sight-in or practice

conducted in conjunction with the event.

"School administrator" means the person required to report

under the School Administrator Reporting of Mental Health Clear

and Present Danger Determinations Law.

"Stun gun or taser" has the meaning ascribed to it in

Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

(Source: P.A. 97-776, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;

97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-3.1)

Sec. 3.1. Dial up system.

(a) The Department of State Police shall provide a dial up

telephone system or utilize other existing technology which

shall be used by any federally licensed firearm dealer, gun

show promoter, or gun show vendor who is to transfer a firearm,

stun gun, or taser under the provisions of this Act. The

Department of State Police may utilize existing technology

which allows the caller to be charged a fee not to exceed $2.

Fees collected by the Department of State Police shall be

deposited in the State Police Services Fund and used to provide

the service.

(b) Upon receiving a request from a federally licensed

firearm dealer, gun show promoter, or gun show vendor, the

Department of State Police shall immediately approve, or within

the time period established by Section 24-3 of the Criminal

Code of 2012 regarding the delivery of firearms, stun guns, and

tasers notify the inquiring dealer, gun show promoter, or gun

show vendor of any objection that would disqualify the

transferee from acquiring or possessing a firearm, stun gun, or

taser. In conducting the inquiry, the Department of State

Police shall initiate and complete an automated search of its

criminal history record information files and those of the

Federal Bureau of Investigation, including the National

Instant Criminal Background Check System, and of the files of

the Department of Human Services relating to mental health and

developmental disabilities to obtain any felony conviction or

patient hospitalization information which would disqualify a

person from obtaining or require revocation of a currently

valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(c) If receipt of a firearm would not violate Section 24-3

of the Criminal Code of 2012, federal law, or this Act the

Department of State Police shall:

(1) assign a unique identification number to the

transfer; and

(2) provide the licensee, gun show promoter, or gun

show vendor with the number.

(d) Approvals issued by the Department of State Police for

the purchase of a firearm are valid for 30 days from the date

of issue.

(e) (1) The Department of State Police must act as the

Illinois Point of Contact for the National Instant Criminal

Background Check System.

(2) The Department of State Police and the Department of

Human Services shall, in accordance with State and federal law

regarding confidentiality, enter into a memorandum of

understanding with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the

purpose of implementing the National Instant Criminal

Background Check System in the State. The Department of State

Police shall report the name, date of birth, and physical

description of any person prohibited from possessing a firearm

pursuant to the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18

U.S.C. 922(g) and (n) to the National Instant Criminal

Background Check System Index, Denied Persons Files.

(3) The Department of State Police shall provide notice of

the disqualification of a person under subsection (b) of this

Section or the revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's

Identification Card under Section 8 of this Act, and the reason

for the disqualification or revocation, to all law enforcement

agencies with jurisdiction to assist with the seizure of the

person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) The Department of State Police shall adopt promulgate

rules not inconsistent with this Section to implement this

system.

(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-4)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 4. (a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card must:

(1) Make application on blank forms prepared and

furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by

the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if

and when made available by the Department of State Police;

and

(2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police

that:

(i) He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he

or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the

written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian

to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition

and that he or she has never been convicted of a

misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged

delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or

legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from

having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files

an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the

Department stating that he or she is not an individual

prohibited from having a Card;

(ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony

under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;

(iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental

health facility institution within the past 5 years or,

if he or she has been a patient in a mental health

facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification

required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act

and he or she has not been adjudicated as a mental

defective;

(v) He or she is not intellectually disabled;

(vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully

present in the United States under the laws of the

United States;

(vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order

of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a

firearm;

(viii) He or she has not been convicted within the

past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault,

violation of an order of protection, or a substantially

similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a

firearm was used or possessed;

(ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic

battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a

substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction

committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the

effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant

knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an

offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury,

and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a

conviction for an offense in which a domestic

relationship is not a required element of the offense

but in which a determination of the applicability of 18

U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the

Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the

court of a judgment of conviction for that offense

shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm

Owner's Identification Card under this Section;

(x) (Blank);

(xi) He or she is not an alien who has been

admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant

visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of

the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.

1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has

been lawfully admitted to the United States under a

non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful

hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign

government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States

Government or the Government's mission to an

international organization having its

headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to

which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or

distinguished foreign visitor who has been so

designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a

friendly foreign government entering the United

States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the

Attorney General of the United States pursuant to

18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a

petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile

Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a

delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that

if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been

adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile

Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that

if committed by an adult would be a felony; and

(xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of

Illinois; and

(xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a

mentally disabled person;

(xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted

into a mental health facility; and

(xvii) He or she is not developmentally disabled;

and

(3) Upon request by the Department of State Police,

sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of

State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and

requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police

of limited mental health institution admission information

from another state, the District of Columbia, any other

territory of the United States, or a foreign nation

concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of

determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a

mental health institution and disqualified because of that

status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be

requested. The information received shall be destroyed

within one year of receipt.

(a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department

of State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license

number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as

provided in subsection (a-10).

(a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed

security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military

permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois

resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his

or her driver's license number or state identification card

number from his or her state of residence. The Department of

State Police may adopt promulgate rules to enforce the

provisions of this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card moves from the residence address named in

the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form

and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police of that

change of address.

(a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her

photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older

seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement

must furnish with the application an approved copy of United

States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form

4029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age

seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement

shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by

the Department with his or her application.

(b) Each application form shall include the following

statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false

information on an application for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in

accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm

Owners Identification Card Act.".

(c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4,

paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the

consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the

applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.

(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,

eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 4. (a) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card must:

(1) Make application on blank forms prepared and

furnished at convenient locations throughout the State by

the Department of State Police, or by electronic means, if

and when made available by the Department of State Police;

and

(2) Submit evidence to the Department of State Police

that:

(i) He or she is 21 years of age or over, or if he

or she is under 21 years of age that he or she has the

written consent of his or her parent or legal guardian

to possess and acquire firearms and firearm ammunition

and that he or she has never been convicted of a

misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged

delinquent, provided, however, that such parent or

legal guardian is not an individual prohibited from

having a Firearm Owner's Identification Card and files

an affidavit with the Department as prescribed by the

Department stating that he or she is not an individual

prohibited from having a Card;

(ii) He or she has not been convicted of a felony

under the laws of this or any other jurisdiction;

(iii) He or she is not addicted to narcotics;

(iv) He or she has not been a patient in a mental

health facility institution within the past 5 years or,

if he or she has been a patient in a mental health

facility more than 5 years ago submit the certification

required under subsection (u) of Section 8 of this Act;

(v) He or she is not intellectually disabled;

(vi) He or she is not an alien who is unlawfully

present in the United States under the laws of the

United States;

(vii) He or she is not subject to an existing order

of protection prohibiting him or her from possessing a

firearm;

(viii) He or she has not been convicted within the

past 5 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault,

violation of an order of protection, or a substantially

similar offense in another jurisdiction, in which a

firearm was used or possessed;

(ix) He or she has not been convicted of domestic

battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a

substantially similar offense in another jurisdiction

committed before, on or after January 1, 2012 (the

effective date of Public Act 97-158). If the applicant

knowingly and intelligently waives the right to have an

offense described in this clause (ix) tried by a jury,

and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a

conviction for an offense in which a domestic

relationship is not a required element of the offense

but in which a determination of the applicability of 18

U.S.C. 922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the

Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the

court of a judgment of conviction for that offense

shall be grounds for denying the issuance of a Firearm

Owner's Identification Card under this Section;

(x) (Blank);

(xi) He or she is not an alien who has been

admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant

visa (as that term is defined in Section 101(a)(26) of

the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.

1101(a)(26))), or that he or she is an alien who has

been lawfully admitted to the United States under a

non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful

hunting or sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign

government who is:

(A) accredited to the United States

Government or the Government's mission to an

international organization having its

headquarters in the United States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to

which that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or

distinguished foreign visitor who has been so

designated by the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a

friendly foreign government entering the United

States on official business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the

Attorney General of the United States pursuant to

18 U.S.C. 922(y)(3);

(xii) He or she is not a minor subject to a

petition filed under Section 5-520 of the Juvenile

Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a

delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that

if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiii) He or she is not an adult who had been

adjudicated a delinquent minor under the Juvenile

Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an offense that

if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(xiv) He or she is a resident of the State of

Illinois; and

(xv) He or she has not been adjudicated as a

mentally disabled person mental defective; and

(xvi) He or she has not been involuntarily admitted

into a mental health facility; and

(xvii) He or she is not developmentally disabled;

and

(3) Upon request by the Department of State Police,

sign a release on a form prescribed by the Department of

State Police waiving any right to confidentiality and

requesting the disclosure to the Department of State Police

of limited mental health institution admission information

from another state, the District of Columbia, any other

territory of the United States, or a foreign nation

concerning the applicant for the sole purpose of

determining whether the applicant is or was a patient in a

mental health institution and disqualified because of that

status from receiving a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card. No mental health care or treatment records may be

requested. The information received shall be destroyed

within one year of receipt.

(a-5) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card who is over the age of 18 shall furnish to the Department

of State Police either his or her Illinois driver's license

number or Illinois Identification Card number, except as

provided in subsection (a-10).

(a-10) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card, who is employed as a law enforcement officer, an armed

security officer in Illinois, or by the United States Military

permanently assigned in Illinois and who is not an Illinois

resident, shall furnish to the Department of State Police his

or her driver's license number or state identification card

number from his or her state of residence. The Department of

State Police may adopt promulgate rules to enforce the

provisions of this subsection (a-10).

(a-15) If an applicant applying for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card moves from the residence address named in

the application, he or she shall immediately notify in a form

and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police of that

change of address.

(a-20) Each applicant for a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card shall furnish to the Department of State Police his or her

photograph. An applicant who is 21 years of age or older

seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement

must furnish with the application an approved copy of United

States Department of the Treasury Internal Revenue Service Form

4029. In lieu of a photograph, an applicant regardless of age

seeking a religious exemption to the photograph requirement

shall submit fingerprints on a form and manner prescribed by

the Department with his or her application.

(b) Each application form shall include the following

statement printed in bold type: "Warning: Entering false

information on an application for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card is punishable as a Class 2 felony in

accordance with subsection (d-5) of Section 14 of the Firearm

Owners Identification Card Act.".

(c) Upon such written consent, pursuant to Section 4,

paragraph (a)(2)(i), the parent or legal guardian giving the

consent shall be liable for any damages resulting from the

applicant's use of firearms or firearm ammunition.

(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,

eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/5) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-5)

Sec. 5. The Department of State Police shall either approve

or deny all applications within 30 days from the date they are

received, and every applicant found qualified under pursuant to

Section 8 of this Act by the Department shall be entitled to a

Firearm Owner's Identification Card upon the payment of a $10

fee. Any applicant who is an active duty member of the Armed

Forces of the United States, a member of the Illinois National

Guard, or a member of the Reserve Forces of the United States

is exempt from the application fee. $6 of each fee derived from

the issuance of Firearm Owner's Identification Cards, or

renewals thereof, shall be deposited in the Wildlife and Fish

Fund in the State Treasury; $1 of the such fee shall be

deposited in the State Police Services Fund and $3 of the such

fee shall be deposited in the State Police Firearm Services

Fund. Firearm Owner's Notification Fund. Monies in the Firearm

Owner's Notification Fund shall be used exclusively to pay for

the cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's

Identification Cards under Section 13.2 of this Act. Excess

monies in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund shall be used

to ensure the prompt and efficient processing of applications

received under Section 4 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 95-581, eff. 6-1-08; 96-91, eff. 7-27-09.)

(430 ILCS 65/5.1 new)

Sec. 5.1. State Police Firearm Services Fund. All moneys

remaining in the Firearm Owner's Notification Fund on the

effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General

Assembly shall be transferred into the State Police Firearm

Services Fund, a special fund created in the State treasury, to

be expended by the Department of State Police, for the purposes

specified in this Act and Section 2605-595 of the Department of

State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.

(430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 8. The Department of State Police has authority to

deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm

Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act

only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person

to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted

of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged

delinquent;

(b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the

written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and

possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or

guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent

or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this

or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health

facility institution within the past 5 years or a person who

has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5

years ago who has not received the certification required under

subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement

officer employed by a unit of government who is denied,

revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card

seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described

in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer

did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another

person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical

psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health

treatment or has been adjudicated as a mental defective;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature

that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any

other person or persons or the community;

For the purposes of this Section, "mental condition" means

a state of mind manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening or

assaultive behavior.

(g) A person who is intellectually disabled;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in

the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;

(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States

under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States

under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section

101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.

1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply

to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United

States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or

sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government

who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or

the Government's mission to an international

organization having its headquarters in the United

States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which

that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or

distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by

the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly

foreign government entering the United States on official

business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney

General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.

922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years

of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order

of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another

jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery,

aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar

offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after

January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If

the applicant or person who has been previously issued a

Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly

and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described

in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or

otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a

domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense

but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C.

922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of

Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment

of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an

application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card previously issued to the person under this

Act;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing

firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or

by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520

of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a

delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if

committed by an adult would be a felony;

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor

under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an

offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony; or

(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of

Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section

4; .

(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a mentally

disabled person;

(s) A person who has been found to be developmentally

disabled;

(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health

facility;

(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's

Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of

this Section or item (iv) of Section 4 of this Act because he

or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in

item (2) of subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be

permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card,

after the 5 year period has lapsed, unless he or she has

received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical

psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined

in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and

has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and

present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician,

clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the

certification and his or her employer shall not be held

criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not

making the certification required under this subsection,

except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does

not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been

restored through administrative or judicial action under

Section 10 or 11 of this Act; or

(v) Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's

Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall

provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with

Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227,

eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 8. The Department of State Police has authority to

deny an application for or to revoke and seize a Firearm

Owner's Identification Card previously issued under this Act

only if the Department finds that the applicant or the person

to whom such card was issued is or was at the time of issuance:

(a) A person under 21 years of age who has been convicted

of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or adjudged

delinquent;

(b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have the

written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire and

possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose parent or

guardian has revoked such written consent, or where such parent

or guardian does not qualify to have a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card;

(c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of this

or any other jurisdiction;

(d) A person addicted to narcotics;

(e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health

facility institution within the past 5 years or a person who

has been a patient in a mental health facility more than 5

years ago who has not received the certification required under

subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement

officer employed by a unit of government who is denied,

revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification Card

seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as described

in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if the officer

did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another

person, or the public as determined by the treating clinical

psychologist or physician, and the officer seeks mental health

treatment;

(f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature

that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant, any

other person or persons or the community;

For the purposes of this Section, "mental condition" means

a state of mind manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening or

assaultive behavior.

(g) A person who is intellectually disabled;

(h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement in

the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;

(i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United States

under the laws of the United States;

(i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United States

under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined in Section

101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C.

1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection (i-5) does not apply

to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United

States under a non-immigrant visa if that alien is:

(1) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or

sporting purposes;

(2) an official representative of a foreign government

who is:

(A) accredited to the United States Government or

the Government's mission to an international

organization having its headquarters in the United

States; or

(B) en route to or from another country to which

that alien is accredited;

(3) an official of a foreign government or

distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by

the Department of State;

(4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly

foreign government entering the United States on official

business; or

(5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney

General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.

922(y)(3);

(j) (Blank);

(k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5 years

of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation of an order

of protection, or a substantially similar offense in another

jurisdiction, in which a firearm was used or possessed;

(l) A person who has been convicted of domestic battery,

aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially similar

offense in another jurisdiction committed before, on or after

January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public Act 97-158). If

the applicant or person who has been previously issued a

Firearm Owner's Identification Card under this Act knowingly

and intelligently waives the right to have an offense described

in this paragraph (l) tried by a jury, and by guilty plea or

otherwise, results in a conviction for an offense in which a

domestic relationship is not a required element of the offense

but in which a determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C.

922(g)(9) is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of

Criminal Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment

of conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an

application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card previously issued to the person under this

Act;

(m) (Blank);

(n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or possessing

firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois State statute or

by federal law;

(o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section 5-520

of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the minor is a

delinquent minor for the commission of an offense that if

committed by an adult would be a felony;

(p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent minor

under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the commission of an

offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;

(q) A person who is not a resident of the State of

Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of Section 4;

or

(r) A person who has been adjudicated as a mentally

disabled person; mental defective.

(s) A person who has been found to be developmentally

disabled;

(t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental health

facility;

(u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's

Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e) of

this Section or item (iv) of Section 4 of this Act because he

or she was a patient in a mental health facility as provided in

item (2) of subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be

permitted to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card,

after the 5 year period has lapsed, unless he or she has

received a mental health evaluation by a physician, clinical

psychologist, or qualified examiner as those terms are defined

in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, and

has received a certification that he or she is not a clear and

present danger to himself, herself, or others. The physician,

clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner making the

certification and his or her employer shall not be held

criminally, civilly, or professionally liable for making or not

making the certification required under this subsection,

except for willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does

not apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been

restored through administrative or judicial action under

Section 10 or 11 of this Act; or

(v) Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's

Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall

provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with

Section 9.5 of this Act.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227,

eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13;

97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/8.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8.1)

Sec. 8.1. Notifications to the Circuit Clerk to notify

Department of State Police.

(a) The Circuit Clerk shall, in the form and manner

required by the Supreme Court, notify the Department of State

Police of all final dispositions of cases for which the

Department has received information reported to it under

Sections 2.1 and 2.2 of the Criminal Identification Act.

(b) Upon adjudication of any individual as a mentally

disabled person mental defective, as defined in Section 1.1 of

this Act or a finding that a person has been involuntarily

admitted or as provided in paragraph (3.5) of subsection (c) of

Section 104-26 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, the

court shall direct the circuit court clerk to immediately

notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's

Identification (FOID) department, and shall forward a copy of

the court order to the Department.

(c) The Department of Human Services shall, in the form and

manner prescribed by the Department of State Police, report all

information collected under subsection (b) of Section 12 of the

Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality

Act for the purpose of determining whether a person who may be

or may have been a patient in a mental health facility is

disqualified under State or federal law from receiving or

retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or purchasing

a weapon.

(d) If a person is determined to pose a clear and present

danger to himself, herself, or to others by a physician,

clinical psychologist, qualified examiner, law enforcement

official, or school administrator, or is determined to be

developmentally disabled by a physician, clinical

psychologist, or qualified examiner, whether employed by the

State or by a private mental health facility, then the

physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner shall,

within 24 hours of making the determination, notify the

Department of Human Services that the person poses a clear and

present danger. The Department of Human Services shall

immediately update its records and information relating to

mental health and developmental disabilities, and if

appropriate, shall notify the Department of State Police in a

form and manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.

The Department of State Police shall determine whether to

revoke the person's Firearm Owner's Identification Card under

Section 8 of this Act. Any information disclosed under this

subsection shall remain privileged and confidential, and shall

not be redisclosed, except as required under subsection (e) of

Section 3.1 of this Act, nor used for any other purpose. The

method of providing this information shall guarantee that the

information is not released beyond what is necessary for the

purpose of this Section and shall be provided by rule by the

Department of Human Services. The identity of the person

reporting under this Section shall not be disclosed to the

subject of the report. The physician, clinical psychologist,

qualified examiner, law enforcement official, or school

administrator making the determination and his or her employer

shall not be held criminally, civilly, or professionally liable

for making or not making the notification required under this

subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct.

(e) The Department of State Police shall adopt rules to

implement this Section.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/9) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-9)

Sec. 9. Every person whose application for a Firearm

Owner's Identification Card is denied, and every holder of such

a Card whose Card is revoked or seized, shall receive a written

notice from the Department of State Police stating specifically

the grounds upon which his application has been denied or upon

which his Identification Card has been revoked. The written

notice shall include the requirements of Section 9.5 of this

Act and the persons's right to administrative or judicial

review under Section 10 and 11 of this Act. A copy of the

written notice shall be provided to the sheriff and law

enforcement agency where the person resides.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/9.5 new)

Sec. 9.5. Revocation of Firearm Owner's Identification

Card.

(a) A person who receives a revocation notice under Section

9 of this Act shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the

revocation:

(1) surrender his or her Firearm Owner's

Identification Card to the local law enforcement agency

where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency

shall provide the person a receipt and transmit the Firearm

Owner's Identification Card to the Department of State

Police; and

(2) complete a Firearm Disposition Record on a form

prescribed by the Department of State Police and place his

or her firearms in the location or with the person reported

in the Firearm Disposition Record. The form shall require

the person to disclose:

(A) the make, model, and serial number of each

firearm owned by or under the custody and control of

the revoked person;

(B) the location where each firearm will be

maintained during the prohibited term; and

(C) if any firearm will be transferred to the

custody of another person, the name, address and

Firearm Owner's Identification Card number of the

transferee.

(b) The local law enforcement agency shall provide a copy

of the Firearm Disposition Record to the person whose Firearm

Owner's Identification Card has been revoked and to the

Department of State Police.

(c) If the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card

has been revoked fails to comply with the requirements of this

Section, the sheriff or law enforcement agency where the person

resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to

search for and seize the Firearm Owner's Identification Card

and firearms in the possession or under the custody or control

of the person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has

been revoked.

(d) A violation of subsection (a) of this Section is a

Class A misdemeanor.

(e) The observation of a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card in the possession of a person whose Firearm Owner's

Identification Card has been revoked constitutes a sufficient

basis for the arrest of that person for violation of this

Section.

(f) Within 30 days after the effective date of this

amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the Department of

State Police shall provide written notice of the requirements

of this Section to persons whose Firearm Owner's Identification

Cards have been revoked, suspended, or expired and who have

failed to surrender their cards to the Department.

(g) A person whose Firearm Owner's Identification Card has

been revoked and who received notice under subsection (f) shall

comply with the requirements of this Section within 48 hours of

receiving notice.

(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)

(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm

prohibitions.

(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to

act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or

whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in

Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the

Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial,

revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or

seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated

stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois

Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and

Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is

classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation

of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code

of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the

commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be

a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the

circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence

for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.

(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit

court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney

with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to

the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court

shall determine whether substantial justice has been done.

Should the court determine that substantial justice has not

been done, the court shall issue an order directing the

Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court

shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise

prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under

federal law.

(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under

Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or

acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8

of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or

petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner

resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection

(a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition

and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is

established by the applicant to the court's or Director's

satisfaction that:

(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney

has been served with a written copy of the petition at

least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court

and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an

opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;

(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible

felony under the laws of this State or any other

jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's

application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or

at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period

of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;

(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,

where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his

reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely

to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;

(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public

interest; and

(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal

law.

(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by

a unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or

her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under

subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the

Director of State Police requesting relief if the officer

did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another

person, or the public as determined by the treating

clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his

or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily

seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed

clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified

examiner, and:

(A) the officer has not received treatment

involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless

of the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily

admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30

days and not for more than one incident within the past

5 years; and

(B) the officer has not left the mental institution

against medical advice.

(2) The Director of State Police shall grant expedited

relief to active law enforcement officers described in

paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination

by the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm

does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public

safety. The Director shall act on the request for relief

within 30 business days of receipt of:

(A) a notarized statement from the officer in the

form prescribed by the Director detailing the

circumstances that led to the hospitalization;

(B) all documentation regarding the admission,

evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating

licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the

officer;

(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of

the person completed after the time of discharge; and

(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by

the Director from the treating licensed clinical

psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set

forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have

been met, the person successfully completed treatment,

and their professional opinion regarding the person's

ability to possess firearms.

(3) Officers eligible for the expedited relief in

paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of

proof on eligibility and must provide all information

required. The Director may not consider granting expedited

relief until the proof and information is received.

(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and

"qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as

provided in Chapter 1 of the Mental Health and

Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense

which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court

shall notify the Department of State Police.

(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or

the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a

person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that

if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application

for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the

adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the

applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a

Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants

relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police

that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is

eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18

U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act

of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred

under the laws of this State or who was determined to be

subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of

Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State

Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director

shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance

of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a

manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief

would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this

determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning

(i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from

which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and

criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's

reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness

statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv)

changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since

the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If

relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court

under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable

but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct,

modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the

Department of State Police makes available to the National

Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United

States Attorney General that the basis for the record being

made available no longer applies. The Department of State

Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section

subsection (f).

(Source: P.A. 96-1368, eff. 7-28-10; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13;

97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 97-1167)

Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm

prohibitions.

(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to

act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or

whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in

Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the

Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial,

revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or

seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated

stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois

Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and

Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is

classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation

of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code

of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the

commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be

a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the

circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence

for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.

(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit

court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney

with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to

the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court

shall determine whether substantial justice has been done.

Should the court determine that substantial justice has not

been done, the court shall issue an order directing the

Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court

shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise

prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under

federal law.

(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under

Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or

acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8

of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or

petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner

resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection

(a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition

and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is

established by the applicant to the court's or Director's

satisfaction that:

(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney

has been served with a written copy of the petition at

least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court

and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an

opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;

(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible

felony under the laws of this State or any other

jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's

application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or

at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period

of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;

(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,

where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his

reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely

to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;

(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public

interest; and

(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal

law.

(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by

a unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or

her Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under

subsection (e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the

Director of State Police requesting relief if the officer

did not act in a manner threatening to the officer, another

person, or the public as determined by the treating

clinical psychologist or physician, and as a result of his

or her work is referred by the employer for or voluntarily

seeks mental health evaluation or treatment by a licensed

clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or qualified

examiner, and:

(A) the officer has not received treatment

involuntarily at a mental health facility institution,

regardless of the length of admission; or has not been

voluntarily admitted to a mental health facility

institution for more than 30 days and not for more than

one incident within the past 5 years; and

(B) the officer has not left the mental institution

against medical advice.

(2) The Director of State Police shall grant expedited

relief to active law enforcement officers described in

paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination

by the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm

does not present a threat to themselves, others, or public

safety. The Director shall act on the request for relief

within 30 business days of receipt of:

(A) a notarized statement from the officer in the

form prescribed by the Director detailing the

circumstances that led to the hospitalization;

(B) all documentation regarding the admission,

evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating

licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the

officer;

(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of

the person completed after the time of discharge; and

(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by

the Director from the treating licensed clinical

psychologist or psychiatrist that the provisions set

forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) have

been met, the person successfully completed treatment,

and their professional opinion regarding the person's

ability to possess firearms.

(3) Officers eligible for the expedited relief in

paragraph (2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of

proof on eligibility and must provide all information

required. The Director may not consider granting expedited

relief until the proof and information is received.

(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and

"qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as

provided in Chapter 1 of the Mental Health and

Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense

which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court

shall notify the Department of State Police.

(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or

the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a

person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that

if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application

for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the

adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the

applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a

Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants

relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police

that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is

eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.

(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18

U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act

of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred

under the laws of this State or who was determined to be

subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of

Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State

Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director

shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance

of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a

manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief

would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this

determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning

(i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from

which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and

criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's

reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness

statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv)

changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since

the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If

relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court

under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable

but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct,

modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the

Department of State Police makes available to the National

Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United

States Attorney General that the basis for the record being

made available no longer applies. The Department of State

Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this Section

subsection (f).

(Source: P.A. 96-1368, eff. 7-28-10; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13;

97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13.)

(430 ILCS 65/13.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.1)

Sec. 13.1. Preemption.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in the Firearm Concealed

Carry Act and subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, the The

provisions of any ordinance enacted by any municipality which

requires registration or imposes greater restrictions or

limitations on the acquisition, possession and transfer of

firearms than are imposed by this Act, are not invalidated or

affected by this Act.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the

regulation, licensing, possession, and registration of

handguns and ammunition for a handgun, and the transportation

of any firearm and ammunition by a holder of a valid Firearm

Owner's Identification Card issued by the Department of State

Police under this Act are exclusive powers and functions of

this State. Any ordinance or regulation, or portion of that

ordinance or regulation, enacted on or before the effective

date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly that

purports to impose regulations or restrictions on a holder of a

valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card issued by the

Department of State Police under this Act in a manner that is

inconsistent with this Act, on the effective date of this

amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, shall be invalid

in its application to a holder of a valid Firearm Owner's

Identification Card issued by the Department of State Police

under this Act.

(c) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this Section, the

regulation of the possession or ownership of assault weapons

are exclusive powers and functions of this State. Any ordinance

or regulation, or portion of that ordinance or regulation, that

purports to regulate the possession or ownership of assault

weapons in a manner that is inconsistent with this Act, shall

be invalid unless the ordinance or regulation is enacted on,

before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this

amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly. Any ordinance or

regulation described in this subsection (c) enacted more than

10 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the

98th General Assembly is invalid. An ordinance enacted on,

before, or within 10 days after the effective date of this

amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly may be amended. The

enactment or amendment of ordinances under this subsection (c)

are subject to the submission requirements of Section 13.3. For

the purposes of this subsection, "assault weapons" means

firearms designated by either make or model or by a test or

list of cosmetic features that cumulatively would place the

firearm into a definition of "assault weapon" under the

ordinance.

(d) For the purposes of this Section, "handgun" has the

meaning ascribed to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed

Carry Act.

(e) This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule

powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of

Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.

(Source: P.A. 76-1939.)

(430 ILCS 65/13.2) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-13.2)

Sec. 13.2. The Department of State Police shall, 60 days

prior to the expiration of a Firearm Owner's Identification

Card, forward by first class mail to each person whose card is

to expire a notification of the expiration of the card and an

application which may be used to apply for renewal of the card.

It is the obligation of the holder of a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card to notify the Department of State Police of

any address change since the issuance of the Firearm Owner's

Identification Card. Whenever any person moves from the

residence address named on his or her card, the person shall

within 21 calendar days thereafter notify in a form and manner

prescribed by the Department of his or her old and new

residence addresses and the card number held by him or her. Any

person whose legal name has changed from the name on the card

that he or she has been previously issued must apply for a

corrected card within 30 calendar days after the change. The

cost for a corrected card shall be $5 which shall be deposited

into the State Police Firearm Services Fund Firearm Owner's

Notification Fund.

(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13.)

Section 155. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by

changing Sections 24-1.6 and 24-2 as follows:

(720 ILCS 5/24-1.6)

Sec. 24-1.6. Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon.

(a) A person commits the offense of aggravated unlawful use

of a weapon when he or she knowingly:

(1) Carries on or about his or her person or in any

vehicle or concealed on or about his or her person except

when on his or her land or in his or her abode, legal

dwelling, or fixed place of business, or on the land or in

the legal dwelling of another person as an invitee with

that person's permission, any pistol, revolver, stun gun or

taser or other firearm; or

(2) Carries or possesses on or about his or her person,

upon any public street, alley, or other public lands within

the corporate limits of a city, village or incorporated

town, except when an invitee thereon or therein, for the

purpose of the display of such weapon or the lawful

commerce in weapons, or except when on his or her own land

or in his or her own abode, legal dwelling, or fixed place

of business, or on the land or in the legal dwelling of

another person as an invitee with that person's permission,

any pistol, revolver, stun gun or taser or other firearm;

and

(3) One of the following factors is present:

(A) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or

handgun, possessed was uncased, loaded, and

immediately accessible at the time of the offense; or

(A-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed

was uncased, loaded, and immediately accessible at the

time of the offense and the person possessing the

pistol, revolver, or handgun has not been issued a

currently valid license under the Firearm Concealed

Carry Act; or

(B) the firearm, other than a pistol, revolver, or

handgun, possessed was uncased, unloaded, and the

ammunition for the weapon was immediately accessible

at the time of the offense; or

(B-5) the pistol, revolver, or handgun possessed

was uncased, unloaded, and the ammunition for the

weapon was immediately accessible at the time of the

offense and the person possessing the pistol,

revolver, or handgun has not been issued a currently

valid license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act; or

(C) the person possessing the firearm has not been

issued a currently valid Firearm Owner's

Identification Card; or

(D) the person possessing the weapon was

previously adjudicated a delinquent minor under the

Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for an act that if committed

by an adult would be a felony; or

(E) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in

a misdemeanor violation of the Cannabis Control Act, in

a misdemeanor violation of the Illinois Controlled

Substances Act, or in a misdemeanor violation of the

Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act;

or

(F) (blank); or

(G) the person possessing the weapon had a order of

protection issued against him or her within the

previous 2 years; or

(H) the person possessing the weapon was engaged in

the commission or attempted commission of a

misdemeanor involving the use or threat of violence

against the person or property of another; or

(I) the person possessing the weapon was under 21

years of age and in possession of a handgun as defined

in Section 24-3, unless the person under 21 is engaged

in lawful activities under the Wildlife Code or

described in subsection 24-2(b)(1), (b)(3), or

24-2(f).

(a-5) "Handgun" as used in this Section has the meaning

given to it in Section 5 of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.

(b) "Stun gun or taser" as used in this Section has the

same definition given to it in Section 24-1 of this Code.

(c) This Section does not apply to or affect the

transportation or possession of weapons that:

(i) are broken down in a non-functioning state; or

(ii) are not immediately accessible; or

(iii) are unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm

carrying box, shipping box, or other container by a

person who has been issued a currently valid Firearm

Owner's Identification Card.

(d) Sentence.

(1) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon is a Class 4

felony; a second or subsequent offense is a Class 2 felony

for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of

imprisonment of not less than 3 years and not more than 7

years.

(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and

(4) of this subsection (d), a first offense of aggravated

unlawful use of a weapon committed with a firearm by a

person 18 years of age or older where the factors listed in

both items (A) and (C) or both items (A-5) and (C) of

paragraph (3) of subsection (a) are present is a Class 4

felony, for which the person shall be sentenced to a term

of imprisonment of not less than one year and not more than

3 years.

(3) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon by a person who

has been previously convicted of a felony in this State or

another jurisdiction is a Class 2 felony for which the

person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not

less than 3 years and not more than 7 years.

(4) Aggravated unlawful use of a weapon while wearing

or in possession of body armor as defined in Section 33F-1

by a person who has not been issued a valid Firearms

Owner's Identification Card in accordance with Section 5 of

the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is a Class X

felony.

(e) The possession of each firearm in violation of this

Section constitutes a single and separate violation.

(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-742, eff. 8-25-09;

96-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1107, eff. 1-1-11.)

(720 ILCS 5/24-2)

Sec. 24-2. Exemptions.

(a) Subsections 24-1(a)(3), 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(10), and

24-1(a)(13) and Section 24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of

the following:

(1) Peace officers, and any person summoned by a peace

officer to assist in making arrests or preserving the

peace, while actually engaged in assisting such officer.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,

penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the

detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense,

while in the performance of their official duty, or while

commuting between their homes and places of employment.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of

the United States or the Illinois National Guard or the

Reserve Officers Training Corps, while in the performance

of their official duty.

(4) Special agents employed by a railroad or a public

utility to perform police functions, and guards of armored

car companies, while actually engaged in the performance of

the duties of their employment or commuting between their

homes and places of employment; and watchmen while actually

engaged in the performance of the duties of their

employment.

(5) Persons licensed as private security contractors,

private detectives, or private alarm contractors, or

employed by an agency certified by the Department of

Financial and Professional Regulation, if their duties

include the carrying of a weapon under the provisions of

the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security,

Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004, while

actually engaged in the performance of the duties of their

employment or commuting between their homes and places of

employment, provided that such commuting is accomplished

within one hour from departure from home or place of

employment, as the case may be. A person shall be

considered eligible for this exemption if he or she has

completed the required 20 hours of training for a private

security contractor, private detective, or private alarm

contractor, or employee of a licensed agency and 20 hours

of required firearm training, and has been issued a firearm

control card by the Department of Financial and

Professional Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of

firearm control cards issued under the provisions of this

Section shall be the same as for those cards issued under

the provisions of the Private Detective, Private Alarm,

Private Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of

2004. The firearm control card shall be carried by the

private security contractor, private detective, or private

alarm contractor, or employee of the licensed agency at all

times when he or she is in possession of a concealable

weapon.

(6) Any person regularly employed in a commercial or

industrial operation as a security guard for the protection

of persons employed and private property related to such

commercial or industrial operation, while actually engaged

in the performance of his or her duty or traveling between

sites or properties belonging to the employer, and who, as

a security guard, is a member of a security force of at

least 5 persons registered with the Department of Financial

and Professional Regulation; provided that such security

guard has successfully completed a course of study,

approved by and supervised by the Department of Financial

and Professional Regulation, consisting of not less than 40

hours of training that includes the theory of law

enforcement, liability for acts, and the handling of

weapons. A person shall be considered eligible for this

exemption if he or she has completed the required 20 hours

of training for a security officer and 20 hours of required

firearm training, and has been issued a firearm control

card by the Department of Financial and Professional

Regulation. Conditions for the renewal of firearm control

cards issued under the provisions of this Section shall be

the same as for those cards issued under the provisions of

the Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security,

Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. The firearm

control card shall be carried by the security guard at all

times when he or she is in possession of a concealable

weapon.

(7) Agents and investigators of the Illinois

Legislative Investigating Commission authorized by the

Commission to carry the weapons specified in subsections

24-1(a)(3) and 24-1(a)(4), while on duty in the course of

any investigation for the Commission.

(8) Persons employed by a financial institution for the

protection of other employees and property related to such

financial institution, while actually engaged in the

performance of their duties, commuting between their homes

and places of employment, or traveling between sites or

properties owned or operated by such financial

institution, provided that any person so employed has

successfully completed a course of study, approved by and

supervised by the Department of Financial and Professional

Regulation, consisting of not less than 40 hours of

training which includes theory of law enforcement,

liability for acts, and the handling of weapons. A person

shall be considered to be eligible for this exemption if he

or she has completed the required 20 hours of training for

a security officer and 20 hours of required firearm

training, and has been issued a firearm control card by the

Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

Conditions for renewal of firearm control cards issued

under the provisions of this Section shall be the same as

for those issued under the provisions of the Private

Detective, Private Alarm, Private Security, Fingerprint

Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004. Such firearm control

card shall be carried by the person so trained at all times

when such person is in possession of a concealable weapon.

For purposes of this subsection, "financial institution"

means a bank, savings and loan association, credit union or

company providing armored car services.

(9) Any person employed by an armored car company to

drive an armored car, while actually engaged in the

performance of his duties.

(10) Persons who have been classified as peace officers

pursuant to the Peace Officer Fire Investigation Act.

(11) Investigators of the Office of the State's

Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor authorized by the board of

governors of the Office of the State's Attorneys Appellate

Prosecutor to carry weapons pursuant to Section 7.06 of the

State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor's Act.

(12) Special investigators appointed by a State's

Attorney under Section 3-9005 of the Counties Code.

(12.5) Probation officers while in the performance of

their duties, or while commuting between their homes,

places of employment or specific locations that are part of

their assigned duties, with the consent of the chief judge

of the circuit for which they are employed.

(13) Court Security Officers while in the performance

of their official duties, or while commuting between their

homes and places of employment, with the consent of the

Sheriff.

(13.5) A person employed as an armed security guard at

a nuclear energy, storage, weapons or development site or

facility regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission

who has completed the background screening and training

mandated by the rules and regulations of the Nuclear

Regulatory Commission.

(14) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of weapons

to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through

(13.5) of this subsection to possess those weapons.

(a-5) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) do not apply

to or affect any person carrying a concealed pistol, revolver,

or handgun and the person has been issued a currently valid

license under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act at the time of

the commission of the offense.

(b) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section

24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any of the following:

(1) Members of any club or organization organized for

the purpose of practicing shooting at targets upon

established target ranges, whether public or private, and

patrons of such ranges, while such members or patrons are

using their firearms on those target ranges.

(2) Duly authorized military or civil organizations

while parading, with the special permission of the

Governor.

(3) Hunters, trappers or fishermen with a license or

permit while engaged in hunting, trapping or fishing.

(4) Transportation of weapons that are broken down in a

non-functioning state or are not immediately accessible.

(5) Carrying or possessing any pistol, revolver, stun

gun or taser or other firearm on the land or in the legal

dwelling of another person as an invitee with that person's

permission.

(c) Subsection 24-1(a)(7) does not apply to or affect any

of the following:

(1) Peace officers while in performance of their

official duties.

(2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons,

penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the

detention of persons accused or convicted of an offense.

(3) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of

the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in

the performance of their official duty.

(4) Manufacture, transportation, or sale of machine

guns to persons authorized under subdivisions (1) through

(3) of this subsection to possess machine guns, if the

machine guns are broken down in a non-functioning state or

are not immediately accessible.

(5) Persons licensed under federal law to manufacture

any weapon from which 8 or more shots or bullets can be

discharged by a single function of the firing device, or

ammunition for such weapons, and actually engaged in the

business of manufacturing such weapons or ammunition, but

only with respect to activities which are within the lawful

scope of such business, such as the manufacture,

transportation, or testing of such weapons or ammunition.

This exemption does not authorize the general private

possession of any weapon from which 8 or more shots or

bullets can be discharged by a single function of the

firing device, but only such possession and activities as

are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing

business described in this paragraph.

During transportation, such weapons shall be broken

down in a non-functioning state or not immediately

accessible.

(6) The manufacture, transport, testing, delivery,

transfer or sale, and all lawful commercial or experimental

activities necessary thereto, of rifles, shotguns, and

weapons made from rifles or shotguns, or ammunition for

such rifles, shotguns or weapons, where engaged in by a

person operating as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant

to a contract or subcontract for the development and supply

of such rifles, shotguns, weapons or ammunition to the

United States government or any branch of the Armed Forces

of the United States, when such activities are necessary

and incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

The exemption granted under this subdivision (c)(6)

shall also apply to any authorized agent of any such

contractor or subcontractor who is operating within the

scope of his employment, where such activities involving

such weapon, weapons or ammunition are necessary and

incident to fulfilling the terms of such contract.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken

down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately

accessible.

(7) A person possessing a rifle with a barrel or

barrels less than 16 inches in length if: (A) the person

has been issued a Curios and Relics license from the U.S.

Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives; or (B)

the person is an active member of a bona fide, nationally

recognized military re-enacting group and the modification

is required and necessary to accurately portray the weapon

for historical re-enactment purposes; the re-enactor is in

possession of a valid and current re-enacting group

membership credential; and the overall length of the weapon

as modified is not less than 26 inches.

During transportation, any such weapon shall be broken

down in a non-functioning state, or not immediately

accessible.

(d) Subsection 24-1(a)(1) does not apply to the purchase,

possession or carrying of a black-jack or slung-shot by a peace

officer.

(e) Subsection 24-1(a)(8) does not apply to any owner,

manager or authorized employee of any place specified in that

subsection nor to any law enforcement officer.

(f) Subsection 24-1(a)(4) and subsection 24-1(a)(10) and

Section 24-1.6 do not apply to members of any club or

organization organized for the purpose of practicing shooting

at targets upon established target ranges, whether public or

private, while using their firearms on those target ranges.

(g) Subsections 24-1(a)(11) and 24-3.1(a)(6) do not apply

to:

(1) Members of the Armed Services or Reserve Forces of

the United States or the Illinois National Guard, while in

the performance of their official duty.

(2) Bonafide collectors of antique or surplus military

ordinance.

(3) Laboratories having a department of forensic

ballistics, or specializing in the development of

ammunition or explosive ordinance.

(4) Commerce, preparation, assembly or possession of

explosive bullets by manufacturers of ammunition licensed

by the federal government, in connection with the supply of

those organizations and persons exempted by subdivision

(g)(1) of this Section, or like organizations and persons

outside this State, or the transportation of explosive

bullets to any organization or person exempted in this

Section by a common carrier or by a vehicle owned or leased

by an exempted manufacturer.

(g-5) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to or affect

persons licensed under federal law to manufacture any device or

attachment of any kind designed, used, or intended for use in

silencing the report of any firearm, firearms, or ammunition

for those firearms equipped with those devices, and actually

engaged in the business of manufacturing those devices,

firearms, or ammunition, but only with respect to activities

that are within the lawful scope of that business, such as the

manufacture, transportation, or testing of those devices,

firearms, or ammunition. This exemption does not authorize the

general private possession of any device or attachment of any

kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the

report of any firearm, but only such possession and activities

as are within the lawful scope of a licensed manufacturing

business described in this subsection (g-5). During

transportation, these devices shall be detached from any weapon

or not immediately accessible.

(g-6) Subsections 24-1(a)(4) and 24-1(a)(10) and Section

24-1.6 do not apply to or affect any parole agent or parole

supervisor who meets the qualifications and conditions

prescribed in Section 3-14-1.5 of the Unified Code of

Corrections.

(g-7) Subsection 24-1(a)(6) does not apply to a peace

officer while serving as a member of a tactical response team

or special operations team. A peace officer may not personally

own or apply for ownership of a device or attachment of any

kind designed, used, or intended for use in silencing the

report of any firearm. These devices shall be owned and

maintained by lawfully recognized units of government whose

duties include the investigation of criminal acts.

(g-10) Subsections 24-1(a)(4), 24-1(a)(8), and

24-1(a)(10), and Sections 24-1.6 and 24-3.1 do not apply to an

athlete's possession, transport on official Olympic and

Paralympic transit systems established for athletes, or use of

competition firearms sanctioned by the International Olympic

Committee, the International Paralympic Committee, the

International Shooting Sport Federation, or USA Shooting in

connection with such athlete's training for and participation

in shooting competitions at the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic

Games and sanctioned test events leading up to the 2016 Olympic

and Paralympic Games.

(h) An information or indictment based upon a violation of

any subsection of this Article need not negative any exemptions

contained in this Article. The defendant shall have the burden

of proving such an exemption.

(i) Nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or

affect the transportation, carrying, or possession, of any

pistol or revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm consigned

to a common carrier operating under license of the State of

Illinois or the federal government, where such transportation,

carrying, or possession is incident to the lawful

transportation in which such common carrier is engaged; and

nothing in this Article shall prohibit, apply to, or affect the

transportation, carrying, or possession of any pistol,

revolver, stun gun, taser, or other firearm, not the subject of

and regulated by subsection 24-1(a)(7) or subsection 24-2(c) of

this Article, which is unloaded and enclosed in a case, firearm

carrying box, shipping box, or other container, by the

possessor of a valid Firearm Owners Identification Card.

(Source: P.A. 96-7, eff. 4-3-09; 96-230, eff. 1-1-10; 96-742,

eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-465, eff. 8-22-11;

97-676, eff. 6-1-12; 97-936, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1010, eff. 1-1-13;

revised 8-23-12.)

Section 160. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is

amended by changing Section 112A-14 as follows:

(725 ILCS 5/112A-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 112A-14)

Sec. 112A-14. Order of protection; remedies.

(a) Issuance of order. If the court finds that petitioner

has been abused by a family or household member, as defined in

this Article, an order of protection prohibiting such abuse

shall issue; provided that petitioner must also satisfy the

requirements of one of the following Sections, as appropriate:

Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim

orders, or Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. Petitioner shall

not be denied an order of protection because petitioner or

respondent is a minor. The court, when determining whether or

not to issue an order of protection, shall not require physical

manifestations of abuse on the person of the victim.

Modification and extension of prior orders of protection shall

be in accordance with this Article.

(b) Remedies and standards. The remedies to be included in

an order of protection shall be determined in accordance with

this Section and one of the following Sections, as appropriate:

Section 112A-17 on emergency orders, Section 112A-18 on interim

orders, and Section 112A-19 on plenary orders. The remedies

listed in this subsection shall be in addition to other civil

or criminal remedies available to petitioner.

(1) Prohibition of abuse. Prohibit respondent's

harassment, interference with personal liberty,

intimidation of a dependent, physical abuse or willful

deprivation, as defined in this Article, if such abuse has

occurred or otherwise appears likely to occur if not

prohibited.

(2) Grant of exclusive possession of residence.

Prohibit respondent from entering or remaining in any

residence, household, or premises of the petitioner,

including one owned or leased by respondent, if petitioner

has a right to occupancy thereof. The grant of exclusive

possession of the residence, household, or premises shall

not affect title to real property, nor shall the court be

limited by the standard set forth in Section 701 of the

Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

(A) Right to occupancy. A party has a right to

occupancy of a residence or household if it is solely

or jointly owned or leased by that party, that party's

spouse, a person with a legal duty to support that

party or a minor child in that party's care, or by any

person or entity other than the opposing party that

authorizes that party's occupancy (e.g., a domestic

violence shelter). Standards set forth in subparagraph

(B) shall not preclude equitable relief.

(B) Presumption of hardships. If petitioner and

respondent each has the right to occupancy of a

residence or household, the court shall balance (i) the

hardships to respondent and any minor child or

dependent adult in respondent's care resulting from

entry of this remedy with (ii) the hardships to

petitioner and any minor child or dependent adult in

petitioner's care resulting from continued exposure to

the risk of abuse (should petitioner remain at the

residence or household) or from loss of possession of

the residence or household (should petitioner leave to

avoid the risk of abuse). When determining the balance

of hardships, the court shall also take into account

the accessibility of the residence or household.

Hardships need not be balanced if respondent does not

have a right to occupancy.

The balance of hardships is presumed to favor

possession by petitioner unless the presumption is

rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, showing

that the hardships to respondent substantially

outweigh the hardships to petitioner and any minor

child or dependent adult in petitioner's care. The

court, on the request of petitioner or on its own

motion, may order respondent to provide suitable,

accessible, alternate housing for petitioner instead

of excluding respondent from a mutual residence or

household.

(3) Stay away order and additional prohibitions. Order

respondent to stay away from petitioner or any other person

protected by the order of protection, or prohibit

respondent from entering or remaining present at

petitioner's school, place of employment, or other

specified places at times when petitioner is present, or

both, if reasonable, given the balance of hardships.

Hardships need not be balanced for the court to enter a

stay away order or prohibit entry if respondent has no

right to enter the premises.

If an order of protection grants petitioner exclusive

possession of the residence, or prohibits respondent from

entering the residence, or orders respondent to stay away

from petitioner or other protected persons, then the court

may allow respondent access to the residence to remove

items of clothing and personal adornment used exclusively

by respondent, medications, and other items as the court

directs. The right to access shall be exercised on only one

occasion as the court directs and in the presence of an

agreed-upon adult third party or law enforcement officer.

(4) Counseling. Require or recommend the respondent to

undergo counseling for a specified duration with a social

worker, psychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist,

family service agency, alcohol or substance abuse program,

mental health center guidance counselor, agency providing

services to elders, program designed for domestic violence

abusers or any other guidance service the court deems

appropriate. The court may order the respondent in any

intimate partner relationship to report to an Illinois

Department of Human Services protocol approved partner

abuse intervention program for an assessment and to follow

all recommended treatment.

(5) Physical care and possession of the minor child. In

order to protect the minor child from abuse, neglect, or

unwarranted separation from the person who has been the

minor child's primary caretaker, or to otherwise protect

the well-being of the minor child, the court may do either

or both of the following: (i) grant petitioner physical

care or possession of the minor child, or both, or (ii)

order respondent to return a minor child to, or not remove

a minor child from, the physical care of a parent or person

in loco parentis.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has

committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor

child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that

awarding physical care to respondent would not be in the

minor child's best interest.

(6) Temporary legal custody. Award temporary legal

custody to petitioner in accordance with this Section, the

Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, the

Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, and this State's Uniform

Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act.

If a court finds, after a hearing, that respondent has

committed abuse (as defined in Section 112A-3) of a minor

child, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that

awarding temporary legal custody to respondent would not be

in the child's best interest.

(7) Visitation. Determine the visitation rights, if

any, of respondent in any case in which the court awards

physical care or temporary legal custody of a minor child

to petitioner. The court shall restrict or deny

respondent's visitation with a minor child if the court

finds that respondent has done or is likely to do any of

the following: (i) abuse or endanger the minor child during

visitation; (ii) use the visitation as an opportunity to

abuse or harass petitioner or petitioner's family or

household members; (iii) improperly conceal or detain the

minor child; or (iv) otherwise act in a manner that is not

in the best interests of the minor child. The court shall

not be limited by the standards set forth in Section 607.1

of the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act.

If the court grants visitation, the order shall specify

dates and times for the visitation to take place or other

specific parameters or conditions that are appropriate. No

order for visitation shall refer merely to the term

"reasonable visitation".

Petitioner may deny respondent access to the minor

child if, when respondent arrives for visitation,

respondent is under the influence of drugs or alcohol and

constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being of

petitioner or petitioner's minor children or is behaving in

a violent or abusive manner.

If necessary to protect any member of petitioner's

family or household from future abuse, respondent shall be

prohibited from coming to petitioner's residence to meet

the minor child for visitation, and the parties shall

submit to the court their recommendations for reasonable

alternative arrangements for visitation. A person may be

approved to supervise visitation only after filing an

affidavit accepting that responsibility and acknowledging

accountability to the court.

(8) Removal or concealment of minor child. Prohibit

respondent from removing a minor child from the State or

concealing the child within the State.

(9) Order to appear. Order the respondent to appear in

court, alone or with a minor child, to prevent abuse,

neglect, removal or concealment of the child, to return the

child to the custody or care of the petitioner or to permit

any court-ordered interview or examination of the child or

the respondent.

(10) Possession of personal property. Grant petitioner

exclusive possession of personal property and, if

respondent has possession or control, direct respondent to

promptly make it available to petitioner, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the

property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly; sharing

it would risk abuse of petitioner by respondent or is

impracticable; and the balance of hardships favors

temporary possession by petitioner.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property

is that it is marital property, the court may award

petitioner temporary possession thereof under the

standards of subparagraph (ii) of this paragraph only if a

proper proceeding has been filed under the Illinois

Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as now or

hereafter amended.

No order under this provision shall affect title to

property.

(11) Protection of property. Forbid the respondent

from taking, transferring, encumbering, concealing,

damaging or otherwise disposing of any real or personal

property, except as explicitly authorized by the court, if:

(i) petitioner, but not respondent, owns the

property; or

(ii) the parties own the property jointly, and the

balance of hardships favors granting this remedy.

If petitioner's sole claim to ownership of the property

is that it is marital property, the court may grant

petitioner relief under subparagraph (ii) of this

paragraph only if a proper proceeding has been filed under

the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as

now or hereafter amended.

The court may further prohibit respondent from

improperly using the financial or other resources of an

aged member of the family or household for the profit or

advantage of respondent or of any other person.

(11.5) Protection of animals. Grant the petitioner the

exclusive care, custody, or control of any animal owned,

possessed, leased, kept, or held by either the petitioner

or the respondent or a minor child residing in the

residence or household of either the petitioner or the

respondent and order the respondent to stay away from the

animal and forbid the respondent from taking,

transferring, encumbering, concealing, harming, or

otherwise disposing of the animal.

(12) Order for payment of support. Order respondent to

pay temporary support for the petitioner or any child in

the petitioner's care or custody, when the respondent has a

legal obligation to support that person, in accordance with

the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act,

which shall govern, among other matters, the amount of

support, payment through the clerk and withholding of

income to secure payment. An order for child support may be

granted to a petitioner with lawful physical care or

custody of a child, or an order or agreement for physical

care or custody, prior to entry of an order for legal

custody. Such a support order shall expire upon entry of a

valid order granting legal custody to another, unless

otherwise provided in the custody order.

(13) Order for payment of losses. Order respondent to

pay petitioner for losses suffered as a direct result of

the abuse. Such losses shall include, but not be limited

to, medical expenses, lost earnings or other support,

repair or replacement of property damaged or taken,

reasonable attorney's fees, court costs and moving or other

travel expenses, including additional reasonable expenses

for temporary shelter and restaurant meals.

(i) Losses affecting family needs. If a party is

entitled to seek maintenance, child support or

property distribution from the other party under the

Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act, as

now or hereafter amended, the court may order

respondent to reimburse petitioner's actual losses, to

the extent that such reimbursement would be

"appropriate temporary relief", as authorized by

subsection (a)(3) of Section 501 of that Act.

(ii) Recovery of expenses. In the case of an

improper concealment or removal of a minor child, the

court may order respondent to pay the reasonable

expenses incurred or to be incurred in the search for

and recovery of the minor child, including but not

limited to legal fees, court costs, private

investigator fees, and travel costs.

(14) Prohibition of entry. Prohibit the respondent

from entering or remaining in the residence or household

while the respondent is under the influence of alcohol or

drugs and constitutes a threat to the safety and well-being

of the petitioner or the petitioner's children.

(14.5) Prohibition of firearm possession.

(A) A person who is subject to an existing order of

protection, interim order of protection, emergency

order of protection, or plenary order of protection,

issued under this Code may not lawfully possess weapons

under Section 8.2 of the Firearm Owners Identification

Card Act. (a) Prohibit a respondent against whom an

order of protection was issued from possessing any

firearms during the duration of the order if the order:

(1) was issued after a hearing of which such

person received actual notice, and at which such

person had an opportunity to participate;

(2) restrains such person from harassing,

stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of

such person or child of such intimate partner or

person, or engaging in other conduct that would

place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of

bodily injury to the partner or child; and

(3)(i) includes a finding that such person

represents a credible threat to the physical

safety of such intimate partner or child; or (ii)

by its terms explicitly prohibits the use,

attempted use, or threatened use of physical force

against such intimate partner or child that would

reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury.

(B) Any firearms in the possession of the

respondent, except as provided in subparagraph (C) of

this paragraph (14.5) subsection (b), shall be ordered

by the court to be turned over to a person with a valid

Firearm Owner's Identification Card the local law

enforcement agency for safekeeping. The court shall

issue an order that the respondent's Firearm Owner's

Identification Card be turned over to the local law

enforcement agency, which in turn shall immediately

mail the card to the Department of State Police Firearm

Owner's Identification Card Office for safekeeping.

The period of safekeeping shall be for the duration of

the order of protection. The firearm or firearms and

Firearm Owner's Identification Card, if unexpired,

shall at the respondent's request be returned to the

respondent at expiration of the order of protection.

(C) (b) If the respondent is a peace officer as

defined in Section 2-13 of the Criminal Code of 2012,

the court shall order that any firearms used by the

respondent in the performance of his or her duties as a

peace officer be surrendered to the chief law

enforcement executive of the agency in which the

respondent is employed, who shall retain the firearms

for safekeeping for the duration of the order of

protection.

(D) (c) Upon expiration of the period of

safekeeping, if the firearms or Firearm Owner's

Identification Card cannot be returned to respondent

because respondent cannot be located, fails to respond

to requests to retrieve the firearms, or is not

lawfully eligible to possess a firearm, upon petition

from the local law enforcement agency, the court may

order the local law enforcement agency to destroy the

firearms, use the firearms for training purposes, or

for any other application as deemed appropriate by the

local law enforcement agency; or that the firearms be

turned over to a third party who is lawfully eligible

to possess firearms, and who does not reside with

respondent.

(15) Prohibition of access to records. If an order of

protection prohibits respondent from having contact with

the minor child, or if petitioner's address is omitted

under subsection (b) of Section 112A-5, or if necessary to

prevent abuse or wrongful removal or concealment of a minor

child, the order shall deny respondent access to, and

prohibit respondent from inspecting, obtaining, or

attempting to inspect or obtain, school or any other

records of the minor child who is in the care of

petitioner.

(16) Order for payment of shelter services. Order

respondent to reimburse a shelter providing temporary

housing and counseling services to the petitioner for the

cost of the services, as certified by the shelter and

deemed reasonable by the court.

(17) Order for injunctive relief. Enter injunctive

relief necessary or appropriate to prevent further abuse of

a family or household member or to effectuate one of the

granted remedies, if supported by the balance of hardships.

If the harm to be prevented by the injunction is abuse or

any other harm that one of the remedies listed in

paragraphs (1) through (16) of this subsection is designed

to prevent, no further evidence is necessary to establish

that the harm is an irreparable injury.

(c) Relevant factors; findings.

(1) In determining whether to grant a specific remedy,

other than payment of support, the court shall consider

relevant factors, including but not limited to the

following:

(i) the nature, frequency, severity, pattern and

consequences of the respondent's past abuse of the

petitioner or any family or household member,

including the concealment of his or her location in

order to evade service of process or notice, and the

likelihood of danger of future abuse to petitioner or

any member of petitioner's or respondent's family or

household; and

(ii) the danger that any minor child will be abused

or neglected or improperly removed from the

jurisdiction, improperly concealed within the State or

improperly separated from the child's primary

caretaker.

(2) In comparing relative hardships resulting to the

parties from loss of possession of the family home, the

court shall consider relevant factors, including but not

limited to the following:

(i) availability, accessibility, cost, safety,

adequacy, location and other characteristics of

alternate housing for each party and any minor child or

dependent adult in the party's care;

(ii) the effect on the party's employment; and

(iii) the effect on the relationship of the party,

and any minor child or dependent adult in the party's

care, to family, school, church and community.

(3) Subject to the exceptions set forth in paragraph

(4) of this subsection, the court shall make its findings

in an official record or in writing, and shall at a minimum

set forth the following:

(i) That the court has considered the applicable

relevant factors described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of

this subsection.

(ii) Whether the conduct or actions of respondent,

unless prohibited, will likely cause irreparable harm

or continued abuse.

(iii) Whether it is necessary to grant the

requested relief in order to protect petitioner or

other alleged abused persons.

(4) For purposes of issuing an ex parte emergency order

of protection, the court, as an alternative to or as a

supplement to making the findings described in paragraphs

(c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(iii) of this subsection, may use

the following procedure:

When a verified petition for an emergency order of

protection in accordance with the requirements of Sections

112A-5 and 112A-17 is presented to the court, the court

shall examine petitioner on oath or affirmation. An

emergency order of protection shall be issued by the court

if it appears from the contents of the petition and the

examination of petitioner that the averments are

sufficient to indicate abuse by respondent and to support

the granting of relief under the issuance of the emergency

order of protection.

(5) Never married parties. No rights or

responsibilities for a minor child born outside of marriage

attach to a putative father until a father and child

relationship has been established under the Illinois

Parentage Act of 1984. Absent such an adjudication, no

putative father shall be granted temporary custody of the

minor child, visitation with the minor child, or physical

care and possession of the minor child, nor shall an order

of payment for support of the minor child be entered.

(d) Balance of hardships; findings. If the court finds that

the balance of hardships does not support the granting of a

remedy governed by paragraph (2), (3), (10), (11), or (16) of

subsection (b) of this Section, which may require such

balancing, the court's findings shall so indicate and shall

include a finding as to whether granting the remedy will result

in hardship to respondent that would substantially outweigh the

hardship to petitioner from denial of the remedy. The findings

shall be an official record or in writing.

(e) Denial of remedies. Denial of any remedy shall not be

based, in whole or in part, on evidence that:

(1) Respondent has cause for any use of force, unless

that cause satisfies the standards for justifiable use of

force provided by Article 7 of the Criminal Code of 2012;

(2) Respondent was voluntarily intoxicated;

(3) Petitioner acted in self-defense or defense of

another, provided that, if petitioner utilized force, such

force was justifiable under Article 7 of the Criminal Code

of 2012;

(4) Petitioner did not act in self-defense or defense

of another;

(5) Petitioner left the residence or household to avoid

further abuse by respondent;

(6) Petitioner did not leave the residence or household

to avoid further abuse by respondent;

(7) Conduct by any family or household member excused

the abuse by respondent, unless that same conduct would

have excused such abuse if the parties had not been family

or household members.

(Source: P.A. 96-701, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1239, eff. 1-1-11;

97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff.

1-25-13.)

Section 165. The Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing

Section 12 as follows:

(740 ILCS 110/12) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812)

Sec. 12. (a) If the United States Secret Service or the

Department of State Police requests information from a mental

health or developmental disability facility, as defined in

Section 1-107 and 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities Code, relating to a specific recipient and the

facility director determines that disclosure of such

information may be necessary to protect the life of, or to

prevent the infliction of great bodily harm to, a public

official, or a person under the protection of the United States

Secret Service, only the following information may be

disclosed: the recipient's name, address, and age and the date

of any admission to or discharge from a facility; and any

information which would indicate whether or not the recipient

has a history of violence or presents a danger of violence to

the person under protection. Any information so disclosed shall

be used for investigative purposes only and shall not be

publicly disseminated. Any person participating in good faith

in the disclosure of such information in accordance with this

provision shall have immunity from any liability, civil,

criminal or otherwise, if such information is disclosed relying

upon the representation of an officer of the United States

Secret Service or the Department of State Police that a person

is under the protection of the United States Secret Service or

is a public official.

For the purpose of this subsection (a), the term "public

official" means the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, Attorney

General, Secretary of State, State Comptroller, State

Treasurer, member of the General Assembly, member of the United

States Congress, Judge of the United States as defined in 28

U.S.C. 451, Justice of the United States as defined in 28

U.S.C. 451, United States Magistrate Judge as defined in 28

U.S.C. 639, Bankruptcy Judge appointed under 28 U.S.C. 152, or

Supreme, Appellate, Circuit, or Associate Judge of the State of

Illinois. The term shall also include the spouse, child or

children of a public official.

(b) The Department of Human Services (acting as successor

to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental

Disabilities) and all public or private hospitals and mental

health facilities are required, as hereafter described in this

subsection, to furnish the Department of State Police only such

information as may be required for the sole purpose of

determining whether an individual who may be or may have been a

patient is disqualified because of that status from receiving

or retaining a Firearm Owner's Identification Card or falls

within the federal prohibitors under subsection (e), (f), (g),

(r), (s), or (t) of Section 8 of the Firearm Owners

Identification Card Act, or falls within the federal

prohibitors in under subsection (e) or (f) of Section 8 of the

Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or 18 U.S.C. 922(g) and

(n). All physicians, clinical psychologists, or qualified

examiners at public or private hospitals and mental health

facilities or parts thereof as defined in this subsection

shall, in the form and manner required by the Department,

provide notice directly to the Department of Human Services, or

to his or her employer who shall then report to the Department,

within 24 hours after determining that a patient as described

in clause (2) of the definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of

the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act poses a clear and

present danger to himself, herself, or others, or is determined

to be developmentally disabled such information as shall be

necessary for the Department to comply with the reporting

requirements to the Department of State Police. This Such

information shall be furnished within 24 hours after the

physician, clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner has

made a determination, or within 7 days after admission to a

public or private hospital or mental health facility or the

provision of services to a patient described in clause (1) of

the definition of "patient" in Section 1.1 of the Firearm

Owners Identification Card Act clause (2) of this subsection

(b). Any such information disclosed under this subsection shall

remain privileged and confidential, and shall not be

redisclosed, except as required by subsection (e) clause (e)(2)

of Section 3.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act,

nor utilized for any other purpose. The method of requiring the

providing of such information shall guarantee that no

information is released beyond what is necessary for this

purpose. In addition, the information disclosed shall be

provided by the Department within the time period established

by Section 24-3 of the Criminal Code of 2012 regarding the

delivery of firearms. The method used shall be sufficient to

provide the necessary information within the prescribed time

period, which may include periodically providing lists to the

Department of Human Services or any public or private hospital

or mental health facility of Firearm Owner's Identification

Card applicants on which the Department or hospital shall

indicate the identities of those individuals who are to its

knowledge disqualified from having a Firearm Owner's

Identification Card for reasons described herein. The

Department may provide for a centralized source of information

for the State on this subject under its jurisdiction. The

identity of the person reporting under this subsection shall

not be disclosed to the subject of the report. For the purposes

of this subsection, the physician, clinical psychologist, or

qualified examiner making the determination and his or her

employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or

professionally liable for making or not making the notification

required under this subsection, except for willful or wanton

misconduct.

Any person, institution, or agency, under this Act,

participating in good faith in the reporting or disclosure of

records and communications otherwise in accordance with this

provision or with rules, regulations or guidelines issued by

the Department shall have immunity from any liability, civil,

criminal or otherwise, that might result by reason of the

action. For the purpose of any proceeding, civil or criminal,

arising out of a report or disclosure in accordance with this

provision, the good faith of any person, institution, or agency

so reporting or disclosing shall be presumed. The full extent

of the immunity provided in this subsection (b) shall apply to

any person, institution or agency that fails to make a report

or disclosure in the good faith belief that the report or

disclosure would violate federal regulations governing the

confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records

implementing 42 U.S.C. 290dd-3 and 290ee-3.

For purposes of this subsection (b) only, the following

terms shall have the meaning prescribed:

(1) (Blank). "Hospital" means only that type of

institution which is providing full-time residential

facilities and treatment.

(1.3) "Clear and present danger" has the meaning as

defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification

Card Act.

(1.5) "Developmentally disabled" has the meaning as

defined in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification

Card Act.

(2) "Patient" has the meaning as defined in Section 1.1

of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act shall include

only: (i) a person who is an in-patient or resident of any

public or private hospital or mental health facility or

(ii) a person who is an out-patient or provided services by

a public or private hospital or mental health facility

whose mental condition is of such a nature that it is

manifested by violent, suicidal, threatening, or

assaultive behavior or reported behavior, for which there

is a reasonable belief by a physician, clinical

psychologist, or qualified examiner that the condition

poses a clear and present or imminent danger to the

patient, any other person or the community meaning the

patient's condition poses a clear and present danger in

accordance with subsection (f) of Section 8 of the Firearm

Owners Identification Card Act. The terms physician,

clinical psychologist, and qualified examiner are defined

in Sections 1-120, 1-103, and 1-122 of the Mental Health

and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(3) "Mental health facility" has the meaning as defined

in Section 1.1 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card

Act is defined by Section 1-114 of the Mental Health and

Developmental Disabilities Code.

(c) Upon the request of a peace officer who takes a person

into custody and transports such person to a mental health or

developmental disability facility pursuant to Section 3-606 or

4-404 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code

or who transports a person from such facility, a facility

director shall furnish said peace officer the name, address,

age and name of the nearest relative of the person transported

to or from the mental health or developmental disability

facility. In no case shall the facility director disclose to

the peace officer any information relating to the diagnosis,

treatment or evaluation of the person's mental or physical

health.

For the purposes of this subsection (c), the terms "mental

health or developmental disability facility", "peace officer"

and "facility director" shall have the meanings ascribed to

them in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code.

(d) Upon the request of a peace officer or prosecuting

authority who is conducting a bona fide investigation of a

criminal offense, or attempting to apprehend a fugitive from

justice, a facility director may disclose whether a person is

present at the facility. Upon request of a peace officer or

prosecuting authority who has a valid forcible felony warrant

issued, a facility director shall disclose: (1) whether the

person who is the subject of the warrant is present at the

facility and (2) the date of that person's discharge or future

discharge from the facility. The requesting peace officer or

prosecuting authority must furnish a case number and the

purpose of the investigation or an outstanding arrest warrant

at the time of the request. Any person, institution, or agency

participating in good faith in disclosing such information in

accordance with this subsection (d) is immune from any

liability, civil, criminal or otherwise, that might result by

reason of the action.

(Source: P.A. 96-193, eff. 8-10-09; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)

Section 170. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by adding

Section 11a-24 as follows:

(755 ILCS 5/11a-24 new)

Sec. 11a-24. Notification; Department of State Police.

When a court adjudges a respondent to be a disabled person

under this Article, the court shall direct the circuit court

clerk to notify the Department of State Police, Firearm Owner's

Identification (FOID) Office, in a form and manner prescribed

by the Department of State Police, and shall forward a copy of

the court order to the Department no later than 7 days after

the entry of the order. Upon receipt of the order, the

Department of State Police shall provide notification to the

National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

Section 195. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes

changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text

that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section

represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does

not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes

made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other

Public Act.

Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon

becoming law.