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| | 99TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY
State of Illinois
2015 and 2016
HB0421 Introduced , by Rep. Sara Feigenholtz SYNOPSIS AS INTRODUCED:
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Amends the Nurse Practice Act. Eliminates the requirement for a written collaborative agreement for all advanced practice nurses. Eliminates the requirement for an anesthesia plan for certified registered nurse anesthetists. Removes references to a written collaborative agreement and anesthesia plan throughout the Act. Repeals certain Sections of the Act and a Section of the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 concerning written collaborative agreements. Amends various other Acts to make related changes. Effective immediately.
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| | A BILL FOR |
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1 | | AN ACT concerning regulation.
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2 | | Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
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3 | | represented in the General Assembly:
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4 | | Section 5. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended |
5 | | by changing Section 4 as follows:
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6 | | (15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)
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7 | | Sec. 4. Identification Card.
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8 | | (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a
standard Illinois |
9 | | Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident
of |
10 | | the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal |
11 | | thereof,
or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification |
12 | | Card upon release as a
committed person on parole, mandatory |
13 | | supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or
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14 | | pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of |
15 | | Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card
issued by |
16 | | the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice |
17 | | under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified
Code of |
18 | | Corrections,
together with the prescribed fees. No |
19 | | identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a |
20 | | valid
foreign state
identification card, license, or permit |
21 | | unless the person first surrenders to
the Secretary of
State |
22 | | the valid foreign state identification card, license, or |
23 | | permit. The card shall be prepared and
supplied by the |
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1 | | Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature |
2 | | or mark of the
applicant. However, the Secretary of State may |
3 | | provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification |
4 | | Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide |
5 | | religious objection to being photographed or to the display of |
6 | | his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be |
7 | | used for
identification purposes in any lawful situation only |
8 | | by the person to
whom it was issued.
As used in this Act, |
9 | | "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally
produced |
10 | | and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. |
11 | | As
used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as |
12 | | written by that
person and captured in a manner acceptable to |
13 | | the Secretary of State. |
14 | | (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a |
15 | | current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the |
16 | | Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to |
17 | | utilize the same residence address and name on the |
18 | | identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit |
19 | | records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may |
20 | | promulgate rules to implement this provision.
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21 | | (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in |
22 | | Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, |
23 | | the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work |
24 | | address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence |
25 | | or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to |
26 | | implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection |
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1 | | (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his |
2 | | or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty |
3 | | to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of |
4 | | any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to |
5 | | all violations or is limited to specific violations. |
6 | | (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
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7 | | Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person |
8 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, to any natural person |
9 | | who is a resident of the State
of Illinois, who is a person |
10 | | with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act,
who |
11 | | applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person |
12 | | with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any |
13 | | person who
holds a valid
foreign state identification card, |
14 | | license, or permit unless the person first
surrenders to the
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15 | | Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, |
16 | | license, or
permit. The Secretary of State
shall charge no fee |
17 | | to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and
supplied by |
18 | | the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and |
19 | | signature or mark of the
applicant, a designation indicating |
20 | | that the card is an Illinois
Person with a Disability |
21 | | Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible |
22 | | designation
of the type and classification of the applicant's |
23 | | disability as set out in
Section 4A of this Act. However, the |
24 | | Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of |
25 | | Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without |
26 | | photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious |
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1 | | objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her |
2 | | photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall
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3 | | include a description of the applicant's disability and any |
4 | | information
about the applicant's disability or medical |
5 | | history which the Secretary
determines would be helpful to the |
6 | | applicant in securing emergency medical
care. If a mark is used |
7 | | in lieu of a signature, such mark
shall be affixed to the card |
8 | | in the presence of two witnesses who attest to
the authenticity |
9 | | of the mark. The Illinois
Person with a Disability |
10 | | Identification Card may be used for identification purposes
in |
11 | | any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
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12 | | The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
13 | | may be used as adequate
documentation of disability in lieu of |
14 | | a physician's determination of
disability, a determination of |
15 | | disability from a physician assistant who has
been delegated |
16 | | the authority to make this determination by his or her
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17 | | supervising physician, a determination of disability from an |
18 | | advanced practice
nurse who has a written collaborative |
19 | | agreement with a collaborating physician
that
authorizes the |
20 | | advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any
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21 | | other documentation
of disability whenever
any
State law
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22 | | requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of |
23 | | disability,
however an Illinois Person with a Disability |
24 | | Identification Card shall not qualify
the cardholder to |
25 | | participate in any program or to receive any benefit
which is |
26 | | not available to all persons with like disabilities.
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1 | | Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person |
2 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, or evidence that the |
3 | | Secretary of State has issued an
Illinois Person with a |
4 | | Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any
person |
5 | | other than the person named on such card to prove that the |
6 | | person
named on such card is a disabled person or for any other |
7 | | purpose unless the
card is used for the benefit of the person |
8 | | named on such card, and the
person named on such card consents |
9 | | to such use at the time the card is so used.
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10 | | An optometrist's determination of a visual disability |
11 | | under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for |
12 | | the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability |
13 | | Identification Card. |
14 | | When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person |
15 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, the Office of the |
16 | | Secretary of State shall not be
liable for any actions taken |
17 | | based upon that medical information.
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18 | | (c) The Secretary of State shall provide
that each original |
19 | | or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
Person with |
20 | | a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the |
21 | | age of 21
shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois |
22 | | Identification Cards or
Illinois Person with a Disability |
23 | | Identification Cards issued to individuals 21
years of age or |
24 | | older. The color designated for Illinois Identification
Cards |
25 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for |
26 | | persons under
the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the |
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1 | | Secretary of State.
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2 | | (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois
Identification |
3 | | Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
4 | | issued to
a person under the age of 21 shall display the date |
5 | | upon which the person
becomes 18 years of age and the date upon |
6 | | which the person becomes 21 years of
age.
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7 | | (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify |
8 | | military veterans living in this State for the purpose of |
9 | | ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to |
10 | | which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, |
11 | | education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in |
12 | | identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services |
13 | | and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue |
14 | | Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a |
15 | | Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" |
16 | | appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is |
17 | | predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may |
18 | | not issue any other identification card which identifies an |
19 | | occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique |
20 | | characteristics of the identification card holder which is |
21 | | unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
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22 | | (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of |
23 | | State shall designate a space on each original or renewal |
24 | | identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the |
25 | | word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall |
26 | | be available to a person identified as a veteran under |
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1 | | subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or |
2 | | separated under honorable conditions. |
3 | | (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
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4 | | discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the |
5 | | State of
Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who |
6 | | applies for such a card or
renewal thereof. The Secretary of |
7 | | State shall charge no fee to issue such
card. The card shall be |
8 | | issued in every county and applications shall be
made available |
9 | | at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen
centers |
10 | | and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
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11 | | card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed |
12 | | thereon in
the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
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13 | | (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may |
14 | | designate on each Illinois
Identification Card or Illinois |
15 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the |
16 | | card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the |
17 | | Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may |
18 | | specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the |
19 | | card holder has renewed his or her Illinois
Identification Card |
20 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card. |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, |
22 | | eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, |
23 | | eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
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24 | | Section 10. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
25 | | Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:
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1 | | (20 ILCS 301/5-23) |
2 | | Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program. |
3 | | (a) Reports of drug overdose. |
4 | | (1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and |
5 | | Substance Abuse may publish annually a report on drug |
6 | | overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates |
7 | | from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or |
8 | | rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding |
9 | | period of not less than 5 years. The report shall also |
10 | | provide information on interventions that would be |
11 | | effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
12 | | overdose. |
13 | | (2) The report may include: |
14 | | (A) Trends in drug overdose death rates. |
15 | | (B) Trends in emergency room utilization related |
16 | | to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room |
17 | | utilization. |
18 | | (C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and |
19 | | emergency services and the cost impact of emergency |
20 | | services utilization. |
21 | | (D) Suggested improvements in data collection. |
22 | | (E) A description of other interventions effective |
23 | | in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
24 | | overdose. |
25 | | (b) Programs; drug overdose prevention. |
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1 | | (1) The Director may establish a program to provide for |
2 | | the production and publication, in electronic and other |
3 | | formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
4 | | response literature. The Director may develop and |
5 | | disseminate curricula for use by professionals, |
6 | | organizations, individuals, or committees interested in |
7 | | the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, |
8 | | including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison |
9 | | personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment |
10 | | professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital |
11 | | staff, families and associates of drug users, peace |
12 | | officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle |
13 | | exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to |
14 | | information regarding drug overdose prevention, |
15 | | recognition, and response, literature produced by the |
16 | | Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and |
17 | | highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal |
18 | | drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall |
19 | | provide information and resources for substance abuse |
20 | | treatment. |
21 | | The Director may establish or authorize programs for |
22 | | prescribing, dispensing, or distributing naloxone |
23 | | hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally |
24 | | safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration |
25 | | for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may |
26 | | include the prescribing of naloxone hydrochloride or any |
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1 | | other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by |
2 | | the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of |
3 | | drug overdose to and education about administration by |
4 | | individuals who are not personally at risk of opioid |
5 | | overdose. |
6 | | (2) The Director may provide advice to State and local |
7 | | officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including |
8 | | the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, trends in drug |
9 | | overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose |
10 | | crisis. |
11 | | (c) Grants. |
12 | | (1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with |
13 | | this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose |
14 | | prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local |
15 | | health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, |
16 | | universities, community-based organizations, and |
17 | | faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a |
18 | | grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner |
19 | | the Director prescribes. |
20 | | (2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the |
21 | | necessity for overdose prevention projects in various |
22 | | settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to |
23 | | develop interventions that will be effective and viable in |
24 | | their local areas. |
25 | | (3) The Director shall give preference for grants to |
26 | | proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving |
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1 | | interventions and responses, provide information to drug |
2 | | users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies |
3 | | for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give |
4 | | preference to proposals that include one or more of the |
5 | | following elements: |
6 | | (A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, |
7 | | including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a |
8 | | potentially fatal drug overdose. |
9 | | (B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
10 | | response education projects in drug treatment centers, |
11 | | outreach programs, and other organizations that work |
12 | | with, or have access to, drug users and their families |
13 | | and communities. |
14 | | (C) Drug overdose recognition and response |
15 | | training, including rescue breathing, in drug |
16 | | treatment centers and for other organizations that |
17 | | work with, or have access to, drug users and their |
18 | | families and communities. |
19 | | (D) The production and distribution of targeted or |
20 | | mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and |
21 | | response. |
22 | | (E) Prescription and distribution of naloxone |
23 | | hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and |
24 | | equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug |
25 | | Administration for the treatment of drug overdose. |
26 | | (F) The institution of education and training |
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1 | | projects on drug overdose response and treatment for |
2 | | emergency services and law enforcement personnel. |
3 | | (G) A system of parent, family, and survivor |
4 | | education and mutual support groups. |
5 | | (4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General |
6 | | Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private |
7 | | foundations, the federal government, and other sources to |
8 | | fund the grants under this Section and to fund an |
9 | | evaluation of the programs supported by the grants. |
10 | | (d) Health care professional prescription of drug overdose |
11 | | treatment medication. |
12 | | (1) A health care professional who, acting in good |
13 | | faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or |
14 | | dispenses an opioid antidote to a patient who, in the |
15 | | judgment of the health care professional, is capable of |
16 | | administering the drug in an emergency, shall not, as a |
17 | | result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to |
18 | | disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical |
19 | | Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act |
20 | | of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, |
21 | | or any other professional licensing statute. |
22 | | (2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to |
23 | | administer an opioid antidote may in an emergency |
24 | | administer without fee an opioid antidote if the person has |
25 | | received the patient information specified in paragraph |
26 | | (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that |
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1 | | another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person |
2 | | shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be |
3 | | liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of |
4 | | 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the |
5 | | Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other |
6 | | professional licensing statute, or subject to any criminal |
7 | | prosecution arising from or related to the unauthorized |
8 | | practice of medicine or the possession of an opioid |
9 | | antidote. |
10 | | (3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid |
11 | | antidote to a patient shall ensure that the patient |
12 | | receives the patient information specified in paragraph |
13 | | (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided |
14 | | by the health care professional or a community-based |
15 | | organization, substance abuse program, or other |
16 | | organization with which the health care professional |
17 | | establishes a written agreement that includes a |
18 | | description of how the organization will provide patient |
19 | | information, how employees or volunteers providing |
20 | | information will be trained, and standards for documenting |
21 | | the provision of patient information to patients. |
22 | | Provision of patient information shall be documented in the |
23 | | patient's medical record or through similar means as |
24 | | determined by agreement between the health care |
25 | | professional and the organization. The Director of the |
26 | | Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in |
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1 | | consultation with statewide organizations representing |
2 | | physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician |
3 | | assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested |
4 | | groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care |
5 | | professionals, community-based organizations, substance |
6 | | abuse programs, and other organizations training materials |
7 | | in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the |
8 | | provision of such patient information. |
9 | | (4) For the purposes of this subsection: |
10 | | "Opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any |
11 | | other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by |
12 | | the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of |
13 | | drug overdose. |
14 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
15 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician |
16 | | assistant who has been delegated the prescription or |
17 | | dispensation of an opioid antidote by his or her |
18 | | supervising physician, an advanced practice registered |
19 | | nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
20 | | collaborating physician that authorizes the prescription |
21 | | or dispensation of an opioid antidote , or an advanced |
22 | | practice nurse who practices in a hospital or ambulatory |
23 | | surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate |
24 | | clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice |
25 | | Act. |
26 | | "Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of |
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1 | | opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, |
2 | | may be in a position to assist another individual during an |
3 | | overdose and who has received patient information as |
4 | | required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the |
5 | | indications for and administration of an opioid antidote. |
6 | | "Patient information" includes information provided to |
7 | | the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; |
8 | | how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid |
9 | | antidote dosage and administration; the importance of |
10 | | calling 911; care for the overdose victim after |
11 | | administration of the overdose antidote; and other issues |
12 | | as necessary.
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13 | | (Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)
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14 | | Section 15. The School Code is amended by changing Sections |
15 | | 22-30, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:
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16 | | (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
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17 | | Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma |
18 | | medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of |
19 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.
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20 | | (a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following |
21 | | terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
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22 | | "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler. |
23 | | "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used |
24 | | for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of |
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1 | | epinephrine into the human body.
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2 | | "Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a |
3 | | physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
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4 | | (ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority |
5 | | to prescribe
asthma
medications by his or her supervising |
6 | | physician, or (iii) an advanced practice
nurse who has a |
7 | | written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
8 | | that delegates the
authority
to prescribe asthma medications,
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9 | | for a pupil that pertains to the pupil's
asthma and that has an |
10 | | individual prescription label.
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11 | | "School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school |
12 | | with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing. |
13 | | "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of |
14 | | his or
her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine |
15 | | auto-injector.
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16 | | "Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her |
17 | | prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector. |
18 | | "Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician |
19 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a |
20 | | physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to |
21 | | prescribe asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors by |
22 | | his or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice |
23 | | nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
24 | | physician that delegates authority to issue a standing protocol |
25 | | for asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors . |
26 | | "Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer |
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1 | | personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and |
2 | | 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under |
3 | | subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to |
4 | | anaphylaxis. |
5 | | "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an |
6 | | epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school |
7 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school. |
8 | | (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
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9 | | self-administration and self-carry of asthma
medication by a |
10 | | pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of |
11 | | an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
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12 | | (1) the parents or
guardians of the pupil provide to |
13 | | the school (i) written
authorization from the parents or |
14 | | guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry |
15 | | of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma |
16 | | medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and |
17 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the |
18 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written |
19 | | authorization from the pupil's physician, physician |
20 | | assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and
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21 | | (2) the
parents or guardians of the pupil provide to |
22 | | the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain |
23 | | the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, |
24 | | and the time at which or circumstances under which the |
25 | | asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the |
26 | | self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine |
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1 | | auto-injector, a
written
statement from the pupil's |
2 | | physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice
nurse |
3 | | containing
the following information:
|
4 | | (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine |
5 | | auto-injector;
|
6 | | (B) the prescribed dosage; and
|
7 | | (C) the time or times at which or the special |
8 | | circumstances
under which the epinephrine |
9 | | auto-injector is to be administered.
|
10 | | The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of |
11 | | the school
nurse or,
in the absence of a school nurse, the |
12 | | school's administrator.
|
13 | | (b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
14 | | may authorize the provision of a student-specific or |
15 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any |
16 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
17 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
18 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
19 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an |
20 | | epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the |
21 | | student's prescription on file. |
22 | | (b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic |
23 | | school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do |
24 | | the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine |
25 | | auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any |
26 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
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1 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
2 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
3 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the |
4 | | student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) |
5 | | administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that |
6 | | meets the prescription on file to any student who has an |
7 | | Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy |
8 | | Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan |
9 | | pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of |
10 | | 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; |
11 | | and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector |
12 | | to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in |
13 | | good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction. |
14 | | (c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
15 | | must inform the parents or
guardians of the
pupil, in writing, |
16 | | that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
17 | | and its
employees and
agents, including a physician, physician |
18 | | assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing |
19 | | protocol or prescription for school epinephrine |
20 | | auto-injectors,
are to incur no liability or professional |
21 | | discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
|
22 | | of any injury arising from the
administration of asthma |
23 | | medication or of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of |
24 | | whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or |
25 | | guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or |
26 | | advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians
of the pupil |
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1 | | must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, |
2 | | public school,
or nonpublic school and its employees and agents |
3 | | are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton
|
4 | | conduct, as a result of any injury arising
from the
|
5 | | administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine |
6 | | auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by |
7 | | the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
8 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the |
9 | | parents or
guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the |
10 | | school district, public school, or nonpublic
school and
its
|
11 | | employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based |
12 | | on willful and
wanton conduct, arising out of the
|
13 | | administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine |
14 | | auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by |
15 | | the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
16 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. |
17 | | (c-5) Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the |
18 | | 98th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained personnel |
19 | | administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a |
20 | | person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith |
21 | | believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, notwithstanding |
22 | | the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or |
23 | | the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement |
24 | | acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton |
25 | | conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic |
26 | | school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a |
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1 | | physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing |
2 | | standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine |
3 | | auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional |
4 | | discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result |
5 | | of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated |
6 | | epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization |
7 | | was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's |
8 | | physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.
|
9 | | (d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry |
10 | | of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry |
11 | | of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective
for the school |
12 | | year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
|
13 | | subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of |
14 | | this
Section.
|
15 | | (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
16 | | fulfilled, a
pupil with asthma may self-administer and |
17 | | self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may |
18 | | self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector |
19 | | (i) while in
school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, |
20 | | (iii) while under the
supervision of
school personnel, or (iv) |
21 | | before or after normal school activities, such
as while in |
22 | | before-school or after-school care on school-operated
|
23 | | property.
|
24 | | (e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
25 | | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer |
26 | | an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom |
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1 | | the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to |
2 | | be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) |
3 | | while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the |
4 | | supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal |
5 | | school activities, such
as while in before-school or |
6 | | after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse |
7 | | or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine |
8 | | auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a |
9 | | school-sponsored activity. |
10 | | (f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
11 | | may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine |
12 | | auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person |
13 | | is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and |
14 | | lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been |
15 | | delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or |
16 | | epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of |
17 | | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
18 | | practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority |
19 | | for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in |
20 | | accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may |
21 | | prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name |
22 | | of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to |
23 | | be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine |
24 | | auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the |
25 | | manufacturer's instructions. |
26 | | (f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine |
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1 | | auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic |
2 | | school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the |
3 | | student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known. |
4 | | (f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an |
5 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, |
6 | | public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, |
7 | | physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the |
8 | | standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated |
9 | | epinephrine auto-injector of its use. |
10 | | (g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated |
11 | | epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to |
12 | | his or her school's administration proof of completion of a |
13 | | training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis |
14 | | that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. |
15 | | Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must |
16 | | also submit to his or her school's administration proof of |
17 | | cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external |
18 | | defibrillator certification. The school district, public |
19 | | school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to |
20 | | the training curriculum and trained personnel. |
21 | | (h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to |
22 | | anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated |
23 | | epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in |
24 | | person. It must include, but is not limited to: |
25 | | (1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction; |
26 | | (2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and |
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1 | | its related facilities; |
2 | | (3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens; |
3 | | (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an |
4 | | allergic reaction; |
5 | | (5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; |
6 | | (6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as |
7 | | well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; |
8 | | (7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge |
9 | | required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an |
10 | | epinephrine auto-injector; and |
11 | | (8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted |
12 | | pursuant to this Section. |
13 | | In consultation with statewide professional organizations |
14 | | representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of |
15 | | its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the Board |
16 | | shall make available resource materials consistent with |
17 | | criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel |
18 | | to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The Board may take |
19 | | into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by |
20 | | other states, as well as any other curricular materials |
21 | | suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on |
22 | | life-threatening allergy issues. The Board is not required to |
23 | | create new resource materials. The Board shall make these |
24 | | resource materials available on its Internet website. |
25 | | (i) Within 3 days after the administration of an |
26 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, |
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1 | | trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored |
2 | | activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and |
3 | | manner prescribed by the Board the following information: |
4 | | (1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine |
5 | | (student, staff, visitor); |
6 | | (2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy; |
7 | | (3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode; |
8 | | (4) location where symptoms developed; |
9 | | (5) number of doses administered; |
10 | | (6) type of person administering epinephrine (school |
11 | | nurse, trained personnel, student); and |
12 | | (7) any other information required by the Board. |
13 | | (j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board |
14 | | shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the |
15 | | frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration |
16 | | during the preceding academic year. This report shall be |
17 | | published on the Board's Internet website on the date the |
18 | | report is delivered to the General Assembly. |
19 | | (k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this |
20 | | Section. |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)
|
22 | | (105 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)
|
23 | | Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth. |
24 | | (a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a |
25 | | school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor |
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1 | | that provides services to students or in schools, or any other |
2 | | individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or |
3 | | 34-18.5 of this Code. |
4 | | (b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence |
5 | | of physical
fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from |
6 | | communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical
|
7 | | examination
by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other |
8 | | state to practice medicine
and surgery in all its branches, an |
9 | | advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative |
10 | | agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the |
11 | | advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations , or a |
12 | | physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to |
13 | | perform health examinations by his or her supervising physician |
14 | | not more than 90 days preceding time of
presentation to the |
15 | | board, and the cost of such examination shall rest with the
|
16 | | employee. A new or existing employee may be subject to |
17 | | additional health examinations, including screening for |
18 | | tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the Department of |
19 | | Public Health or by order of a local public health official. |
20 | | The board may from time to time require an examination of any
|
21 | | employee by a physician licensed in Illinois to practice |
22 | | medicine and
surgery in all its branches, an advanced practice |
23 | | nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
24 | | collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice |
25 | | nurse to perform health examinations , or a physician assistant |
26 | | who has been delegated the authority to perform health |
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1 | | examinations by his or her supervising physician and shall pay |
2 | | the expenses thereof from school
funds. |
3 | | (c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to |
4 | | furnish from
time to time evidence of continued professional |
5 | | growth.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
7 | | (105 ILCS 5/24-6)
|
8 | | Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school |
9 | | districts, including special charter
districts, but not |
10 | | including school districts in municipalities of 500,000
or |
11 | | more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall |
12 | | grant
such of their other employees as are eligible to |
13 | | participate in the
Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the |
14 | | "600-Hour Standard"
established, or under such other |
15 | | eligibility participation standard as may
from time to time be |
16 | | established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter
|
17 | | promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of |
18 | | the Illinois
Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick |
19 | | leave
provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in |
20 | | each school year.
If any such teacher or employee does not use |
21 | | the full amount of annual leave
thus allowed, the unused amount |
22 | | shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum
available leave of |
23 | | 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current
year. |
24 | | Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, |
25 | | quarantine
at home, serious illness or death in the immediate |
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1 | | family or household, or
birth, adoption, or placement for |
2 | | adoption.
The school board may require a certificate from a |
3 | | physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery |
4 | | in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under |
5 | | the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice nurse |
6 | | who has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
7 | | physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to |
8 | | perform health examinations , a physician assistant who has been |
9 | | delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his |
10 | | or her supervising physician, or, if the treatment
is by prayer |
11 | | or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser or
practitioner of the |
12 | | teacher's or employee's faith as a basis for pay during leave |
13 | | after
an absence of 3 days for personal illness or 30 days for |
14 | | birth or as the school board may deem necessary in
other cases. |
15 | | If the school board does require a
certificate
as a basis for |
16 | | pay during leave of
less than 3 days for personal illness, the |
17 | | school board shall pay, from school funds, the
expenses |
18 | | incurred by the teachers or other employees in obtaining the |
19 | | certificate. For paid leave for adoption or placement for |
20 | | adoption, the school board may require that the teacher or |
21 | | other employee provide evidence that the formal adoption |
22 | | process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 days |
23 | | unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the exclusive |
24 | | bargaining representative.
|
25 | | If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school |
26 | | districts, or by
reason of the creation of a new school |
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1 | | district, the employment of a
teacher is transferred to a new |
2 | | or different board, the accumulated sick
leave of such teacher |
3 | | is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new
or |
4 | | different district.
|
5 | | For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall |
6 | | include parents,
spouse, brothers, sisters, children, |
7 | | grandparents, grandchildren,
parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, |
8 | | sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.
|
9 | | (Source: P.A. 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 96-51, eff. 7-23-09; |
10 | | 96-367, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
|
11 | | (105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)
|
12 | | Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has |
13 | | custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and |
14 | | 17
years (unless the child has already graduated from high |
15 | | school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or |
16 | | (ii) between the ages
of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 |
17 | | years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) |
18 | | beginning with the 2014-2015 school year
shall cause such child |
19 | | to attend some public school in the district
wherein the child |
20 | | resides the entire time it is in session during the
regular |
21 | | school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during |
22 | | a
required summer school program established under Section |
23 | | 10-22.33B; provided,
that
the following children shall not be |
24 | | required to attend the public schools:
|
25 | | 1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school |
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1 | | where children
are taught the branches of education taught |
2 | | to children of corresponding
age and grade in the public |
3 | | schools, and where the instruction of the child
in the |
4 | | branches of education is in the English language;
|
5 | | 2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to |
6 | | attend school, such
disability being certified to the |
7 | | county or district truant officer by a
competent physician |
8 | | licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in |
9 | | all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under |
10 | | the Medical Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice |
11 | | nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
12 | | collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced |
13 | | practice nurse to perform health examinations , a physician |
14 | | assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform |
15 | | health examinations by his or her supervising physician, or |
16 | | a Christian Science practitioner residing in this
State and |
17 | | listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is excused |
18 | | for
temporary absence for cause by
the principal or teacher |
19 | | of the school which the child attends; the exemptions
in |
20 | | this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female who is |
21 | | pregnant or the
mother of one or more children, except |
22 | | where a female is unable to attend
school due to a |
23 | | complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence
|
24 | | of such complication is certified to the county or district |
25 | | truant officer
by a competent physician;
|
26 | | 3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed |
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1 | | according to the
provisions of the law regulating child |
2 | | labor may be excused from attendance
at school by the |
3 | | county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of
|
4 | | the public school which the child should be attending, on |
5 | | certification of
the facts by and the recommendation of the |
6 | | school board of the public
school district in which the |
7 | | child resides. In districts having part time
continuation |
8 | | schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at
|
9 | | least 8 hours each week;
|
10 | | 4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in |
11 | | attendance at
confirmation classes;
|
12 | | 5. Any child absent from a public school on a |
13 | | particular day or days
or at a particular time of day for |
14 | | the reason that he is unable to attend
classes or to |
15 | | participate in any examination, study or work requirements |
16 | | on
a particular day or days or at a particular time of day, |
17 | | because the tenets
of his religion forbid secular activity |
18 | | on a particular day or days or at a
particular time of day. |
19 | | Each school board shall prescribe rules and
regulations |
20 | | relative to absences for religious holidays including, but |
21 | | not
limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it |
22 | | shall be mandatory to
excuse a child; but nothing in this |
23 | | paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit
the right of any |
24 | | school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on
|
25 | | any other day by reason of the observance of a religious |
26 | | holiday. A school
board may require the parent or guardian |
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1 | | of a child who is to be excused
from attending school due |
2 | | to the observance of a religious holiday to give
notice, |
3 | | not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school
|
4 | | principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from |
5 | | attending
school under this paragraph 5 shall not be |
6 | | required to submit a written
excuse for such absence after |
7 | | returning to school; and |
8 | | 6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits |
9 | | to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful |
10 | | employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) |
11 | | is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to |
12 | | Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning |
13 | | opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B |
14 | | of this Code.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14 .)
|
16 | | (105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1) |
17 | | Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations. |
18 | | (1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the |
19 | | Department of Public
Health shall promulgate, and except as |
20 | | hereinafter provided, all children in
Illinois shall have a |
21 | | health examination as follows: within one year prior to
|
22 | | entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, |
23 | | private, or parochial
elementary school; upon entering the |
24 | | sixth and ninth grades of any public,
private, or parochial |
25 | | school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or
|
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1 | | parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, |
2 | | immediately prior to or
upon entrance into any public, private, |
3 | | or parochial school or nursery school,
each child shall present |
4 | | proof of having been examined in accordance with this
Section |
5 | | and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child |
6 | | who received a health examination within one year prior to |
7 | | entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not |
8 | | required to receive an additional health examination in order |
9 | | to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or |
10 | | she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the |
11 | | child is attending school for the first time as provided in |
12 | | this paragraph. |
13 | | A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a |
14 | | required part of
each health examination included under this |
15 | | Section if the child resides in an
area designated by the |
16 | | Department of Public Health as having a high incidence
of |
17 | | tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, |
18 | | including eye examinations, may be required when deemed |
19 | | necessary by school
authorities. Parents are encouraged to have |
20 | | their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in |
21 | | time required for health
examinations. |
22 | | (1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of |
23 | | Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, |
24 | | all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of |
25 | | any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental |
26 | | examination. Each of these children shall present proof of |
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1 | | having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this |
2 | | Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of |
3 | | the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails |
4 | | to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's |
5 | | report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child |
6 | | presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the |
7 | | child presents proof that a dental examination will take place |
8 | | within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health |
9 | | shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an |
10 | | undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, |
11 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental |
12 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
13 | | students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.
|
14 | | (1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all |
15 | | children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or |
16 | | parochial school on or after the effective date of this |
17 | | amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student |
18 | | enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial |
19 | | school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
20 | | the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each |
21 | | of these children shall present proof of having been examined |
22 | | by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
23 | | branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in |
24 | | accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this |
25 | | Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child |
26 | | fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the |
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1 | | child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the |
2 | | child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the |
3 | | child presents proof that an eye examination will take place |
4 | | within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public |
5 | | Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show |
6 | | an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to |
7 | | practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye |
8 | | examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, |
9 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye |
10 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
11 | | students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public |
12 | | Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a |
13 | | school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's |
14 | | or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the |
15 | | child.
|
16 | | (2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules |
17 | | and regulations
specifying the examinations and procedures |
18 | | that constitute a health examination, which shall include the |
19 | | collection of data relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, |
20 | | date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date |
21 | | of exam),
and a dental examination and may recommend by rule |
22 | | that certain additional examinations be performed.
The rules |
23 | | and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall |
24 | | specify that
a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be |
25 | | included as a required part of each
health examination included |
26 | | under this Section if the child resides in an area
designated |
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1 | | by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence |
2 | | of
tuberculosis.
The Department of Public Health shall specify |
3 | | that a diabetes
screening as defined by rule shall be included |
4 | | as a required part of each
health examination.
Diabetes testing |
5 | | is not required. |
6 | | Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
7 | | branches, advanced
practice nurses who have a written |
8 | | collaborative agreement with
a collaborating physician which |
9 | | authorizes them to perform health
examinations , or physician |
10 | | assistants who have been delegated the
performance of health |
11 | | examinations by their supervising physician
shall be
|
12 | | responsible for the performance of the health examinations, |
13 | | other than dental
examinations, eye examinations, and vision |
14 | | and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms
required |
15 | | by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those |
16 | | portions of
the health examination for which the physician, |
17 | | advanced practice nurse, or
physician assistant is |
18 | | responsible.
If a registered
nurse performs any part of a |
19 | | health examination, then a physician licensed to
practice |
20 | | medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all |
21 | | required
report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all |
22 | | dental examinations and
shall sign all report forms required by |
23 | | subsection (4) of this Section that
pertain to the dental |
24 | | examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine
in all |
25 | | its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye |
26 | | examinations
required by this Section and shall sign all report |
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1 | | forms required by
subsection (4) of this Section that pertain |
2 | | to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye |
3 | | examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, |
4 | | subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, |
5 | | internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, |
6 | | as well as any other tests or observations that in the |
7 | | professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and
|
8 | | hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered |
9 | | examinations as that
term is used in this Section, shall be |
10 | | conducted in accordance with rules and
regulations of the |
11 | | Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the
|
12 | | Department of Public Health has certified.
In these rules and |
13 | | regulations, the Department of Public Health shall
require that |
14 | | individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's
|
15 | | parent or guardian written notification, before the vision |
16 | | screening is
conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a |
17 | | substitute for a
complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye |
18 | | doctor. Your child is not
required to undergo this vision |
19 | | screening if an optometrist or
ophthalmologist has completed |
20 | | and signed a report form indicating that
an examination has |
21 | | been administered within the previous 12 months." |
22 | | (3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or |
23 | | she receives
a health examination required by subsection (1) of |
24 | | this Section, present
to the local school proof of having |
25 | | received such immunizations against
preventable communicable |
26 | | diseases as the Department of Public Health shall
require by |
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1 | | rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and |
2 | | the
Communicable Disease Prevention Act. |
3 | | (4) The individuals conducting the health examination,
|
4 | | dental examination, or eye examination shall record the
fact of |
5 | | having conducted the examination, and such additional |
6 | | information as
required, including for a health examination
|
7 | | data relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, date of |
8 | | birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of |
9 | | exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health |
10 | | and the State
Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide |
11 | | use. The examiner shall
summarize on the report form any |
12 | | condition that he or she suspects indicates a
need for special |
13 | | services, including for a health examination factors relating |
14 | | to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of
|
15 | | required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form |
16 | | that the
immunizations were administered. |
17 | | (5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either |
18 | | the health
examination or the immunization as required, then |
19 | | the child shall be examined
or receive the immunization, as the |
20 | | case may be, and present proof by October
15 of the current |
21 | | school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year
|
22 | | established by a school district. To establish a date before |
23 | | October 15 of the
current school year for the health |
24 | | examination or immunization as required, a
school district must |
25 | | give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days
prior |
26 | | to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or |
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1 | | more of
the required immunizations must be given after October |
2 | | 15 of the current school
year, or after an earlier established |
3 | | date of the current school year, then
the child shall present, |
4 | | by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a
schedule |
5 | | for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of |
6 | | the
medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and |
7 | | the statement being
issued by the physician, advanced practice |
8 | | nurse, physician assistant,
registered nurse, or local health |
9 | | department that will
be responsible for administration of the |
10 | | remaining required immunizations. If
a child does not comply by |
11 | | October 15, or by the earlier established date of
the current |
12 | | school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the
|
13 | | local school authority shall exclude that child from school |
14 | | until such time as
the child presents proof of having had the |
15 | | health examination as required and
presents proof of having |
16 | | received those required immunizations which are
medically |
17 | | possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion |
18 | | from
school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's |
19 | | parents or legal
guardian shall be considered in violation of |
20 | | Section 26-1 and subject to any
penalty imposed by Section |
21 | | 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental |
22 | | examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an |
23 | | out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof |
24 | | required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the |
25 | | current year or whatever date is set by the school district, |
26 | | then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has |
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1 | | proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has |
2 | | been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the |
3 | | required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required |
4 | | under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after |
5 | | the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is |
6 | | not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the |
7 | | vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or |
8 | | employee of a school district shall be held liable for any |
9 | | injury or illness to another person that results from admitting |
10 | | an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an |
11 | | appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5). |
12 | | (6) Every school shall report to the State Board of |
13 | | Education by November
15, in the manner which that agency shall |
14 | | require, the number of children who
have received the necessary |
15 | | immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental |
16 | | examination or eye examination) as
required, indicating, of |
17 | | those who have not received the immunizations and
examination |
18 | | as required, the number of children who are exempt from health
|
19 | | examination and immunization requirements on religious or |
20 | | medical grounds as
provided in subsection (8). On or before |
21 | | December 1 of each year, every public school district and |
22 | | registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the |
23 | | immunization data they are required to submit to the State |
24 | | Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made |
25 | | publicly available must be identical to the data the school |
26 | | district or school has reported to the State Board of |
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1 | | Education. |
2 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
3 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
4 | | number of children who have received the required dental |
5 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
6 | | required dental examination, the number of children who are |
7 | | exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as |
8 | | provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of |
9 | | children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of |
10 | | this Section. |
11 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
12 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
13 | | number of children who have received the required eye |
14 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
15 | | required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt |
16 | | from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this |
17 | | Section, the number of children who have received a waiver |
18 | | under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number |
19 | | of children in noncompliance with the eye examination |
20 | | requirement. |
21 | | The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be |
22 | | provided to the
Department of Public Health by the State Board |
23 | | of Education. |
24 | | (7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are |
25 | | required to be in
compliance with subsection (5) of this |
26 | | Section is below 90% of the number of
pupils enrolled in the |
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1 | | school district, 10% of each State aid payment made
pursuant to |
2 | | Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be |
3 | | withheld
by the State Board of Education until the number of |
4 | | students in compliance with
subsection (5) is the applicable |
5 | | specified percentage or higher. |
6 | | (8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health,
|
7 | | dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, or to |
8 | | immunizations, on religious grounds
shall not be required to |
9 | | submit their children or wards to the examinations
or |
10 | | immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal |
11 | | guardians
present to the appropriate local school authority a |
12 | | signed statement of
objection, detailing the grounds for the |
13 | | objection. If the physical condition
of the child is such that |
14 | | any one or more of the immunizing agents should not
be |
15 | | administered, the examining physician, advanced practice |
16 | | nurse, or
physician assistant responsible for the performance |
17 | | of the
health examination shall endorse that fact upon the |
18 | | health examination form.
Exempting a child from the health,
|
19 | | dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from
|
20 | | participation in the program of physical education training |
21 | | provided in
Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code. |
22 | | (9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" |
23 | | means those nursery
schools operated by elementary school |
24 | | systems or secondary level school units
or institutions of |
25 | | higher learning. |
26 | | (Source: P.A. 97-216, eff. 1-1-12; 97-910, eff. 1-1-13; 98-673, |
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1 | | eff. 6-30-14.)
|
2 | | Section 20. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act is |
3 | | amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:
|
4 | | (210 ILCS 5/6.5)
|
5 | | Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses. |
6 | | All ambulatory surgical treatment centers (ASTC) licensed |
7 | | under this Act
shall
comply with the following requirements:
|
8 | | (1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall be |
9 | | inconsistent
with the provision of adequate collaboration and |
10 | | consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the Medical
|
11 | | Practice Act of 1987.
|
12 | | (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only |
13 | | by a physician
licensed to
practice medicine in
all its |
14 | | branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist
|
15 | | licensed under the
Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric |
16 | | physician licensed under the Podiatric
Medical Practice Act of |
17 | | 1987,
with medical staff membership and surgical clinical |
18 | | privileges granted by the
consulting
committee of the ASTC. A |
19 | | licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may
be |
20 | | assisted by
a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
21 | | its branches, dentist, dental
assistant, podiatric physician, |
22 | | licensed
advanced practice nurse, licensed physician |
23 | | assistant, licensed
registered nurse, licensed practical |
24 | | nurse,
surgical
assistant, surgical technician, or other |
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1 | | individuals granted clinical
privileges to assist in surgery
by |
2 | | the consulting committee of the ASTC.
Payment for services |
3 | | rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an
ambulatory |
4 | | surgical treatment center employee shall be paid
at the |
5 | | appropriate non-physician modifier
rate if the payor would have |
6 | | made payment had the same services been provided
by a |
7 | | physician.
|
8 | | (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice |
9 | | Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room |
10 | | nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as |
11 | | the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative |
12 | | procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating |
13 | | nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for |
14 | | coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the |
15 | | needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an |
16 | | invasive or operative procedure.
|
17 | | (3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess |
18 | | prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement |
19 | | meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide |
20 | | advanced practice nursing services in an ambulatory surgical |
21 | | treatment center. An advanced practice nurse must possess |
22 | | clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical staff |
23 | | committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to |
24 | | provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also |
25 | | be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer |
26 | | medications, including controlled substances, to provide |
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1 | | delineated care. The attending physician must determine the |
2 | | advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her |
3 | | patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting staff |
4 | | policies. The consulting medical staff committee shall |
5 | | periodically review the services of advanced practice nurses |
6 | | granted privileges.
|
7 | | (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of |
8 | | a physician
licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches |
9 | | who has had specialized preparation or experience
in the area
|
10 | | or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An |
11 | | anesthesiologist, Board
certified or
Board eligible, is |
12 | | recommended. Anesthesia services may
only be
administered |
13 | | pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice |
14 | | medicine
in all its
branches, licensed dentist, or licensed |
15 | | podiatric physician.
|
16 | | (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges |
17 | | granted by the medical
staff and ASTC, may
administer |
18 | | anesthesia services are limited to the
following:
|
19 | | (i) an anesthesiologist; or
|
20 | | (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in |
21 | | all its branches; or
|
22 | | (iii) a dentist with authority to administer |
23 | | anesthesia under Section
8.1 of the
Illinois Dental |
24 | | Practice Act; or
|
25 | | (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse |
26 | | anesthetist; or |
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1 | | (v) a podiatric physician licensed under the |
2 | | Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
3 | | (B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an |
4 | | anesthesiologist
shall
participate through discussion of |
5 | | and agreement with the anesthesia plan and
shall remain |
6 | | physically present and be
available on
the premises during |
7 | | the delivery of anesthesia services for
diagnosis, |
8 | | consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
|
9 | | conditions.
In the absence of 24-hour availability of |
10 | | anesthesiologists with clinical
privileges, an alternate |
11 | | policy (requiring
participation, presence,
and |
12 | | availability of a
physician licensed to practice medicine |
13 | | in all its
branches) shall be
developed by the medical |
14 | | staff consulting committee in consultation with the
|
15 | | anesthesia service and included in the medical
staff
|
16 | | consulting committee policies.
|
17 | | (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not |
18 | | required to possess
prescriptive authority or a written |
19 | | collaborative agreement meeting the
requirements of |
20 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act
to provide |
21 | | anesthesia services
ordered by a licensed physician, |
22 | | dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified
|
23 | | registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to
select, |
24 | | order, and
administer drugs and apply the appropriate |
25 | | medical devices in the provision of
anesthesia
services |
26 | | under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the
|
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1 | | anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available |
2 | | anesthesiologist with
clinical privileges,
agreed with by |
3 | | the
operating physician, operating dentist, or operating |
4 | | podiatric physician in accordance
with the medical
staff |
5 | | consulting committee policies of a licensed ambulatory |
6 | | surgical treatment
center .
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
8 | | Section 25. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank |
9 | | Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:
|
10 | | (210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)
|
11 | | Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical |
12 | | laboratory shall examine
specimens only at the request of (i) a |
13 | | licensed physician, (ii) a
licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed |
14 | | podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed
optometrist,
(v) a |
15 | | licensed
physician assistant in
accordance with the written |
16 | | supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the |
17 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or when authorized |
18 | | under Section 7.7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
|
19 | | 1987,
(v-A) an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the
|
20 | | written collaborative agreement required under Section 65-35 |
21 | | of the Nurse Practice Act or when authorized under Section |
22 | | 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act ,
(vi) an authorized law |
23 | | enforcement agency or, in the case of blood
alcohol, at the |
24 | | request of the individual for whom the test is to be performed
|
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1 | | in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois |
2 | | Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific |
3 | | authority from a referral to order a test or tests pursuant to |
4 | | subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing |
5 | | Act.
If the request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or |
6 | | other authorized
person shall submit a written request to the |
7 | | laboratory within 48 hours. If
the laboratory does not receive |
8 | | the written request within that period, it
shall note that fact |
9 | | in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request
made by |
10 | | electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-185, eff. 1-1-14; |
12 | | 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff. |
13 | | 1-1-15 .)
|
14 | | Section 30. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home |
15 | | Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section |
16 | | 2.05 as follows:
|
17 | | (210 ILCS 55/2.05) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05)
|
18 | | Sec. 2.05.
"Home health services" means services provided
|
19 | | to a person at his residence according to a plan of treatment
|
20 | | for illness or infirmity
prescribed by a physician licensed to |
21 | | practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant |
22 | | who has been delegated the authority to prescribe home health |
23 | | services by his or her supervising physician, or an advanced |
24 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
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1 | | collaborating physician that delegates the authority to |
2 | | prescribe home health services . Such services include part time |
3 | | and
intermittent nursing services and other therapeutic |
4 | | services
such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, |
5 | | speech therapy,
medical social services, or services provided |
6 | | by a home health aide.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-261, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
8 | | Section 35. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by |
9 | | changing Section 10.7 as follows:
|
10 | | (210 ILCS 85/10.7)
|
11 | | Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice nurses.
|
12 | | All hospitals licensed under this Act shall comply with the |
13 | | following
requirements:
|
14 | | (1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice
shall |
15 | | be inconsistent
with the provision of adequate collaboration |
16 | | and consultation in accordance with Section 54.5 of the
Medical |
17 | | Practice Act of 1987.
|
18 | | (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed only |
19 | | by a physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its |
20 | | branches under the Medical Practice
Act of 1987, a dentist |
21 | | licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or a podiatric |
22 | | physician
licensed under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of |
23 | | 1987,
with medical staff membership and surgical clinical |
24 | | privileges granted at the
hospital. A licensed physician, |
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1 | | dentist, or podiatric physician may be assisted by a
physician |
2 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, |
3 | | dental
assistant, podiatric physician, licensed advanced |
4 | | practice nurse, licensed physician
assistant, licensed |
5 | | registered
nurse, licensed practical nurse, surgical
|
6 | | assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals granted |
7 | | clinical
privileges to assist in surgery
at the hospital.
|
8 | | Payment for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is |
9 | | not a
hospital employee shall be paid
at the appropriate |
10 | | non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have
made |
11 | | payment had the same services been provided by a physician.
|
12 | | (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice |
13 | | Act and qualified by training and experience in operating room |
14 | | nursing shall be present in the operating room and function as |
15 | | the circulating nurse during all invasive or operative |
16 | | procedures. For purposes of this paragraph (2.5), "circulating |
17 | | nurse" means a registered nurse who is responsible for |
18 | | coordinating all nursing care, patient safety needs, and the |
19 | | needs of the surgical team in the operating room during an |
20 | | invasive or operative procedure.
|
21 | | (3) An advanced practice nurse is not required to possess |
22 | | prescriptive authority or a written collaborative agreement |
23 | | meeting the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act to provide |
24 | | advanced practice nursing services in a hospital. An advanced |
25 | | practice nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended by |
26 | | the medical staff and granted by the hospital in order to |
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1 | | provide services. Individual advanced practice nurses may also |
2 | | be granted clinical privileges to order, select, and administer |
3 | | medications, including controlled substances, to provide |
4 | | delineated care. The attending physician must determine the |
5 | | advance practice nurse's role in providing care for his or her |
6 | | patients, except as otherwise provided in medical staff bylaws. |
7 | | The medical staff shall periodically review the services of |
8 | | advanced practice nurses granted privileges. This review shall |
9 | | be conducted in accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of |
10 | | Section 10.8 of this Act for advanced practice nurses employed |
11 | | by the hospital.
|
12 | | (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction of |
13 | | a physician
licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches |
14 | | who has had specialized preparation or
experience in the area
|
15 | | or who has completed a residency in anesthesiology. An |
16 | | anesthesiologist, Board
certified or Board eligible, is |
17 | | recommended. Anesthesia services may
only be administered |
18 | | pursuant to the order of a physician licensed to practice
|
19 | | medicine in all its branches, licensed dentist, or licensed |
20 | | podiatric physician.
|
21 | | (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges |
22 | | granted at the hospital,
may administer anesthesia |
23 | | services are limited
to the following:
|
24 | | (i) an anesthesiologist; or
|
25 | | (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine in |
26 | | all its branches; or
|
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1 | | (iii) a dentist with authority to administer |
2 | | anesthesia under Section
8.1 of
the Illinois Dental |
3 | | Practice Act; or
|
4 | | (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse |
5 | | anesthetist; or |
6 | | (v) a podiatric physician licensed under the |
7 | | Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
8 | | (B) (Blank). For anesthesia services, an |
9 | | anesthesiologist
shall
participate through discussion of |
10 | | and agreement with the anesthesia plan and
shall remain |
11 | | physically present and be
available on
the premises during |
12 | | the delivery of anesthesia services for
diagnosis, |
13 | | consultation, and treatment of emergency medical |
14 | | conditions.
In the absence
of 24-hour availability of
|
15 | | anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges,
an |
16 | | alternate
policy (requiring participation, presence, and |
17 | | availability of a physician
licensed to practice
medicine |
18 | | in all its branches) shall be developed by the medical |
19 | | staff and
licensed
hospital in consultation with the |
20 | | anesthesia service.
|
21 | | (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is not |
22 | | required to possess
prescriptive authority or a written |
23 | | collaborative agreement meeting
the requirements of |
24 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act
to provide |
25 | | anesthesia services
ordered by a licensed physician, |
26 | | dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed certified
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1 | | registered nurse anesthetists are authorized to
select, |
2 | | order, and
administer drugs and apply the appropriate |
3 | | medical devices in the provision of
anesthesia
services |
4 | | under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the
|
5 | | anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an available |
6 | | anesthesiologist with
clinical privileges,
agreed with by |
7 | | the
operating physician, operating dentist, or operating |
8 | | podiatric physician in accordance
with the hospital's |
9 | | alternative policy .
|
10 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
11 | | Section 40. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by |
12 | | changing Sections 356g.5 and 356z.1 as follows:
|
13 | | (215 ILCS 5/356g.5) |
14 | | Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam. |
15 | | (a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast |
16 | | examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of |
17 | | breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and |
18 | | potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of |
19 | | clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to |
20 | | reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois. |
21 | | (b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or |
22 | | individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or |
23 | | health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are |
24 | | residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough |
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1 | | clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of |
2 | | practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice |
3 | | medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who |
4 | | has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
5 | | that authorizes breast
examinations , or a physician assistant |
6 | | who has been delegated authority to provide breast |
7 | | examinations, to check for lumps and other changes for the |
8 | | purpose of early detection and prevention of breast cancer as |
9 | | follows: |
10 | | (1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years |
11 | | of age but less than 40 years of age; and |
12 | | (2) annually for women 40 years of age or older. |
13 | | (c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and |
14 | | distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all |
15 | | State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and |
16 | | private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical |
17 | | breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07.)
|
19 | | (215 ILCS 5/356z.1)
|
20 | | Sec. 356z.1. Prenatal HIV testing. An individual or group |
21 | | policy of
accident and health insurance that provides maternity |
22 | | coverage and is amended,
delivered, issued, or renewed after |
23 | | the effective date of this amendatory Act
of the 92nd General |
24 | | Assembly must provide coverage for prenatal HIV testing
ordered |
25 | | by an attending physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
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1 | | its
branches, or by a physician assistant or advanced practice |
2 | | registered nurse
who has a written collaborative agreement with |
3 | | a collaborating physician that
authorizes these services , |
4 | | including but not limited to orders consistent with
the |
5 | | recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and |
6 | | Gynecologists
or the American Academy of Pediatrics.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01.)
|
8 | | Section 42. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by |
9 | | changing Section 8.1 as follows:
|
10 | | (225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)
|
11 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
|
12 | | Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and |
13 | | sedation.
|
14 | | (a) No licensed dentist shall administer general |
15 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or
conscious sedation without first |
16 | | applying for and obtaining a
permit for such purpose from the |
17 | | Department. The Department shall issue
such permit only after |
18 | | ascertaining that the applicant possesses the
minimum |
19 | | qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person |
20 | | with a
dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation,
|
21 | | or conscious sedation
in an
approved
hospital training program |
22 | | under the supervision of either a licensed
dentist holding such |
23 | | permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in
all its |
24 | | branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.
|
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1 | | (b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that |
2 | | are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by |
3 | | rule, shall: |
4 | | (1) establish the minimum educational and training |
5 | | requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an |
6 | | appropriate permit; |
7 | | (2) establish the standards for properly equipped |
8 | | dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and |
9 | | ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general |
10 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is |
11 | | administered, as necessary to protect public safety; |
12 | | (3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who |
13 | | assist the dentist in the administration of general |
14 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation, |
15 | | including minimum training requirements for each member of |
16 | | the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping |
17 | | requirements, and emergency procedures; and |
18 | | (4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting |
19 | | the dentist or monitoring the administration of general |
20 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain |
21 | | current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS) ; and . |
22 | | (5) establish continuing education requirements in |
23 | | sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under |
24 | | this Section. |
25 | | When establishing requirements under this Section, the |
26 | | Department shall consider the current American Dental |
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1 | | Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the |
2 | | current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric |
3 | | Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and |
4 | | Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of |
5 | | Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and |
6 | | the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation |
7 | | (OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral |
8 | | and Maxillofacial Surgeons. |
9 | | (c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit |
10 | | issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a |
11 | | nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation , and a valid |
12 | | written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist |
13 | | and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse
|
14 | | Practice Act . |
15 | | A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued |
16 | | under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse |
17 | | anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia , |
18 | | and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between |
19 | | the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the |
20 | | Nurse
Practice Act . |
21 | | For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse |
22 | | anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse |
23 | | anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice nurse.
|
24 | | (Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328, |
25 | | eff. 8-11-09.)
|
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1 | | Section 45. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by |
2 | | changing Sections 22 and 54.5 as follows:
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)
|
5 | | Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
|
6 | | (A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, |
7 | | reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other |
8 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may |
9 | | deem proper
with regard to the license or permit of any person |
10 | | issued
under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed |
11 | | $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:
|
12 | | (1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, |
13 | | locale,
facility, or
institution other than:
|
14 | | (a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory |
15 | | Surgical Treatment
Center Act;
|
16 | | (b) an institution licensed under the Hospital |
17 | | Licensing Act;
|
18 | | (c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or |
19 | | hospitalization or care
facility maintained by the |
20 | | State or any agency thereof, where such department
or |
21 | | agency has authority under law to establish and enforce |
22 | | standards for the
ambulatory surgical treatment |
23 | | centers, hospitalization, or care facilities
under its |
24 | | management and control;
|
25 | | (d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
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1 | | hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by the |
2 | | Federal Government; or
|
3 | | (e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
4 | | hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by any |
5 | | university or college established under the laws
of |
6 | | this State and supported principally by public funds |
7 | | raised by
taxation.
|
8 | | (2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful |
9 | | and wanton
manner on a
woman who was not pregnant at the |
10 | | time the abortion procedure was
performed.
|
11 | | (3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of |
12 | | guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, |
13 | | including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding |
14 | | sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first |
15 | | offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
16 | | the United States of any crime that is a felony.
|
17 | | (4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
|
18 | | (5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
19 | | unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
20 | | defraud or harm the public.
|
21 | | (6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
|
22 | | misrepresentation.
|
23 | | (7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined |
24 | | in law
as
controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any |
25 | | other substances which results in
the inability to practice |
26 | | with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
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1 | | (8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
2 | | law, an
assumed
name.
|
3 | | (9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
4 | | procuring, a
license
under this Act or in connection with |
5 | | applying for renewal of a license under
this Act.
|
6 | | (10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding |
7 | | their
skill or the
efficacy or value of the medicine, |
8 | | treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at
their direction |
9 | | in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the |
10 | | body
or mind.
|
11 | | (11) Allowing another person or organization to use |
12 | | their
license, procured
under this Act, to practice.
|
13 | | (12) Adverse action taken by another state or |
14 | | jurisdiction
against a license
or other authorization to |
15 | | practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy,
doctor |
16 | | of osteopathic medicine or
doctor of chiropractic, a |
17 | | certified copy of the record of the action taken by
the |
18 | | other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence |
19 | | thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State |
20 | | or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor |
21 | | of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of |
22 | | chiropractic from providing services to the agency's |
23 | | participants.
|
24 | | (13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the |
25 | | Medical
Practice Act
prior to the repeal of that Act, or |
26 | | violation of the rules, or a final
administrative action of |
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1 | | the Secretary, after consideration of the
recommendation |
2 | | of the Disciplinary Board.
|
3 | | (14) Violation of the prohibition against fee |
4 | | splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
|
5 | | (15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the
|
6 | | registrant after
having his or her license placed on |
7 | | probationary status or subjected to
conditions or |
8 | | restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed |
9 | | to
comply with such terms or conditions.
|
10 | | (16) Abandonment of a patient.
|
11 | | (17) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
12 | | distributing, giving
or
self-administering any drug |
13 | | classified as a controlled substance (designated
product) |
14 | | or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
|
15 | | purposes.
|
16 | | (18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
17 | | appliances or
goods provided
for a patient in such manner |
18 | | as to exploit the patient for financial gain of
the |
19 | | physician.
|
20 | | (19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat
|
21 | | disease by a secret
method, procedure, treatment or |
22 | | medicine, or the treating, operating or
prescribing for any |
23 | | human condition by a method, means or procedure which the
|
24 | | licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.
|
25 | | (20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act |
26 | | including,
but not limited to, commission of an act of |
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1 | | sexual misconduct related to the
licensee's
practice.
|
2 | | (21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports |
3 | | in his
or her
practice as a physician, including, but not |
4 | | limited to, false records to
support claims against the |
5 | | medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare |
6 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of
Public Aid)
|
7 | | under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
8 | | (22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully |
9 | | impeding
the filing or
recording, or inducing another |
10 | | person to omit to file or record, medical
reports as |
11 | | required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance |
12 | | of
suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
|
13 | | (23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
14 | | report by
the Department
of Children and Family Services |
15 | | under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting
Act, and |
16 | | upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
17 | | licensee has
caused a child to be an abused child or |
18 | | neglected child as defined in the
Abused and Neglected |
19 | | Child Reporting Act.
|
20 | | (24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
|
21 | | corporation, agents or
persons, or profiting from those |
22 | | representing themselves to be agents of the
licensee.
|
23 | | (25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for
|
24 | | professional services,
including filing false statements |
25 | | for collection of fees for which services are
not rendered, |
26 | | including, but not limited to, filing such false statements |
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1 | | for
collection of monies for services not rendered from the |
2 | | medical assistance
program of the Department of Healthcare |
3 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
|
4 | | under the Illinois Public Aid
Code.
|
5 | | (26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
|
6 | | demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetence to practice under |
7 | | this Act.
|
8 | | (27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
|
9 | | inability to
practice under this Act with reasonable |
10 | | judgment, skill or safety.
|
11 | | (28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
|
12 | | deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
13 | | skill which results in a physician's
inability to practice |
14 | | under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or
safety.
|
15 | | (29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
|
16 | | examinations
administered under this Act.
|
17 | | (30) Wilfully or negligently violating the |
18 | | confidentiality
between
physician and patient except as |
19 | | required by law.
|
20 | | (31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
21 | | statement
in any
document connected with practice under |
22 | | this Act.
|
23 | | (32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed |
24 | | under this
Act in the
practice of a profession licensed |
25 | | under this Act.
|
26 | | (33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
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1 | | relating
to controlled
substances, legend
drugs, or |
2 | | ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
|
3 | | (34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
4 | | final
action taken
against them by another licensing |
5 | | jurisdiction (any other state or any
territory of the |
6 | | United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer
|
7 | | review body, by any health care institution, by any |
8 | | professional society or
association related to practice |
9 | | under this Act, by any governmental agency, by
any law |
10 | | enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct |
11 | | similar to acts
or conduct which would constitute grounds |
12 | | for action as defined in this
Section.
|
13 | | (35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a
|
14 | | license or
authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a |
15 | | doctor of osteopathy, a
doctor of osteopathic medicine, or |
16 | | doctor
of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or |
17 | | surrender of membership on
any medical staff or in any |
18 | | medical or professional association or society,
while |
19 | | under disciplinary investigation by any of those |
20 | | authorities or bodies,
for acts or conduct similar to acts |
21 | | or conduct which would constitute grounds
for action as |
22 | | defined in this Section.
|
23 | | (36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
24 | | judgment,
settlement,
or award arising from a liability |
25 | | claim related to acts or conduct similar to
acts or conduct |
26 | | which would constitute grounds for action as defined in |
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1 | | this
Section.
|
2 | | (37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as |
3 | | required
by law.
|
4 | | (38) Failure to furnish the Department, its |
5 | | investigators or
representatives, relevant information, |
6 | | legally requested by the Department
after consultation |
7 | | with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
|
8 | | Coordinator.
|
9 | | (39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
|
10 | | Act.
|
11 | | (40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is |
12 | | required
under the
Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
|
13 | | (41) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
14 | | patient care and
treatment as required by this law.
|
15 | | (42) (Blank). Entering into an excessive number of |
16 | | written collaborative
agreements with licensed advanced |
17 | | practice nurses resulting in an inability to
adequately |
18 | | collaborate.
|
19 | | (43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
20 | | licensed advanced practice nurse. |
21 | | (44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical |
22 | | Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
|
23 | | (45) Entering into an excessive number of written |
24 | | collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing |
25 | | psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately |
26 | | collaborate. |
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1 | | (46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
2 | | licensed prescribing psychologist. |
3 | | Except
for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all |
4 | | proceedings to suspend,
revoke, place on probationary status, |
5 | | or take any
other disciplinary action as the Department may |
6 | | deem proper, with regard to a
license on any of the foregoing |
7 | | grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next
after receipt by |
8 | | the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
|
9 | | notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described |
10 | | herein. Except
for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and |
11 | | (29), no action shall be commenced more
than 10 years after the |
12 | | date of the incident or act alleged to have violated
this |
13 | | Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a |
14 | | pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents |
15 | | alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior |
16 | | that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act |
17 | | received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the |
18 | | complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause |
19 | | of action
in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final |
20 | | judgment of any civil action
in favor of the plaintiff, such |
21 | | claim, cause of action or civil action being
grounded on the |
22 | | allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent
|
23 | | in providing care, the Department shall have an additional |
24 | | period of 2 years
from the date of notification to the |
25 | | Department under Section 23 of this Act
of such settlement or |
26 | | final judgment in which to investigate and
commence formal |
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1 | | disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except
|
2 | | as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder |
3 | | of the license
was outside the State of Illinois shall not be |
4 | | included within any period of
time limiting the commencement of |
5 | | disciplinary action by the Department.
|
6 | | The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court |
7 | | establishing that any
person holding a license under this Act |
8 | | is a person in need of mental treatment
operates as a |
9 | | suspension of that license. That person may resume their
|
10 | | practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon |
11 | | a finding by
the Disciplinary Board that they have been |
12 | | determined to be recovered
from mental illness by the court and |
13 | | upon the Disciplinary Board's
recommendation that they be |
14 | | permitted to resume their practice.
|
15 | | The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary |
16 | | action concerning the license of any person
who fails to file a |
17 | | return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a
filed |
18 | | return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or |
19 | | interest, as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
20 | | Illinois Department of Revenue,
until such time as the |
21 | | requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as
determined by |
22 | | the Illinois Department of Revenue.
|
23 | | The Department, upon the recommendation of the |
24 | | Disciplinary Board, shall
adopt rules which set forth standards |
25 | | to be used in determining:
|
26 | | (a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently |
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1 | | rehabilitated to warrant the
public trust;
|
2 | | (b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or |
3 | | unprofessional conduct of
a character likely to deceive, |
4 | | defraud, or harm the public;
|
5 | | (c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission |
6 | | of any act,
including, but not limited to, commission of an |
7 | | act of sexual misconduct
related
to the licensee's |
8 | | practice; and
|
9 | | (d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice |
10 | | of medicine.
|
11 | | However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in |
12 | | any civil action
except for review of a licensing or other |
13 | | disciplinary action under this Act.
|
14 | | In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the |
15 | | Licensing Board,
upon a showing of a possible violation, may |
16 | | compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual |
17 | | who is licensed to
practice under this Act or holds a permit to |
18 | | practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing |
19 | | Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit
|
20 | | pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical |
21 | | examination and evaluation, or both,
which may include a |
22 | | substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by |
23 | | the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of |
24 | | the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall |
25 | | specifically designate the examining physician licensed to |
26 | | practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the |
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1 | | multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or |
2 | | physical examination and evaluation, or both. The |
3 | | multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to |
4 | | practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one |
5 | | or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
6 | | medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic |
7 | | physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical |
8 | | social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and |
9 | | other professional and administrative staff. Any examining |
10 | | physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require |
11 | | any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation |
12 | | pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional |
13 | | supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any |
14 | | examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited |
15 | | to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or |
16 | | neuropsychological testing.
The Disciplinary Board, the |
17 | | Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining
|
18 | | physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to |
19 | | provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the |
20 | | Licensing Board any and all records, including business |
21 | | records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, |
22 | | including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary |
23 | | Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the |
24 | | examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team |
25 | | to present testimony concerning this examination
and |
26 | | evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, |
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1 | | including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or |
2 | | documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No |
3 | | information, report, record, or other documents in any way |
4 | | related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by |
5 | | reason of
any common
law or statutory privilege relating to |
6 | | communication between the licensee, permit holder, or
|
7 | | applicant and
the examining physician or any member of the |
8 | | multidisciplinary team.
No authorization is necessary from the |
9 | | licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an |
10 | | evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any |
11 | | member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, |
12 | | reports, records, or other documents or to provide any |
13 | | testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The |
14 | | individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, |
15 | | another
physician of his or her choice present during all |
16 | | aspects of the examination.
Failure of any individual to submit |
17 | | to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when
|
18 | | directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without |
19 | | hearing, until such time
as the individual submits to the |
20 | | examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds |
21 | | a physician unable
to practice following an examination and |
22 | | evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, |
23 | | the Disciplinary
Board or Licensing Board shall require such |
24 | | physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment
by |
25 | | physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or |
26 | | designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition
for |
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1 | | issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to |
2 | | practice. Any physician,
whose license was granted pursuant to |
3 | | Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or,
continued, reinstated, |
4 | | renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such
terms, |
5 | | conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such |
6 | | terms,
conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required |
7 | | program of care,
counseling, or treatment, as determined by the |
8 | | Chief Medical Coordinator or
Deputy Medical Coordinators, |
9 | | shall be referred to the Secretary for a
determination as to |
10 | | whether the licensee shall have their license suspended
|
11 | | immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In |
12 | | instances in
which the Secretary immediately suspends a license |
13 | | under this Section, a hearing
upon such person's license must |
14 | | be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15
days after such |
15 | | suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
|
16 | | Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the |
17 | | subject physician's
record of treatment and counseling |
18 | | regarding the impairment, to the extent
permitted by applicable |
19 | | federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
|
20 | | confidentiality of medical records.
|
21 | | An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this |
22 | | Section, shall be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
23 | | Disciplinary Board that they can
resume practice in compliance |
24 | | with acceptable and prevailing standards under
the provisions |
25 | | of their license.
|
26 | | The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of |
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1 | | fines in
disciplinary cases, not to exceed
$10,000 for each |
2 | | violation of this Act. Fines
may be imposed in conjunction with |
3 | | other forms of disciplinary action, but
shall not be the |
4 | | exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out
of |
5 | | conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds |
6 | | collected from
such fines shall be deposited in the Medical |
7 | | Disciplinary Fund.
|
8 | | All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
9 | | 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
10 | | or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
11 | | the fine. |
12 | | (B) The Department shall revoke the license or
permit |
13 | | issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic |
14 | | physician who
has been convicted a second time of committing |
15 | | any felony under the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the |
16 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who |
17 | | has been convicted a second time of
committing a Class 1 felony |
18 | | under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public
Aid Code. A |
19 | | person whose license or permit is revoked
under
this subsection |
20 | | B shall be prohibited from practicing
medicine or treating |
21 | | human ailments without the use of drugs and without
operative |
22 | | surgery.
|
23 | | (C) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
|
24 | | Department civil
penalties and any other appropriate |
25 | | discipline in disciplinary cases when the
Board finds that a |
26 | | physician willfully performed an abortion with actual
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1 | | knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been |
2 | | performed is a minor
or an incompetent person without notice as |
3 | | required under the Parental Notice
of Abortion Act of 1995. |
4 | | Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall
impose, |
5 | | for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a |
6 | | second or
subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-601, eff. 12-30-13; |
8 | | 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14.)
|
9 | | (225 ILCS 60/54.5)
|
10 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)
|
11 | | Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician |
12 | | assistants, advanced practice nurses, and prescribing |
13 | | psychologists.
|
14 | | (a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
15 | | branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
|
16 | | physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
|
17 | | requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
1987. A |
18 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches may |
19 | | enter into supervising physician agreements with
no more than 5 |
20 | | physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section |
21 | | 7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
|
22 | | (b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
23 | | branches in active clinical practice may collaborate and |
24 | | consult with an advanced practice
nurse in accordance with the |
25 | | requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration
is for |
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1 | | the purpose of providing medical consultation,
and no |
2 | | employment relationship is required. A
written collaborative |
3 | | agreement shall
conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of |
4 | | the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement |
5 | | shall
be for
services the collaborating physician generally |
6 | | provides or may provide in
his or her clinical medical |
7 | | practice.
A written collaborative agreement shall be adequate |
8 | | with respect to collaboration
with advanced practice nurses if |
9 | | all of the following apply:
|
10 | | (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of |
11 | | professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse |
12 | | commensurate with his or her education and experience. The |
13 | | agreement need not describe the exact steps that an |
14 | | advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each |
15 | | specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify |
16 | | those procedures that require a physician's presence as the |
17 | | procedures are being performed.
|
18 | | (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and |
19 | | approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and |
20 | | collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice |
21 | | of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the |
22 | | patient services provided thereunder are periodically |
23 | | reviewed by the collaborating physician.
|
24 | | (3) The advance practice nurse provides services the |
25 | | collaborating physician generally provides or may provide |
26 | | in his or her clinical medical practice, except as set |
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1 | | forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to |
2 | | labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must |
3 | | provide delivery services in order to participate with a |
4 | | certified nurse midwife. |
5 | | (4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice |
6 | | nurse consult at least once a month to provide |
7 | | collaboration and consultation. |
8 | | (5) Methods of communication are available with the |
9 | | collaborating physician in person or through |
10 | | telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and |
11 | | referral as needed to address patient care needs. |
12 | | (6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice |
13 | | for termination or change of status involving a written |
14 | | collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given |
15 | | for just cause.
|
16 | | (b-5) (Blank). An anesthesiologist or physician licensed |
17 | | to practice medicine in
all its branches may collaborate with a |
18 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist
in accordance with |
19 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of |
20 | | anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of |
21 | | anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or |
22 | | physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of |
23 | | anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. |
24 | | Collaboration shall be
adequate if:
|
25 | | (1) an anesthesiologist or a physician
participates in |
26 | | the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
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1 | | guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the |
2 | | services provided
patients under such orders; and
|
3 | | (2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist
or |
4 | | physician participates through discussion of and agreement |
5 | | with the
anesthesia plan and is physically present and |
6 | | available on the premises during
the delivery of anesthesia |
7 | | services for
diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of |
8 | | emergency medical conditions.
Anesthesia services in a |
9 | | hospital shall be conducted in accordance with
Section 10.7 |
10 | | of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
|
11 | | treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the |
12 | | Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act.
|
13 | | (b-10) (Blank). The anesthesiologist or operating |
14 | | physician must agree with the
anesthesia plan prior to the |
15 | | delivery of services.
|
16 | | (c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
|
17 | | medical records of all patients attended by a physician
|
18 | | assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to
the |
19 | | medical records of all patients attended to by an
advanced |
20 | | practice nurse.
|
21 | | (d) (Blank).
|
22 | | (e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
|
23 | | omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, |
24 | | or advanced practice
nurse solely on the basis of having signed |
25 | | a
supervision agreement or guidelines for a physician assistant |
26 | | or providing consultation and collaboration with an advanced |
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1 | | practice nurse, issuing or a collaborative
agreement, an order, |
2 | | a standing medical order, a
standing delegation order, or other |
3 | | order or guideline
authorizing a prescribing psychologist, |
4 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice
nurse to perform |
5 | | acts, unless the physician has
reason to believe the |
6 | | prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced
|
7 | | practice nurse lacked the competency to perform
the act or acts |
8 | | or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
|
9 | | (f) (Blank). A collaborating physician may, but is not |
10 | | required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced |
11 | | practice nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, |
12 | | and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to |
13 | | the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
14 | | (g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
15 | | delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
16 | | part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
17 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
18 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
19 | | (h) For the purposes of this Section, "generally provides |
20 | | or may provide in his or her clinical medical practice" means |
21 | | categories of care or treatment, not specific tasks or duties, |
22 | | that the physician provides individually or through delegation |
23 | | to other persons so that the physician has the experience and |
24 | | ability to provide collaboration and consultation. This |
25 | | definition shall not be construed to prohibit an advanced |
26 | | practice nurse from providing primary health treatment or care |
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1 | | within the scope of his or her training and experience, |
2 | | including, but not limited to, health screenings, patient |
3 | | histories, physical examinations, women's health examinations, |
4 | | or school physicals that may be provided as part of the routine |
5 | | practice of an advanced practice nurse or on a volunteer basis. |
6 | | (i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive |
7 | | authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written |
8 | | collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive |
9 | | authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of |
10 | | the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. |
11 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1071, eff. 8-24-12; |
12 | | 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14 .)
|
13 | | Section 50. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing |
14 | | Sections 50-10, 65-30, 65-45, and 70-5 as follows:
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-10)
(was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)
|
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
17 | | Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when |
18 | | used
in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this |
19 | | Section, except
where the context clearly indicates otherwise:
|
20 | | "Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of |
21 | | courses at a
college, university, or approved school, |
22 | | customarily regarded as the school
year as distinguished from |
23 | | the calendar year.
|
24 | | "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has |
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1 | | met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM); |
2 | | (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified |
3 | | registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse |
4 | | specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All |
5 | | advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State |
6 | | of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty |
7 | | credentials after their name.
|
8 | | "Approved program of professional nursing education" and |
9 | | "approved
program of practical nursing education" are programs |
10 | | of professional or
practical nursing, respectively, approved |
11 | | by the Department under the
provisions of this Act.
|
12 | | "Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the |
13 | | Secretary. |
14 | | "Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health |
15 | | care professionals working together, each contributing one's |
16 | | respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive |
17 | | patient care. |
18 | | "Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced |
19 | | practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health |
20 | | care professional. |
21 | | "Credentialed" means the process of assessing and |
22 | | validating the qualifications of a health care professional. |
23 | | "Current nursing practice update course" means a planned |
24 | | nursing education curriculum approved by the Department |
25 | | consisting of activities that have educational objectives, |
26 | | instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical |
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1 | | practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and |
2 | | updating content and specifically planned for those nurses |
3 | | previously licensed in the United States or its territories and |
4 | | preparing for reentry into nursing practice. |
5 | | "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry |
6 | | under the Illinois Dental Practice Act. |
7 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
8 | | Professional Regulation. |
9 | | "Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who |
10 | | is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because |
11 | | of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written |
12 | | determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, |
13 | | including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a |
14 | | psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or |
15 | | her ability to deliver competent patient care. |
16 | | "License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a |
17 | | registered professional nurse who has completed all |
18 | | requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except |
19 | | the certification examination and has applied to take the next |
20 | | available certification exam and received a temporary license |
21 | | from the Department. |
22 | | "License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has |
23 | | passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam |
24 | | and has applied for a license from the Department. A |
25 | | license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic |
26 | | pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice. |
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1 | | "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in |
2 | | all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. |
3 | | "Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice |
4 | | podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
5 | | "Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a |
6 | | person who is
licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and |
7 | | practices practical
nursing as defined in this Act. Only a |
8 | | practical nurse
licensed under this Act is entitled to use the |
9 | | title "licensed practical
nurse" and the abbreviation |
10 | | "L.P.N.".
|
11 | | "Practical nursing" means the performance of
nursing acts |
12 | | requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment judgement , and |
13 | | skill
acquired by means of completion of an approved practical |
14 | | nursing education
program. Practical nursing includes |
15 | | assisting in the nursing process as
delegated by a registered |
16 | | professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The
practical |
17 | | nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician, |
18 | | dentist, podiatric physician, or other health care |
19 | | professional determined by the Department.
|
20 | | "Privileged" means the authorization granted by the |
21 | | governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or |
22 | | organization to provide specific patient care services within |
23 | | well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the |
24 | | credentialing process.
|
25 | | "Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" |
26 | | means a person
who is licensed as a professional nurse under |
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1 | | this Act and practices
nursing as defined in
this Act. Only a |
2 | | registered
nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
|
3 | | titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" |
4 | | and the
abbreviation, "R.N.".
|
5 | | "Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific |
6 | | process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a |
7 | | learned profession based on the understanding of the human |
8 | | condition across the life span and environment and
includes all
|
9 | | nursing
specialties and means the performance of any nursing |
10 | | act based upon
professional knowledge, judgment, and skills |
11 | | acquired by means of completion
of an approved professional |
12 | | nursing education program. A registered
professional nurse |
13 | | provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process
to |
14 | | individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes |
15 | | but is not
limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, |
16 | | nursing diagnosis,
planning, implementation, and nursing |
17 | | evaluation; (2) the promotion,
maintenance, and restoration of |
18 | | health; (3) counseling, patient education,
health education, |
19 | | and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications
and |
20 | | treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice |
21 | | medicine in
all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed |
22 | | podiatric physician, or a licensed
optometrist or as prescribed |
23 | | by a physician assistant in accordance with
written guidelines |
24 | | required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987
or |
25 | | by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of |
26 | | this Act; (5) the
coordination and management of the nursing |
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1 | | plan of care; (6) the delegation to
and supervision of |
2 | | individuals who assist the registered professional nurse
|
3 | | implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing
|
4 | | students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include
those |
5 | | acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or
|
6 | | corrective measures.
|
7 | | "Professional assistance program for nurses" means a |
8 | | professional
assistance program that meets criteria |
9 | | established by the Board of Nursing
and approved by the |
10 | | Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment
|
11 | | approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to |
12 | | practice is
compromised by alcohol or chemical substance |
13 | | addiction.
|
14 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
15 | | Professional Regulation. |
16 | | "Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good |
17 | | standing. |
18 | | "Written collaborative agreement" means a written |
19 | | agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a |
20 | | collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician |
21 | | pursuant to Section 65-35.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
23 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-30) |
24 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
25 | | Sec. 65-30. APN scope of practice.
|
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1 | | (a) Advanced practice nursing by certified nurse |
2 | | practitioners, certified nurse anesthetists, certified nurse |
3 | | midwives, or clinical nurse specialists is based on knowledge |
4 | | and skills acquired throughout an advanced practice nurse's |
5 | | nursing education, training, and experience. |
6 | | (b) Practice as an advanced practice nurse means a scope of |
7 | | nursing practice, with or without compensation, and includes |
8 | | the registered nurse scope of practice. |
9 | | (c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice nurse |
10 | | includes, but is not limited to, each of the following: |
11 | | (1) Advanced nursing patient assessment and diagnosis. |
12 | | (2) Ordering diagnostic and therapeutic tests and |
13 | | procedures, performing those tests and procedures when using |
14 | | health care equipment, and interpreting and using the results |
15 | | of diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures ordered by |
16 | | the advanced practice nurse or another health care |
17 | | professional. |
18 | | (3) Ordering treatments, ordering or applying |
19 | | appropriate medical devices, and using nursing medical, |
20 | | therapeutic, and corrective measures to treat illness and |
21 | | improve health status. |
22 | | (4) Providing palliative and end-of-life care. |
23 | | (5) Providing advanced counseling, patient education, |
24 | | health education, and patient advocacy. |
25 | | (6) Prescribing any Schedule II thorugh Schedule V |
26 | | controlled substance. Prescriptive authority as defined in |
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1 | | Section 65-40 of this Act. |
2 | | (7) Delegating selected nursing activities or tasks to |
3 | | a licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or |
4 | | other personnel.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
6 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-45)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)
|
7 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
8 | | Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice nursing in hospitals, |
9 | | hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.
|
10 | | (a) An advanced practice nurse may provide
services in a |
11 | | hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in |
12 | | the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois |
13 | | Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical
treatment center |
14 | | without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section |
15 | | 65-35 of this Act . An advanced practice nurse must possess |
16 | | clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff |
17 | | and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff |
18 | | committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to |
19 | | provide services. The medical staff or consulting medical staff |
20 | | committee shall periodically review the services of advanced |
21 | | practice nurses granted clinical privileges, including any |
22 | | care provided in a hospital affiliate. Authority may also be |
23 | | granted when recommended by the hospital medical staff and |
24 | | granted by the hospital or recommended by the consulting |
25 | | medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment |
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1 | | center to individual advanced practice nurses to select, order, |
2 | | and administer medications, including controlled substances, |
3 | | to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital affiliate, |
4 | | or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the attending |
5 | | physician shall determine an advanced practice nurse's role in |
6 | | providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise |
7 | | provided in the medical staff bylaws or consulting committee |
8 | | policies.
|
9 | | (a-2) (Blank). An advanced practice nurse granted |
10 | | authority to order medications including controlled substances |
11 | | may complete discharge prescriptions provided the prescription |
12 | | is in the name of the advanced practice nurse and the attending |
13 | | or discharging physician. |
14 | | (a-3) (Blank). Advanced practice nurses practicing in a |
15 | | hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not |
16 | | required to obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to |
17 | | order controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the |
18 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act. |
19 | | (a-5) (Blank). For
anesthesia services provided by a |
20 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist,
|
21 | | physician, dentist,
or podiatric physician shall participate |
22 | | through discussion of and agreement with the
anesthesia plan |
23 | | and shall
remain
physically present
and be available on the |
24 | | premises during the delivery of anesthesia services for
|
25 | | diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of
emergency medical |
26 | | conditions, unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to
clause |
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1 | | (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital |
2 | | Licensing Act
or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy |
3 | | adopted pursuant to
clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section |
4 | | 6.5 of the Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act
provides |
5 | | otherwise. A certified registered nurse anesthetist may |
6 | | select, order, and administer medication for anesthesia |
7 | | services under the anesthesia plan agreed to by the |
8 | | anesthesiologist or the physician, in accordance with hospital |
9 | | alternative policy or the medical staff consulting committee |
10 | | policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment center.
|
11 | | (b) An advanced practice nurse who provides
services in a |
12 | | hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the
|
13 | | Hospital
Licensing Act and, in an
ambulatory surgical treatment |
14 | | center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the
Ambulatory
|
15 | | Surgical Treatment Center Act.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
17 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-5)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)
|
18 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
19 | | Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.
|
20 | | (a) The Department may
refuse to issue or
to renew, or may |
21 | | revoke, suspend, place on
probation, reprimand, or take other |
22 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department
may |
23 | | deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per |
24 | | violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination
|
25 | | of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below.
All fines |
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1 | | collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing
|
2 | | Dedicated and Professional Fund.
|
3 | | (b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:
|
4 | | (1) Material deception in furnishing information to |
5 | | the
Department.
|
6 | | (2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or |
7 | | violation of the rules of or final administrative action of
|
8 | | the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation |
9 | | of the Board.
|
10 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
11 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by |
12 | | sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, |
13 | | convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, |
14 | | conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under |
15 | | the laws of any jurisdiction
of the
United States: (i) that |
16 | | is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an
essential |
17 | | element of which is dishonesty, or that is
directly related |
18 | | to the practice of the profession.
|
19 | | (4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which |
20 | | demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetency to practice under |
21 | | this Act.
|
22 | | (5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in |
23 | | violating
any
provision of this Act or rules.
|
24 | | (6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a |
25 | | request
for
information in response to a written request |
26 | | made by the Department by
certified mail.
|
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1 | | (7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
2 | | unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
3 | | defraud or harm the public, as defined by
rule.
|
4 | | (8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or |
5 | | manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or
prescription
|
6 | | device.
|
7 | | (9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
|
8 | | narcotics,
stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
9 | | that could result in a licensee's
inability to practice |
10 | | with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
|
11 | | (10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or |
12 | | foreign
nation, if at
least one of the grounds for the |
13 | | discipline is the same or substantially
equivalent to those |
14 | | set forth in this Section.
|
15 | | (11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or |
16 | | his
license placed on
probationary status or subject to |
17 | | conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of |
18 | | probation or failed to comply with such terms or |
19 | | conditions.
|
20 | | (12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
21 | | report by
the
Department of Children and Family Services |
22 | | and under the Abused and
Neglected Child Reporting Act, and |
23 | | upon proof by clear and
convincing evidence that the |
24 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused
child or |
25 | | neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected |
26 | | Child
Reporting Act.
|
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1 | | (13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully |
2 | | impeding
the
filing or recording or inducing another person |
3 | | to omit to file or record
medical reports as required by |
4 | | law or willfully failing to report an
instance of suspected |
5 | | child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and
|
6 | | Neglected Child Reporting Act.
|
7 | | (14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical, |
8 | | professional, or advanced practice nursing.
|
9 | | (15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under |
10 | | any
name other
than one's own.
|
11 | | (16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department |
12 | | any adverse final action taken against him or her by |
13 | | another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any |
14 | | foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health |
15 | | care institution, any professional or nursing society or |
16 | | association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement |
17 | | agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related |
18 | | to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would |
19 | | constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section. |
20 | | (17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department |
21 | | surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to |
22 | | practice nursing or advanced practice nursing in another |
23 | | state or jurisdiction or current surrender by the licensee |
24 | | of membership on any nursing staff or in any nursing or |
25 | | advanced practice nursing or professional association or |
26 | | society while under disciplinary investigation by any of |
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1 | | those authorities or bodies for acts or conduct similar to |
2 | | acts or conduct that would constitute grounds for action as |
3 | | defined by this Section. |
4 | | (18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in |
5 | | response to a written request made by the Department. |
6 | | (19) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
7 | | patient care and treatment as required by law.
|
8 | | (20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying |
9 | | for or
procuring
a license under this Act or in connection |
10 | | with applying for renewal of a
license under this Act.
|
11 | | (21) Allowing another person or organization to use the
|
12 | | licensees'
license to deceive the public.
|
13 | | (22) Willfully making or filing false records or |
14 | | reports in
the
licensee's practice, including but not |
15 | | limited to false
records to support claims against the |
16 | | medical assistance program of the
Department of Healthcare |
17 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
|
18 | | under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
19 | | (23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a
licensing
|
20 | | examination
administered under this Act.
|
21 | | (24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, |
22 | | including, but not limited to, sexual abuse,
sexual |
23 | | misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the |
24 | | licensee's practice.
|
25 | | (25) Willfully or negligently violating the |
26 | | confidentiality
between nurse
and patient except as |
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1 | | required by law.
|
2 | | (26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except |
3 | | as provided by law.
|
4 | | (27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
5 | | statement
in any
document connected with the licensee's |
6 | | practice.
|
7 | | (28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from |
8 | | a person, firm,
corporation, partnership, or association a |
9 | | fee, commission, rebate, or other
form of compensation for |
10 | | professional services not actually or personally
rendered. |
11 | | Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide |
12 | | independent contractor or employment arrangements among |
13 | | health care professionals, health facilities, health care |
14 | | providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
15 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
16 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
17 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
18 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
19 | | Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to |
20 | | require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
21 | | fees for services rendered.
|
22 | | (29) A violation of the Health Care Worker |
23 | | Self-Referral Act.
|
24 | | (30) Physical illness, including but not limited to |
25 | | deterioration
through
the aging process or loss of motor |
26 | | skill, mental illness, or disability that
results in the |
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1 | | inability to practice the profession with reasonable |
2 | | judgment,
skill, or safety.
|
3 | | (31) (Blank). Exceeding the terms of a collaborative |
4 | | agreement or the prescriptive authority delegated to a |
5 | | licensee by his or her collaborating physician or podiatric |
6 | | physician in guidelines established under a written |
7 | | collaborative agreement. |
8 | | (32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a |
9 | | licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, |
10 | | treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course |
11 | | of treatment. |
12 | | (33) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
13 | | distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug |
14 | | classified as a controlled substance (designated product) |
15 | | or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic |
16 | | purposes. |
17 | | (34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
18 | | appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to |
19 | | exploit the patient for financial gain. |
20 | | (35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or |
21 | | regulations relating to controlled substances. |
22 | | (36) Willfully or negligently violating the |
23 | | confidentiality between an advanced practice nurse, |
24 | | collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician |
25 | | and a patient, except as required by law. |
26 | | (37) A violation of any provision of this Act or any |
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1 | | rules promulgated under this Act. |
2 | | (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
|
3 | | subject to
involuntary admission or judicial admission as |
4 | | provided in the Mental
Health and Developmental Disabilities |
5 | | Code, as amended, operates as an
automatic suspension. The |
6 | | suspension will end only upon a finding
by a
court that the |
7 | | patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or
|
8 | | judicial admission and issues an order so finding and |
9 | | discharging the
patient; and upon the recommendation of the |
10 | | Board to the
Secretary that
the licensee be allowed to resume |
11 | | his or her practice.
|
12 | | (d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or |
13 | | otherwise discipline the
license of any
person who fails to |
14 | | file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest
shown in |
15 | | a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax,
|
16 | | penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by |
17 | | the
Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements |
18 | | of any
such tax Act are satisfied.
|
19 | | (e) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board,
upon a |
20 | | showing of a
possible
violation, may compel an individual |
21 | | licensed to practice under this Act or
who has applied for |
22 | | licensure under this Act, to submit
to a mental or physical |
23 | | examination, or both, as required by and at the expense
of the |
24 | | Department. The Department or Board may order the examining |
25 | | physician to
present
testimony concerning the mental or |
26 | | physical examination of the licensee or
applicant. No |
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1 | | information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
|
2 | | statutory privilege relating to communications between the |
3 | | licensee or
applicant and the examining physician. The |
4 | | examining
physicians
shall be specifically designated by the |
5 | | Board or Department.
The individual to be examined may have, at |
6 | | his or her own expense, another
physician of his or her choice |
7 | | present during all
aspects of this examination. Failure of an |
8 | | individual to submit to a mental
or
physical examination, when |
9 | | directed, shall result in an automatic
suspension without |
10 | | hearing.
|
11 | | All substance-related violations shall mandate an |
12 | | automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an |
13 | | assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an |
14 | | addictionist or an advanced practice nurse with specialty |
15 | | certification in addictions may be grounds for an automatic |
16 | | suspension, as defined by rule.
|
17 | | If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to |
18 | | practice or unfit for duty because
of
the
reasons
set forth in |
19 | | this Section, the Department or Board may require that |
20 | | individual
to submit
to
a substance abuse evaluation or |
21 | | treatment by individuals or programs
approved
or designated by |
22 | | the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or restriction
|
23 | | for continued,
reinstated, or
renewed licensure to practice; |
24 | | or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment,
the Department may |
25 | | file, or
the Board may recommend to the Department to file, a |
26 | | complaint to immediately
suspend, revoke, or otherwise |
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1 | | discipline the license of the individual.
An individual whose
|
2 | | license was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, |
3 | | disciplined or supervised
subject to such terms, conditions, or |
4 | | restrictions, and who fails to comply
with
such terms, |
5 | | conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary |
6 | | for
a
determination as to whether the individual shall have his |
7 | | or her license
suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the |
8 | | Department.
|
9 | | In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
10 | | person's license
under this Section, a hearing on that person's |
11 | | license must be convened by
the Department within 15 days after |
12 | | the suspension and completed without
appreciable
delay.
The |
13 | | Department and Board shall have the authority to review the |
14 | | subject
individual's record of
treatment and counseling |
15 | | regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by
applicable |
16 | | federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
17 | | confidentiality of
medical records.
|
18 | | An individual licensed under this Act and affected under |
19 | | this Section shall
be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to |
20 | | the Department that he or
she can resume
practice in compliance |
21 | | with nursing standards under the
provisions of his or her |
22 | | license.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
24 | | Section 55. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act |
25 | | is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:
|
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1 | | (225 ILCS 75/3.1)
|
2 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
3 | | Sec. 3.1. Referrals. |
4 | | (a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed
|
5 | | occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate, |
6 | | evaluate, and monitor
services for individuals, groups, and |
7 | | populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as |
8 | | indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, |
9 | | implementation
of direct occupational therapy treatment to |
10 | | individuals for their specific
health care conditions shall be |
11 | | based upon a referral from a licensed
physician, dentist, |
12 | | podiatric physician, or advanced practice nurse who has a |
13 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
14 | | to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational |
15 | | therapists , physician assistant who has been delegated |
16 | | authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed |
17 | | occupational therapists, or optometrist.
|
18 | | (b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing |
19 | | consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness, |
20 | | prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related |
21 | | ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations. |
22 | | (c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider |
23 | | is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and |
24 | | youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy |
25 | | assistant provides services in a school-based or educational |
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1 | | environment, including the child's home. |
2 | | (d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed |
3 | | physician, dentist,
optometrist, advanced practice nurse, |
4 | | physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose |
5 | | medical condition should, at the
time of evaluation or |
6 | | treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of
practice of |
7 | | the occupational therapist.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; |
9 | | 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
10 | | Section 60. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics |
11 | | Practice Act is amended by changing Section 57 as follows:
|
12 | | (225 ILCS 84/57)
|
13 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
|
14 | | Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A
|
15 | | licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide |
16 | | care or services only if the care
or services are provided |
17 | | pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a |
18 | | podiatric physician, (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a |
19 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
20 | | or podiatric physician that specifically authorizes ordering |
21 | | the services of an orthotist, prosthetist or pedorthist , or |
22 | | (iv) an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or |
23 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses clinical |
24 | | privileges to order services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or |
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1 | | pedorthist, or (v) a physician assistant who has been delegated |
2 | | the authority to order the services of an orthotist, |
3 | | prosthetist, or pedorthist by his or her supervising physician. |
4 | | A licensed podiatric physician or advanced practice nurse |
5 | | collaborating with a podiatric physician may only order care or |
6 | | services concerning the foot from a licensed prosthetist.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
8 | | Section 65. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by |
9 | | changing Section 4 as follows:
|
10 | | (225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)
|
11 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
12 | | Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of |
13 | | this Act shall
apply
to, or in any manner interfere with:
|
14 | | (a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to |
15 | | practice medicine in
all of its branches, dentist, podiatric |
16 | | physician,
veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically |
17 | | certified optometrist within
the limits of
his or her license, |
18 | | or prevent him or her from
supplying to his
or her
bona fide |
19 | | patients
such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him |
20 | | appropriate;
|
21 | | (b) the sale of compressed gases;
|
22 | | (c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and |
23 | | household remedies
when sold in original and unbroken packages |
24 | | only, if such patent or
proprietary medicines and household |
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1 | | remedies be properly and adequately
labeled as to content and |
2 | | usage and generally considered and accepted
as harmless and |
3 | | nonpoisonous when used according to the directions
on the |
4 | | label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any
|
5 | | compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, |
6 | | according
to the latest editions of the following authoritative |
7 | | pharmaceutical
treatises and standards, namely, The United |
8 | | States Pharmacopoeia/National
Formulary (USP/NF), the United |
9 | | States Dispensatory, and the Accepted
Dental Remedies of the |
10 | | Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American
Dental |
11 | | Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective
|
12 | | date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of |
13 | | the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the |
14 | | Department of Health
and Human Services, Food and Drug |
15 | | Administration, promulgated thereunder
now in effect, is |
16 | | designated, described or considered as a narcotic,
hypnotic, |
17 | | habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;
|
18 | | (d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original |
19 | | and unbroken
packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock |
20 | | medication;
|
21 | | (e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of |
22 | | poisonous substances,
in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal |
23 | | use in the arts or industries
or for insecticide purposes; |
24 | | provided, they are properly and adequately
labeled as to |
25 | | content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity
with the |
26 | | provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws
and |
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1 | | regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating |
2 | | thereto
and governing the same, and those which are required |
3 | | under such applicable
laws and regulations to be labeled with |
4 | | the word "Poison", are also labeled
with the word "Poison" |
5 | | printed
thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily |
6 | | obtainable antidote
with directions for its administration;
|
7 | | (f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a |
8 | | physician
licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches to |
9 | | a physician assistant
under Section 7.5 of the Physician |
10 | | Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This
delegated authority under |
11 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 |
12 | | may, but is not required to, include prescription of
controlled |
13 | | substances, as defined in Article II of the
Illinois Controlled |
14 | | Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision |
15 | | agreement; and
|
16 | | (g) (blank). the delegation of prescriptive authority by a |
17 | | physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or |
18 | | a licensed podiatric physician to an advanced practice
nurse in |
19 | | accordance with a written collaborative
agreement under |
20 | | Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
22 | | Section 70. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by |
23 | | changing Section 1 as follows:
|
24 | | (225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)
|
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1 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
|
2 | | Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
3 | | (1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following: |
4 | | (A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who |
5 | | may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental |
6 | | impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or |
7 | | other health and movement-related conditions, classifying |
8 | | these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis |
9 | | and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the |
10 | | on-going effects of the interventions. |
11 | | (B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, |
12 | | or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying |
13 | | therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not |
14 | | limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through |
15 | | the use of the effective properties of physical measures |
16 | | and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, |
17 | | sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic |
18 | | exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, |
19 | | with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of |
20 | | preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or |
21 | | mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability. |
22 | | (C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, |
23 | | functional limitation, or disability, including the |
24 | | promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and |
25 | | wellness. |
26 | | (D) Engaging in administration, consultation, |
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1 | | education, and research.
|
2 | | Physical therapy
includes, but is not limited to: (a) |
3 | | performance
of specialized tests and measurements, (b) |
4 | | administration of specialized
treatment procedures, (c) |
5 | | interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, |
6 | | advanced practice nurses, physician assistants,
and podiatric |
7 | | physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical |
8 | | therapy
treatment programs, (e) administration of topical |
9 | | medication used in generally
accepted physical therapy |
10 | | procedures when such medication is prescribed
by the patient's |
11 | | physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
|
12 | | the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric |
13 | | medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's |
14 | | physician assistant, or the
patient's dentist, and (f) |
15 | | supervision or teaching of physical therapy.
Physical therapy |
16 | | does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic
|
17 | | technique or determination of a differential
diagnosis; |
18 | | provided, however,
the limitation on determining a |
19 | | differential diagnosis shall not in any
manner limit a physical |
20 | | therapist licensed under this Act from performing
an evaluation |
21 | | pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit
a |
22 | | physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy |
23 | | techniques
that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. |
24 | | A physical therapist
shall refer to a licensed physician, |
25 | | advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or |
26 | | podiatric physician any patient
whose medical condition |
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1 | | should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be
determined |
2 | | to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.
|
3 | | (2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices |
4 | | physical therapy
and who has met all requirements as provided |
5 | | in this Act.
|
6 | | (3) "Department" means the Department of Professional |
7 | | Regulation.
|
8 | | (4) "Director" means the Director of Professional |
9 | | Regulation.
|
10 | | (5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and |
11 | | Disciplinary Board approved
by the Director.
|
12 | | (6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for |
13 | | physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, |
14 | | dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or |
15 | | podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the |
16 | | patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's |
17 | | condition is such that it may be treated by a physical |
18 | | therapist.
|
19 | | (7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the |
20 | | purpose of
this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by |
21 | | signature or oral verification
of a physician, dentist, |
22 | | advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric |
23 | | physician, that a patient's condition is such
that it may be |
24 | | treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which
|
25 | | diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the |
26 | | physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician |
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1 | | assistant,
or podiatric physician.
|
2 | | (8) "State" includes:
|
3 | | (a) the states of the United States of America;
|
4 | | (b) the District of Columbia; and
|
5 | | (c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
|
6 | | (9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed |
7 | | to assist a
physical therapist and who has met all requirements |
8 | | as provided in this Act
and who works under the supervision of |
9 | | a licensed physical therapist to assist
in implementing the |
10 | | physical therapy treatment program as established by the
|
11 | | licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities |
12 | | provided by the
physical therapist assistant shall not include |
13 | | the interpretation of referrals,
evaluation procedures, or the |
14 | | planning or major modification of patient programs.
|
15 | | (10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has |
16 | | received on
the job training, specific to the facility in which |
17 | | he is employed, but who
has not completed an approved physical |
18 | | therapist assistant program.
|
19 | | (11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as |
20 | | an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act who has |
21 | | a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
22 | | authorizes referrals to physical therapists . |
23 | | (12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under |
24 | | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been |
25 | | delegated authority to make referrals to physical therapists.
|
26 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
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1 | | Section 75. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by |
2 | | changing Section 10 as follows:
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 106/10)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
|
5 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
|
6 | | "Advanced practice nurse" means an advanced practice nurse |
7 | | licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
|
8 | | "Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the |
9 | | Director. |
10 | | "Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all |
11 | | of the following activities: |
12 | | (1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment |
13 | | used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a |
14 | | licensed health care professional or other authorized |
15 | | licensed personnel. |
16 | | (2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of |
17 | | respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care |
18 | | professional or other authorized licensed personnel. |
19 | | (3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through |
20 | | non-invasive means, provided that the collection and |
21 | | review does not include the individual's interpretation of |
22 | | the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and |
23 | | reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse |
24 | | oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order |
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1 | | to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health |
2 | | care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel |
3 | | in a timely manner. |
4 | | (4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen |
5 | | therapy in the proper position on the patient's face. |
6 | | (5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen |
7 | | therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use. |
8 | | (6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by |
9 | | physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the |
10 | | oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb |
11 | | syringe. |
12 | | (7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency |
13 | | resuscitation using a manual resuscitator. |
14 | | (8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a |
15 | | licensed health care professional or other authorized |
16 | | licensed personnel who is present and performing routine |
17 | | airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of |
18 | | a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of |
19 | | mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is |
20 | | connected to the ventilator.
|
21 | | "Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities |
22 | | that involve any of the following:
|
23 | | (1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of |
24 | | education or training in respiratory care. |
25 | | (2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the |
26 | | patient. |
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1 | | (3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning |
2 | | patient care. |
3 | | (4) The administration of aerosol medication or |
4 | | oxygen. |
5 | | (5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial |
6 | | airway. |
7 | | (6) Mechanical ventilatory support. |
8 | | (7) Patient assessment. |
9 | | (8) Patient education.
|
10 | | "Department" means the Department of Professional |
11 | | Regulation.
|
12 | | "Director" means the Director of
Professional Regulation.
|
13 | | "Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself
out |
14 | | as
a respiratory care
practitioner as defined in this Act.
|
15 | | "Licensed health care professional" means a physician |
16 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced |
17 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
18 | | collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice |
19 | | nurse to transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner , or |
20 | | a physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to |
21 | | transmit orders to a respiratory care practitioner by his or |
22 | | her supervising physician.
|
23 | | "Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated |
24 | | authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by |
25 | | (i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical |
26 | | supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies |
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1 | | that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by |
2 | | a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered |
3 | | nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical |
4 | | treatment center.
|
5 | | "Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed |
6 | | respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or |
7 | | a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes |
8 | | the professional to supervise an individual who is not |
9 | | licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional. |
10 | | "Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an |
11 | | individual is
responsible for directing the actions of another |
12 | | individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be |
13 | | readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.
|
14 | | "Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care"
mean |
15 | | preventative services, evaluation and assessment services, |
16 | | therapeutic services, and rehabilitative services under the |
17 | | order of a licensed health care professional or a certified |
18 | | registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital for an |
19 | | individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the |
20 | | cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not |
21 | | limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring |
22 | | signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general |
23 | | physical response of individuals to respiratory care services, |
24 | | including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms, |
25 | | reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit |
26 | | abnormal characteristics; the administration of |
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1 | | pharmacological and therapeutic agents related to respiratory |
2 | | care services; the collection of blood specimens and other |
3 | | bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of, |
4 | | cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but |
5 | | not limited to, blood gas analysis; development, |
6 | | implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment |
7 | | plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary |
8 | | system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a |
9 | | licensed health care professional; application, operation, and |
10 | | management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of |
11 | | life support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under |
12 | | the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care |
13 | | practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice |
14 | | medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at |
15 | | the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond |
16 | | the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.
|
17 | | "Respiratory care education program" means a course of |
18 | | academic study leading
to eligibility for registry or |
19 | | certification in respiratory care. The training
is to be |
20 | | approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and |
21 | | shall
include an evaluation of competence through a |
22 | | standardized testing mechanism
that is determined by the Board |
23 | | to be both valid and reliable.
|
24 | | "Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is |
25 | | licensed by the
Department of Professional Regulation and meets |
26 | | all of the following
criteria:
|
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1 | | (1) The person is engaged in the practice of |
2 | | cardiorespiratory care and
has the knowledge and skill |
3 | | necessary to administer respiratory care.
|
4 | | (2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to |
5 | | the
licensed
health care professional in
relation to the |
6 | | technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe |
7 | | and
effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory |
8 | | care modalities.
|
9 | | (3) The person is able to function in situations of |
10 | | unsupervised patient
contact requiring great individual |
11 | | judgment.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 94-523, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
13 | | Section 80. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended |
14 | | by changing Sections 10, 20, and 95 as follows:
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 135/10) |
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
17 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
18 | | "ABGC" means the American Board of Genetic Counseling. |
19 | | "ABMG" means the American Board of Medical Genetics. |
20 | | "Active candidate status" is awarded to applicants who have |
21 | | received approval from the ABGC or ABMG to sit for their |
22 | | respective certification examinations.
|
23 | | "Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
24 | | by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
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1 | | file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
2 | | licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or |
3 | | licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and |
4 | | those changes must be made either through the Department's |
5 | | website or by contacting the Department. |
6 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
7 | | Professional Regulation. |
8 | | "Genetic anomaly" means a variation in an individual's DNA |
9 | | that has been shown to confer a genetically influenced disease |
10 | | or predisposition to a genetically influenced disease or makes |
11 | | a person a carrier of such variation. A "carrier" of a genetic |
12 | | anomaly means a person who may or may not have a predisposition |
13 | | or risk of incurring a genetically influenced condition and who |
14 | | is at risk of having offspring with a genetically influenced |
15 | | condition.
|
16 | | "Genetic counseling" means the provision of services, |
17 | | which may include the ordering of genetic tests, pursuant to a |
18 | | referral, to individuals, couples, groups, families, and |
19 | | organizations by one or more appropriately trained individuals |
20 | | to address the physical and psychological issues associated |
21 | | with the occurrence or risk of occurrence or recurrence of a |
22 | | genetic disorder, birth defect, disease, or potentially |
23 | | inherited or genetically influenced condition in an individual |
24 | | or a family.
"Genetic counseling" consists of the following: |
25 | | (A) Estimating the likelihood of occurrence or |
26 | | recurrence of a birth defect or of any potentially |
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1 | | inherited or genetically influenced condition. This |
2 | | assessment may involve: |
3 | | (i) obtaining and analyzing a complete health |
4 | | history of the person and his or her family; |
5 | | (ii) reviewing pertinent medical records; |
6 | | (iii) evaluating the risks from exposure to |
7 | | possible mutagens or teratogens; |
8 | | (iv) recommending genetic testing or other |
9 | | evaluations to diagnose a condition or determine the |
10 | | carrier status of one or more family members; |
11 | | (B) Helping the individual, family, health care |
12 | | provider, or health care professional
(i) appreciate the |
13 | | medical, psychological and social implications of a |
14 | | disorder, including its features, variability, usual |
15 | | course and management options, (ii) learn how genetic |
16 | | factors contribute to the disorder and affect the chance |
17 | | for recurrence of the condition in other family members, |
18 | | and (iii) understand available options for coping with, |
19 | | preventing, or reducing the chance of
occurrence or |
20 | | recurrence of a condition.
|
21 | | (C) Facilitating an individual's or family's
(i) |
22 | | exploration of the perception of risk and burden associated |
23 | | with the disorder and (ii) adjustment and adaptation to the |
24 | | condition or their genetic risk by addressing needs for
|
25 | | psychological, social, and medical support.
|
26 | | "Genetic counselor" means a person licensed under this Act |
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1 | | to engage in the practice of genetic counseling. |
2 | | "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" mean a test or |
3 | | analysis of human genes, gene products, DNA, RNA, chromosomes, |
4 | | proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations, |
5 | | chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies, including |
6 | | carrier status, that (i) are linked to physical or mental |
7 | | disorders or impairments, (ii) indicate a susceptibility to |
8 | | illness, disease, impairment, or other disorders, whether |
9 | | physical or mental, or (iii) demonstrate genetic or chromosomal |
10 | | damage due to environmental factors. "Genetic testing" and |
11 | | "genetic tests" do not include routine physical measurements; |
12 | | chemical, blood and urine analyses that are widely accepted and |
13 | | in use in clinical practice; tests for use of drugs; tests for |
14 | | the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus; analyses of |
15 | | proteins or metabolites that do not detect genotypes, |
16 | | mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or |
17 | | deficiencies; or analyses of proteins or metabolites that are |
18 | | directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or |
19 | | pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a |
20 | | health care professional with appropriate training and |
21 | | expertise in the field of medicine involved. |
22 | | "Person" means an individual, association, partnership, or |
23 | | corporation. |
24 | | "Qualified supervisor" means any person who is a licensed |
25 | | genetic counselor, as defined by rule, or a physician licensed |
26 | | to practice medicine in all its branches. A qualified |
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1 | | supervisor may be provided at the applicant's place of work, or |
2 | | may be contracted by the applicant to provide supervision. The |
3 | | qualified supervisor shall file written documentation with
the |
4 | | Department of employment, discharge, or supervisory control of |
5 | | a genetic counselor at the time of employment, discharge, or |
6 | | assumption of supervision of a genetic counselor. |
7 | | "Referral" means a written or telecommunicated |
8 | | authorization for genetic counseling services from a physician |
9 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced |
10 | | practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a |
11 | | collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic |
12 | | counselor , or a physician assistant who has a supervision |
13 | | agreement with a supervising physician that authorizes |
14 | | referrals to a genetic counselor.
|
15 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
16 | | Professional Regulation. |
17 | | "Supervision" means review of aspects of genetic |
18 | | counseling and case management in a bimonthly meeting with the |
19 | | person under supervision.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
21 | | (225 ILCS 135/20) |
22 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
23 | | Sec. 20. Restrictions and limitations.
|
24 | | (a) Except as provided in Section 15, no person shall, |
25 | | without a valid license as a genetic counselor issued by the |
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1 | | Department (i) in any manner hold himself or herself out to the |
2 | | public as a genetic counselor under this Act; (ii) use in |
3 | | connection with his or her name or place of business the title |
4 | | "genetic counselor", "licensed genetic counselor", "gene |
5 | | counselor", "genetic consultant", or "genetic associate" or |
6 | | any words, letters, abbreviations, or insignia indicating or |
7 | | implying a person has met the qualifications for or has the |
8 | | license issued under this Act; or (iii) offer to render or |
9 | | render to individuals, corporations, or the public genetic |
10 | | counseling services if the words "genetic counselor" or |
11 | | "licensed genetic counselor" are used to describe the person |
12 | | offering to render or rendering them, or "genetic counseling" |
13 | | is used to describe the services rendered or offered to be |
14 | | rendered.
|
15 | | (b) No licensed genetic counselor may provide genetic |
16 | | counseling to individuals, couples, groups, or families |
17 | | without a referral from a physician licensed to practice |
18 | | medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who |
19 | | has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
20 | | that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor , or a |
21 | | physician assistant who has been delegated authority to make |
22 | | referrals to genetic counselors. The physician, advanced |
23 | | practice nurse, or physician assistant shall maintain |
24 | | supervision of the patient and be provided timely written |
25 | | reports on the services, including genetic testing results, |
26 | | provided by the licensed genetic counselor. Genetic testing |
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1 | | shall be ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine |
2 | | in all its branches or a genetic counselor pursuant to a |
3 | | referral that gives the specific authority to order genetic |
4 | | tests. Genetic test results and reports shall be provided to |
5 | | the referring physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician |
6 | | assistant. General seminars or talks to groups or organizations |
7 | | on genetic counseling that do not include individual, couple, |
8 | | or family specific counseling may be conducted without a |
9 | | referral. In clinical settings, genetic counselors who serve as |
10 | | a liaison between family members of a patient and a genetic |
11 | | research project, may, with the consent of the patient, provide |
12 | | information to family members for the purpose of gathering |
13 | | additional information, as it relates to the patient, without a |
14 | | referral. In non-clinical settings where no patient is being |
15 | | treated, genetic counselors who serve as a liaison between a |
16 | | genetic research project and participants in that genetic |
17 | | research project may provide information to the participants, |
18 | | without a referral.
|
19 | | (c) No association or partnership shall practice genetic |
20 | | counseling unless every member, partner, and employee of the |
21 | | association or partnership who practices genetic counseling or |
22 | | who renders genetic counseling services holds a valid license |
23 | | issued under this Act. No license shall be issued to a |
24 | | corporation, the stated purpose of which includes or which |
25 | | practices or which holds itself out as available to practice |
26 | | genetic counseling, unless it is organized under the |
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1 | | Professional Service Corporation Act.
|
2 | | (d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as permitting |
3 | | persons licensed as genetic counselors to engage in any manner |
4 | | in the practice of medicine in all its branches as defined by |
5 | | law in this State.
|
6 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a |
7 | | licensed genetic counselor to diagnose, test (unless |
8 | | authorized in a referral), or treat any genetic or other |
9 | | disease or condition. |
10 | | (f) When, in the course of providing genetic counseling |
11 | | services to any person, a genetic counselor licensed under this |
12 | | Act finds any indication of a disease or condition that in his |
13 | | or her professional judgment requires professional service |
14 | | outside the scope of practice as defined in this Act, he or she |
15 | | shall refer that person to a physician licensed to practice |
16 | | medicine in all of its branches.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
18 | | (225 ILCS 135/95) |
19 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
20 | | Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.
|
21 | | (a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may |
22 | | revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other |
23 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department |
24 | | deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to |
25 | | exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license |
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1 | | for any one or more of the following: |
2 | | (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
3 | | the Department or to any other State agency.
|
4 | | (2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard |
5 | | of this Act, or any of its rules.
|
6 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
7 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or |
8 | | sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, |
9 | | preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, |
10 | | or first offender probation, under the laws of any |
11 | | jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or |
12 | | (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which |
13 | | is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice |
14 | | of genetic counseling.
|
15 | | (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of |
16 | | obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act |
17 | | or its rules. |
18 | | (5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling |
19 | | services.
|
20 | | (6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any |
21 | | requested information to a referring physician licensed to |
22 | | practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice |
23 | | nurse, or physician assistant.
|
24 | | (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any |
25 | | provision of this Act or any rules.
|
26 | | (8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in |
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1 | | response to a written request made by the Department.
|
2 | | (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
3 | | unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, |
4 | | defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of |
5 | | professional conduct adopted by the Department.
|
6 | | (10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any |
7 | | information received from a client, unless otherwise |
8 | | authorized or required by law.
|
9 | | (10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services |
10 | | provided and provide copies to clients upon request. |
11 | | (11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, |
12 | | profit, or interest.
|
13 | | (12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, |
14 | | narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
15 | | which results in inability to practice with reasonable |
16 | | skill, judgment, or safety.
|
17 | | (13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit |
18 | | of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or |
19 | | by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the |
20 | | discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those |
21 | | set forth in this Section.
|
22 | | (14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from |
23 | | any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association |
24 | | any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation |
25 | | for any professional service not actually rendered. |
26 | | Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide |
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1 | | independent contractor or employment arrangements among |
2 | | health care professionals, health facilities, health care |
3 | | providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
4 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
5 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
6 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
7 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
8 | | Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to |
9 | | require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
10 | | fees for services rendered. |
11 | | (15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
12 | | after having the license placed on probationary status has |
13 | | violated the terms of probation.
|
14 | | (16) Failing to refer a client to other health care |
15 | | professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to |
16 | | adequately support or serve the client.
|
17 | | (17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a |
18 | | licensee's practice, including but not limited to false |
19 | | records filed with federal or State agencies or |
20 | | departments.
|
21 | | (18) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
22 | | suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused |
23 | | and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
|
24 | | (19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
25 | | report by the Department of Children and Family Services |
26 | | pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, |
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1 | | and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
2 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or |
3 | | neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected |
4 | | Child Reporting Act.
|
5 | | (20) Physical or mental disability, including |
6 | | deterioration through the aging process or loss of |
7 | | abilities and skills which results in the inability to |
8 | | practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, |
9 | | or safety.
|
10 | | (21) Solicitation of professional services by using |
11 | | false or misleading advertising.
|
12 | | (22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, |
13 | | penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any |
14 | | final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required |
15 | | by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of |
16 | | Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue |
17 | | Service or any successor agency.
|
18 | | (23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying |
19 | | for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection |
20 | | with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
|
21 | | (24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name |
22 | | other than the full name as shown on the license or any |
23 | | other legally authorized name.
|
24 | | (25) Gross overcharging for professional services, |
25 | | including filing statements for collection of fees or |
26 | | monies for which services are not rendered.
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1 | | (26) Providing genetic counseling services to |
2 | | individuals, couples, groups, or families without a |
3 | | referral from either a physician licensed to practice |
4 | | medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice nurse |
5 | | who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
6 | | physician that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to |
7 | | make referrals to a genetic counselor , or a physician |
8 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to make |
9 | | referrals to genetic counselors.
|
10 | | (27) Charging for professional services not rendered, |
11 | | including filing false statements for the collection of |
12 | | fees for which services are not rendered. |
13 | | (28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used |
14 | | by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act. |
15 | | (b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any |
16 | | application or renewal for a license under this Act to any |
17 | | person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by |
18 | | the Illinois State Assistance Commission; however, the |
19 | | Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in |
20 | | default has established a satisfactory repayment record as |
21 | | determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.
|
22 | | (c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject |
23 | | to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in |
24 | | the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will |
25 | | result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The |
26 | | suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee |
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1 | | is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial |
2 | | admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging |
3 | | the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the |
4 | | licensee be allowed to resume professional practice. |
5 | | (d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may |
6 | | suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to |
7 | | file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a |
8 | | filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, |
9 | | penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the |
10 | | payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of |
11 | | Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in |
12 | | accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil |
13 | | Administrative Code of Illinois. |
14 | | (e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
15 | | Services has previously determined that a licensee or a |
16 | | potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the |
17 | | payment of child support and has subsequently certified the |
18 | | delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to |
19 | | issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license |
20 | | or may take other disciplinary action against that person based |
21 | | solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the |
22 | | Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with |
23 | | item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department |
24 | | of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code |
25 | | of Illinois. |
26 | | (f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be |
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1 | | paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order |
2 | | imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set |
3 | | forth in the order imposing the fine.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-813, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
5 | | Section 85. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders |
6 | | Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10 |
7 | | as follows:
|
8 | | (405 ILCS 95/10)
|
9 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
10 | | "Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the |
11 | | Hospital Licensing Act. |
12 | | "Licensed health care professional" means a physician |
13 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced |
14 | | practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a |
15 | | collaborating physician that authorizes care , or a physician's |
16 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to provide care. |
17 | | "Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health |
18 | | care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the |
19 | | infant or mother. |
20 | | "Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health |
21 | | care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before |
22 | | birth. |
23 | | "Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a |
24 | | licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental |
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1 | | health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression |
2 | | Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck |
3 | | Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or |
4 | | other validated assessment methods.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 95-469, eff. 1-1-08.)
|
6 | | Section 90. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by |
7 | | changing Section 6.2 as follows:
|
8 | | (410 ILCS 45/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)
|
9 | | Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.
|
10 | | (a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
11 | | branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6 |
12 | | years
of age or younger shall test those children for
lead |
13 | | poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high |
14 | | risk
by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as |
15 | | low risk by the
Department shall be evaluated for risk by the |
16 | | Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed
by the Department |
17 | | and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in |
18 | | accordance with rules adopted by the Department.
|
19 | | (b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care |
20 | | facility serving
children 6 years of age or younger, including , |
21 | | but not
limited to,
health departments, hospitals, clinics, and |
22 | | health maintenance
organizations approved, registered, or |
23 | | licensed by the Department, shall take
the appropriate steps to |
24 | | ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for |
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1 | | risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.
|
2 | | (c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may |
3 | | also be tested by physicians or
health care providers, in |
4 | | accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and |
5 | | health care providers shall also evaluate
children for lead |
6 | | poisoning in conjunction with the school health
examination, as |
7 | | required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgment |
8 | | judgement
of the physician, advanced practice nurse who has a |
9 | | written collaborative
agreement with a
collaborating
physician
|
10 | | that authorizes the advance practice nurse to perform health |
11 | | examinations , or
physician
assistant who has been delegated to |
12 | | perform health examinations by the
supervising
physician, the |
13 | | child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.
|
14 | | (d) (Blank).
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
|
16 | | Section 95. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency |
17 | | Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 2.2, 5, and 5.5 |
18 | | as follows:
|
19 | | (410 ILCS 70/2.2)
|
20 | | Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.
|
21 | | (a) The General Assembly finds:
|
22 | | (1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse
cause |
23 | | significant physical, emotional, and
psychological trauma |
24 | | to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's
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1 | | fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result |
2 | | of the sexual
assault.
|
3 | | (2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the |
4 | | United States as
the result of rape and
approximately 50% |
5 | | of these pregnancies end in abortion.
|
6 | | (3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug |
7 | | Administration (FDA),
emergency contraception can |
8 | | significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken
within |
9 | | 72 hours after the sexual assault.
|
10 | | (4) By providing emergency contraception to rape |
11 | | victims in a timely
manner, the trauma of rape can be |
12 | | significantly reduced.
|
13 | | (b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this |
14 | | amendatory Act of the
92nd General Assembly, every hospital |
15 | | providing services to sexual
assault survivors in accordance |
16 | | with a plan approved under Section 2 must
develop a protocol |
17 | | that ensures that each survivor of sexual
assault will receive |
18 | | medically and factually accurate and written and oral
|
19 | | information about emergency contraception; the indications and
|
20 | | counter-indications and risks associated with the use of |
21 | | emergency
contraception;
and a description of how and when |
22 | | victims may be provided emergency
contraception upon
the |
23 | | written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine
in |
24 | | all its branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written |
25 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
26 | | authorizes prescription of emergency contraception , or a |
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1 | | physician assistant who has been delegated authority to |
2 | | prescribe emergency contraception. The Department shall |
3 | | approve the protocol if it finds
that the implementation of the |
4 | | protocol would provide sufficient protection
for survivors of |
5 | | sexual assault.
|
6 | | The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by |
7 | | the Department.
The Department shall adopt rules and |
8 | | regulations establishing one or more safe
harbor protocols and |
9 | | setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that
hospitals |
10 | | may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any |
11 | | protocol
that meets those standards. The Department may provide |
12 | | a sample acceptable
protocol upon request.
|
13 | | (Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
|
14 | | (410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)
|
15 | | Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing |
16 | | hospital emergency services and forensic services
to sexual |
17 | | assault survivors.
|
18 | | (a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services |
19 | | and forensic services to
sexual assault survivors under this |
20 | | Act
shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, |
21 | | with the consent
of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered |
22 | | by the attending
physician, an advanced practice nurse who has |
23 | | a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
24 | | physician that authorizes provision of emergency services , or a |
25 | | physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide |
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1 | | hospital emergency services and forensic services, the |
2 | | following:
|
3 | | (1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory
|
4 | | tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare
of |
5 | | a sexual assault survivor or which may be
used as evidence |
6 | | in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the
|
7 | | sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such |
8 | | examinations
and tests shall be maintained by the hospital |
9 | | and made available to law
enforcement officials upon the |
10 | | request of the sexual assault survivor;
|
11 | | (2) appropriate oral and written information |
12 | | concerning the possibility
of infection, sexually |
13 | | transmitted disease and pregnancy
resulting from sexual |
14 | | assault;
|
15 | | (3) appropriate oral and written information |
16 | | concerning accepted medical
procedures, medication, and |
17 | | possible contraindications of such medication
available |
18 | | for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease |
19 | | resulting
from sexual assault;
|
20 | | (4) an amount of medication for treatment at the |
21 | | hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by |
22 | | the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a |
23 | | physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's |
24 | | current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;
|
25 | | (5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk |
26 | | of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the |
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1 | | sexual assault;
|
2 | | (6) written and oral instructions indicating the need |
3 | | for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the |
4 | | sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of
|
5 | | sexually transmitted disease;
|
6 | | (7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate |
7 | | counseling; and
|
8 | | (8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an |
9 | | initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with |
10 | | written and oral instructions indicating the importance of
|
11 | | timely follow-up healthcare.
|
12 | | (b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks |
13 | | emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up |
14 | | healthcare
under this Act shall be provided such services |
15 | | without the consent
of any parent, guardian, custodian, |
16 | | surrogate, or agent.
|
17 | | (c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient |
18 | | relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital |
19 | | emergency department.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; 96-318, eff. 1-1-10.)
|
21 | | (410 ILCS 70/5.5)
|
22 | | Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up |
23 | | healthcare. |
24 | | (a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory, |
25 | | or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual |
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1 | | assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault |
2 | | survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced |
3 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
4 | | collaborating physician , or physician assistant who has been |
5 | | delegated authority by a supervising physician shall be |
6 | | reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided. |
7 | | Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to, |
8 | | the following: |
9 | | (1) a physical examination; |
10 | | (2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or |
11 | | absence of sexually transmitted disease; and |
12 | | (3) appropriate medications, including HIV |
13 | | prophylaxis. |
14 | | (b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office |
15 | | visits with a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician |
16 | | assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for hospital |
17 | | emergency services. |
18 | | (c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health |
19 | | care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide |
20 | | follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
|
22 | | Section 100. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures |
23 | | Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, and 3 as |
24 | | follows:
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1 | | (410 ILCS 210/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)
|
2 | | Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of |
3 | | a medical or
surgical procedure
by a physician licensed to |
4 | | practice medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who |
5 | | has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
6 | | physician that authorizes provision of services for minors , or |
7 | | a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to |
8 | | provide services for minors executed by a
married person who is |
9 | | a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by a pregnant
woman who is |
10 | | a minor, or by
any person 18 years of age or older, is not |
11 | | voidable because of such
minority, and, for such purpose, a |
12 | | married person who is a minor, a parent
who is a minor, a
|
13 | | pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 years of age or |
14 | | older, is
deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has |
15 | | the same powers and
obligations as has a person of legal age.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
|
17 | | (410 ILCS 210/1.5) |
18 | | Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for primary care |
19 | | services. |
20 | | (a) The consent to the performance of primary care services |
21 | | by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
22 | | branches, an advanced practice nurse who has a written |
23 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
24 | | authorizes provision of services for minors , or a physician |
25 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to provide services |
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1 | | for minors executed by a minor seeking care is not voidable |
2 | | because of such minority, and for such purpose, a minor seeking |
3 | | care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to act and has |
4 | | the same powers and obligations as has a person of legal age |
5 | | under the following circumstances: |
6 | | (1) the health care professional reasonably believes |
7 | | that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and |
8 | | risks of any proposed primary care or services; and |
9 | | (2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as |
10 | | a minor seeking care by: |
11 | | (A) an adult relative; |
12 | | (B) a representative of a homeless service agency |
13 | | that receives federal, State, county, or municipal |
14 | | funding to provide those services or that is otherwise |
15 | | sanctioned by a local continuum of care; |
16 | | (C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this |
17 | | State; |
18 | | (D) a public school homeless liaison or school |
19 | | social worker; |
20 | | (E) a social service agency providing services to |
21 | | at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or |
22 | | (F) a representative of a religious organization. |
23 | | (b) A health care professional rendering primary care |
24 | | services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal |
25 | | liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional |
26 | | discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she |
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1 | | relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor |
2 | | or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection |
3 | | (a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall |
4 | | be presumed. |
5 | | (c) The confidential nature of any communication between a |
6 | | health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and |
7 | | a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the |
8 | | time of communication, of any additional persons present at the |
9 | | request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care |
10 | | professional's disclosure of confidential information to the |
11 | | additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care, |
12 | | when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which |
13 | | the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care |
14 | | professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under |
15 | | which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has |
16 | | coverage for the services provided. |
17 | | (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or |
18 | | expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any |
19 | | federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be |
20 | | construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of |
21 | | 1995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of |
22 | | a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or |
23 | | otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a |
24 | | minor in their absence. |
25 | | (e) For the purposes of this Section: |
26 | | "Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years |
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1 | | of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate |
2 | | and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian, |
3 | | whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal |
4 | | guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the |
5 | | residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal |
6 | | affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who |
7 | | are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or |
8 | | guardianship of the Department of Children and Family |
9 | | Services. |
10 | | "Primary care services" means health care services |
11 | | that include screening, counseling, immunizations, |
12 | | medication, and treatment of illness and conditions |
13 | | customarily provided by licensed health care professionals |
14 | | in an out-patient setting. "Primary care services" does not |
15 | | include invasive care, beyond standard injections, |
16 | | laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-671, eff. 10-1-14.)
|
18 | | (410 ILCS 210/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)
|
19 | | Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may |
20 | | consent to the
performance upon his or her child of a medical |
21 | | or surgical procedure by a
physician licensed to practice |
22 | | medicine and surgery, an advanced practice nurse who has a |
23 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
24 | | that authorizes provision of services for minors , or a |
25 | | physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide |
|
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1 | | services for minors or a dental procedure
by a licensed |
2 | | dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall not be
|
3 | | voidable because of such minority, but, for such purpose, a |
4 | | parent who is a
minor shall be deemed to have the same legal |
5 | | capacity to act and shall have
the same powers and obligations |
6 | | as has a person of legal age.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
|
8 | | (410 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)
|
9 | | Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to |
10 | | practice medicine
or surgery, an advanced practice nurse who |
11 | | has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
12 | | physician that authorizes provision of services for minors , or |
13 | | a physician assistant who has been delegated authority to |
14 | | provide services for minors renders emergency treatment or |
15 | | first aid or a licensed dentist
renders emergency dental |
16 | | treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's parent
or legal |
17 | | guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole opinion of the
|
18 | | physician,
advanced practice nurse, physician assistant,
|
19 | | dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is not |
20 | | reasonably feasible
under the circumstances without adversely |
21 | | affecting the condition of such
minor's health.
|
22 | | (b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal |
23 | | sexual assault of
a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, |
24 | | criminal sexual assault,
aggravated criminal sexual abuse or |
25 | | criminal sexual abuse, as provided in
Sections 11-1.20 through |
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1 | | 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent
of the |
2 | | minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to |
3 | | authorize
a hospital, physician, advanced practice nurse, |
4 | | physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish |
5 | | medical care
or counseling related to the diagnosis or |
6 | | treatment of any disease or injury
arising from such offense. |
7 | | The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis
or |
8 | | treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of |
9 | | majority. Such
consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to |
10 | | later disaffirmance, because
of minority.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
|
12 | | Section 105. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended |
13 | | by changing Section 2 as follows:
|
14 | | (410 ILCS 225/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)
|
15 | | Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
16 | | context otherwise
requires:
|
17 | | "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means an advanced |
18 | | practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act who has a |
19 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
20 | | that authorizes the provision of prenatal and newborn care .
|
21 | | "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
22 | | Services.
|
23 | | "Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment |
24 | | (EPSDT)" means
the provision of preventative health care under |
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1 | | 42 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq.,
including medical and dental |
2 | | services, needed to assess growth and
development and detect |
3 | | and treat health problems.
|
4 | | "Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital |
5 | | Licensing Act.
|
6 | | "Local health authority" means the full-time official |
7 | | health
department or board of health, as recognized by the |
8 | | Illinois Department
of Public Health, having
jurisdiction over |
9 | | a particular area.
|
10 | | "Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice |
11 | | Act.
|
12 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed to practice |
13 | | medicine in all of
its branches.
|
14 | | "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed |
15 | | under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been |
16 | | delegated authority to provide prenatal and newborn care.
|
17 | | "Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with
|
18 | | reference to the newborn.
|
19 | | "Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.
|
20 | | "Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program |
21 | | established
pursuant to this Act.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
23 | | Section 110. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by |
24 | | changing Section 3 as follows:
|
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1 | | (410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)
|
2 | | Sec. 3. When used in this Act:
|
3 | | (a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
4 | | (b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information |
5 | | Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health |
6 | | Information Exchange and Technology Act. |
7 | | (c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it |
8 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
9 | | (d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
10 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
11 | | (e) "De-identified information" means health information |
12 | | that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, |
13 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b). |
14 | | (f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public |
15 | | Health or its designated agents.
|
16 | | (g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
17 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
18 | | (h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it |
19 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
20 | | (i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed |
21 | | physician, (ii) a
physician assistant
to whom the physician |
22 | | assistant's supervising physician has delegated the
provision |
23 | | of AIDS and
HIV-related health services, (iii) an advanced |
24 | | practice registered nurse who
has a written
collaborative |
25 | | agreement with a collaborating physician which authorizes the
|
26 | | provision of AIDS
and HIV-related health services , (iv) a |
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1 | | licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatric physician, or (vi) |
2 | | an
individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling |
3 | | by a state or local
public health
department. |
4 | | (j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it |
5 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
|
6 | | (k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood |
7 | | bank, blood
center, sperm bank, or other health care |
8 | | institution, including any "health
facility" as that term is |
9 | | defined in the Illinois Finance Authority
Act.
|
10 | | (l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health |
11 | | information exchange or health information organization that |
12 | | oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health |
13 | | information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois |
14 | | Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any |
15 | | subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules |
16 | | adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing |
17 | | arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, |
18 | | was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was |
19 | | represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health |
20 | | Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation
|
21 | | shall not require the establishment of a data sharing |
22 | | arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health
|
23 | | Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain |
24 | | circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a |
25 | | business associate. |
26 | | (m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to |
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1 | | it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
2 | | (n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and |
3 | | Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by |
4 | | the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical |
5 | | Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent |
6 | | amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder. |
7 | | (o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus. |
8 | | (p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a |
9 | | person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an |
10 | | HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription |
11 | | information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including |
12 | | such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related |
13 | | information" does not include information that has been |
14 | | de-identified in accordance with HIPAA. |
15 | | (q) "Informed consent" means a written or verbal
agreement |
16 | | by the subject of a test or the subject's
legally authorized |
17 | | representative without undue inducement or any element
of |
18 | | force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or |
19 | | coercion,
which entails at least the following pre-test |
20 | | information: |
21 | | (1) a fair explanation of the test, including its |
22 | | purpose, potential
uses, limitations, and the meaning of |
23 | | its results; |
24 | | (2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be |
25 | | followed, including the
voluntary nature of the test, the |
26 | | right to withdraw consent to the testing
process at any |
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1 | | time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law
|
2 | | with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of |
3 | | test results,
and the right to confidential treatment of
|
4 | | information identifying the subject of the test and the |
5 | | results of the
test, to the extent provided by law; and |
6 | | (3) where the person providing informed consent is a |
7 | | participant in an HIE, a fair explanation that the results |
8 | | of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE |
9 | | and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right |
10 | | under Section 9.6 of this Act. |
11 | | Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, |
12 | | or by video, electronic, or other means. The subject must be |
13 | | offered an opportunity to ask questions about the HIV test and |
14 | | decline testing. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a health |
15 | | care provider or health care professional from combining a form |
16 | | used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used |
17 | | to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other |
18 | | medical test or procedure provided that the forms make it clear |
19 | | that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or |
20 | | medical procedures without being required to consent to HIV |
21 | | testing and clearly explain how the subject may opt out of HIV |
22 | | testing. |
23 | | (r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
24 | | HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2). |
25 | | (s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using, |
26 | | disclosing, and requesting protected health information found |
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1 | | in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d). |
2 | | (t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning |
3 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
4 | | (u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to |
5 | | it under 42 CFR 3.20. |
6 | | (v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, |
7 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
8 | | (w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, |
9 | | association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public |
10 | | or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity. |
11 | | (x) "Protected health information" has the meaning |
12 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
13 | | (y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, |
14 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
15 | | (z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of |
16 | | Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that, |
17 | | pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an |
18 | | instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect |
19 | | the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.
|
20 | | (aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the |
21 | | presence of the
antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV |
22 | | infection.
|
23 | | (bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
24 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
25 | | (cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
26 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
2 | | Section 115. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease |
3 | | Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:
|
4 | | (410 ILCS 325/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403)
|
5 | | Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
6 | | context clearly
requires otherwise:
|
7 | | (1) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
8 | | (2) "Local health authority" means the full-time official |
9 | | health
department of board of health, as recognized by the |
10 | | Department, having
jurisdiction over a particular area.
|
11 | | (3) "Sexually transmissible disease" means a bacterial, |
12 | | viral, fungal or
parasitic disease, determined by rule of the |
13 | | Department to be sexually
transmissible, to be a threat to the |
14 | | public health and welfare, and to be a
disease for which a |
15 | | legitimate public interest will be served by providing
for |
16 | | regulation and treatment. In considering which diseases are to |
17 | | be
designated sexually transmissible diseases, the Department |
18 | | shall consider
such diseases as chancroid, gonorrhea, |
19 | | granuloma inguinale, lymphogranuloma
venereum, genital herpes |
20 | | simplex, chlamydia, nongonococcal urethritis
(NGU), pelvic |
21 | | inflammatory disease (PID)/Acute
Salpingitis, syphilis, |
22 | | Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and Human
|
23 | | Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) for designation, and shall |
24 | | consider the
recommendations and classifications of the |
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1 | | Centers for Disease Control and
other nationally recognized |
2 | | medical authorities. Not all diseases that are
sexually |
3 | | transmissible need be designated for purposes of this Act.
|
4 | | (4) "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
5 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant |
6 | | who has been delegated the provision of sexually transmissible |
7 | | disease therapy services or expedited partner therapy services |
8 | | by his or her supervising physician, or an advanced practice |
9 | | nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
10 | | collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of |
11 | | sexually transmissible disease therapy services or expedited |
12 | | partner therapy services, or an advanced practice nurse who |
13 | | practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center |
14 | | and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance |
15 | | with the Nurse Practice Act . |
16 | | (5) "Expedited partner therapy" means to prescribe, |
17 | | dispense, furnish, or otherwise provide prescription |
18 | | antibiotic drugs to the partner or partners of persons |
19 | | clinically diagnosed as infected with a sexually transmissible |
20 | | disease, without physical examination of the partner or |
21 | | partners. |
22 | | (Source: P.A. 96-613, eff. 1-1-10.)
|
23 | | (410 ILCS 325/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)
|
24 | | Sec. 4. Reporting required.
|
25 | | (a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the |
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1 | | Medical Practice Act
of 1987, an advanced practice nurse |
2 | | licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act who has |
3 | | a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
4 | | physician that authorizes the provision of services for a |
5 | | sexually transmissible disease , or a physician assistant |
6 | | licensed under the provisions of the Physician Assistant |
7 | | Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to |
8 | | provide services for a sexually transmissible disease
who makes |
9 | | a diagnosis of or treats a person with a sexually
transmissible |
10 | | disease and each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually
|
11 | | transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result |
12 | | shall report such
facts as may be required by the Department by |
13 | | rule, within such time period as
the Department may require by |
14 | | rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.
|
15 | | (b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the |
16 | | information
required in reporting a sexually transmissible |
17 | | disease, the method of
reporting and specifying a minimum time |
18 | | period for reporting. In adopting
such rules, the Department |
19 | | shall consider the need for information,
protections for the |
20 | | privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the
practical |
21 | | abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable
|
22 | | fashion.
|
23 | | (c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates |
24 | | any false
information or report concerning the existence of any |
25 | | sexually
transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of |
26 | | a Class A misdemeanor.
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1 | | (d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section |
2 | | or the rules
adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department |
3 | | up to $500 for each
violation. The Department shall report each |
4 | | violation of this Section to
the regulatory agency responsible |
5 | | for licensing a health care professional
or a laboratory to |
6 | | which these provisions apply.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
8 | | Section 120. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by |
9 | | changing Section 5 as follows:
|
10 | | (410 ILCS 335/5)
|
11 | | Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
|
12 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
13 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to |
14 | | practice
medicine in all its branches, a physician assistant |
15 | | who has been delegated the
provision of health services by his |
16 | | or her supervising physician, or an
advanced
practice |
17 | | registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with |
18 | | a
collaborating physician that authorizes the provision of |
19 | | health services .
|
20 | | "Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or |
21 | | other
institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to |
22 | | deliver health care
services.
|
23 | | "Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or |
24 | | labor or
delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn |
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1 | | infant, including
hospitalization.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 93-566, eff. 8-20-03; 94-910, eff. 6-23-06.)
|
3 | | Section 125. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended |
4 | | by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
5 | | (410 ILCS 513/10)
|
6 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
7 | | "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange |
8 | | Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health |
9 | | Information Exchange and Technology Act. |
10 | | "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
11 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
12 | | "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
13 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
14 | | "De-identified information" means health information that |
15 | | is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as |
16 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b). |
17 | | "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
18 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
19 | | "Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local |
20 | | government, and any board, commission, department, |
21 | | institution, or school district, any party to a public |
22 | | contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee |
23 | | within the State, and every other person employing employees |
24 | | within the State. |
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1 | | "Employment agency" means both public and private |
2 | | employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or |
3 | | labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly |
4 | | undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure |
5 | | opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place |
6 | | employees. |
7 | | "Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i) |
8 | | the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the |
9 | | individual, including a child who is born to or placed for |
10 | | adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying |
11 | | as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all |
12 | | other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or |
13 | | the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii) |
14 | | of this definition. |
15 | | "Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
16 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
17 | | "Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of |
18 | | employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic |
19 | | material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased |
20 | | occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course |
21 | | of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the |
22 | | workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to |
23 | | effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the |
24 | | workplace. |
25 | | "Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
26 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
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| | HB0421 | - 151 - | LRB099 05828 HAF 25872 b |
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1 | | "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning |
2 | | ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR |
3 | | 160.103. |
4 | | "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it |
5 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
6 | | "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, |
7 | | (ii) a physician assistant to whom the physician assistant's |
8 | | supervising physician has delegated the provision of genetic |
9 | | testing or genetic counseling-related services, (iii) an |
10 | | advanced practice registered nurse who has a written |
11 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician which |
12 | | authorizes the provision of genetic testing or genetic |
13 | | counseling-related health services , (iv) a licensed dentist, |
14 | | (v) a licensed podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic counselor, |
15 | | or (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic testing by |
16 | | a state or local public health department. |
17 | | "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
18 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
19 | | "Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood |
20 | | center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including |
21 | | any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois |
22 | | Finance Authority Act. |
23 | | "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health |
24 | | information exchange or health information organization that |
25 | | exchanges health information electronically that (i) is |
26 | | established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information |
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1 | | Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments |
2 | | thereto, and any administrative rules promulgated thereunder; |
3 | | (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the |
4 | | Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by |
5 | | the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the |
6 | | Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange |
7 | | Workgroup; provided that such designation
shall not require the |
8 | | establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other |
9 | | participation with the Illinois Health
Information Exchange or |
10 | | the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance |
11 | | with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate. |
12 | | "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it |
13 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
14 | | "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and |
15 | | Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by |
16 | | the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical |
17 | | Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent |
18 | | amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
|
19 | | "Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the |
20 | | jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a
managed |
21 | | care plan.
|
22 | | "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor |
23 | | union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated |
24 | | association designed to further the cause of the rights of |
25 | | union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in |
26 | | part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers |
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1 | | concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or |
2 | | apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of |
3 | | other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, |
4 | | including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships. |
5 | | "Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee, |
6 | | council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in |
7 | | this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant, |
8 | | deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a |
9 | | license or certificate of registration. |
10 | | "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
11 | | HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2). |
12 | | "Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes, |
13 | | operates, or maintains a
network of health care providers that |
14 | | have entered into agreements with the
plan to provide health |
15 | | care services to enrollees where the plan has the
ultimate and |
16 | | direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for |
17 | | the
provision of or pay for services
through:
|
18 | | (1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality |
19 | | assurance,
utilization review programs, or dispute |
20 | | resolution; or
|
21 | | (2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the |
22 | | plan to use the
participating providers and procedures |
23 | | covered by the plan.
|
24 | | A managed care plan may be established or operated by any |
25 | | entity including
a licensed insurance company, hospital or |
26 | | medical service plan, health
maintenance organization, limited |
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1 | | health service organization, preferred
provider organization, |
2 | | third party administrator, or an employer or employee
|
3 | | organization.
|
4 | | "Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using, |
5 | | disclosing, and requesting protected health information found |
6 | | in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d). |
7 | | "Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not |
8 | | intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the |
9 | | individual whom the information concerns. |
10 | | "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning |
11 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
12 | | "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it |
13 | | under 42 CFR 3.20. |
14 | | "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
15 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
16 | | "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, |
17 | | association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public |
18 | | or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity. |
19 | | "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to |
20 | | it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103. |
21 | | "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
22 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
23 | | "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of |
24 | | Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which |
25 | | pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an |
26 | | instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect |
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1 | | the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons. |
2 | | "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
3 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
4 | | "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
5 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates. |
6 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
7 | | Section 130. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation |
8 | | and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as |
9 | | follows:
|
10 | | (410 ILCS 642/10)
|
11 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
12 | | "Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or |
13 | | advanced practice nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, |
14 | | who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in |
15 | | this State. |
16 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to |
17 | | practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice |
18 | | nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
19 | | collaborating physician that authorizes services under this |
20 | | Act , or a physician assistant who has been delegated the |
21 | | authority to perform services under this Act by his or her |
22 | | supervising physician. |
23 | | "Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in |
24 | | Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home |
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1 | | Nursing Agency Licensing Act.
|
2 | | "Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of |
3 | | the Hospice Program Licensing Act. |
4 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical |
5 | | Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 94-638, eff. 8-22-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; |
7 | | 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
8 | | Section 135. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by |
9 | | changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-616, 6-103, 6-106.1, and 6-901 as |
10 | | follows:
|
11 | | (625 ILCS 5/1-159.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)
|
12 | | Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person |
13 | | who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a physician
|
14 | | assistant who has been delegated the authority to make this |
15 | | determination by
his or her supervising physician, or by an |
16 | | advanced practice nurse who has a
written collaborative |
17 | | agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes
the |
18 | | advanced practice nurse to make this determination : (1) cannot |
19 | | walk
without the use of, or
assistance from, a brace, cane, |
20 | | crutch, another person, prosthetic device,
wheelchair, or |
21 | | other assistive device; (2) is restricted by lung
disease to
|
22 | | such an extent that his or her forced (respiratory) expiratory |
23 | | volume for one
second, when measured by spirometry, is less |
24 | | than one liter, or the arterial
oxygen tension is less than 60 |
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1 | | mm/hg on room air at rest; (3) uses
portable
oxygen; (4) has a |
2 | | cardiac condition to the extent that the person's
functional
|
3 | | limitations are classified in severity as Class III or Class |
4 | | IV,
according to standards set by the American Heart |
5 | | Association; (5) is
severely limited in the person's ability to |
6 | | walk due to an arthritic,
neurological, oncological, or |
7 | | orthopedic condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet without
stopping |
8 | | to rest because of one of the above 5 conditions; or (7) is |
9 | | missing a hand or arm or has permanently lost the use of a hand |
10 | | or arm.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 98-405, eff. 1-1-14.)
|
12 | | (625 ILCS 5/3-616) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)
|
13 | | Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.
|
14 | | (a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of |
15 | | registration for
a motor vehicle of the first division or for a |
16 | | motor vehicle of the second
division weighing no more than |
17 | | 8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the
registration fees |
18 | | required under this Code from a person with disabilities or
a |
19 | | person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State,
|
20 | | if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates |
21 | | as provided for
in Section 3-611, provided that the person with |
22 | | disabilities or person who is
deaf or hard of hearing must not |
23 | | be disqualified from obtaining a driver's
license under |
24 | | subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further |
25 | | provided
that any person making such a request must submit a |
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1 | | statement, certified by
a
licensed physician, by a physician |
2 | | assistant who has been delegated the
authority to make this |
3 | | certification by his or her supervising physician, or by
an |
4 | | advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative |
5 | | agreement with a
collaborating physician that authorizes the |
6 | | advanced practice nurse to make
this certification , to
the |
7 | | effect that such person is a person with disabilities
as |
8 | | defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or alternatively |
9 | | provide adequate
documentation that such person has a Class 1A, |
10 | | Class 2A or Type Four
disability under the provisions of |
11 | | Section 4A of the Illinois Identification
Card Act. For |
12 | | purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person
with a Disability |
13 | | Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois |
14 | | Identification Card Act
indicating that the person thereon |
15 | | named has a disability shall be adequate
documentation of such |
16 | | a disability.
|
17 | | (b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to |
18 | | a parent or
legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the |
19 | | person with disabilities
has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability |
20 | | as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
Identification Card |
21 | | Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section
|
22 | | 1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered |
23 | | in his or her
name, provided that the person with disabilities |
24 | | relies frequently on the
parent or legal guardian for |
25 | | transportation. Only one vehicle per family
may be registered |
26 | | under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in
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1 | | writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person |
2 | | requesting
special plates under this subsection shall submit |
3 | | such documentation or such
physician's, physician assistant's, |
4 | | or advanced practice nurse's
statement as is required in |
5 | | subsection
(a) and a statement
describing the circumstances |
6 | | qualifying for issuance of special plates under
this |
7 | | subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual |
8 | | Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois |
9 | | Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person |
10 | | with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.
|
11 | | (c) The Secretary may issue a
parking decal or
device to a |
12 | | person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without
|
13 | | regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a |
14 | | driver's license
or registration of a vehicle by such person |
15 | | with disabilities or such person's
immediate family, provided |
16 | | such person with disabilities making such a request
has been |
17 | | issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
18 | | indicating that the
person named thereon has a Class 1A or |
19 | | Class 2A disability, or alternatively,
submits a statement |
20 | | certified by a licensed physician, or by a physician
assistant |
21 | | or an advanced practice nurse as provided in subsection (a), to
|
22 | | the effect that such
person is a person with disabilities as |
23 | | defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist may certify a Class |
24 | | 2A Visual Disability as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois |
25 | | Identification Card Act for the purpose of qualifying a person |
26 | | with disabilities for a parking decal or device under this |
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1 | | subsection.
|
2 | | (d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations |
3 | | procedures
to certify or re-certify as necessary the |
4 | | eligibility of persons whose
disabilities are other than |
5 | | permanent for special plates or
parking decals or devices |
6 | | issued under subsections (a), (b)
and (c). Except as provided |
7 | | under subsection (f) of this Section, no
such special plates, |
8 | | decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of
State to |
9 | | or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person |
10 | | is
certified as meeting the definition of a person with |
11 | | disabilities pursuant to
Section 1-159.1 or meeting the |
12 | | requirement of a Type Four disability as
provided under Section |
13 | | 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the
period of |
14 | | time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced
|
15 | | practice nurse as provided in
subsection (a), determines the |
16 | | applicant will have the
disability, but not to exceed 6 months |
17 | | from the date of certification or
recertification.
|
18 | | (e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section |
19 | | may also apply
to have the special plates personalized, as |
20 | | provided under Section 3-405.1.
|
21 | | (f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue |
22 | | disability registration plates or a parking decal to
|
23 | | corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies, |
24 | | limited liability
companies, nursing homes, convalescent |
25 | | homes, or special education cooperatives
which will transport |
26 | | persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe
by |
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1 | | rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of |
2 | | organizations to
receive disability plates or decals and to |
3 | | designate which of the
2 person with disabilities emblems shall |
4 | | be placed on qualifying
vehicles.
|
5 | | (g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into
|
6 | | agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign |
7 | | jurisdictions, on
behalf of this State relating to the |
8 | | extension of parking privileges by
such jurisdictions to |
9 | | permanently disabled residents of this State who
display a |
10 | | special license plate or parking device that contains the
|
11 | | International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and |
12 | | to
recognize such plates or devices issued by such other |
13 | | jurisdictions. This
State shall grant the same parking |
14 | | privileges which are granted to disabled
residents of this |
15 | | State to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed
in |
16 | | another state, district, territory or foreign country if such |
17 | | vehicle
displays the international symbol of access or a |
18 | | distinguishing insignia on
license plates or parking device |
19 | | issued in accordance with the laws of the
non-resident's state, |
20 | | district, territory or foreign country.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)
|
22 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)
|
23 | | Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers |
24 | | or granted
permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, |
25 | | renew, or
allow the retention of any driver's
license nor issue |
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1 | | any permit under this Code:
|
2 | | 1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of |
3 | | 18 years except
as provided in Section 6-107, and except |
4 | | that an instruction permit may be
issued under Section |
5 | | 6-107.1 to a child who
is not less than 15 years of age if |
6 | | the child is enrolled in an approved
driver education |
7 | | course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and
|
8 | | requires an instruction permit to participate therein, |
9 | | except that an
instruction permit may be issued under the |
10 | | provisions of Section 6-107.1
to a child who is 17 years |
11 | | and 3 months of age without the child having
enrolled in an
|
12 | | approved driver education course and except that an
|
13 | | instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least |
14 | | 15 years and 3
months of age, is enrolled in school, meets |
15 | | the educational requirements of
the Driver Education Act, |
16 | | and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in
his |
17 | | or her discretion may prescribe;
|
18 | | 1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less |
19 | | than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to |
20 | | any other requirements of this Code, successfully |
21 | | completed an adult driver education course as provided in |
22 | | Section 6-107.5 of this Code;
|
23 | | 2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an |
24 | | operator of a motorcycle
other than a motor driven cycle |
25 | | unless the person has, in addition to
meeting the |
26 | | provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully
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1 | | completed a motorcycle
training course approved by the |
2 | | Illinois Department of Transportation and
successfully |
3 | | completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle |
4 | | driver's
examination;
|
5 | | 3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license |
6 | | or permit has been
suspended, during the suspension, nor to |
7 | | any person whose driver's license or
permit has been |
8 | | revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and
|
9 | | 6-208;
|
10 | | 4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol |
11 | | or any other
drug to a degree that renders the person |
12 | | incapable of safely driving a motor
vehicle;
|
13 | | 5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been |
14 | | adjudged to be
afflicted with or suffering from any mental |
15 | | or physical disability or disease
and who has not at the |
16 | | time of application been restored to competency by the
|
17 | | methods provided by law;
|
18 | | 6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the |
19 | | Secretary of State
to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation |
20 | | or take an examination provided
for in this Code unless the |
21 | | person has
successfully passed the examination and |
22 | | submitted any required evaluation;
|
23 | | 7. To any person who is required under the provisions |
24 | | of the laws of
this State to deposit security or proof of |
25 | | financial responsibility and who
has not deposited the |
26 | | security or proof;
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1 | | 8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good |
2 | | cause to believe
that the person by reason of physical or |
3 | | mental disability would not be
able to safely operate a |
4 | | motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the
person shall |
5 | | furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written
|
6 | | statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a |
7 | | competent medical
specialist, a licensed physician |
8 | | assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical |
9 | | examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a |
10 | | licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written |
11 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
12 | | which authorizes him or her to perform medical |
13 | | examinations , to the effect that the operation of a motor |
14 | | vehicle by the
person would not be inimical to the public |
15 | | safety;
|
16 | | 9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age |
17 | | or older, unless
the person has successfully complied with |
18 | | the provisions of Section 6-109;
|
19 | | 10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of |
20 | | application for a
license, of any of the sexual offenses |
21 | | enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection
(b) of Section |
22 | | 6-205;
|
23 | | 11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with |
24 | | a classification
prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section |
25 | | 6-104 and to any person who is under
the age of 18 years |
26 | | with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of
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1 | | Section 6-104;
|
2 | | 12. To any person who has been either convicted of or |
3 | | adjudicated under
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon |
4 | | a violation of the Cannabis Control
Act, the Illinois |
5 | | Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control |
6 | | and Community Protection Act while that person was in |
7 | | actual
physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of |
8 | | this Section, any person
placed on probation under Section |
9 | | 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410
of the Illinois |
10 | | Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the |
11 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall |
12 | | not be considered convicted.
Any person found guilty of |
13 | | this offense, while in actual physical control of a
motor |
14 | | vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by |
15 | | the judge that
this offense did occur while the person was |
16 | | in actual physical control of a
motor vehicle and order the |
17 | | clerk of the court to report the violation to the
Secretary |
18 | | of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a |
19 | | new
license or permit for a period of one year;
|
20 | | 13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and |
21 | | who has committed
the offense
of operating a motor vehicle |
22 | | without a valid license or permit in violation of
Section |
23 | | 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;
|
24 | | 14. To any person who is
90 days or more
delinquent in |
25 | | court ordered child support
payments or has been |
26 | | adjudicated in arrears
in an amount equal to 90 days' |
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1 | | obligation or more
and who has been found in contempt
of
|
2 | | court for failure to pay the support, subject to the |
3 | | requirements and
procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of
|
4 | | the Illinois Vehicle Code;
|
5 | | 14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois |
6 | | Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 |
7 | | days or more delinquent in payment of support under an |
8 | | order of support entered by a court or administrative body |
9 | | of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and |
10 | | procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code |
11 | | regarding those certifications;
|
12 | | 15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment |
13 | | for violating
Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or |
14 | | the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law |
15 | | of another state relating to reckless homicide or for |
16 | | violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection |
17 | | (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated |
18 | | driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or |
19 | | drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any |
20 | | combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate |
21 | | cause of a death, within
24 months of release from a term |
22 | | of imprisonment;
|
23 | | 16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act |
24 | | related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, |
25 | | by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the |
26 | | owner or employee of any commercial driver training school |
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1 | | licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual |
2 | | authorized by the laws of this State to give driving |
3 | | instructions or administer all or part of a driver's |
4 | | license examination, promises or tenders to that person any |
5 | | property or personal advantage which that person is not |
6 | | authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or |
7 | | tendering such property or personal advantage shall be |
8 | | disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or |
9 | | permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State |
10 | | shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing |
11 | | this period of disqualification and the procedures by which |
12 | | persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review |
13 | | of the decision to disqualify;
|
14 | | 17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State |
15 | | cannot verify the
accuracy of any information or |
16 | | documentation submitted in application for a
driver's |
17 | | license; or
|
18 | | 18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the |
19 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is |
20 | | determined by the court to have been committed in |
21 | | furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized |
22 | | gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that |
23 | | involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use |
24 | | of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied |
25 | | a license or permit for the period determined by the court.
|
26 | | The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction
|
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1 | | information, if the information is required to be held |
2 | | confidential under
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. |
3 | | (Source: P.A. 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; |
4 | | 98-167, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
5 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)
|
6 | | Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.
|
7 | | (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver
|
8 | | permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of |
9 | | the
application and screening process under this Section to |
10 | | insure the
welfare and safety of children who are transported |
11 | | on school buses
throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants |
12 | | shall obtain the
proper application required by the Secretary |
13 | | of State from their
prospective or current employer and submit |
14 | | the completed
application to the prospective or current |
15 | | employer along
with the necessary fingerprint submission as |
16 | | required by the
Department of
State Police to conduct |
17 | | fingerprint based criminal background
checks on current and |
18 | | future information available in the state
system and current |
19 | | information available through the Federal Bureau
of |
20 | | Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the
|
21 | | fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the
|
22 | | fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or
|
23 | | submitting proof of successful completion of the annual |
24 | | refresher
course. Individuals who on the effective date of this |
25 | | Act possess a valid
school bus driver permit that has been |
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1 | | previously issued by the appropriate
Regional School |
2 | | Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting
|
3 | | provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid |
4 | | and does not
lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all |
5 | | related
application and fingerprinting fees as established by |
6 | | rule
including, but not limited to, the amounts established by |
7 | | the Department of
State Police and the Federal Bureau of |
8 | | Investigation to process
fingerprint based criminal background |
9 | | investigations. All fees paid for
fingerprint processing |
10 | | services under this Section shall be deposited into the
State |
11 | | Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the |
12 | | fingerprint
based criminal background investigations. All |
13 | | other fees paid under this
Section shall be deposited into the |
14 | | Road
Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the |
15 | | Secretary of State in
administering this Section. All |
16 | | applicants must:
|
17 | | 1. be 21 years of age or older;
|
18 | | 2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's |
19 | | license
issued by the Secretary of State;
|
20 | | 3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been
|
21 | | revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately |
22 | | prior to
the date of application, or have not had his or |
23 | | her commercial motor vehicle
driving privileges
|
24 | | disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the |
25 | | date of application;
|
26 | | 4. successfully pass a written test, administered by |
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1 | | the
Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus |
2 | | safety, and
special traffic laws relating to school buses |
3 | | and submit to a review
of the applicant's driving habits by |
4 | | the Secretary of State at the time the
written test is |
5 | | given;
|
6 | | 5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in |
7 | | the operation of
school buses in accordance with rules |
8 | | promulgated by the Secretary of State;
|
9 | | 6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school |
10 | | buses by
submitting the results of a medical examination, |
11 | | including tests for drug
use for each applicant not subject |
12 | | to such testing pursuant to
federal law, conducted by a |
13 | | licensed physician, an advanced practice nurse
who has a |
14 | | written collaborative agreement with
a collaborating |
15 | | physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical
|
16 | | examinations , or a physician assistant who has been |
17 | | delegated the
performance of medical examinations by his or |
18 | | her supervising physician
within 90 days of the date
of |
19 | | application according to standards promulgated by the |
20 | | Secretary of State;
|
21 | | 7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has |
22 | | not made a
false statement or knowingly concealed a |
23 | | material fact
in any application for permit;
|
24 | | 8. have completed an initial classroom course, |
25 | | including first aid
procedures, in school bus driver safety |
26 | | as promulgated by the Secretary of
State; and after |
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1 | | satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual
|
2 | | refresher course; such courses and the agency or |
3 | | organization conducting such
courses shall be approved by |
4 | | the Secretary of State; failure to
complete the annual |
5 | | refresher course, shall result in
cancellation of the |
6 | | permit until such course is completed;
|
7 | | 9. not have been under an order of court supervision |
8 | | for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as
|
9 | | defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of |
10 | | application that may
endanger the life or safety of any of |
11 | | the driver's passengers within the
duration of the permit |
12 | | period;
|
13 | | 10. not have been under an order of court supervision |
14 | | for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless |
15 | | driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, |
16 | | other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or |
17 | | any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting |
18 | | from the operation of a motor
vehicle within 3 years of the |
19 | | date of application;
|
20 | | 11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting
|
21 | | to commit any
one or more of the following offenses: (i) |
22 | | those offenses defined in
Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, |
23 | | 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1,
10-4,
10-5, |
24 | | 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, |
25 | | 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6,
11-9, 11-9.1, |
26 | | 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, |
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1 | | 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, |
2 | | 11-19.1,
11-19.2,
11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, |
3 | | 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, |
4 | | 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4,
|
5 | | 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9,
12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, |
6 | | 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11,
12-13, 12-14, |
7 | | 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, |
8 | | 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1,
|
9 | | 18-1,
18-2,
18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6,
20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, |
10 | | 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, |
11 | | 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, |
12 | | 31A-1.1,
33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section |
13 | | 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), |
14 | | (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and |
15 | | in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of |
16 | | Section
12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), |
17 | | of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article |
18 | | 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of |
19 | | 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the
Cannabis Control |
20 | | Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and
|
21 | | (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the |
22 | | Cannabis Control
Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the |
23 | | Illinois Controlled Substances
Act; (iv) those offenses |
24 | | defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
25 | | Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in |
26 | | any other state or against
the laws of the United States, |
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1 | | which if committed or attempted in this
State would be |
2 | | punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi)
|
3 | | the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs |
4 | | to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of |
5 | | 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses |
6 | | defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of
1934;
|
7 | | and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine |
8 | | Precursor Control Act;
|
9 | | 12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in |
10 | | motor vehicle
collisions or been repeatedly convicted of |
11 | | offenses against
laws and ordinances regulating the |
12 | | movement of traffic, to a degree which
indicates lack of |
13 | | ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the
|
14 | | safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the |
15 | | traffic laws and
the safety of other persons upon the |
16 | | highway;
|
17 | | 13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor
|
18 | | vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any |
19 | | person;
|
20 | | 14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to |
21 | | be
afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability |
22 | | or disease; and
|
23 | | 15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of |
24 | | reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under |
25 | | Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the |
26 | | applicant to the Secretary of State. |
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1 | | (b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period |
2 | | specified by
the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It |
3 | | shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this
|
4 | | Section.
|
5 | | (c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's |
6 | | driver's
license number, legal name, residence address, zip |
7 | | code, and date
of birth, a brief description of the holder and |
8 | | a space for signature. The
Secretary of State may require a |
9 | | suitable photograph of the holder.
|
10 | | (d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a |
11 | | pre-employment
interview with prospective school bus driver |
12 | | candidates, distributing school
bus driver applications and |
13 | | medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and
submitting |
14 | | the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State |
15 | | Police
that are required for the criminal background |
16 | | investigations. The employer
shall certify in writing to the |
17 | | Secretary of State that all pre-employment
conditions have been |
18 | | successfully completed including the successful completion
of |
19 | | an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through |
20 | | the
Department of State Police and the submission of necessary
|
21 | | fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for |
22 | | criminal
history information available through the Federal |
23 | | Bureau of
Investigation system. The applicant shall present the
|
24 | | certification to the Secretary of State at the time of |
25 | | submitting
the school bus driver permit application.
|
26 | | (e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving
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1 | | certification from the employer that all pre-employment |
2 | | conditions
have been successfully completed, and upon |
3 | | successful completion of
all training and examination |
4 | | requirements for the classification of
the vehicle to be |
5 | | operated, the Secretary of State shall
provisionally issue a |
6 | | School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall
remain in a |
7 | | provisional status pending the completion of the
Federal Bureau |
8 | | of Investigation's criminal background investigation based
|
9 | | upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau |
10 | | of
Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal |
11 | | Bureau of
Investigation shall report the findings directly to |
12 | | the Secretary
of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the |
13 | | bus driver
permit from provisional status upon the applicant's |
14 | | successful
completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's |
15 | | criminal
background investigation.
|
16 | | (f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the
|
17 | | employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an |
18 | | order of court supervision for or convicted in
another state of |
19 | | an offense that would make him or her ineligible
for a permit |
20 | | under subsection (a) of this Section. The
written notification |
21 | | shall be made within 5 days of the entry of
the order of court |
22 | | supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to |
23 | | provide the
notification is punishable as a petty
offense for a |
24 | | first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a
second or |
25 | | subsequent violation.
|
26 | | (g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.
|
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1 | | (1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
|
2 | | driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background |
3 | | investigation
discloses that he or she is not in compliance |
4 | | with the provisions of subsection
(a) of this Section.
|
5 | | (2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school
bus |
6 | | driver permit when he or she receives notice that the |
7 | | permit holder fails
to comply with any provision of this |
8 | | Section or any rule promulgated for the
administration of |
9 | | this Section.
|
10 | | (3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
|
11 | | driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial |
12 | | or
commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or |
13 | | otherwise
invalidated.
|
14 | | (4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus
|
15 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who |
16 | | fails to
obtain a negative result on a drug test as |
17 | | required in item 6 of
subsection (a) of this Section or |
18 | | under federal law.
|
19 | | (5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend
a |
20 | | school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon |
21 | | receiving
notice that the holder has failed to obtain a |
22 | | negative result on a
drug test as required in item 6 of |
23 | | subsection (a) of this Section
or under federal law.
|
24 | | (6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus |
25 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice |
26 | | from the employer that the holder failed to perform the |
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1 | | inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of |
2 | | Section 12-816 of this Code. |
3 | | (7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus |
4 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice |
5 | | from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an |
6 | | alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has |
7 | | submitted to a test required by that Section which |
8 | | disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or |
9 | | disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug |
10 | | Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set |
11 | | forth in 49 CFR 40.87. |
12 | | The Secretary of State shall notify the State |
13 | | Superintendent
of Education and the permit holder's |
14 | | prospective or current
employer that the applicant has (1) has |
15 | | failed a criminal
background investigation or (2) is no
longer |
16 | | eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related
|
17 | | cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver |
18 | | permit. The
cancellation shall remain in effect pending the |
19 | | outcome of a
hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. |
20 | | The scope of the
hearing shall be limited to the issuance |
21 | | criteria contained in
subsection (a) of this Section. A |
22 | | petition requesting a
hearing shall be submitted to the |
23 | | Secretary of State and shall
contain the reason the individual |
24 | | feels he or she is entitled to a
school bus driver permit. The |
25 | | permit holder's
employer shall notify in writing to the |
26 | | Secretary of State
that the employer has certified the removal |
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1 | | of the offending school
bus driver from service prior to the |
2 | | start of that school bus
driver's next workshift. An employing |
3 | | school board that fails to
remove the offending school bus |
4 | | driver from service is
subject to the penalties defined in |
5 | | Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A
school bus
contractor who |
6 | | violates a provision of this Section is
subject to the |
7 | | penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.
|
8 | | All valid school bus driver permits issued under this |
9 | | Section
prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until |
10 | | their
expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.
|
11 | | (h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service |
12 | | member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit |
13 | | holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of |
14 | | notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has |
15 | | been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this |
16 | | subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the |
17 | | permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as |
18 | | provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a |
19 | | permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this |
20 | | Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State |
21 | | shall not characterize the permit as invalid. |
22 | | (i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service |
23 | | member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a |
24 | | permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of |
25 | | this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of |
26 | | subsection (b) of this Section. |
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1 | | (j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this |
2 | | Section: |
3 | | "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive |
4 | | order of the President of the United States, an act of the |
5 | | Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor. |
6 | | "Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or |
7 | | reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois |
8 | | National Guard. |
9 | | (Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09; |
10 | | 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff. |
11 | | 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, |
12 | | Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11; |
13 | | 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff. |
14 | | 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, |
15 | | eff. 1-25-13.)
|
16 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-901) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901)
|
17 | | Sec. 6-901. Definitions. For the purposes of this
Article:
|
18 | | "Board" means the Driver's License Medical Advisory Board.
|
19 | | "Medical examiner" or "medical practitioner" means: |
20 | | (i) any
person licensed to practice medicine in all its |
21 | | branches in
the State of Illinois or any other state;
|
22 | | (ii) a licensed physician assistant who has been |
23 | | delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or |
24 | | her supervising physician; or |
25 | | (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a |
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1 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
2 | | physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical |
3 | | examinations . |
4 | | (Source: P.A. 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff. 7-22-11.)
|
5 | | Section 140. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is |
6 | | amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows:
|
7 | | (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) |
8 | | Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
9 | | context
otherwise requires:
|
10 | | (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, |
11 | | chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as |
12 | | to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who |
13 | | is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled |
14 | | substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self |
15 | | control with reference to his or her addiction.
|
16 | | (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a |
17 | | controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, |
18 | | ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient, |
19 | | research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane |
20 | | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
|
21 | | (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his |
22 | | or her authorized agent),
|
23 | | (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an |
24 | | order, or
|
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1 | | (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane |
2 | | Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
|
3 | | (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf |
4 | | of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, |
5 | | dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not
include a |
6 | | common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
|
7 | | the carrier or warehouseman.
|
8 | | (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal |
9 | | substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to |
10 | | testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins, |
11 | | corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone),
and includes:
|
12 | | (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
13 | | (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
14 | | (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, |
15 | | (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], |
16 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
17 | | (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], |
18 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
19 | | (vi) 4-androstenediol |
20 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), |
21 | | (vii) 5-androstenediol |
22 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), |
23 | | (viii) 1-androstenedione |
24 | | ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), |
25 | | (ix) 4-androstenedione |
26 | | (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), |
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1 | | (x) 5-androstenedione |
2 | | (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), |
3 | | (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
4 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
5 | | (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
6 | | 1,4,-diene-3-one), |
7 | | (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- |
8 | | diene-3,17-dione), |
9 | | (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 |
10 | | [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
11 | | (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
12 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- |
14 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- |
15 | | androst-1,4-dien-3-one), |
16 | | (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone |
17 | | (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] |
18 | | -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), |
19 | | (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. |
20 | | '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
21 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
22 | | (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
23 | | androstan-3-one), |
24 | | (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- |
25 | | 5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
26 | | (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
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1 | | hydroxyestr-4-ene), |
2 | | (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- |
3 | | 1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
4 | | (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], |
5 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
6 | | (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
7 | | hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), |
8 | | (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) |
9 | | (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- |
10 | | androst-4-en-3-one), |
11 | | (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- |
12 | | dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
14 | | hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), |
15 | | (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
16 | | [5a]-androstan-3-one), |
17 | | (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
18 | | hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
19 | | (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
20 | | dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), |
21 | | (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
22 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
23 | | (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- |
24 | | dihydroxy-5a-androstane), |
25 | | (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy |
26 | | -5a-androstane), |
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1 | | (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
2 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), |
3 | | (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- |
4 | | methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
5 | | (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
6 | | hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), |
7 | | (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
8 | | hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), |
9 | | (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
10 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
11 | | (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
12 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone |
14 | | (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- |
15 | | androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- |
16 | | 1-testosterone'), |
17 | | (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
18 | | (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
19 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
20 | | (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
21 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
22 | | (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
23 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
24 | | (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
25 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
26 | | (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione |
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|
1 | | (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), |
2 | | (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- |
3 | | en-3,17-dione), |
4 | | (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- |
5 | | en-3,17-dione), |
6 | | (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- |
7 | | hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), |
8 | | (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
9 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
10 | | (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
11 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
12 | | (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
13 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
14 | | (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
15 | | 2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
16 | | (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- |
17 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
18 | | (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- |
19 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
20 | | (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
21 | | (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), |
22 | | (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
23 | | (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
24 | | (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- |
25 | | secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic |
26 | | acid lactone), |
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|
1 | | (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
2 | | 4-en-3-one), |
3 | | (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- |
4 | | diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- |
5 | | 4,9,11-trien-3-one), |
6 | | (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, |
7 | | 11-trien-3-one).
|
8 | | Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an |
9 | | anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, |
10 | | distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to |
11 | | deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is |
12 | | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered |
13 | | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
|
14 | | which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services |
15 | | for such
administration, and which the person intends to |
16 | | administer or have
administered through such implants, shall |
17 | | not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to |
18 | | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or |
19 | | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
|
20 | | purposes of this Act.
|
21 | | (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
22 | | Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its |
23 | | successor agency.
|
24 | | (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" |
25 | | means a Department of Human Services administrative employee |
26 | | licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances |
|
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|
1 | | who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human |
2 | | Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription |
3 | | Information Library. |
4 | | (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of |
5 | | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a |
6 | | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the |
7 | | prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of |
8 | | professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident |
9 | | to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale |
10 | | or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs |
11 | | or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug |
12 | | orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing |
13 | | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded |
14 | | for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the |
15 | | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not |
16 | | reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a |
17 | | timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the |
18 | | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be |
19 | | compounded. |
20 | | (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or |
21 | | immediate
precursor, to a Schedule whether by
transfer from |
22 | | another Schedule or otherwise.
|
23 | | (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or |
24 | | immediate
precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act |
25 | | or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, |
26 | | designated as a controlled substance by the Department through |
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|
1 | | administrative rule. The term does not include distilled |
2 | | spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
|
3 | | defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the |
4 | | Tobacco Products Tax
Act of 1995.
|
5 | | (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: |
6 | | (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially |
7 | | similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance |
8 | | in Schedule I or II; |
9 | | (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or |
10 | | hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is |
11 | | substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, |
12 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
13 | | nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or |
14 | | II; or |
15 | | (3) with respect to a particular person, which such |
16 | | person represents or intends to have a stimulant, |
17 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
18 | | nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater |
19 | | than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect |
20 | | on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in |
21 | | Schedule I or II. |
22 | | (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, |
23 | | which, or
the container or labeling of which, without |
24 | | authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other |
25 | | identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness |
26 | | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other |
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|
1 | | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or |
2 | | dispensed the substance.
|
3 | | (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive |
4 | | or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, |
5 | | with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an |
6 | | agency relationship.
|
7 | | (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
8 | | Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and |
9 | | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
|
10 | | (j) (Blank).
|
11 | | (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of |
12 | | Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
13 | | (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" |
14 | | means the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation |
15 | | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
16 | | (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall |
17 | | depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes |
18 | | impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
19 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
20 | | but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles |
21 | | and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, |
22 | | barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and |
23 | | synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar |
24 | | sedative hypnotics.
|
25 | | (n) (Blank).
|
26 | | (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State |
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1 | | Police or his or her designated agents.
|
2 | | (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to |
3 | | an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the |
4 | | lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing, |
5 | | administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary |
6 | | to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
|
7 | | (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
|
8 | | (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by |
9 | | administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
|
10 | | (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
|
11 | | (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the |
12 | | official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic |
13 | | Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National |
14 | | Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances |
15 | | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or |
16 | | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other |
17 | | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
|
18 | | the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use |
19 | | as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or |
20 | | (3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their |
21 | | components, parts, or
accessories.
|
22 | | (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the |
23 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
|
24 | | purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control |
25 | | facility license or
animal
shelter license under the Animal |
26 | | Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase, |
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1 | | store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
|
2 | | Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal |
3 | | euthanasia.
|
4 | | (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III |
5 | | substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used |
6 | | by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
|
7 | | (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a |
8 | | controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of |
9 | | professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his or |
10 | | her treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that |
11 | | individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or |
12 | | addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein: |
13 | | and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the |
14 | | dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
|
15 | | prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the |
16 | | pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by |
17 | | accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to |
18 | | the following, in making the
judgment:
|
19 | | (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient |
20 | | relationship,
|
21 | | (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one |
22 | | prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
|
23 | | (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
|
24 | | (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be |
25 | | clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual |
26 | | dose may be used legitimately),
|
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1 | | (5) unusual geographic distances between patient, |
2 | | pharmacist and
prescriber,
|
3 | | (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
|
4 | | (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly |
5 | | altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any |
6 | | type. |
7 | | (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a |
8 | | pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to |
9 | | a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or |
10 | | hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous, |
11 | | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
|
12 | | (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State
Police of the |
13 | | State of Illinois, or its successor agency. |
14 | | (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
|
15 | | (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule |
16 | | designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced |
17 | | primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled |
18 | | substance;
|
19 | | (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or |
20 | | likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled |
21 | | substance; and
|
22 | | (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, |
23 | | curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled |
24 | | substance.
|
25 | | (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, |
26 | | educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled |
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1 | | substances within
educational facilities approved by the State |
2 | | Board of Education or
its successor agency.
|
3 | | (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, |
4 | | County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
|
5 | | (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a |
6 | | controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit |
7 | | appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack |
8 | | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical |
9 | | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person |
10 | | to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) |
11 | | is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled |
12 | | substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would |
13 | | lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a |
14 | | controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether |
15 | | the representations made or the circumstances of the
|
16 | | distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the |
17 | | substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of |
18 | | subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the |
19 | | following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be |
20 | | relevant:
|
21 | | (a) statements made by the owner or person in control |
22 | | of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
|
23 | | (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the |
24 | | substance may
be resold for profit;
|
25 | | (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner |
26 | | normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled |
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1 | | substances;
|
2 | | (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution |
3 | | included an
exchange of or demand for money or other |
4 | | property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the |
5 | | consideration was substantially greater than the
|
6 | | reasonable retail market value of the substance.
|
7 | | Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a |
8 | | noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was |
9 | | initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial |
10 | | introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its |
11 | | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
|
12 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or |
13 | | distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized |
14 | | to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this |
15 | | Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried |
16 | | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances |
17 | | involved were controlled substances.
|
18 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the |
19 | | manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding, |
20 | | processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or |
21 | | drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the |
22 | | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
|
23 | | (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is |
24 | | located in a state
of the United States that delivers, |
25 | | dispenses or
distributes, through the United States Postal |
26 | | Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois residents, any |
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1 | | substance which requires a prescription.
|
2 | | (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, |
3 | | propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a |
4 | | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
|
5 | | directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of |
6 | | natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
7 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
8 | | synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the |
9 | | substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term |
10 | | does not include:
|
11 | | (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding |
12 | | of a
controlled substance for his or her own use; or
|
13 | | (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent |
14 | | under his or her
supervision, the preparation, |
15 | | compounding, packaging, or labeling of a
controlled |
16 | | substance:
|
17 | | (a) as an incident to his or her administering or |
18 | | dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of |
19 | | his or her professional practice; or
|
20 | | (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or |
21 | | chemical
analysis and not for sale.
|
22 | | (z-1) (Blank).
|
23 | | (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
24 | | under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
25 | | (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician |
26 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through |
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|
1 | | a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to |
2 | | practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with |
3 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, |
4 | | (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated |
5 | | authority to prescribe through a written delegation of |
6 | | authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
7 | | of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with |
8 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act , (iii) an animal |
9 | | euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist. |
10 | | (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether |
11 | | produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances |
12 | | of vegetable origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
13 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
14 | | synthesis:
|
15 | | (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, |
16 | | including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts |
17 | | of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of |
18 | | such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within |
19 | | the specific chemical designation; however the term |
20 | | "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline |
21 | | alkaloids of opium;
|
22 | | (2) (blank);
|
23 | | (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
|
24 | | (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of |
25 | | coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and |
26 | | ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have |
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|
1 | | been removed;
|
2 | | (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, |
3 | | and salts of isomers; |
4 | | (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, |
5 | | and salts of isomers; |
6 | | (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which |
7 | | contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to |
8 | | in subparagraphs (1) through (6). |
9 | | (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
|
10 | | Nurse Practice Act.
|
11 | | (cc) (Blank).
|
12 | | (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction |
13 | | forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine |
14 | | or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction |
15 | | forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
|
16 | | (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
|
17 | | somniferum L., except its seeds.
|
18 | | (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or |
19 | | solution or other liquid form of medication intended for |
20 | | administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form |
21 | | of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal |
22 | | administration. |
23 | | (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon |
24 | | Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
25 | | (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, |
26 | | mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or |
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|
1 | | agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or |
2 | | association, or any other entity.
|
3 | | (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or |
4 | | certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local |
5 | | registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist |
6 | | under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
|
7 | | (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in |
8 | | which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy |
9 | | Practice Act.
|
10 | | (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
11 | | under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
12 | | (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise |
13 | | requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all |
14 | | of its branches. |
15 | | (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of |
16 | | the opium
poppy, after mowing.
|
17 | | (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice |
18 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric |
19 | | physician,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, |
20 | | physician assistant,
advanced practice nurse,
licensed |
21 | | practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or |
22 | | pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, or otherwise |
23 | | lawfully permitted by the
United States or this State to |
24 | | distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect to, |
25 | | administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
|
26 | | controlled substance in the course of professional practice or |
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|
1 | | research.
|
2 | | (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written |
3 | | prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated |
4 | | prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written |
5 | | prescription that is individually generated by machine or |
6 | | computer in the prescriber's office.
|
7 | | (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice |
8 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, |
9 | | prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the |
10 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive |
11 | | authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical |
12 | | Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
|
13 | | veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant |
14 | | who
issues a
prescription for a controlled substance
in |
15 | | accordance
with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
16 | | written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5
of the
|
17 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
18 | | practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under |
19 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with |
20 | | Section 303.05 , a written delegation,
and a written
|
21 | | collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse |
22 | | Practice Act .
|
23 | | (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral |
24 | | order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable |
25 | | federal requirements,
of
a physician licensed to practice |
26 | | medicine in all its branches,
dentist, podiatric physician or |
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|
1 | | veterinarian for any controlled
substance, of an optometrist |
2 | | for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in |
3 | | accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric |
4 | | Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed |
5 | | under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act |
6 | | with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the |
7 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant |
8 | | for a
controlled substance
in accordance with Section 303.05, a |
9 | | written delegation, and a written supervision agreement |
10 | | required under
Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice |
11 | | Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice
nurse with prescriptive |
12 | | authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice |
13 | | Act who issues a prescription for a
controlled substance in |
14 | | accordance
with
Section 303.05 , a written delegation, and a |
15 | | written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the |
16 | | Nurse Practice Act when required by law .
|
17 | | (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an |
18 | | electronic library that contains reported controlled substance |
19 | | data. |
20 | | (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the |
21 | | entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on |
22 | | controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316. |
23 | | (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, |
24 | | planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled |
25 | | substance other than methamphetamine.
|
26 | | (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to |
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1 | | register
under Section 302 of this Act.
|
2 | | (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each |
3 | | person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the |
4 | | laws of the United
States and of this State.
|
5 | | (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either |
6 | | the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the |
7 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the |
8 | | Secretary's designated agents. |
9 | | (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, |
10 | | district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, |
11 | | and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United |
12 | | States of America.
|
13 | | (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an |
14 | | overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) |
15 | | causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
16 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
17 | | but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, |
18 | | methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine |
19 | | and its analogs. |
20 | | (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses |
21 | | a
controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of |
22 | | a member of his or her
household or for administering to an |
23 | | animal owned by him or her or by a member
of his or her |
24 | | household.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, |
26 | | eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; |
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1 | | revised 10-1-14.)
|
2 | | (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
|
3 | | Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
|
4 | | (a) The Department of Financial and Professional |
5 | | Regulation shall register licensed
physician assistants, |
6 | | licensed advanced practice nurses, and prescribing |
7 | | psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical |
8 | | Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and
dispense |
9 | | controlled substances under Section 303 and animal euthanasia
|
10 | | agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia |
11 | | drugs under the
following circumstances:
|
12 | | (1) with respect to physician assistants,
|
13 | | (A) the physician assistant has been
delegated
|
14 | | written authority to prescribe any Schedule III |
15 | | through V controlled substances by a physician |
16 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches in |
17 | | accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant |
18 | | Practice Act
of 1987;
and
the physician assistant has
|
19 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has |
20 | | paid the required fees as set by rule;
or
|
21 | | (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
|
22 | | authority by a supervising physician licensed to |
23 | | practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or |
24 | | dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a |
25 | | written delegation of authority and under the |
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1 | | following conditions: |
2 | | (i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances |
3 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
4 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
5 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
6 | | routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. |
7 | | This delegation must identify the specific |
8 | | Schedule II controlled substances by either brand |
9 | | name or generic name. Schedule II controlled |
10 | | substances to be delivered by injection or other |
11 | | route of administration may not be delegated; |
12 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
13 | | substances prescribed by the supervising |
14 | | physician; |
15 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
16 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
17 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
18 | | supervising physician; |
19 | | (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the |
20 | | condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
21 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
22 | | delegating physician; |
23 | | (v) the physician assistant must have |
24 | | completed the appropriate application forms and |
25 | | paid the required fees as set by rule; |
26 | | (vi) the physician assistant must provide |
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1 | | evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact |
2 | | hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant |
3 | | program accredited by the Accreditation Review |
4 | | Commission on Education for the Physician |
5 | | Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for |
6 | | any new license issued with Schedule II authority |
7 | | after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
8 | | the 97th General Assembly; and |
9 | | (vii) the physician assistant must annually |
10 | | complete at least 5 hours of continuing education |
11 | | in pharmacology; |
12 | | (2) (blank); with respect to advanced practice nurses, |
13 | | (A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
14 | | authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V |
15 | | controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
16 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a |
17 | | collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with |
18 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
Act. The advanced |
19 | | practice nurse has completed the
appropriate |
20 | | application forms and has paid the required
fees as set |
21 | | by rule; or |
22 | | (B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
23 | | authority by a collaborating physician licensed to |
24 | | practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating |
25 | | podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule |
26 | | II controlled substances through a written delegation |
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1 | | of authority and under the following conditions: |
2 | | (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances |
3 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
4 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
5 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
6 | | routinely prescribed by the collaborating |
7 | | physician or podiatric physician. This delegation |
8 | | must identify the specific Schedule II controlled |
9 | | substances by either brand name or generic name. |
10 | | Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered |
11 | | by injection or other route of administration may |
12 | | not be delegated; |
13 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
14 | | substances prescribed by the collaborating |
15 | | physician or podiatric physician; |
16 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
17 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
18 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
19 | | collaborating physician or podiatric physician; |
20 | | (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss |
21 | | the condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
22 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
23 | | delegating physician or podiatric physician or in |
24 | | the course of review as required by Section 65-40 |
25 | | of the Nurse Practice Act; |
26 | | (v) the advanced practice nurse must have |
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1 | | completed the appropriate application forms and |
2 | | paid the required fees as set by rule; |
3 | | (vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide |
4 | | evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 |
5 | | graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new |
6 | | license issued with Schedule II authority after |
7 | | the effective date of this amendatory Act of the |
8 | | 97th General Assembly; and |
9 | | (vii) the advanced practice nurse must |
10 | | annually complete 5 hours of continuing education |
11 | | in pharmacology; |
12 | | (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the |
13 | | euthanasia agency has
obtained a license from the |
14 | | Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation and |
15 | | obtained a registration number from the
Department; or
|
16 | | (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the |
17 | | prescribing psychologist has been delegated
authority to |
18 | | prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V |
19 | | controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
20 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in |
21 | | accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist |
22 | | Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has |
23 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has paid |
24 | | the required
fees as set by rule. |
25 | | (b) The physician assistant mid-level practitioner shall |
26 | | only be licensed to prescribe those
schedules of controlled |
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1 | | substances for which a licensed physician or licensed podiatric |
2 | | physician has delegated
prescriptive authority, except that an |
3 | | animal euthanasia agency does not have any
prescriptive |
4 | | authority.
A physician assistant is and an advanced practice |
5 | | nurse are prohibited from prescribing medications and |
6 | | controlled substances not set forth in the required written |
7 | | delegation of authority.
|
8 | | An advanced practice nurse shall only be licensed to |
9 | | prescribe Schedule II through V controlled substances. |
10 | | (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, |
11 | | physician
assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal |
12 | | euthanasia agencies may be issued a
mid-level practitioner
|
13 | | controlled substances license for Illinois.
|
14 | | (d) (Blank). A collaborating physician or podiatric |
15 | | physician may, but is not required to, delegate prescriptive |
16 | | authority to an advanced practice nurse as part of a written |
17 | | collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive |
18 | | authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of |
19 | | the Nurse Practice Act. |
20 | | (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
21 | | delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
22 | | part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
23 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
24 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
25 | | (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit |
26 | | generic substitution. |
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; |
2 | | 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. |
3 | | 6-25-14.)
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-35 rep.) |
5 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-40 rep.) |
6 | | Section 145. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by repealing |
7 | | Sections 65-35 and 65-40.
|
8 | | (225 ILCS 100/20.5 rep.)
|
9 | | Section 150. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is |
10 | | amended by repealing Section 20.5.
|
11 | | Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon |
12 | | becoming law.
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| 1 | |
INDEX
| 2 | |
Statutes amended in order of appearance
| | 3 | | 15 ILCS 335/4 | from Ch. 124, par. 24 | | 4 | | 20 ILCS 301/5-23 | | | 5 | | 105 ILCS 5/22-30 | | | 6 | | 105 ILCS 5/24-5 | from Ch. 122, par. 24-5 | | 7 | | 105 ILCS 5/24-6 | | | 8 | | 105 ILCS 5/26-1 | from Ch. 122, par. 26-1 | | 9 | | 105 ILCS 5/27-8.1 | from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1 | | 10 | | 210 ILCS 5/6.5 | | | 11 | | 210 ILCS 25/7-101 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101 | | 12 | | 210 ILCS 55/2.05 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05 | | 13 | | 210 ILCS 85/10.7 | | | 14 | | 215 ILCS 5/356g.5 | | | 15 | | 215 ILCS 5/356z.1 | | | 16 | | 225 ILCS 25/8.1 | from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1 | | 17 | | 225 ILCS 60/22 | from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22 | | 18 | | 225 ILCS 60/54.5 | | | 19 | | 225 ILCS 65/50-10 | was 225 ILCS 65/5-10 | | 20 | | 225 ILCS 65/65-30 | | | 21 | | 225 ILCS 65/65-45 | was 225 ILCS 65/15-25 | | 22 | | 225 ILCS 65/70-5 | was 225 ILCS 65/10-45 | | 23 | | 225 ILCS 75/3.1 | | | 24 | | 225 ILCS 84/57 | | | 25 | | 225 ILCS 85/4 | from Ch. 111, par. 4124 | |
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| 1 | | 225 ILCS 90/1 | from Ch. 111, par. 4251 | | 2 | | 225 ILCS 106/10 | | | 3 | | 225 ILCS 135/10 | | | 4 | | 225 ILCS 135/20 | | | 5 | | 225 ILCS 135/95 | | | 6 | | 405 ILCS 95/10 | | | 7 | | 410 ILCS 45/6.2 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2 | | 8 | | 410 ILCS 70/2.2 | | | 9 | | 410 ILCS 70/5 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5 | | 10 | | 410 ILCS 70/5.5 | | | 11 | | 410 ILCS 210/1 | from Ch. 111, par. 4501 | | 12 | | 410 ILCS 210/1.5 | | | 13 | | 410 ILCS 210/2 | from Ch. 111, par. 4502 | | 14 | | 410 ILCS 210/3 | from Ch. 111, par. 4503 | | 15 | | 410 ILCS 225/2 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022 | | 16 | | 410 ILCS 305/3 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303 | | 17 | | 410 ILCS 325/3 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403 | | 18 | | 410 ILCS 325/4 | from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404 | | 19 | | 410 ILCS 335/5 | | | 20 | | 410 ILCS 513/10 | | | 21 | | 410 ILCS 642/10 | | | 22 | | 625 ILCS 5/1-159.1 | from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1 | | 23 | | 625 ILCS 5/3-616 | from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616 | | 24 | | 625 ILCS 5/6-103 | from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103 | | 25 | | 625 ILCS 5/6-106.1 | | | 26 | | 625 ILCS 5/6-901 | from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901 | |
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