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1 | | Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature |
2 | | or mark of the
applicant. However, the Secretary of State may |
3 | | provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification |
4 | | Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide |
5 | | religious objection to being photographed or to the display of |
6 | | his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be |
7 | | used for
identification purposes in any lawful situation only |
8 | | by the person to
whom it was issued.
As used in this Act, |
9 | | "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally
produced |
10 | | and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. |
11 | | As
used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as |
12 | | written by that
person and captured in a manner acceptable to |
13 | | the Secretary of State. |
14 | | (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a |
15 | | current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the |
16 | | Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to |
17 | | utilize the same residence address and name on the |
18 | | identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit |
19 | | records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may |
20 | | promulgate rules to implement this provision.
|
21 | | (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in |
22 | | Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, |
23 | | the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work |
24 | | address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence |
25 | | or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to |
26 | | implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection |
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1 | | (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his |
2 | | or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty |
3 | | to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of |
4 | | any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to |
5 | | all violations or is limited to specific violations. |
6 | | (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
|
7 | | Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person |
8 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, to any natural person |
9 | | who is a resident of the State
of Illinois, who is a person |
10 | | with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act,
who |
11 | | applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person |
12 | | with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any |
13 | | person who
holds a valid
foreign state identification card, |
14 | | license, or permit unless the person first
surrenders to the
|
15 | | Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, |
16 | | license, or
permit. The Secretary of State
shall charge no fee |
17 | | to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and
supplied by |
18 | | the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and |
19 | | signature or mark of the
applicant, a designation indicating |
20 | | that the card is an Illinois
Person with a Disability |
21 | | Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible |
22 | | designation
of the type and classification of the applicant's |
23 | | disability as set out in
Section 4A of this Act. However, the |
24 | | Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of |
25 | | Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without |
26 | | photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious |
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1 | | objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her |
2 | | photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall
|
3 | | include a description of the applicant's disability and any |
4 | | information
about the applicant's disability or medical |
5 | | history which the Secretary
determines would be helpful to the |
6 | | applicant in securing emergency medical
care. If a mark is used |
7 | | in lieu of a signature, such mark
shall be affixed to the card |
8 | | in the presence of two witnesses who attest to
the authenticity |
9 | | of the mark. The Illinois
Person with a Disability |
10 | | Identification Card may be used for identification purposes
in |
11 | | any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
|
12 | | The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
13 | | may be used as adequate
documentation of disability in lieu of |
14 | | a physician's determination of
disability, a determination of |
15 | | disability from a physician assistant who has
been delegated |
16 | | the authority to make this determination by his or her
|
17 | | supervising physician , a determination of disability from an |
18 | | advanced practice
nurse who has a written collaborative |
19 | | agreement with a collaborating physician
that
authorizes the |
20 | | advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any
|
21 | | other documentation
of disability whenever
any
State law
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22 | | requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of |
23 | | disability,
however an Illinois Person with a Disability |
24 | | Identification Card shall not qualify
the cardholder to |
25 | | participate in any program or to receive any benefit
which is |
26 | | not available to all persons with like disabilities.
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1 | | Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person |
2 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, or evidence that the |
3 | | Secretary of State has issued an
Illinois Person with a |
4 | | Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any
person |
5 | | other than the person named on such card to prove that the |
6 | | person
named on such card is a disabled person or for any other |
7 | | purpose unless the
card is used for the benefit of the person |
8 | | named on such card, and the
person named on such card consents |
9 | | to such use at the time the card is so used.
|
10 | | An optometrist's determination of a visual disability |
11 | | under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for |
12 | | the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability |
13 | | Identification Card. |
14 | | When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person |
15 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, the Office of the |
16 | | Secretary of State shall not be
liable for any actions taken |
17 | | based upon that medical information.
|
18 | | (c) The Secretary of State shall provide
that each original |
19 | | or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
Person with |
20 | | a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the |
21 | | age of 21
shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois |
22 | | Identification Cards or
Illinois Person with a Disability |
23 | | Identification Cards issued to individuals 21
years of age or |
24 | | older. The color designated for Illinois Identification
Cards |
25 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for |
26 | | persons under
the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the |
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1 | | Secretary of State.
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2 | | (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois
Identification |
3 | | Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
4 | | issued to
a person under the age of 21 shall display the date |
5 | | upon which the person
becomes 18 years of age and the date upon |
6 | | which the person becomes 21 years of
age.
|
7 | | (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify |
8 | | military veterans living in this State for the purpose of |
9 | | ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to |
10 | | which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, |
11 | | education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in |
12 | | identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services |
13 | | and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue |
14 | | Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a |
15 | | Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" |
16 | | appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is |
17 | | predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may |
18 | | not issue any other identification card which identifies an |
19 | | occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique |
20 | | characteristics of the identification card holder which is |
21 | | unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
|
22 | | (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of |
23 | | State shall designate a space on each original or renewal |
24 | | identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the |
25 | | word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall |
26 | | be available to a person identified as a veteran under |
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1 | | subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or |
2 | | separated under honorable conditions. |
3 | | (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
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4 | | discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the |
5 | | State of
Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who |
6 | | applies for such a card or
renewal thereof. The Secretary of |
7 | | State shall charge no fee to issue such
card. The card shall be |
8 | | issued in every county and applications shall be
made available |
9 | | at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen
centers |
10 | | and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
|
11 | | card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed |
12 | | thereon in
the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
|
13 | | (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may |
14 | | designate on each Illinois
Identification Card or Illinois |
15 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the |
16 | | card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the |
17 | | Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may |
18 | | specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the |
19 | | card holder has renewed his or her Illinois
Identification Card |
20 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card. |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847, |
22 | | eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, |
23 | | eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
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24 | | Section 10. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
25 | | Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:
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1 | | (20 ILCS 301/5-23) |
2 | | Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program. |
3 | | (a) Reports of drug overdose. |
4 | | (1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and |
5 | | Substance Abuse may publish annually a report on drug |
6 | | overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates |
7 | | from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or |
8 | | rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding |
9 | | period of not less than 5 years. The report shall also |
10 | | provide information on interventions that would be |
11 | | effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
12 | | overdose. |
13 | | (2) The report may include: |
14 | | (A) Trends in drug overdose death rates. |
15 | | (B) Trends in emergency room utilization related |
16 | | to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room |
17 | | utilization. |
18 | | (C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and |
19 | | emergency services and the cost impact of emergency |
20 | | services utilization. |
21 | | (D) Suggested improvements in data collection. |
22 | | (E) A description of other interventions effective |
23 | | in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
24 | | overdose. |
25 | | (b) Programs; drug overdose prevention. |
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1 | | (1) The Director may establish a program to provide for |
2 | | the production and publication, in electronic and other |
3 | | formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
4 | | response literature. The Director may develop and |
5 | | disseminate curricula for use by professionals, |
6 | | organizations, individuals, or committees interested in |
7 | | the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, |
8 | | including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison |
9 | | personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment |
10 | | professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital |
11 | | staff, families and associates of drug users, peace |
12 | | officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle |
13 | | exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to |
14 | | information regarding drug overdose prevention, |
15 | | recognition, and response, literature produced by the |
16 | | Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and |
17 | | highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal |
18 | | drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall |
19 | | provide information and resources for substance abuse |
20 | | treatment. |
21 | | The Director may establish or authorize programs for |
22 | | prescribing, dispensing, or distributing naloxone |
23 | | hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and equally |
24 | | safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration |
25 | | for the treatment of drug overdose. Such programs may |
26 | | include the prescribing of naloxone hydrochloride or any |
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1 | | other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by |
2 | | the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of |
3 | | drug overdose to and education about administration by |
4 | | individuals who are not personally at risk of opioid |
5 | | overdose. |
6 | | (2) The Director may provide advice to State and local |
7 | | officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including |
8 | | the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, trends in drug |
9 | | overdose incidents, and solutions to the drug overdose |
10 | | crisis. |
11 | | (c) Grants. |
12 | | (1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with |
13 | | this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose |
14 | | prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local |
15 | | health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, |
16 | | universities, community-based organizations, and |
17 | | faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a |
18 | | grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner |
19 | | the Director prescribes. |
20 | | (2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the |
21 | | necessity for overdose prevention projects in various |
22 | | settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to |
23 | | develop interventions that will be effective and viable in |
24 | | their local areas. |
25 | | (3) The Director shall give preference for grants to |
26 | | proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving |
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1 | | interventions and responses, provide information to drug |
2 | | users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies |
3 | | for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give |
4 | | preference to proposals that include one or more of the |
5 | | following elements: |
6 | | (A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, |
7 | | including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a |
8 | | potentially fatal drug overdose. |
9 | | (B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
10 | | response education projects in drug treatment centers, |
11 | | outreach programs, and other organizations that work |
12 | | with, or have access to, drug users and their families |
13 | | and communities. |
14 | | (C) Drug overdose recognition and response |
15 | | training, including rescue breathing, in drug |
16 | | treatment centers and for other organizations that |
17 | | work with, or have access to, drug users and their |
18 | | families and communities. |
19 | | (D) The production and distribution of targeted or |
20 | | mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and |
21 | | response. |
22 | | (E) Prescription and distribution of naloxone |
23 | | hydrochloride or any other similarly acting and |
24 | | equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug |
25 | | Administration for the treatment of drug overdose. |
26 | | (F) The institution of education and training |
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1 | | projects on drug overdose response and treatment for |
2 | | emergency services and law enforcement personnel. |
3 | | (G) A system of parent, family, and survivor |
4 | | education and mutual support groups. |
5 | | (4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General |
6 | | Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private |
7 | | foundations, the federal government, and other sources to |
8 | | fund the grants under this Section and to fund an |
9 | | evaluation of the programs supported by the grants. |
10 | | (d) Health care professional prescription of drug overdose |
11 | | treatment medication. |
12 | | (1) A health care professional who, acting in good |
13 | | faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or |
14 | | dispenses an opioid antidote to a patient who, in the |
15 | | judgment of the health care professional, is capable of |
16 | | administering the drug in an emergency, shall not, as a |
17 | | result of his or her acts or omissions, be subject to |
18 | | disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical |
19 | | Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act |
20 | | of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, |
21 | | or any other professional licensing statute. |
22 | | (2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to |
23 | | administer an opioid antidote may in an emergency |
24 | | administer without fee an opioid antidote if the person has |
25 | | received the patient information specified in paragraph |
26 | | (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith that |
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1 | | another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The person |
2 | | shall not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be |
3 | | liable for any violation of the Medical Practice Act of |
4 | | 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the |
5 | | Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other |
6 | | professional licensing statute, or subject to any criminal |
7 | | prosecution arising from or related to the unauthorized |
8 | | practice of medicine or the possession of an opioid |
9 | | antidote. |
10 | | (3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid |
11 | | antidote to a patient shall ensure that the patient |
12 | | receives the patient information specified in paragraph |
13 | | (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided |
14 | | by the health care professional or a community-based |
15 | | organization, substance abuse program, or other |
16 | | organization with which the health care professional |
17 | | establishes a written agreement that includes a |
18 | | description of how the organization will provide patient |
19 | | information, how employees or volunteers providing |
20 | | information will be trained, and standards for documenting |
21 | | the provision of patient information to patients. |
22 | | Provision of patient information shall be documented in the |
23 | | patient's medical record or through similar means as |
24 | | determined by agreement between the health care |
25 | | professional and the organization. The Director of the |
26 | | Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in |
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1 | | consultation with statewide organizations representing |
2 | | physicians, advanced practice nurses, physician |
3 | | assistants, substance abuse programs, and other interested |
4 | | groups, shall develop and disseminate to health care |
5 | | professionals, community-based organizations, substance |
6 | | abuse programs, and other organizations training materials |
7 | | in video, electronic, or other formats to facilitate the |
8 | | provision of such patient information. |
9 | | (4) For the purposes of this subsection: |
10 | | "Opioid antidote" means naloxone hydrochloride or any |
11 | | other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by |
12 | | the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of |
13 | | drug overdose. |
14 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
15 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed |
16 | | physician assistant who has been delegated the |
17 | | prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote by his |
18 | | or her supervising physician , a licensed an advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurse who has a written collaborative |
20 | | agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes |
21 | | the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote , or |
22 | | an advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or |
23 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses |
24 | | appropriate clinical privileges in accordance with the |
25 | | Nurse Practice Act. |
26 | | "Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of |
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1 | | opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, |
2 | | may be in a position to assist another individual during an |
3 | | overdose and who has received patient information as |
4 | | required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the |
5 | | indications for and administration of an opioid antidote. |
6 | | "Patient information" includes information provided to |
7 | | the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; |
8 | | how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid |
9 | | antidote dosage and administration; the importance of |
10 | | calling 911; care for the overdose victim after |
11 | | administration of the overdose antidote; and other issues |
12 | | as necessary.
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13 | | (Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)
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14 | | Section 15. The School Code is amended by changing Sections |
15 | | 22-30, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:
|
16 | | (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
|
17 | | Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma |
18 | | medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of |
19 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors.
|
20 | | (a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following |
21 | | terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
|
22 | | "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler. |
23 | | "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used |
24 | | for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of |
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1 | | epinephrine into the human body.
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2 | | "Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a |
3 | | physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
|
4 | | (ii) a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the |
5 | | authority to prescribe
asthma
medications by his or her |
6 | | supervising physician , or (iii) a licensed an advanced practice
|
7 | | nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a |
8 | | collaborating physician that delegates the
authority
to |
9 | | prescribe asthma medications,
for a pupil that pertains to the |
10 | | pupil's
asthma and that has an individual prescription label.
|
11 | | "School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school |
12 | | with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing. |
13 | | "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of |
14 | | his or
her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine |
15 | | auto-injector.
|
16 | | "Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her |
17 | | prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector. |
18 | | "Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician |
19 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a |
20 | | licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the |
21 | | authority to prescribe asthma medications or epinephrine |
22 | | auto-injectors by his or her supervising physician , or (iii) a |
23 | | licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative |
24 | | agreement with a collaborating physician that delegates |
25 | | authority to issue a standing protocol for asthma medications |
26 | | or epinephrine auto-injectors . |
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1 | | "Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer |
2 | | personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and |
3 | | 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under |
4 | | subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to |
5 | | anaphylaxis. |
6 | | "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an |
7 | | epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school |
8 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school. |
9 | | (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
|
10 | | self-administration and self-carry of asthma
medication by a |
11 | | pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of |
12 | | an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
|
13 | | (1) the parents or
guardians of the pupil provide to |
14 | | the school (i) written
authorization from the parents or |
15 | | guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry |
16 | | of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma |
17 | | medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and |
18 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the |
19 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written |
20 | | authorization from the pupil's physician, physician |
21 | | assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and
|
22 | | (2) the
parents or guardians of the pupil provide to |
23 | | the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain |
24 | | the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, |
25 | | and the time at which or circumstances under which the |
26 | | asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the |
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1 | | self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine |
2 | | auto-injector, a
written
statement from the pupil's |
3 | | physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice
nurse |
4 | | containing
the following information:
|
5 | | (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine |
6 | | auto-injector;
|
7 | | (B) the prescribed dosage; and
|
8 | | (C) the time or times at which or the special |
9 | | circumstances
under which the epinephrine |
10 | | auto-injector is to be administered.
|
11 | | The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of |
12 | | the school
nurse or,
in the absence of a school nurse, the |
13 | | school's administrator.
|
14 | | (b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
15 | | may authorize the provision of a student-specific or |
16 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any |
17 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
18 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
19 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
20 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an |
21 | | epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the |
22 | | student's prescription on file. |
23 | | (b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic |
24 | | school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do |
25 | | the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine |
26 | | auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any |
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1 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
2 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
3 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
4 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the |
5 | | student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) |
6 | | administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that |
7 | | meets the prescription on file to any student who has an |
8 | | Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy |
9 | | Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan |
10 | | pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of |
11 | | 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; |
12 | | and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector |
13 | | to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in |
14 | | good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction. |
15 | | (c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
16 | | must inform the parents or
guardians of the
pupil, in writing, |
17 | | that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
18 | | and its
employees and
agents, including a physician, physician |
19 | | assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing |
20 | | protocol or prescription for school epinephrine |
21 | | auto-injectors,
are to incur no liability or professional |
22 | | discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
|
23 | | of any injury arising from the
administration of asthma |
24 | | medication or of an epinephrine auto-injector regardless of |
25 | | whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or |
26 | | guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or |
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1 | | advanced practice nurse. The parents or guardians
of the pupil |
2 | | must sign a statement acknowledging that the school district, |
3 | | public school,
or nonpublic school and its employees and agents |
4 | | are to incur no liability, except for willful and wanton
|
5 | | conduct, as a result of any injury arising
from the
|
6 | | administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine |
7 | | auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by |
8 | | the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
9 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse and that the |
10 | | parents or
guardians must indemnify and hold harmless the |
11 | | school district, public school, or nonpublic
school and
its
|
12 | | employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based |
13 | | on willful and
wanton conduct, arising out of the
|
14 | | administration of asthma medication or of an epinephrine |
15 | | auto-injector regardless of whether authorization was given by |
16 | | the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
17 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. |
18 | | (c-5) Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act of the |
19 | | 98th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained personnel |
20 | | administers an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a |
21 | | person whom the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith |
22 | | believes is having an anaphylactic reaction, notwithstanding |
23 | | the lack of notice to the parents or guardians of the pupil or |
24 | | the absence of the parents or guardians signed statement |
25 | | acknowledging no liability, except for willful and wanton |
26 | | conduct, the school district, public school, or nonpublic |
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1 | | school and its employees and agents, and a physician, a |
2 | | physician assistant, or an advanced practice nurse providing |
3 | | standing protocol or prescription for undesignated epinephrine |
4 | | auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or professional |
5 | | discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result |
6 | | of any injury arising from the use of an undesignated |
7 | | epinephrine auto-injector regardless of whether authorization |
8 | | was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's |
9 | | physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse.
|
10 | | (d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry |
11 | | of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry |
12 | | of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective
for the school |
13 | | year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
|
14 | | subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of |
15 | | this
Section.
|
16 | | (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
17 | | fulfilled, a
pupil with asthma may self-administer and |
18 | | self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may |
19 | | self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector |
20 | | (i) while in
school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, |
21 | | (iii) while under the
supervision of
school personnel, or (iv) |
22 | | before or after normal school activities, such
as while in |
23 | | before-school or after-school care on school-operated
|
24 | | property.
|
25 | | (e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
26 | | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer |
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1 | | an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom |
2 | | the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to |
3 | | be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) |
4 | | while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the |
5 | | supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal |
6 | | school activities, such
as while in before-school or |
7 | | after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse |
8 | | or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine |
9 | | auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a |
10 | | school-sponsored activity. |
11 | | (f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
12 | | may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine |
13 | | auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person |
14 | | is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and |
15 | | lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been |
16 | | delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or |
17 | | epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of |
18 | | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
19 | | practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority |
20 | | for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in |
21 | | accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may |
22 | | prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name |
23 | | of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to |
24 | | be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine |
25 | | auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the |
26 | | manufacturer's instructions. |
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1 | | (f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine |
2 | | auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic |
3 | | school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the |
4 | | student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known. |
5 | | (f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an |
6 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, |
7 | | public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, |
8 | | physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the |
9 | | standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated |
10 | | epinephrine auto-injector of its use. |
11 | | (g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated |
12 | | epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to |
13 | | his or her school's administration proof of completion of a |
14 | | training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis |
15 | | that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. |
16 | | Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must |
17 | | also submit to his or her school's administration proof of |
18 | | cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external |
19 | | defibrillator certification. The school district, public |
20 | | school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to |
21 | | the training curriculum and trained personnel. |
22 | | (h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to |
23 | | anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated |
24 | | epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in |
25 | | person. It must include, but is not limited to: |
26 | | (1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction; |
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1 | | (2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and |
2 | | its related facilities; |
3 | | (3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens; |
4 | | (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an |
5 | | allergic reaction; |
6 | | (5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; |
7 | | (6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as |
8 | | well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; |
9 | | (7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge |
10 | | required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an |
11 | | epinephrine auto-injector; and |
12 | | (8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted |
13 | | pursuant to this Section. |
14 | | In consultation with statewide professional organizations |
15 | | representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of |
16 | | its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the Board |
17 | | shall make available resource materials consistent with |
18 | | criteria in this subsection (h) for educating trained personnel |
19 | | to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The Board may take |
20 | | into consideration the curriculum on this subject developed by |
21 | | other states, as well as any other curricular materials |
22 | | suggested by medical experts and other groups that work on |
23 | | life-threatening allergy issues. The Board is not required to |
24 | | create new resource materials. The Board shall make these |
25 | | resource materials available on its Internet website. |
26 | | (i) Within 3 days after the administration of an |
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1 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, |
2 | | trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored |
3 | | activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and |
4 | | manner prescribed by the Board the following information: |
5 | | (1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine |
6 | | (student, staff, visitor); |
7 | | (2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy; |
8 | | (3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode; |
9 | | (4) location where symptoms developed; |
10 | | (5) number of doses administered; |
11 | | (6) type of person administering epinephrine (school |
12 | | nurse, trained personnel, student); and |
13 | | (7) any other information required by the Board. |
14 | | (j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board |
15 | | shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the |
16 | | frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration |
17 | | during the preceding academic year. This report shall be |
18 | | published on the Board's Internet website on the date the |
19 | | report is delivered to the General Assembly. |
20 | | (k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this |
21 | | Section. |
22 | | (Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)
|
23 | | (105 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)
|
24 | | Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth. |
25 | | (a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a |
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1 | | school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor |
2 | | that provides services to students or in schools, or any other |
3 | | individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or |
4 | | 34-18.5 of this Code. |
5 | | (b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence |
6 | | of physical
fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from |
7 | | communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical
|
8 | | examination
by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other |
9 | | state to practice medicine
and surgery in all its branches, a |
10 | | licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written |
11 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
12 | | authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health |
13 | | examinations , or a licensed physician assistant who has been |
14 | | delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his |
15 | | or her supervising physician not more than 90 days preceding |
16 | | time of
presentation to the board, and the cost of such |
17 | | examination shall rest with the
employee. A new or existing |
18 | | employee may be subject to additional health examinations, |
19 | | including screening for tuberculosis, as required by rules |
20 | | adopted by the Department of Public Health or by order of a |
21 | | local public health official. The board may from time to time |
22 | | require an examination of any
employee by a physician licensed |
23 | | in Illinois to practice medicine and
surgery in all its |
24 | | branches, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a |
25 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
26 | | that authorizes the advanced practice nurse to perform health |
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1 | | examinations , or a licensed physician assistant who has been |
2 | | delegated the authority to perform health examinations by his |
3 | | or her supervising physician and shall pay the expenses thereof |
4 | | from school
funds. |
5 | | (c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to |
6 | | furnish from
time to time evidence of continued professional |
7 | | growth.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
9 | | (105 ILCS 5/24-6)
|
10 | | Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school |
11 | | districts, including special charter
districts, but not |
12 | | including school districts in municipalities of 500,000
or |
13 | | more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall |
14 | | grant
such of their other employees as are eligible to |
15 | | participate in the
Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the |
16 | | "600-Hour Standard"
established, or under such other |
17 | | eligibility participation standard as may
from time to time be |
18 | | established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter
|
19 | | promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of |
20 | | the Illinois
Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick |
21 | | leave
provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in |
22 | | each school year.
If any such teacher or employee does not use |
23 | | the full amount of annual leave
thus allowed, the unused amount |
24 | | shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum
available leave of |
25 | | 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current
year. |
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1 | | Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, |
2 | | quarantine
at home, serious illness or death in the immediate |
3 | | family or household, or
birth, adoption, or placement for |
4 | | adoption.
The school board may require a certificate from a |
5 | | physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery |
6 | | in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under |
7 | | the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed an advanced |
8 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
9 | | collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced practice |
10 | | nurse to perform health examinations , a licensed physician |
11 | | assistant who has been delegated the authority to perform |
12 | | health examinations by his or her supervising physician , or, if |
13 | | the treatment
is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual |
14 | | adviser or
practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as |
15 | | a basis for pay during leave after
an absence of 3 days for |
16 | | personal illness or 30 days for birth or as the school board |
17 | | may deem necessary in
other cases. If the school board does |
18 | | require a
certificate
as a basis for pay during leave of
less |
19 | | than 3 days for personal illness, the school board shall pay, |
20 | | from school funds, the
expenses incurred by the teachers or |
21 | | other employees in obtaining the certificate. For paid leave |
22 | | for adoption or placement for adoption, the school board may |
23 | | require that the teacher or other employee provide evidence |
24 | | that the formal adoption process is underway, and such leave is |
25 | | limited to 30 days unless a longer leave has been negotiated |
26 | | with the exclusive bargaining representative.
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1 | | If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school |
2 | | districts, or by
reason of the creation of a new school |
3 | | district, the employment of a
teacher is transferred to a new |
4 | | or different board, the accumulated sick
leave of such teacher |
5 | | is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new
or |
6 | | different district.
|
7 | | For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall |
8 | | include parents,
spouse, brothers, sisters, children, |
9 | | grandparents, grandchildren,
parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, |
10 | | sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 95-151, eff. 8-14-07; 96-51, eff. 7-23-09; |
12 | | 96-367, eff. 8-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
|
13 | | (105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)
|
14 | | Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has |
15 | | custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and |
16 | | 17
years (unless the child has already graduated from high |
17 | | school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or |
18 | | (ii) between the ages
of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 |
19 | | years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) |
20 | | beginning with the 2014-2015 school year
shall cause such child |
21 | | to attend some public school in the district
wherein the child |
22 | | resides the entire time it is in session during the
regular |
23 | | school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during |
24 | | a
required summer school program established under Section |
25 | | 10-22.33B; provided,
that
the following children shall not be |
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1 | | required to attend the public schools:
|
2 | | 1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school |
3 | | where children
are taught the branches of education taught |
4 | | to children of corresponding
age and grade in the public |
5 | | schools, and where the instruction of the child
in the |
6 | | branches of education is in the English language;
|
7 | | 2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to |
8 | | attend school, such
disability being certified to the |
9 | | county or district truant officer by a
competent physician |
10 | | licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in |
11 | | all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under |
12 | | the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed an advanced |
13 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement |
14 | | with a collaborating physician that authorizes the |
15 | | advanced practice nurse to perform health examinations , a |
16 | | licensed physician assistant who has been delegated the |
17 | | authority to perform health examinations by his or her |
18 | | supervising physician , or a Christian Science practitioner |
19 | | residing in this
State and listed in the Christian Science |
20 | | Journal; or who is excused for
temporary absence for cause |
21 | | by
the principal or teacher of the school which the child |
22 | | attends; the exemptions
in this paragraph (2) do not apply |
23 | | to any female who is pregnant or the
mother of one or more |
24 | | children, except where a female is unable to attend
school |
25 | | due to a complication arising from her pregnancy and the |
26 | | existence
of such complication is certified to the county |
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1 | | or district truant officer
by a competent physician;
|
2 | | 3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed |
3 | | according to the
provisions of the law regulating child |
4 | | labor may be excused from attendance
at school by the |
5 | | county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of
|
6 | | the public school which the child should be attending, on |
7 | | certification of
the facts by and the recommendation of the |
8 | | school board of the public
school district in which the |
9 | | child resides. In districts having part time
continuation |
10 | | schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at
|
11 | | least 8 hours each week;
|
12 | | 4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in |
13 | | attendance at
confirmation classes;
|
14 | | 5. Any child absent from a public school on a |
15 | | particular day or days
or at a particular time of day for |
16 | | the reason that he is unable to attend
classes or to |
17 | | participate in any examination, study or work requirements |
18 | | on
a particular day or days or at a particular time of day, |
19 | | because the tenets
of his religion forbid secular activity |
20 | | on a particular day or days or at a
particular time of day. |
21 | | Each school board shall prescribe rules and
regulations |
22 | | relative to absences for religious holidays including, but |
23 | | not
limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it |
24 | | shall be mandatory to
excuse a child; but nothing in this |
25 | | paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit
the right of any |
26 | | school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on
|
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1 | | any other day by reason of the observance of a religious |
2 | | holiday. A school
board may require the parent or guardian |
3 | | of a child who is to be excused
from attending school due |
4 | | to the observance of a religious holiday to give
notice, |
5 | | not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school
|
6 | | principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from |
7 | | attending
school under this paragraph 5 shall not be |
8 | | required to submit a written
excuse for such absence after |
9 | | returning to school; and |
10 | | 6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits |
11 | | to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful |
12 | | employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) |
13 | | is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to |
14 | | Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning |
15 | | opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B |
16 | | of this Code.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14 .)
|
18 | | (105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1) |
19 | | Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations. |
20 | | (1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the |
21 | | Department of Public
Health shall promulgate, and except as |
22 | | hereinafter provided, all children in
Illinois shall have a |
23 | | health examination as follows: within one year prior to
|
24 | | entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, |
25 | | private, or parochial
elementary school; upon entering the |
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1 | | sixth and ninth grades of any public,
private, or parochial |
2 | | school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or
|
3 | | parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, |
4 | | immediately prior to or
upon entrance into any public, private, |
5 | | or parochial school or nursery school,
each child shall present |
6 | | proof of having been examined in accordance with this
Section |
7 | | and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child |
8 | | who received a health examination within one year prior to |
9 | | entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not |
10 | | required to receive an additional health examination in order |
11 | | to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or |
12 | | she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the |
13 | | child is attending school for the first time as provided in |
14 | | this paragraph. |
15 | | A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a |
16 | | required part of
each health examination included under this |
17 | | Section if the child resides in an
area designated by the |
18 | | Department of Public Health as having a high incidence
of |
19 | | tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, |
20 | | including eye examinations, may be required when deemed |
21 | | necessary by school
authorities. Parents are encouraged to have |
22 | | their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in |
23 | | time required for health
examinations. |
24 | | (1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of |
25 | | Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, |
26 | | all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of |
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1 | | any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental |
2 | | examination. Each of these children shall present proof of |
3 | | having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this |
4 | | Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of |
5 | | the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails |
6 | | to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's |
7 | | report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child |
8 | | presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the |
9 | | child presents proof that a dental examination will take place |
10 | | within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health |
11 | | shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an |
12 | | undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, |
13 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental |
14 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
15 | | students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.
|
16 | | (1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all |
17 | | children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or |
18 | | parochial school on or after the effective date of this |
19 | | amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student |
20 | | enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial |
21 | | school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
22 | | the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each |
23 | | of these children shall present proof of having been examined |
24 | | by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
25 | | branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in |
26 | | accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this |
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1 | | Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child |
2 | | fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the |
3 | | child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the |
4 | | child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the |
5 | | child presents proof that an eye examination will take place |
6 | | within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public |
7 | | Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show |
8 | | an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to |
9 | | practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye |
10 | | examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, |
11 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye |
12 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
13 | | students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public |
14 | | Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a |
15 | | school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's |
16 | | or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the |
17 | | child.
|
18 | | (2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules |
19 | | and regulations
specifying the examinations and procedures |
20 | | that constitute a health examination, which shall include the |
21 | | collection of data relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, |
22 | | date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date |
23 | | of exam),
and a dental examination and may recommend by rule |
24 | | that certain additional examinations be performed.
The rules |
25 | | and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall |
26 | | specify that
a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be |
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1 | | included as a required part of each
health examination included |
2 | | under this Section if the child resides in an area
designated |
3 | | by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence |
4 | | of
tuberculosis.
The Department of Public Health shall specify |
5 | | that a diabetes
screening as defined by rule shall be included |
6 | | as a required part of each
health examination.
Diabetes testing |
7 | | is not required. |
8 | | Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
9 | | branches, licensed advanced
practice nurses who have a written |
10 | | collaborative agreement with
a collaborating physician which |
11 | | authorizes them to perform health
examinations , or licensed |
12 | | physician assistants who have been delegated the
performance of |
13 | | health examinations by their supervising physician
shall be
|
14 | | responsible for the performance of the health examinations, |
15 | | other than dental
examinations, eye examinations, and vision |
16 | | and hearing screening, and shall sign all report forms
required |
17 | | by subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those |
18 | | portions of
the health examination for which the physician, |
19 | | advanced practice nurse, or
physician assistant is |
20 | | responsible.
If a registered
nurse performs any part of a |
21 | | health examination, then a physician licensed to
practice |
22 | | medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all |
23 | | required
report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all |
24 | | dental examinations and
shall sign all report forms required by |
25 | | subsection (4) of this Section that
pertain to the dental |
26 | | examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine
in all |
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1 | | its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye |
2 | | examinations
required by this Section and shall sign all report |
3 | | forms required by
subsection (4) of this Section that pertain |
4 | | to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye |
5 | | examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, |
6 | | subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, |
7 | | internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, |
8 | | as well as any other tests or observations that in the |
9 | | professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and
|
10 | | hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered |
11 | | examinations as that
term is used in this Section, shall be |
12 | | conducted in accordance with rules and
regulations of the |
13 | | Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the
|
14 | | Department of Public Health has certified.
In these rules and |
15 | | regulations, the Department of Public Health shall
require that |
16 | | individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's
|
17 | | parent or guardian written notification, before the vision |
18 | | screening is
conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a |
19 | | substitute for a
complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye |
20 | | doctor. Your child is not
required to undergo this vision |
21 | | screening if an optometrist or
ophthalmologist has completed |
22 | | and signed a report form indicating that
an examination has |
23 | | been administered within the previous 12 months." |
24 | | (3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or |
25 | | she receives
a health examination required by subsection (1) of |
26 | | this Section, present
to the local school proof of having |
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1 | | received such immunizations against
preventable communicable |
2 | | diseases as the Department of Public Health shall
require by |
3 | | rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and |
4 | | the
Communicable Disease Prevention Act. |
5 | | (4) The individuals conducting the health examination,
|
6 | | dental examination, or eye examination shall record the
fact of |
7 | | having conducted the examination, and such additional |
8 | | information as
required, including for a health examination
|
9 | | data relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, date of |
10 | | birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of |
11 | | exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health |
12 | | and the State
Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide |
13 | | use. The examiner shall
summarize on the report form any |
14 | | condition that he or she suspects indicates a
need for special |
15 | | services, including for a health examination factors relating |
16 | | to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of
|
17 | | required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form |
18 | | that the
immunizations were administered. |
19 | | (5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either |
20 | | the health
examination or the immunization as required, then |
21 | | the child shall be examined
or receive the immunization, as the |
22 | | case may be, and present proof by October
15 of the current |
23 | | school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year
|
24 | | established by a school district. To establish a date before |
25 | | October 15 of the
current school year for the health |
26 | | examination or immunization as required, a
school district must |
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1 | | give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days
prior |
2 | | to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or |
3 | | more of
the required immunizations must be given after October |
4 | | 15 of the current school
year, or after an earlier established |
5 | | date of the current school year, then
the child shall present, |
6 | | by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a
schedule |
7 | | for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of |
8 | | the
medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and |
9 | | the statement being
issued by the physician, advanced practice |
10 | | nurse, physician assistant,
registered nurse, or local health |
11 | | department that will
be responsible for administration of the |
12 | | remaining required immunizations. If
a child does not comply by |
13 | | October 15, or by the earlier established date of
the current |
14 | | school year, with the requirements of this subsection, then the
|
15 | | local school authority shall exclude that child from school |
16 | | until such time as
the child presents proof of having had the |
17 | | health examination as required and
presents proof of having |
18 | | received those required immunizations which are
medically |
19 | | possible to receive immediately. During a child's exclusion |
20 | | from
school for noncompliance with this subsection, the child's |
21 | | parents or legal
guardian shall be considered in violation of |
22 | | Section 26-1 and subject to any
penalty imposed by Section |
23 | | 26-10. This subsection (5) does not apply to dental |
24 | | examinations and eye examinations. If the student is an |
25 | | out-of-state transfer student and does not have the proof |
26 | | required under this subsection (5) before October 15 of the |
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1 | | current year or whatever date is set by the school district, |
2 | | then he or she may only attend classes (i) if he or she has |
3 | | proof that an appointment for the required vaccinations has |
4 | | been scheduled with a party authorized to submit proof of the |
5 | | required vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required |
6 | | under this subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after |
7 | | the student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is |
8 | | not to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the |
9 | | vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or |
10 | | employee of a school district shall be held liable for any |
11 | | injury or illness to another person that results from admitting |
12 | | an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an |
13 | | appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5). |
14 | | (6) Every school shall report to the State Board of |
15 | | Education by November
15, in the manner which that agency shall |
16 | | require, the number of children who
have received the necessary |
17 | | immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental |
18 | | examination or eye examination) as
required, indicating, of |
19 | | those who have not received the immunizations and
examination |
20 | | as required, the number of children who are exempt from health
|
21 | | examination and immunization requirements on religious or |
22 | | medical grounds as
provided in subsection (8). On or before |
23 | | December 1 of each year, every public school district and |
24 | | registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the |
25 | | immunization data they are required to submit to the State |
26 | | Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made |
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1 | | publicly available must be identical to the data the school |
2 | | district or school has reported to the State Board of |
3 | | Education. |
4 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
5 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
6 | | number of children who have received the required dental |
7 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
8 | | required dental examination, the number of children who are |
9 | | exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as |
10 | | provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of |
11 | | children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of |
12 | | this Section. |
13 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
14 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
15 | | number of children who have received the required eye |
16 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
17 | | required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt |
18 | | from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this |
19 | | Section, the number of children who have received a waiver |
20 | | under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number |
21 | | of children in noncompliance with the eye examination |
22 | | requirement. |
23 | | The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be |
24 | | provided to the
Department of Public Health by the State Board |
25 | | of Education. |
26 | | (7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are |
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1 | | required to be in
compliance with subsection (5) of this |
2 | | Section is below 90% of the number of
pupils enrolled in the |
3 | | school district, 10% of each State aid payment made
pursuant to |
4 | | Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be |
5 | | withheld
by the State Board of Education until the number of |
6 | | students in compliance with
subsection (5) is the applicable |
7 | | specified percentage or higher. |
8 | | (8) Parents or legal guardians who object to health,
|
9 | | dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, or to |
10 | | immunizations, on religious grounds
shall not be required to |
11 | | submit their children or wards to the examinations
or |
12 | | immunizations to which they so object if such parents or legal |
13 | | guardians
present to the appropriate local school authority a |
14 | | signed statement of
objection, detailing the grounds for the |
15 | | objection. If the physical condition
of the child is such that |
16 | | any one or more of the immunizing agents should not
be |
17 | | administered, the examining physician, advanced practice |
18 | | nurse, or
physician assistant responsible for the performance |
19 | | of the
health examination shall endorse that fact upon the |
20 | | health examination form.
Exempting a child from the health,
|
21 | | dental, or eye examination does not exempt the child from
|
22 | | participation in the program of physical education training |
23 | | provided in
Sections 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code. |
24 | | (9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" |
25 | | means those nursery
schools operated by elementary school |
26 | | systems or secondary level school units
or institutions of |
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1 | | higher learning. |
2 | | (Source: P.A. 97-216, eff. 1-1-12; 97-910, eff. 1-1-13; 98-673, |
3 | | eff. 6-30-14.)
|
4 | | Section 20. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood Bank |
5 | | Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:
|
6 | | (210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)
|
7 | | Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical |
8 | | laboratory shall examine
specimens only at the request of (i) a |
9 | | licensed physician, (ii) a
licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed |
10 | | podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed
optometrist,
(v) a |
11 | | licensed
physician assistant in
accordance with the written |
12 | | supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the |
13 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 or when authorized |
14 | | under Section 7.7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
|
15 | | 1987 ,
(v-A) a licensed an advanced practice nurse in accordance |
16 | | with the
written collaborative agreement required under |
17 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act or when authorized |
18 | | under Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act ,
(vi) an |
19 | | authorized law enforcement agency or, in the case of blood
|
20 | | alcohol, at the request of the individual for whom the test is |
21 | | to be performed
in compliance with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 |
22 | | of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or (vii) a genetic counselor with |
23 | | the specific authority from a referral to order a test or tests |
24 | | pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 20 of the Genetic |
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1 | | Counselor Licensing Act.
If the request to a laboratory is |
2 | | oral, the physician or other authorized
person shall submit a |
3 | | written request to the laboratory within 48 hours. If
the |
4 | | laboratory does not receive the written request within that |
5 | | period, it
shall note that fact in its records. For purposes of |
6 | | this Section, a request
made by electronic mail or fax |
7 | | constitutes a written request.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-185, eff. 1-1-14; |
9 | | 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff. |
10 | | 1-1-15 .)
|
11 | | Section 25. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home |
12 | | Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Section |
13 | | 2.05 as follows:
|
14 | | (210 ILCS 55/2.05) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05)
|
15 | | Sec. 2.05.
"Home health services" means services provided
|
16 | | to a person at his residence according to a plan of treatment
|
17 | | for illness or infirmity
prescribed by a physician licensed to |
18 | | practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician |
19 | | assistant who has been delegated the authority to prescribe |
20 | | home health services by his or her supervising physician , or a |
21 | | licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written |
22 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
23 | | delegates the authority to prescribe home health services . Such |
24 | | services include part time and
intermittent nursing services |
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1 | | and other therapeutic services
such as physical therapy, |
2 | | occupational therapy, speech therapy,
medical social services, |
3 | | or services provided by a home health aide.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 98-261, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
5 | | Section 30. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by |
6 | | changing Sections 356g.5 and 356z.1 as follows:
|
7 | | (215 ILCS 5/356g.5) |
8 | | Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam. |
9 | | (a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast |
10 | | examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of |
11 | | breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and |
12 | | potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of |
13 | | clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to |
14 | | reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois. |
15 | | (b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or |
16 | | individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or |
17 | | health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are |
18 | | residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough |
19 | | clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of |
20 | | practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice |
21 | | medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced practice |
22 | | nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
23 | | physician that authorizes breast
examinations , or a licensed |
24 | | physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide |
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1 | | breast examinations , to check for lumps and other changes for |
2 | | the purpose of early detection and prevention of breast cancer |
3 | | as follows: |
4 | | (1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years |
5 | | of age but less than 40 years of age; and |
6 | | (2) annually for women 40 years of age or older. |
7 | | (c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and |
8 | | distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all |
9 | | State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and |
10 | | private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical |
11 | | breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 95-189, eff. 8-16-07.)
|
13 | | (215 ILCS 5/356z.1)
|
14 | | Sec. 356z.1. Prenatal HIV testing. An individual or group |
15 | | policy of
accident and health insurance that provides maternity |
16 | | coverage and is amended,
delivered, issued, or renewed after |
17 | | the effective date of this amendatory Act
of the 92nd General |
18 | | Assembly must provide coverage for prenatal HIV testing
ordered |
19 | | by an attending physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
20 | | its
branches, or by a physician assistant or advanced practice |
21 | | registered nurse
who has a written collaborative agreement with |
22 | | a collaborating physician that
authorizes these services , |
23 | | including but not limited to orders consistent with
the |
24 | | recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and |
25 | | Gynecologists
or the American Academy of Pediatrics.
|
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 92-130, eff. 7-20-01.)
|
2 | | Section 33. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by |
3 | | changing Section 54.5 as follows:
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 60/54.5)
|
5 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2015)
|
6 | | Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician |
7 | | assistants, advanced practice nurses, and prescribing |
8 | | psychologists.
|
9 | | (a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
10 | | branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
|
11 | | physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
|
12 | | requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
1987. A |
13 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches may |
14 | | enter into supervising physician agreements with
no more than 5 |
15 | | physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section |
16 | | 7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
|
17 | | (b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
18 | | branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an |
19 | | advanced practice
nurse in accordance with the requirements of |
20 | | the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration
is for the purpose of |
21 | | providing medical consultation,
and no employment relationship |
22 | | is required. A
written collaborative agreement shall
conform to |
23 | | the requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
24 | | The written collaborative agreement shall
be for
services in |
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1 | | the same area of practice or specialty as the collaborating |
2 | | physician generally provides or may provide in
his or her |
3 | | clinical medical practice.
A written collaborative agreement |
4 | | shall be adequate with respect to collaboration
with advanced |
5 | | practice nurses if all of the following apply:
|
6 | | (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of |
7 | | professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse |
8 | | commensurate with his or her education and experience. The |
9 | | agreement need not describe the exact steps that an |
10 | | advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each |
11 | | specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify |
12 | | those procedures that require a physician's presence as the |
13 | | procedures are being performed.
|
14 | | (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and |
15 | | approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and |
16 | | collaborating physician, as needed, based on the practice |
17 | | of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders and the |
18 | | patient services provided thereunder are periodically |
19 | | reviewed by the collaborating physician.
|
20 | | (2) (3) The advance practice nurse provides services |
21 | | based upon a written collaborative agreement with the |
22 | | collaborating physician generally provides or may provide |
23 | | in his or her clinical medical practice , except as set |
24 | | forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to |
25 | | labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must |
26 | | provide delivery services in order to participate with a |
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1 | | certified nurse midwife. |
2 | | (4) The collaborating physician and advanced practice |
3 | | nurse consult at least once a month to provide |
4 | | collaboration and consultation. |
5 | | (3) (5) Methods of communication are available with the |
6 | | collaborating physician in person or through |
7 | | telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and |
8 | | referral as needed to address patient care needs. |
9 | | (6) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice |
10 | | for termination or change of status involving a written |
11 | | collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given |
12 | | for just cause.
|
13 | | (b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to |
14 | | practice medicine in
all its branches may collaborate with a |
15 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist
in accordance with |
16 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of |
17 | | anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of |
18 | | anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or |
19 | | physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of |
20 | | anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. |
21 | | Collaboration shall be
adequate if:
|
22 | | (1) an anesthesiologist or a physician
participates in |
23 | | the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
|
24 | | guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the |
25 | | services provided
patients under such orders; and
|
26 | | (2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist
or |
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1 | | physician participates through discussion of and agreement |
2 | | with the
anesthesia plan and is physically present and |
3 | | available on the premises during
the delivery of anesthesia |
4 | | services for
diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of |
5 | | emergency medical conditions.
Anesthesia services in a |
6 | | hospital shall be conducted in accordance with
Section 10.7 |
7 | | of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
|
8 | | treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the |
9 | | Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act.
|
10 | | (b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must |
11 | | agree with the
anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of |
12 | | services.
|
13 | | (c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
|
14 | | medical records of all patients attended by a physician
|
15 | | assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to
the |
16 | | medical records of all patients attended to by an
advanced |
17 | | practice nurse.
|
18 | | (d) (Blank).
|
19 | | (e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
|
20 | | omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, |
21 | | or advanced practice
nurse solely on the basis of having signed |
22 | | a
supervision agreement or guidelines or a collaborative
|
23 | | agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a
standing |
24 | | delegation order, or other order or guideline
authorizing a |
25 | | prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced |
26 | | practice
nurse to perform acts, unless the physician has
reason |
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1 | | to believe the prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, |
2 | | or advanced
practice nurse lacked the competency to perform
the |
3 | | act or acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
|
4 | | (f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, |
5 | | delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse |
6 | | as part of a written collaborative agreement, and the |
7 | | delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to the |
8 | | requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
9 | | (g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
10 | | delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
11 | | part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
12 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
13 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
14 | | (h) (Blank). For the purposes of this Section, "generally |
15 | | provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical |
16 | | practice" means categories of care or treatment, not specific |
17 | | tasks or duties, that the physician provides individually or |
18 | | through delegation to other persons so that the physician has |
19 | | the experience and ability to provide collaboration and |
20 | | consultation. This definition shall not be construed to |
21 | | prohibit an advanced practice nurse from providing primary |
22 | | health treatment or care within the scope of his or her |
23 | | training and experience, including, but not limited to, health |
24 | | screenings, patient histories, physical examinations, women's |
25 | | health examinations, or school physicals that may be provided |
26 | | as part of the routine practice of an advanced practice nurse |
|
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|
1 | | or on a volunteer basis. |
2 | | (i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive |
3 | | authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written |
4 | | collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive |
5 | | authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of |
6 | | the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. |
7 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1071, eff. 8-24-12; |
8 | | 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14 .)
|
9 | | Section 35. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing |
10 | | Sections 50-10, 65-35, and 65-45 and by adding Section 65-35.1 |
11 | | as follows:
|
12 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-10)
(was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)
|
13 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
14 | | Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when |
15 | | used
in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this |
16 | | Section, except
where the context clearly indicates otherwise:
|
17 | | "Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of |
18 | | courses at a
college, university, or approved school, |
19 | | customarily regarded as the school
year as distinguished from |
20 | | the calendar year.
|
21 | | "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means a person who has |
22 | | met the qualifications for a (i) certified nurse midwife (CNM); |
23 | | (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); (iii) certified |
24 | | registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) clinical nurse |
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1 | | specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the Department. All |
2 | | advanced practice nurses licensed and practicing in the State |
3 | | of Illinois shall use the title APN and may use specialty |
4 | | credentials CNM, CNP, CRNA, or CNS after their name. All |
5 | | advanced practice nurses may only practice in accordance with |
6 | | national certification and this Act.
|
7 | | "Approved program of professional nursing education" and |
8 | | "approved
program of practical nursing education" are programs |
9 | | of professional or
practical nursing, respectively, approved |
10 | | by the Department under the
provisions of this Act.
|
11 | | "Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the |
12 | | Secretary. |
13 | | "Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health |
14 | | care professionals working together, each contributing one's |
15 | | respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive |
16 | | patient care. |
17 | | "Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced |
18 | | practice nurse seeks the advice or opinion of another health |
19 | | care professional. |
20 | | "Credentialed" means the process of assessing and |
21 | | validating the qualifications of a health care professional. |
22 | | "Current nursing practice update course" means a planned |
23 | | nursing education curriculum approved by the Department |
24 | | consisting of activities that have educational objectives, |
25 | | instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical |
26 | | practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and |
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1 | | updating content and specifically planned for those nurses |
2 | | previously licensed in the United States or its territories and |
3 | | preparing for reentry into nursing practice. |
4 | | "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry |
5 | | under the Illinois Dental Practice Act. |
6 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
7 | | Professional Regulation. |
8 | | "Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who |
9 | | is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because |
10 | | of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written |
11 | | determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, |
12 | | including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a |
13 | | psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or |
14 | | her ability to deliver competent patient care. |
15 | | "License-pending advanced practice nurse" means a |
16 | | registered professional nurse who has completed all |
17 | | requirements for licensure as an advanced practice nurse except |
18 | | the certification examination and has applied to take the next |
19 | | available certification exam and received a temporary license |
20 | | from the Department. |
21 | | "License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has |
22 | | passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam |
23 | | and has applied for a license from the Department. A |
24 | | license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic |
25 | | pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice. |
26 | | "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in |
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1 | | all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. |
2 | | "Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice |
3 | | podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
4 | | "Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a |
5 | | person who is
licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and |
6 | | practices practical
nursing as defined in this Act. Only a |
7 | | practical nurse
licensed under this Act is entitled to use the |
8 | | title "licensed practical
nurse" and the abbreviation |
9 | | "L.P.N.".
|
10 | | "Practical nursing" means the performance of
nursing acts |
11 | | requiring the basic nursing knowledge, judgment judgement , and |
12 | | skill
acquired by means of completion of an approved practical |
13 | | nursing education
program. Practical nursing includes |
14 | | assisting in the nursing process as
delegated by a registered |
15 | | professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse. The
practical |
16 | | nurse may work under the direction of a licensed physician, |
17 | | dentist, podiatric physician, or other health care |
18 | | professional determined by the Department.
|
19 | | "Privileged" means the authorization granted by the |
20 | | governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or |
21 | | organization to provide specific patient care services within |
22 | | well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the |
23 | | credentialing process.
|
24 | | "Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" |
25 | | means a person
who is licensed as a professional nurse under |
26 | | this Act and practices
nursing as defined in
this Act. Only a |
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1 | | registered
nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
|
2 | | titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" |
3 | | and the
abbreviation, "R.N.".
|
4 | | "Registered professional nursing practice" is a scientific |
5 | | process founded on a professional body of knowledge; it is a |
6 | | learned profession based on the understanding of the human |
7 | | condition across the life span and environment and
includes all
|
8 | | nursing
specialties and means the performance of any nursing |
9 | | act based upon
professional knowledge, judgment, and skills |
10 | | acquired by means of completion
of an approved professional |
11 | | nursing education program. A registered
professional nurse |
12 | | provides holistic nursing care through the nursing process
to |
13 | | individuals, groups, families, or communities, that includes |
14 | | but is not
limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, |
15 | | nursing diagnosis,
planning, implementation, and nursing |
16 | | evaluation; (2) the promotion,
maintenance, and restoration of |
17 | | health; (3) counseling, patient education,
health education, |
18 | | and patient advocacy; (4) the administration of medications
and |
19 | | treatments as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice |
20 | | medicine in
all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed |
21 | | podiatric physician, or a licensed
optometrist or as prescribed |
22 | | by a physician assistant in accordance with
written guidelines |
23 | | required under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987
or |
24 | | by an advanced practice nurse in accordance with Article 65 of |
25 | | this Act ; (5) the
coordination and management of the nursing |
26 | | plan of care; (6) the delegation to
and supervision of |
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1 | | individuals who assist the registered professional nurse
|
2 | | implementing the plan of care; and (7) teaching nursing
|
3 | | students. The foregoing shall not be deemed to include
those |
4 | | acts of medical diagnosis or prescription of therapeutic or
|
5 | | corrective measures.
|
6 | | "Professional assistance program for nurses" means a |
7 | | professional
assistance program that meets criteria |
8 | | established by the Board of Nursing
and approved by the |
9 | | Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment
|
10 | | approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to |
11 | | practice is
compromised by alcohol or chemical substance |
12 | | addiction.
|
13 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
14 | | Professional Regulation. |
15 | | "Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good |
16 | | standing. |
17 | | "Written collaborative agreement" means a written |
18 | | agreement between an advanced practice nurse and a |
19 | | collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician |
20 | | pursuant to Section 65-35.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
22 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-35)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)
|
23 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
24 | | Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative
agreements. |
25 | | (a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all |
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1 | | advanced practice nurses engaged in clinical practice, except |
2 | | for advanced practice nurses who are authorized to practice in |
3 | | a hospital , hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical |
4 | | treatment center. |
5 | | (a-5) If an advanced practice nurse engages in clinical |
6 | | practice outside of a hospital , hospital affiliate, or |
7 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is |
8 | | authorized to practice, the advanced practice nurse must have a |
9 | | written collaborative agreement.
|
10 | | (b) A written collaborative
agreement shall describe the |
11 | | working relationship of the
advanced practice nurse with the |
12 | | collaborating
physician or podiatric physician and shall |
13 | | describe authorize the categories of
care, treatment, or |
14 | | procedures to be provided performed by the advanced
practice |
15 | | nurse. A collaborative agreement with a dentist must be in |
16 | | accordance with subsection (c-10) of this Section. |
17 | | Collaboration does not require an
employment relationship |
18 | | between the collaborating physician
or podiatric physician and |
19 | | advanced practice nurse. Collaboration means
the relationship |
20 | | under
which an advanced practice nurse works with a |
21 | | collaborating
physician or podiatric physician in an active |
22 | | clinical practice to deliver health care services in
accordance |
23 | | with
(i) the advanced practice nurse's training, education,
and |
24 | | experience and (ii) collaboration and consultation as |
25 | | documented in a
jointly developed written collaborative
|
26 | | agreement.
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1 | | The agreement shall promote the
exercise of professional |
2 | | judgment by the advanced practice
nurse commensurate with his |
3 | | or her education and
experience. The services to be provided by |
4 | | the advanced
practice nurse shall be services that the
|
5 | | collaborating physician or podiatric physician is authorized |
6 | | to and generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical |
7 | | medical or podiatric practice, except as set forth in |
8 | | subsection (b-5) or (c-5) of this Section.
The agreement need |
9 | | not describe the exact steps that an advanced practice
nurse |
10 | | must take with respect to each specific condition, disease, or |
11 | | symptom
but must specify
which authorized procedures require |
12 | | the presence of the collaborating physician or podiatric |
13 | | physician as
the procedures are being performed. The |
14 | | collaborative
relationship under an agreement shall not be
|
15 | | construed to require the personal presence of a physician or |
16 | | podiatric physician at the place where services are rendered.
|
17 | | Methods of communication shall
be available for consultation |
18 | | with the collaborating
physician or podiatric physician in |
19 | | person or by telecommunications or electronic communications |
20 | | in accordance with
established written guidelines as set forth |
21 | | in the written
agreement.
|
22 | | (b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written |
23 | | collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of |
24 | | patients of an advanced practice nurse within the scope of the |
25 | | advanced practice nurses training and experience, (2) limit |
26 | | third party payors or government health programs, such as the |
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1 | | medical assistance program or Medicare with which the advanced |
2 | | practice nurse contracts, or (3) limit the geographic area or |
3 | | practice location of the advanced practice nurse in this State. |
4 | | (c) Collaboration and consultation under all collaboration |
5 | | agreements
shall be adequate if a
collaborating physician or |
6 | | podiatric physician does each of the following:
|
7 | | (1) Participates in the joint formulation and joint |
8 | | approval of orders or
guidelines with the advanced practice |
9 | | nurse and he or she periodically reviews such orders and |
10 | | the
services provided patients under such orders in |
11 | | accordance with accepted
standards of medical practice or |
12 | | podiatric practice and advanced practice nursing practice.
|
13 | | (2) Provides collaboration and consultation with the |
14 | | advanced practice nurse at least once a month. In the case |
15 | | of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered |
16 | | nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a |
17 | | dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate through |
18 | | discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and |
19 | | remain physically present and available on the premises |
20 | | during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, |
21 | | consultation, and treatment of emergency medical |
22 | | conditions.
|
23 | | (3) Is available through telecommunications for |
24 | | consultation on medical
problems, complications, or |
25 | | emergencies or patient referral. In the case of anesthesia |
26 | | services provided by a certified registered nurse |
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1 | | anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a dentist, |
2 | | or a podiatric physician must participate through |
3 | | discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and |
4 | | remain physically present and available on the premises |
5 | | during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, |
6 | | consultation, and treatment of emergency medical |
7 | | conditions.
|
8 | | The agreement must contain provisions detailing notice for |
9 | | termination or change of status involving a written |
10 | | collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for |
11 | | just cause. |
12 | | (c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who |
13 | | provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or |
14 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written |
15 | | collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the |
16 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or |
17 | | the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a |
18 | | hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the |
19 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those |
20 | | services that the collaborating podiatric physician is |
21 | | authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical |
22 | | Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified |
23 | | registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer |
24 | | medication, including controlled substances, and apply |
25 | | appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia |
26 | | services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the |
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1 | | anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating |
2 | | podiatric physician. |
3 | | (c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who |
4 | | provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter |
5 | | into a written collaborative agreement with an |
6 | | anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice |
7 | | medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist |
8 | | performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the |
9 | | working relationship of the certified registered nurse |
10 | | anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of |
11 | | care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified |
12 | | registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's |
13 | | office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only |
14 | | provide those services that the operating dentist with the |
15 | | appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the |
16 | | Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For |
17 | | anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or |
18 | | operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and |
19 | | agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically |
20 | | present and be available on the premises during the delivery of |
21 | | anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment |
22 | | of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse |
23 | | anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, |
24 | | including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical |
25 | | devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the |
26 | | anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist. |
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1 | | (d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement |
2 | | must be available
to the Department upon request from both the |
3 | | advanced practice nurse
and the collaborating physician , |
4 | | dentist, or podiatric physician. |
5 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
6 | | delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed |
7 | | practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other |
8 | | persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice |
9 | | Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit |
10 | | the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, |
11 | | including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, |
12 | | standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. |
13 | | Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize an advanced |
14 | | practice nurse to provide health care services required by law |
15 | | or rule to be performed by a physician. |
16 | | (f) An advanced
practice nurse shall inform each |
17 | | collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of |
18 | | all collaborative
agreements he or she
has signed and provide a |
19 | | copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or |
20 | | podiatric physician upon
request.
|
21 | | (g) (Blank). For the purposes of this Act, "generally |
22 | | provides or may provide in his or her clinical medical |
23 | | practice" means categories of care or treatment, not specific |
24 | | tasks or duties, the physician provides individually or through |
25 | | delegation to other persons so that the physician has the |
26 | | experience and ability to provide collaboration and |
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1 | | consultation. This definition shall not be construed to |
2 | | prohibit an advanced practice nurse from providing primary |
3 | | health treatment or care within the scope of his or her |
4 | | training and experience, including, but not limited to, health |
5 | | screenings, patient histories, physical examinations, women's |
6 | | health examinations, or school physicals that may be provided |
7 | | as part of the routine practice of an advanced practice nurse |
8 | | or on a volunteer basis. |
9 | | For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides or may |
10 | | provide in his or her clinical podiatric practice" means |
11 | | services, not specific tasks or duties, that the podiatric |
12 | | physician routinely provides individually or through |
13 | | delegation to other persons so that the podiatric physician has |
14 | | the experience and ability to provide collaboration and |
15 | | consultation. |
16 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; |
17 | | 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
18 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-35.1 new) |
19 | | Sec. 65-35.1. Written collaborative agreement; temporary |
20 | | practice. Any advanced practice nurse required to enter into a |
21 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
22 | | or collaborating podiatrist is authorized to continue to |
23 | | practice for up to 90 days after the termination of a |
24 | | collaborative agreement provided the advanced practice nurse |
25 | | seeks any needed collaboration at a local hospital and refers |
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1 | | patients who require services beyond the training and |
2 | | experience of the advanced practice nurse to a physician or |
3 | | other health care provider.
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-45)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)
|
5 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
6 | | Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice nursing in hospitals, |
7 | | hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical treatment centers.
|
8 | | (a) An advanced practice nurse may provide
services in a |
9 | | hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms are defined in |
10 | | the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of Illinois |
11 | | Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical
treatment center |
12 | | without a written collaborative agreement pursuant to Section |
13 | | 65-35 of this Act. An advanced practice nurse must possess |
14 | | clinical privileges recommended by the hospital medical staff |
15 | | and granted by the hospital or the consulting medical staff |
16 | | committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center in order to |
17 | | provide services. The medical staff or consulting medical staff |
18 | | committee shall periodically review the services of advanced |
19 | | practice nurses granted clinical privileges, including any |
20 | | care provided in a hospital affiliate. Authority may also be |
21 | | granted when recommended by the hospital medical staff and |
22 | | granted by the hospital or recommended by the consulting |
23 | | medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment |
24 | | center to individual advanced practice nurses to select, order, |
25 | | and administer medications, including controlled substances, |
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1 | | to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital affiliate, |
2 | | or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the attending |
3 | | physician shall determine an advanced practice nurse's role in |
4 | | providing care for his or her patients, except as otherwise |
5 | | provided in the medical staff bylaws or consulting committee |
6 | | policies.
|
7 | | (a-2) An advanced practice nurse granted authority to order |
8 | | medications including controlled substances may complete |
9 | | discharge prescriptions provided the prescription is in the |
10 | | name of the advanced practice nurse and the attending or |
11 | | discharging physician. |
12 | | (a-3) Advanced practice nurses practicing in a hospital or |
13 | | an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not required to |
14 | | obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to order |
15 | | controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the Illinois |
16 | | Controlled Substances Act. |
17 | | (a-5) For
anesthesia services provided by a certified |
18 | | registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist,
physician, |
19 | | dentist,
or podiatric physician shall participate through |
20 | | discussion of and agreement with the
anesthesia plan and shall
|
21 | | remain
physically present
and be available on the premises |
22 | | during the delivery of anesthesia services for
diagnosis, |
23 | | consultation, and treatment of
emergency medical conditions, |
24 | | unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to
clause (B) of |
25 | | subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act
|
26 | | or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy adopted |
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1 | | pursuant to
clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 6.5 of the |
2 | | Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act
provides otherwise. A |
3 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and |
4 | | administer medication for anesthesia services under the |
5 | | anesthesia plan agreed to by the anesthesiologist or the |
6 | | physician, in accordance with hospital alternative policy or |
7 | | the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed |
8 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center.
|
9 | | (b) An advanced practice nurse who provides
services in a |
10 | | hospital shall do so in accordance with Section 10.7 of the
|
11 | | Hospital
Licensing Act and, in an
ambulatory surgical treatment |
12 | | center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of the
Ambulatory
|
13 | | Surgical Treatment Center Act.
|
14 | | (c) Advanced practice nurses certified as nurse |
15 | | practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists |
16 | | practicing in a hospital affiliate may be, but are not required |
17 | | to be, granted authority to prescribe Schedule II through V |
18 | | controlled substances when such authority is recommended by the |
19 | | appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate and |
20 | | granted by the hospital affiliate. This authority may, but is |
21 | | not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders |
22 | | for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, |
23 | | and dispensing over-the-counter medications, legend drugs, |
24 | | medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as |
25 | | Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in |
26 | | Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other |
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1 | | preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and |
2 | | herbal remedies. |
3 | | To prescribe controlled substances under this subsection |
4 | | (c), an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse |
5 | | practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist must |
6 | | obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license. |
7 | | Medication orders shall be reviewed periodically by the |
8 | | appropriate hospital affiliate physicians committee or its |
9 | | physician designee. |
10 | | The hospital affiliate shall file with the Department |
11 | | notice of a grant of prescriptive authority consistent with |
12 | | this subsection (c) and termination of such a grant of |
13 | | authority, in accordance with rules of the Department. Upon |
14 | | receipt of this notice of grant of authority to prescribe any |
15 | | Schedule II through V controlled substances, the licensed |
16 | | advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, |
17 | | nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist may register for a |
18 | | mid-level practitioner controlled substance license under |
19 | | Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. |
20 | | In addition, a hospital affiliate may, but is not required |
21 | | to, grant authority to an advanced practice nurse certified as |
22 | | a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse |
23 | | specialist to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances, |
24 | | if all of the following conditions apply: |
25 | | (1) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral |
26 | | dosage or topical or transdermal application may be |
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|
1 | | designated, provided that the designated Schedule II |
2 | | controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced |
3 | | practice nurses in their area of certification; this grant |
4 | | of authority must identify the specific Schedule II |
5 | | controlled substances by either brand name or generic name; |
6 | | authority to prescribe or dispense Schedule II controlled |
7 | | substances to be delivered by injection or other route of |
8 | | administration may not be granted; |
9 | | (2) any grant of authority must be controlled |
10 | | substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice |
11 | | nurse; |
12 | | (3) any prescription must be limited to no more than a |
13 | | 30-day supply; |
14 | | (4) the advanced practice nurse must discuss the |
15 | | condition of any patients for whom a controlled substance |
16 | | is prescribed monthly with the appropriate physician |
17 | | committee of the hospital affiliate or its physician |
18 | | designee; and |
19 | | (5) the advanced practice nurse must meet the education |
20 | | requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled |
21 | | Substances Act. |
22 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
23 | | Section 40. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act |
24 | | is amended by changing Section 3.1 as follows:
|
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| | HB0421 Engrossed | - 70 - | LRB099 05828 HAF 25872 b |
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1 | | (225 ILCS 75/3.1)
|
2 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
3 | | Sec. 3.1. Referrals. |
4 | | (a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed
|
5 | | occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate, |
6 | | evaluate, and monitor
services for individuals, groups, and |
7 | | populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as |
8 | | indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, |
9 | | implementation
of direct occupational therapy treatment to |
10 | | individuals for their specific
health care conditions shall be |
11 | | based upon a referral from a licensed
physician, dentist, |
12 | | podiatric physician, or advanced practice nurse who has a |
13 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
14 | | to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational |
15 | | therapists , physician assistant who has been delegated |
16 | | authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed |
17 | | occupational therapists , or optometrist.
|
18 | | (b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing |
19 | | consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness, |
20 | | prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related |
21 | | ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations. |
22 | | (c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider |
23 | | is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and |
24 | | youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy |
25 | | assistant provides services in a school-based or educational |
26 | | environment, including the child's home. |
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1 | | (d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed |
2 | | physician, dentist,
optometrist, advanced practice nurse, |
3 | | physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose |
4 | | medical condition should, at the
time of evaluation or |
5 | | treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of
practice of |
6 | | the occupational therapist.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; |
8 | | 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
9 | | Section 45. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics |
10 | | Practice Act is amended by changing Section 57 as follows:
|
11 | | (225 ILCS 84/57)
|
12 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
|
13 | | Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A
|
14 | | licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide |
15 | | care or services only if the care
or services are provided |
16 | | pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a |
17 | | licensed podiatric physician, (iii) a licensed an advanced |
18 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
19 | | collaborating physician or podiatric physician that |
20 | | specifically authorizes ordering the services of an orthotist, |
21 | | prosthetist or pedorthist , or (iv) an advanced practice nurse |
22 | | who practices in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment |
23 | | center and possesses clinical privileges to order services of |
24 | | an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist, or (v) a licensed |
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1 | | physician assistant who has been delegated the authority to |
2 | | order the services of an orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist |
3 | | by his or her supervising physician . A licensed podiatric |
4 | | physician or advanced practice nurse collaborating with a |
5 | | podiatric physician may only order care or services concerning |
6 | | the foot from a licensed prosthetist.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
8 | | Section 50. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended by |
9 | | changing Section 1 as follows:
|
10 | | (225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)
|
11 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
|
12 | | Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
13 | | (1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following: |
14 | | (A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who |
15 | | may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental |
16 | | impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or |
17 | | other health and movement-related conditions, classifying |
18 | | these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis |
19 | | and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the |
20 | | on-going effects of the interventions. |
21 | | (B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, |
22 | | or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying |
23 | | therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not |
24 | | limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through |
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1 | | the use of the effective properties of physical measures |
2 | | and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, |
3 | | sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic |
4 | | exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, |
5 | | with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of |
6 | | preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or |
7 | | mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability. |
8 | | (C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, |
9 | | functional limitation, or disability, including the |
10 | | promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and |
11 | | wellness. |
12 | | (D) Engaging in administration, consultation, |
13 | | education, and research.
|
14 | | Physical therapy
includes, but is not limited to: (a) |
15 | | performance
of specialized tests and measurements, (b) |
16 | | administration of specialized
treatment procedures, (c) |
17 | | interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, |
18 | | advanced practice nurses, physician assistants,
and podiatric |
19 | | physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of physical |
20 | | therapy
treatment programs, (e) administration of topical |
21 | | medication used in generally
accepted physical therapy |
22 | | procedures when such medication is prescribed
by the patient's |
23 | | physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
|
24 | | the patient's physician licensed to practice podiatric |
25 | | medicine, the patient's advanced practice nurse, the patient's |
26 | | physician assistant, or the
patient's dentist, and (f) |
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1 | | supervision or teaching of physical therapy.
Physical therapy |
2 | | does not include radiology, electrosurgery, chiropractic
|
3 | | technique or determination of a differential
diagnosis; |
4 | | provided, however,
the limitation on determining a |
5 | | differential diagnosis shall not in any
manner limit a physical |
6 | | therapist licensed under this Act from performing
an evaluation |
7 | | pursuant to such license. Nothing in this Section shall limit
a |
8 | | physical therapist from employing appropriate physical therapy |
9 | | techniques
that he or she is educated and licensed to perform. |
10 | | A physical therapist
shall refer to a licensed physician, |
11 | | advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, dentist, or |
12 | | podiatric physician any patient
whose medical condition |
13 | | should, at the time of evaluation or treatment, be
determined |
14 | | to be beyond the scope of practice of the physical therapist.
|
15 | | (2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices |
16 | | physical therapy
and who has met all requirements as provided |
17 | | in this Act.
|
18 | | (3) "Department" means the Department of Professional |
19 | | Regulation.
|
20 | | (4) "Director" means the Director of Professional |
21 | | Regulation.
|
22 | | (5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and |
23 | | Disciplinary Board approved
by the Director.
|
24 | | (6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for |
25 | | physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, |
26 | | dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or |
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1 | | podiatric physician who maintains medical supervision of the |
2 | | patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies that the patient's |
3 | | condition is such that it may be treated by a physical |
4 | | therapist.
|
5 | | (7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the |
6 | | purpose of
this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by |
7 | | signature or oral verification
of a physician, dentist, |
8 | | advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric |
9 | | physician, that a patient's condition is such
that it may be |
10 | | treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, which
|
11 | | diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the |
12 | | physician, dentist, advanced practice nurse, physician |
13 | | assistant,
or podiatric physician.
|
14 | | (8) "State" includes:
|
15 | | (a) the states of the United States of America;
|
16 | | (b) the District of Columbia; and
|
17 | | (c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
|
18 | | (9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed |
19 | | to assist a
physical therapist and who has met all requirements |
20 | | as provided in this Act
and who works under the supervision of |
21 | | a licensed physical therapist to assist
in implementing the |
22 | | physical therapy treatment program as established by the
|
23 | | licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities |
24 | | provided by the
physical therapist assistant shall not include |
25 | | the interpretation of referrals,
evaluation procedures, or the |
26 | | planning or major modification of patient programs.
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1 | | (10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has |
2 | | received on
the job training, specific to the facility in which |
3 | | he is employed, but who
has not completed an approved physical |
4 | | therapist assistant program.
|
5 | | (11) "Advanced practice nurse" means a person licensed as |
6 | | an advanced practice nurse under the Nurse Practice Act who has |
7 | | a collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
8 | | authorizes referrals to physical therapists . |
9 | | (12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under |
10 | | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been |
11 | | delegated authority to make referrals to physical therapists .
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
13 | | Section 53. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is |
14 | | amended by changing Section 20.5 as follows:
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 100/20.5) |
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
17 | | Sec. 20.5. Delegation of authority to advanced practice |
18 | | nurses.
|
19 | | (a) A podiatric physician in active clinical practice may |
20 | | collaborate with an advanced practice nurse in accordance with |
21 | | the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration shall |
22 | | be for the purpose of providing podiatric care consultation and |
23 | | no employment relationship shall be required. A written |
24 | | collaborative agreement shall conform to the requirements of |
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1 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. The written |
2 | | collaborative agreement shall be for services the |
3 | | collaborating podiatric physician generally provides to his or |
4 | | her patients in the normal course of clinical podiatric |
5 | | practice, except as set forth in item (3) of this subsection |
6 | | (a). A written collaborative agreement and podiatric physician |
7 | | collaboration and consultation shall be adequate with respect |
8 | | to advanced practice nurses if all of the following apply: |
9 | | (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of |
10 | | professional judgment by the advanced practice nurse |
11 | | commensurate with his or her education and experience. The |
12 | | agreement need not describe the exact steps that an |
13 | | advanced practice nurse must take with respect to each |
14 | | specific condition, disease, or symptom, but must specify |
15 | | which procedures require a podiatric physician's presence |
16 | | as the procedures are being performed. |
17 | | (2) Practice guidelines and orders are developed and |
18 | | approved jointly by the advanced practice nurse and |
19 | | collaborating podiatric physician, as needed, based on the |
20 | | practice of the practitioners. Such guidelines and orders |
21 | | and the patient services provided thereunder are |
22 | | periodically reviewed by the collaborating podiatric |
23 | | physician. |
24 | | (1) (3) The advance practice nurse provides services |
25 | | that the collaborating podiatric physician generally |
26 | | provides to his or her patients in the normal course of |
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1 | | clinical practice. With respect to the provision of |
2 | | anesthesia services by a certified registered nurse |
3 | | anesthetist, the collaborating podiatric physician must |
4 | | have training and experience in the delivery of anesthesia |
5 | | consistent with Department rules. |
6 | | (4) The collaborating podiatric physician and the |
7 | | advanced practice nurse consult at least once a month to |
8 | | provide collaboration and consultation. |
9 | | (2) (5) Methods of communication are available with the |
10 | | collaborating podiatric physician in person or through |
11 | | telecommunications or electronic communications for |
12 | | consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to |
13 | | address patient care needs. |
14 | | (3) (6) With respect to the provision of anesthesia |
15 | | services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an |
16 | | anesthesiologist, physician, or podiatric physician shall |
17 | | participate through discussion of and agreement with the |
18 | | anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be |
19 | | available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia |
20 | | services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of |
21 | | emergency medical conditions. The anesthesiologist or |
22 | | operating podiatric physician must agree with the |
23 | | anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services. |
24 | | (7) The agreement contains provisions detailing notice |
25 | | for termination or change of status involving a written |
26 | | collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given |
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1 | | for just cause. |
2 | | (b) The collaborating podiatric physician shall have |
3 | | access to the records of all patients attended to by an |
4 | | advanced practice nurse. |
5 | | (c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the |
6 | | delegation of tasks or duties by a podiatric physician to a |
7 | | licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or |
8 | | other appropriately trained persons. |
9 | | (d) A podiatric physician shall not be liable for the acts |
10 | | or omissions of an advanced practice nurse solely on the basis |
11 | | of having signed guidelines or a collaborative agreement, an |
12 | | order, a standing order, a standing delegation order, or other |
13 | | order or guideline authorizing an advanced practice nurse to |
14 | | perform acts, unless the podiatric physician has reason to |
15 | | believe the advanced practice nurse lacked the competency to |
16 | | perform the act or acts or commits willful or wanton |
17 | | misconduct.
|
18 | | (e) A podiatric physician, may, but is not required to |
19 | | delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice nurse |
20 | | as part of a written collaborative agreement and the delegation |
21 | | of prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
22 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
23 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; |
24 | | 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
25 | | Section 55. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended by |
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| | HB0421 Engrossed | - 80 - | LRB099 05828 HAF 25872 b |
|
|
1 | | changing Section 10 as follows:
|
2 | | (225 ILCS 106/10)
|
3 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
|
4 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
|
5 | | "Advanced practice nurse" means an advanced practice nurse |
6 | | licensed under the Nurse Practice Act.
|
7 | | "Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the |
8 | | Director. |
9 | | "Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all |
10 | | of the following activities: |
11 | | (1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment |
12 | | used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a |
13 | | licensed health care professional or other authorized |
14 | | licensed personnel. |
15 | | (2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of |
16 | | respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care |
17 | | professional or other authorized licensed personnel. |
18 | | (3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through |
19 | | non-invasive means, provided that the collection and |
20 | | review does not include the individual's interpretation of |
21 | | the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and |
22 | | reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse |
23 | | oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order |
24 | | to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health |
25 | | care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel |
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1 | | in a timely manner. |
2 | | (4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen |
3 | | therapy in the proper position on the patient's face. |
4 | | (5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen |
5 | | therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use. |
6 | | (6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by |
7 | | physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the |
8 | | oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb |
9 | | syringe. |
10 | | (7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency |
11 | | resuscitation using a manual resuscitator. |
12 | | (8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a |
13 | | licensed health care professional or other authorized |
14 | | licensed personnel who is present and performing routine |
15 | | airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of |
16 | | a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of |
17 | | mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is |
18 | | connected to the ventilator.
|
19 | | "Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean activities |
20 | | that involve any of the following:
|
21 | | (1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of |
22 | | education or training in respiratory care. |
23 | | (2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the |
24 | | patient. |
25 | | (3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning |
26 | | patient care. |
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1 | | (4) The administration of aerosol medication or |
2 | | oxygen. |
3 | | (5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial |
4 | | airway. |
5 | | (6) Mechanical ventilatory support. |
6 | | (7) Patient assessment. |
7 | | (8) Patient education.
|
8 | | "Department" means the Department of Professional |
9 | | Regulation.
|
10 | | "Director" means the Director of
Professional Regulation.
|
11 | | "Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself
out |
12 | | as
a respiratory care
practitioner as defined in this Act.
|
13 | | "Licensed health care professional" means a physician |
14 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed |
15 | | an advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative |
16 | | agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the |
17 | | advanced practice nurse to transmit orders to a respiratory |
18 | | care practitioner , or a licensed physician assistant who has |
19 | | been delegated the authority to transmit orders to a |
20 | | respiratory care practitioner by his or her supervising |
21 | | physician .
|
22 | | "Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated |
23 | | authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by |
24 | | (i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical |
25 | | supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies |
26 | | that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by |
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1 | | a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered |
2 | | nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical |
3 | | treatment center.
|
4 | | "Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed |
5 | | respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or |
6 | | a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes |
7 | | the professional to supervise an individual who is not |
8 | | licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional. |
9 | | "Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an |
10 | | individual is
responsible for directing the actions of another |
11 | | individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be |
12 | | readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.
|
13 | | "Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care"
mean |
14 | | preventative services, evaluation and assessment services, |
15 | | therapeutic services, and rehabilitative services under the |
16 | | order of a licensed health care professional or a certified |
17 | | registered nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital for an |
18 | | individual with a disorder, disease, or abnormality of the |
19 | | cardiopulmonary system. These terms include, but are not |
20 | | limited to, measuring, observing, assessing, and monitoring |
21 | | signs and symptoms, reactions, general behavior, and general |
22 | | physical response of individuals to respiratory care services, |
23 | | including the determination of whether those signs, symptoms, |
24 | | reactions, behaviors, or general physical responses exhibit |
25 | | abnormal characteristics; the administration of |
26 | | pharmacological and therapeutic agents related to respiratory |
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1 | | care services; the collection of blood specimens and other |
2 | | bodily fluids and tissues for, and the performance of, |
3 | | cardiopulmonary diagnostic testing procedures, including, but |
4 | | not limited to, blood gas analysis; development, |
5 | | implementation, and modification of respiratory care treatment |
6 | | plans based on assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary |
7 | | system, respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a |
8 | | licensed health care professional; application, operation, and |
9 | | management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of |
10 | | life support; and the initiation of emergency procedures under |
11 | | the rules promulgated by the Department. A respiratory care |
12 | | practitioner shall refer to a physician licensed to practice |
13 | | medicine in all its branches any patient whose condition, at |
14 | | the time of evaluation or treatment, is determined to be beyond |
15 | | the scope of practice of the respiratory care practitioner.
|
16 | | "Respiratory care education program" means a course of |
17 | | academic study leading
to eligibility for registry or |
18 | | certification in respiratory care. The training
is to be |
19 | | approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and |
20 | | shall
include an evaluation of competence through a |
21 | | standardized testing mechanism
that is determined by the Board |
22 | | to be both valid and reliable.
|
23 | | "Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is |
24 | | licensed by the
Department of Professional Regulation and meets |
25 | | all of the following
criteria:
|
26 | | (1) The person is engaged in the practice of |
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1 | | cardiorespiratory care and
has the knowledge and skill |
2 | | necessary to administer respiratory care.
|
3 | | (2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to |
4 | | the
licensed
health care professional in
relation to the |
5 | | technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe |
6 | | and
effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory |
7 | | care modalities.
|
8 | | (3) The person is able to function in situations of |
9 | | unsupervised patient
contact requiring great individual |
10 | | judgment.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 94-523, eff. 1-1-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
12 | | Section 60. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended |
13 | | by changing Sections 10, 20, and 95 as follows:
|
14 | | (225 ILCS 135/10) |
15 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
16 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
17 | | "ABGC" means the American Board of Genetic Counseling. |
18 | | "ABMG" means the American Board of Medical Genetics. |
19 | | "Active candidate status" is awarded to applicants who have |
20 | | received approval from the ABGC or ABMG to sit for their |
21 | | respective certification examinations.
|
22 | | "Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
23 | | by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
24 | | file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
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1 | | licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or |
2 | | licensee to inform the Department of any change of address, and |
3 | | those changes must be made either through the Department's |
4 | | website or by contacting the Department. |
5 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
6 | | Professional Regulation. |
7 | | "Genetic anomaly" means a variation in an individual's DNA |
8 | | that has been shown to confer a genetically influenced disease |
9 | | or predisposition to a genetically influenced disease or makes |
10 | | a person a carrier of such variation. A "carrier" of a genetic |
11 | | anomaly means a person who may or may not have a predisposition |
12 | | or risk of incurring a genetically influenced condition and who |
13 | | is at risk of having offspring with a genetically influenced |
14 | | condition.
|
15 | | "Genetic counseling" means the provision of services, |
16 | | which may include the ordering of genetic tests, pursuant to a |
17 | | referral, to individuals, couples, groups, families, and |
18 | | organizations by one or more appropriately trained individuals |
19 | | to address the physical and psychological issues associated |
20 | | with the occurrence or risk of occurrence or recurrence of a |
21 | | genetic disorder, birth defect, disease, or potentially |
22 | | inherited or genetically influenced condition in an individual |
23 | | or a family.
"Genetic counseling" consists of the following: |
24 | | (A) Estimating the likelihood of occurrence or |
25 | | recurrence of a birth defect or of any potentially |
26 | | inherited or genetically influenced condition. This |
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1 | | assessment may involve: |
2 | | (i) obtaining and analyzing a complete health |
3 | | history of the person and his or her family; |
4 | | (ii) reviewing pertinent medical records; |
5 | | (iii) evaluating the risks from exposure to |
6 | | possible mutagens or teratogens; |
7 | | (iv) recommending genetic testing or other |
8 | | evaluations to diagnose a condition or determine the |
9 | | carrier status of one or more family members; |
10 | | (B) Helping the individual, family, health care |
11 | | provider, or health care professional
(i) appreciate the |
12 | | medical, psychological and social implications of a |
13 | | disorder, including its features, variability, usual |
14 | | course and management options, (ii) learn how genetic |
15 | | factors contribute to the disorder and affect the chance |
16 | | for recurrence of the condition in other family members, |
17 | | and (iii) understand available options for coping with, |
18 | | preventing, or reducing the chance of
occurrence or |
19 | | recurrence of a condition.
|
20 | | (C) Facilitating an individual's or family's
(i) |
21 | | exploration of the perception of risk and burden associated |
22 | | with the disorder and (ii) adjustment and adaptation to the |
23 | | condition or their genetic risk by addressing needs for
|
24 | | psychological, social, and medical support.
|
25 | | "Genetic counselor" means a person licensed under this Act |
26 | | to engage in the practice of genetic counseling. |
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1 | | "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" mean a test or |
2 | | analysis of human genes, gene products, DNA, RNA, chromosomes, |
3 | | proteins, or metabolites that detects genotypes, mutations, |
4 | | chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or deficiencies, including |
5 | | carrier status, that (i) are linked to physical or mental |
6 | | disorders or impairments, (ii) indicate a susceptibility to |
7 | | illness, disease, impairment, or other disorders, whether |
8 | | physical or mental, or (iii) demonstrate genetic or chromosomal |
9 | | damage due to environmental factors. "Genetic testing" and |
10 | | "genetic tests" do not include routine physical measurements; |
11 | | chemical, blood and urine analyses that are widely accepted and |
12 | | in use in clinical practice; tests for use of drugs; tests for |
13 | | the presence of the human immunodeficiency virus; analyses of |
14 | | proteins or metabolites that do not detect genotypes, |
15 | | mutations, chromosomal changes, abnormalities, or |
16 | | deficiencies; or analyses of proteins or metabolites that are |
17 | | directly related to a manifested disease, disorder, or |
18 | | pathological condition that could reasonably be detected by a |
19 | | health care professional with appropriate training and |
20 | | expertise in the field of medicine involved. |
21 | | "Person" means an individual, association, partnership, or |
22 | | corporation. |
23 | | "Qualified supervisor" means any person who is a licensed |
24 | | genetic counselor, as defined by rule, or a physician licensed |
25 | | to practice medicine in all its branches. A qualified |
26 | | supervisor may be provided at the applicant's place of work, or |
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1 | | may be contracted by the applicant to provide supervision. The |
2 | | qualified supervisor shall file written documentation with
the |
3 | | Department of employment, discharge, or supervisory control of |
4 | | a genetic counselor at the time of employment, discharge, or |
5 | | assumption of supervision of a genetic counselor. |
6 | | "Referral" means a written or telecommunicated |
7 | | authorization for genetic counseling services from a physician |
8 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed |
9 | | an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement |
10 | | with a collaborating physician that authorizes referrals to a |
11 | | genetic counselor , or a licensed physician assistant who has a |
12 | | supervision agreement with a supervising physician that |
13 | | authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor .
|
14 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
15 | | Professional Regulation. |
16 | | "Supervision" means review of aspects of genetic |
17 | | counseling and case management in a bimonthly meeting with the |
18 | | person under supervision.
|
19 | | (Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
20 | | (225 ILCS 135/20) |
21 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
22 | | Sec. 20. Restrictions and limitations.
|
23 | | (a) Except as provided in Section 15, no person shall, |
24 | | without a valid license as a genetic counselor issued by the |
25 | | Department (i) in any manner hold himself or herself out to the |
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1 | | public as a genetic counselor under this Act; (ii) use in |
2 | | connection with his or her name or place of business the title |
3 | | "genetic counselor", "licensed genetic counselor", "gene |
4 | | counselor", "genetic consultant", or "genetic associate" or |
5 | | any words, letters, abbreviations, or insignia indicating or |
6 | | implying a person has met the qualifications for or has the |
7 | | license issued under this Act; or (iii) offer to render or |
8 | | render to individuals, corporations, or the public genetic |
9 | | counseling services if the words "genetic counselor" or |
10 | | "licensed genetic counselor" are used to describe the person |
11 | | offering to render or rendering them, or "genetic counseling" |
12 | | is used to describe the services rendered or offered to be |
13 | | rendered.
|
14 | | (b) No licensed genetic counselor may provide genetic |
15 | | counseling to individuals, couples, groups, or families |
16 | | without a referral from a physician licensed to practice |
17 | | medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced practice |
18 | | nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
19 | | physician that authorizes referrals to a genetic counselor , or |
20 | | a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated authority |
21 | | to make referrals to genetic counselors . The physician, |
22 | | advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant shall maintain |
23 | | supervision of the patient and be provided timely written |
24 | | reports on the services, including genetic testing results, |
25 | | provided by the licensed genetic counselor. Genetic testing |
26 | | shall be ordered by a physician licensed to practice medicine |
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1 | | in all its branches or a genetic counselor pursuant to a |
2 | | referral that gives the specific authority to order genetic |
3 | | tests. Genetic test results and reports shall be provided to |
4 | | the referring physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician |
5 | | assistant. General seminars or talks to groups or organizations |
6 | | on genetic counseling that do not include individual, couple, |
7 | | or family specific counseling may be conducted without a |
8 | | referral. In clinical settings, genetic counselors who serve as |
9 | | a liaison between family members of a patient and a genetic |
10 | | research project, may, with the consent of the patient, provide |
11 | | information to family members for the purpose of gathering |
12 | | additional information, as it relates to the patient, without a |
13 | | referral. In non-clinical settings where no patient is being |
14 | | treated, genetic counselors who serve as a liaison between a |
15 | | genetic research project and participants in that genetic |
16 | | research project may provide information to the participants, |
17 | | without a referral.
|
18 | | (c) No association or partnership shall practice genetic |
19 | | counseling unless every member, partner, and employee of the |
20 | | association or partnership who practices genetic counseling or |
21 | | who renders genetic counseling services holds a valid license |
22 | | issued under this Act. No license shall be issued to a |
23 | | corporation, the stated purpose of which includes or which |
24 | | practices or which holds itself out as available to practice |
25 | | genetic counseling, unless it is organized under the |
26 | | Professional Service Corporation Act.
|
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1 | | (d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as permitting |
2 | | persons licensed as genetic counselors to engage in any manner |
3 | | in the practice of medicine in all its branches as defined by |
4 | | law in this State.
|
5 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a |
6 | | licensed genetic counselor to diagnose, test (unless |
7 | | authorized in a referral), or treat any genetic or other |
8 | | disease or condition. |
9 | | (f) When, in the course of providing genetic counseling |
10 | | services to any person, a genetic counselor licensed under this |
11 | | Act finds any indication of a disease or condition that in his |
12 | | or her professional judgment requires professional service |
13 | | outside the scope of practice as defined in this Act, he or she |
14 | | shall refer that person to a physician licensed to practice |
15 | | medicine in all of its branches.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
17 | | (225 ILCS 135/95) |
18 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
19 | | Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.
|
20 | | (a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may |
21 | | revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other |
22 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department |
23 | | deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to |
24 | | exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license |
25 | | for any one or more of the following: |
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1 | | (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
2 | | the Department or to any other State agency.
|
3 | | (2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard |
4 | | of this Act, or any of its rules.
|
5 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
6 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or |
7 | | sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, |
8 | | preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, |
9 | | or first offender probation, under the laws of any |
10 | | jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or |
11 | | (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which |
12 | | is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice |
13 | | of genetic counseling.
|
14 | | (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of |
15 | | obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act |
16 | | or its rules. |
17 | | (5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling |
18 | | services.
|
19 | | (6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any |
20 | | requested information to a referring physician licensed to |
21 | | practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice |
22 | | nurse, or physician assistant.
|
23 | | (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any |
24 | | provision of this Act or any rules.
|
25 | | (8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in |
26 | | response to a written request made by the Department.
|
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1 | | (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
2 | | unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, |
3 | | defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of |
4 | | professional conduct adopted by the Department.
|
5 | | (10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any |
6 | | information received from a client, unless otherwise |
7 | | authorized or required by law.
|
8 | | (10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services |
9 | | provided and provide copies to clients upon request. |
10 | | (11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, |
11 | | profit, or interest.
|
12 | | (12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, |
13 | | narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
14 | | which results in inability to practice with reasonable |
15 | | skill, judgment, or safety.
|
16 | | (13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit |
17 | | of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or |
18 | | by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the |
19 | | discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those |
20 | | set forth in this Section.
|
21 | | (14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from |
22 | | any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association |
23 | | any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation |
24 | | for any professional service not actually rendered. |
25 | | Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide |
26 | | independent contractor or employment arrangements among |
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1 | | health care professionals, health facilities, health care |
2 | | providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
3 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
4 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
5 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
6 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
7 | | Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to |
8 | | require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
9 | | fees for services rendered. |
10 | | (15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
11 | | after having the license placed on probationary status has |
12 | | violated the terms of probation.
|
13 | | (16) Failing to refer a client to other health care |
14 | | professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to |
15 | | adequately support or serve the client.
|
16 | | (17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a |
17 | | licensee's practice, including but not limited to false |
18 | | records filed with federal or State agencies or |
19 | | departments.
|
20 | | (18) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
21 | | suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused |
22 | | and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
|
23 | | (19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
24 | | report by the Department of Children and Family Services |
25 | | pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, |
26 | | and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
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1 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or |
2 | | neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected |
3 | | Child Reporting Act.
|
4 | | (20) Physical or mental disability, including |
5 | | deterioration through the aging process or loss of |
6 | | abilities and skills which results in the inability to |
7 | | practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, |
8 | | or safety.
|
9 | | (21) Solicitation of professional services by using |
10 | | false or misleading advertising.
|
11 | | (22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, |
12 | | penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any |
13 | | final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required |
14 | | by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of |
15 | | Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue |
16 | | Service or any successor agency.
|
17 | | (23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying |
18 | | for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection |
19 | | with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
|
20 | | (24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name |
21 | | other than the full name as shown on the license or any |
22 | | other legally authorized name.
|
23 | | (25) Gross overcharging for professional services, |
24 | | including filing statements for collection of fees or |
25 | | monies for which services are not rendered.
|
26 | | (26) Providing genetic counseling services to |
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1 | | individuals, couples, groups, or families without a |
2 | | referral from either a physician licensed to practice |
3 | | medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced |
4 | | practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement with a |
5 | | collaborating physician that authorizes the advanced |
6 | | practice nurse to make referrals to a genetic counselor , or |
7 | | a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated |
8 | | authority to make referrals to genetic counselors .
|
9 | | (27) Charging for professional services not rendered, |
10 | | including filing false statements for the collection of |
11 | | fees for which services are not rendered. |
12 | | (28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used |
13 | | by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act. |
14 | | (b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any |
15 | | application or renewal for a license under this Act to any |
16 | | person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by |
17 | | the Illinois State Assistance Commission; however, the |
18 | | Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in |
19 | | default has established a satisfactory repayment record as |
20 | | determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.
|
21 | | (c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject |
22 | | to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in |
23 | | the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will |
24 | | result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The |
25 | | suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee |
26 | | is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial |
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1 | | admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging |
2 | | the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the |
3 | | licensee be allowed to resume professional practice. |
4 | | (d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may |
5 | | suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to |
6 | | file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a |
7 | | filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, |
8 | | penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the |
9 | | payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of |
10 | | Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in |
11 | | accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil |
12 | | Administrative Code of Illinois. |
13 | | (e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
14 | | Services has previously determined that a licensee or a |
15 | | potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the |
16 | | payment of child support and has subsequently certified the |
17 | | delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to |
18 | | issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license |
19 | | or may take other disciplinary action against that person based |
20 | | solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the |
21 | | Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with |
22 | | item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department |
23 | | of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code |
24 | | of Illinois. |
25 | | (f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be |
26 | | paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order |
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1 | | imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set |
2 | | forth in the order imposing the fine.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-813, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
4 | | Section 63. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by |
5 | | changing Section 5-8 as follows:
|
6 | | (305 ILCS 5/5-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-8)
|
7 | | Sec. 5-8. Practitioners. In supplying medical assistance, |
8 | | the Illinois
Department may provide for the legally authorized |
9 | | services of (i) persons
licensed under the Medical Practice Act |
10 | | of 1987, as amended, except as
hereafter in this Section |
11 | | stated, whether under a
general or limited license, (ii) |
12 | | persons licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as advanced |
13 | | practice nurses, regardless of whether or not the persons have |
14 | | written collaborative agreements, (iii) persons licensed or |
15 | | registered
under
other laws of this State to provide dental, |
16 | | medical, pharmaceutical,
optometric, podiatric, or nursing |
17 | | services, or other remedial care
recognized under State law, |
18 | | and (iv) (iii) persons licensed under other laws of
this State |
19 | | as a clinical social worker.
The Department may not provide for |
20 | | legally
authorized services of any physician who has been |
21 | | convicted of having performed
an abortion procedure in a wilful |
22 | | and wanton manner on a woman who was not
pregnant at the time |
23 | | such abortion procedure was performed. The
utilization of the |
24 | | services of persons engaged in the treatment or care of
the |
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1 | | sick, which persons are not required to be licensed or |
2 | | registered under
the laws of this State, is not prohibited by |
3 | | this Section.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 95-518, eff. 8-28-07.)
|
5 | | Section 65. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders |
6 | | Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10 |
7 | | as follows:
|
8 | | (405 ILCS 95/10)
|
9 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
10 | | "Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the |
11 | | Hospital Licensing Act. |
12 | | "Licensed health care professional" means a physician |
13 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed |
14 | | an advanced practice nurse who has a collaborative agreement |
15 | | with a collaborating physician that authorizes care , or a |
16 | | licensed physician physician's assistant who has been |
17 | | delegated authority to provide care . |
18 | | "Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health |
19 | | care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the |
20 | | infant or mother. |
21 | | "Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health |
22 | | care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before |
23 | | birth. |
24 | | "Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a |
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1 | | licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental |
2 | | health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression |
3 | | Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck |
4 | | Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or |
5 | | other validated assessment methods.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 95-469, eff. 1-1-08.)
|
7 | | Section 70. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended by |
8 | | changing Section 6.2 as follows:
|
9 | | (410 ILCS 45/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)
|
10 | | Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.
|
11 | | (a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
12 | | branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6 |
13 | | years
of age or younger shall test those children for
lead |
14 | | poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high |
15 | | risk
by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as |
16 | | low risk by the
Department shall be evaluated for risk by the |
17 | | Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed
by the Department |
18 | | and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in |
19 | | accordance with rules adopted by the Department.
|
20 | | (b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care |
21 | | facility serving
children 6 years of age or younger, including , |
22 | | but not
limited to,
health departments, hospitals, clinics, and |
23 | | health maintenance
organizations approved, registered, or |
24 | | licensed by the Department, shall take
the appropriate steps to |
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1 | | ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for |
2 | | risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.
|
3 | | (c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may |
4 | | also be tested by physicians or
health care providers, in |
5 | | accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and |
6 | | health care providers shall also evaluate
children for lead |
7 | | poisoning in conjunction with the school health
examination, as |
8 | | required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgment |
9 | | judgement
of the physician, advanced practice nurse who has a |
10 | | written collaborative
agreement with a
collaborating
physician
|
11 | | that authorizes the advance practice nurse to perform health |
12 | | examinations , or
physician
assistant who has been delegated to |
13 | | perform health examinations by the
supervising
physician , the |
14 | | child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.
|
15 | | (d) (Blank).
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
|
17 | | Section 75. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency |
18 | | Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 2.2, 5, and 5.5 |
19 | | as follows:
|
20 | | (410 ILCS 70/2.2)
|
21 | | Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.
|
22 | | (a) The General Assembly finds:
|
23 | | (1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse
cause |
24 | | significant physical, emotional, and
psychological trauma |
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1 | | to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's
|
2 | | fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result |
3 | | of the sexual
assault.
|
4 | | (2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the |
5 | | United States as
the result of rape and
approximately 50% |
6 | | of these pregnancies end in abortion.
|
7 | | (3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug |
8 | | Administration (FDA),
emergency contraception can |
9 | | significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken
within |
10 | | 72 hours after the sexual assault.
|
11 | | (4) By providing emergency contraception to rape |
12 | | victims in a timely
manner, the trauma of rape can be |
13 | | significantly reduced.
|
14 | | (b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this |
15 | | amendatory Act of the
92nd General Assembly, every hospital |
16 | | providing services to sexual
assault survivors in accordance |
17 | | with a plan approved under Section 2 must
develop a protocol |
18 | | that ensures that each survivor of sexual
assault will receive |
19 | | medically and factually accurate and written and oral
|
20 | | information about emergency contraception; the indications and
|
21 | | counter-indications and risks associated with the use of |
22 | | emergency
contraception;
and a description of how and when |
23 | | victims may be provided emergency
contraception upon
the |
24 | | written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine
in |
25 | | all its branches, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has |
26 | | a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
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1 | | physician that authorizes prescription of emergency |
2 | | contraception , or a licensed physician assistant who has been |
3 | | delegated authority to prescribe emergency contraception . The |
4 | | Department shall approve the protocol if it finds
that the |
5 | | implementation of the protocol would provide sufficient |
6 | | protection
for survivors of sexual assault.
|
7 | | The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by |
8 | | the Department.
The Department shall adopt rules and |
9 | | regulations establishing one or more safe
harbor protocols and |
10 | | setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that
hospitals |
11 | | may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any |
12 | | protocol
that meets those standards. The Department may provide |
13 | | a sample acceptable
protocol upon request.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
|
15 | | (410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)
|
16 | | Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing |
17 | | hospital emergency services and forensic services
to sexual |
18 | | assault survivors.
|
19 | | (a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services |
20 | | and forensic services to
sexual assault survivors under this |
21 | | Act
shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, |
22 | | with the consent
of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered |
23 | | by the attending
physician, an advanced practice nurse who has |
24 | | a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
25 | | physician that authorizes provision of emergency services , or a |
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1 | | physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide |
2 | | hospital emergency services and forensic services , the |
3 | | following:
|
4 | | (1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory
|
5 | | tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare
of |
6 | | a sexual assault survivor or which may be
used as evidence |
7 | | in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the
|
8 | | sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such |
9 | | examinations
and tests shall be maintained by the hospital |
10 | | and made available to law
enforcement officials upon the |
11 | | request of the sexual assault survivor;
|
12 | | (2) appropriate oral and written information |
13 | | concerning the possibility
of infection, sexually |
14 | | transmitted disease and pregnancy
resulting from sexual |
15 | | assault;
|
16 | | (3) appropriate oral and written information |
17 | | concerning accepted medical
procedures, medication, and |
18 | | possible contraindications of such medication
available |
19 | | for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease |
20 | | resulting
from sexual assault;
|
21 | | (4) an amount of medication for treatment at the |
22 | | hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by |
23 | | the attending physician, an advanced practice nurse, or a |
24 | | physician assistant and consistent with the hospital's |
25 | | current approved protocol for sexual assault survivors;
|
26 | | (5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk |
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1 | | of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the |
2 | | sexual assault;
|
3 | | (6) written and oral instructions indicating the need |
4 | | for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the |
5 | | sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of
|
6 | | sexually transmitted disease;
|
7 | | (7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate |
8 | | counseling; and
|
9 | | (8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an |
10 | | initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with |
11 | | written and oral instructions indicating the importance of
|
12 | | timely follow-up healthcare.
|
13 | | (b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks |
14 | | emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up |
15 | | healthcare
under this Act shall be provided such services |
16 | | without the consent
of any parent, guardian, custodian, |
17 | | surrogate, or agent.
|
18 | | (c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient |
19 | | relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital |
20 | | emergency department.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08; 96-318, eff. 1-1-10.)
|
22 | | (410 ILCS 70/5.5)
|
23 | | Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up |
24 | | healthcare. |
25 | | (a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory, |
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1 | | or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual |
2 | | assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault |
3 | | survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced |
4 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
5 | | collaborating physician , or physician assistant who has been |
6 | | delegated authority by a supervising physician shall be |
7 | | reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided. |
8 | | Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to, |
9 | | the following: |
10 | | (1) a physical examination; |
11 | | (2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or |
12 | | absence of sexually transmitted disease; and |
13 | | (3) appropriate medications, including HIV |
14 | | prophylaxis. |
15 | | (b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office |
16 | | visits with a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician |
17 | | assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for hospital |
18 | | emergency services. |
19 | | (c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health |
20 | | care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide |
21 | | follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 95-432, eff. 1-1-08.)
|
23 | | Section 80. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures Act |
24 | | is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, and 3 as follows:
|
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1 | | (410 ILCS 210/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)
|
2 | | Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of |
3 | | a medical or
surgical procedure
by a physician licensed to |
4 | | practice medicine and surgery, a licensed an advanced practice |
5 | | nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
6 | | collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services |
7 | | for minors , or a licensed physician assistant who has been |
8 | | delegated authority to provide services for minors executed by |
9 | | a
married person who is a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by |
10 | | a pregnant
woman who is a minor, or by
any person 18 years of |
11 | | age or older, is not voidable because of such
minority, and, |
12 | | for such purpose, a married person who is a minor, a parent
who |
13 | | is a minor, a
pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 |
14 | | years of age or older, is
deemed to have the same legal |
15 | | capacity to act and has the same powers and
obligations as has |
16 | | a person of legal age.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
|
18 | | (410 ILCS 210/1.5) |
19 | | Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for primary care |
20 | | services. |
21 | | (a) The consent to the performance of primary care services |
22 | | by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
23 | | branches, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a |
24 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
25 | | that authorizes provision of services for minors , or a licensed |
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1 | | physician assistant who has been delegated authority to provide |
2 | | services for minors executed by a minor seeking care is not |
3 | | voidable because of such minority, and for such purpose, a |
4 | | minor seeking care is deemed to have the same legal capacity to |
5 | | act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person of |
6 | | legal age under the following circumstances: |
7 | | (1) the health care professional reasonably believes |
8 | | that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and |
9 | | risks of any proposed primary care or services; and |
10 | | (2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as |
11 | | a minor seeking care by: |
12 | | (A) an adult relative; |
13 | | (B) a representative of a homeless service agency |
14 | | that receives federal, State, county, or municipal |
15 | | funding to provide those services or that is otherwise |
16 | | sanctioned by a local continuum of care; |
17 | | (C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this |
18 | | State; |
19 | | (D) a public school homeless liaison or school |
20 | | social worker; |
21 | | (E) a social service agency providing services to |
22 | | at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or |
23 | | (F) a representative of a religious organization. |
24 | | (b) A health care professional rendering primary care |
25 | | services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal |
26 | | liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional |
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1 | | discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she |
2 | | relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor |
3 | | or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection |
4 | | (a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall |
5 | | be presumed. |
6 | | (c) The confidential nature of any communication between a |
7 | | health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and |
8 | | a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the |
9 | | time of communication, of any additional persons present at the |
10 | | request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care |
11 | | professional's disclosure of confidential information to the |
12 | | additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care, |
13 | | when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which |
14 | | the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care |
15 | | professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under |
16 | | which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has |
17 | | coverage for the services provided. |
18 | | (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or |
19 | | expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any |
20 | | federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be |
21 | | construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of |
22 | | 1995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of |
23 | | a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or |
24 | | otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a |
25 | | minor in their absence. |
26 | | (e) For the purposes of this Section: |
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1 | | "Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years |
2 | | of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate |
3 | | and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian, |
4 | | whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal |
5 | | guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the |
6 | | residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal |
7 | | affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who |
8 | | are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or |
9 | | guardianship of the Department of Children and Family |
10 | | Services. |
11 | | "Primary care services" means health care services |
12 | | that include screening, counseling, immunizations, |
13 | | medication, and treatment of illness and conditions |
14 | | customarily provided by licensed health care professionals |
15 | | in an out-patient setting. "Primary care services" does not |
16 | | include invasive care, beyond standard injections, |
17 | | laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 98-671, eff. 10-1-14.)
|
19 | | (410 ILCS 210/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)
|
20 | | Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may |
21 | | consent to the
performance upon his or her child of a medical |
22 | | or surgical procedure by a
physician licensed to practice |
23 | | medicine and surgery, a licensed an advanced practice nurse who |
24 | | has a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
25 | | physician that authorizes provision of services for minors , or |
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1 | | a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated authority |
2 | | to provide services for minors or a dental procedure
by a |
3 | | licensed dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor shall |
4 | | not be
voidable because of such minority, but, for such |
5 | | purpose, a parent who is a
minor shall be deemed to have the |
6 | | same legal capacity to act and shall have
the same powers and |
7 | | obligations as has a person of legal age.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
|
9 | | (410 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)
|
10 | | Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to |
11 | | practice medicine
or surgery, a licensed an advanced practice |
12 | | nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
13 | | collaborating physician that authorizes provision of services |
14 | | for minors , or a licensed physician assistant who has been |
15 | | delegated authority to provide services for minors renders |
16 | | emergency treatment or first aid or a licensed dentist
renders |
17 | | emergency dental treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's |
18 | | parent
or legal guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole |
19 | | opinion of the
physician,
advanced practice nurse, physician |
20 | | assistant,
dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of consent is |
21 | | not reasonably feasible
under the circumstances without |
22 | | adversely affecting the condition of such
minor's health.
|
23 | | (b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal |
24 | | sexual assault of
a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, |
25 | | criminal sexual assault,
aggravated criminal sexual abuse or |
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1 | | criminal sexual abuse, as provided in
Sections 11-1.20 through |
2 | | 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent
of the |
3 | | minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to |
4 | | authorize
a hospital, physician, advanced practice nurse, |
5 | | physician assistant, or other medical personnel to furnish |
6 | | medical care
or counseling related to the diagnosis or |
7 | | treatment of any disease or injury
arising from such offense. |
8 | | The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis
or |
9 | | treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of |
10 | | majority. Such
consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to |
11 | | later disaffirmance, because
of minority.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
|
13 | | Section 85. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended by |
14 | | changing Section 2 as follows:
|
15 | | (410 ILCS 225/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)
|
16 | | Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
17 | | context otherwise
requires:
|
18 | | "Advanced practice nurse" or "APN" means an advanced |
19 | | practice nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act who has a |
20 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
21 | | that authorizes the provision of prenatal and newborn care .
|
22 | | "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
23 | | Services.
|
24 | | "Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment |
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1 | | (EPSDT)" means
the provision of preventative health care under |
2 | | 42 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq.,
including medical and dental |
3 | | services, needed to assess growth and
development and detect |
4 | | and treat health problems.
|
5 | | "Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital |
6 | | Licensing Act.
|
7 | | "Local health authority" means the full-time official |
8 | | health
department or board of health, as recognized by the |
9 | | Illinois Department
of Public Health, having
jurisdiction over |
10 | | a particular area.
|
11 | | "Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice |
12 | | Act.
|
13 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed to practice |
14 | | medicine in all of
its branches.
|
15 | | "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed |
16 | | under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 who has been |
17 | | delegated authority to provide prenatal and newborn care .
|
18 | | "Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with
|
19 | | reference to the newborn.
|
20 | | "Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.
|
21 | | "Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program |
22 | | established
pursuant to this Act.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
24 | | Section 90. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by |
25 | | changing Section 3 as follows:
|
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1 | | (410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)
|
2 | | Sec. 3. When used in this Act:
|
3 | | (a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
4 | | (b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information |
5 | | Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health |
6 | | Information Exchange and Technology Act. |
7 | | (c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it |
8 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
9 | | (d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
10 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
11 | | (e) "De-identified information" means health information |
12 | | that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, |
13 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b). |
14 | | (f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public |
15 | | Health or its designated agents.
|
16 | | (g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
17 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
18 | | (h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it |
19 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
20 | | (i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed |
21 | | physician, (ii) a licensed
physician assistant
to whom the |
22 | | physician assistant's supervising physician has delegated the
|
23 | | provision of AIDS and
HIV-related health services , (iii) a |
24 | | licensed an advanced practice registered nurse who
has a |
25 | | written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
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1 | | which authorizes the
provision of AIDS
and HIV-related health |
2 | | services , (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a licensed podiatric |
3 | | physician, or (vi) an
individual certified to provide HIV |
4 | | testing and counseling by a state or local
public health
|
5 | | department. |
6 | | (j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it |
7 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
|
8 | | (k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood |
9 | | bank, blood
center, sperm bank, or other health care |
10 | | institution, including any "health
facility" as that term is |
11 | | defined in the Illinois Finance Authority
Act.
|
12 | | (l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health |
13 | | information exchange or health information organization that |
14 | | oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health |
15 | | information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois |
16 | | Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any |
17 | | subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules |
18 | | adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing |
19 | | arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, |
20 | | was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was |
21 | | represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health |
22 | | Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation
|
23 | | shall not require the establishment of a data sharing |
24 | | arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health
|
25 | | Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain |
26 | | circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a |
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1 | | business associate. |
2 | | (m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to |
3 | | it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
4 | | (n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and |
5 | | Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by |
6 | | the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical |
7 | | Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent |
8 | | amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder. |
9 | | (o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus. |
10 | | (p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a |
11 | | person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an |
12 | | HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription |
13 | | information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including |
14 | | such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related |
15 | | information" does not include information that has been |
16 | | de-identified in accordance with HIPAA. |
17 | | (q) "Informed consent" means a written or verbal
agreement |
18 | | by the subject of a test or the subject's
legally authorized |
19 | | representative without undue inducement or any element
of |
20 | | force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or |
21 | | coercion,
which entails at least the following pre-test |
22 | | information: |
23 | | (1) a fair explanation of the test, including its |
24 | | purpose, potential
uses, limitations, and the meaning of |
25 | | its results; |
26 | | (2) a fair explanation of the procedures to be |
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1 | | followed, including the
voluntary nature of the test, the |
2 | | right to withdraw consent to the testing
process at any |
3 | | time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law
|
4 | | with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of |
5 | | test results,
and the right to confidential treatment of
|
6 | | information identifying the subject of the test and the |
7 | | results of the
test, to the extent provided by law; and |
8 | | (3) where the person providing informed consent is a |
9 | | participant in an HIE, a fair explanation that the results |
10 | | of the patient's HIV test will be accessible through an HIE |
11 | | and meaningful disclosure of the patient's opt-out right |
12 | | under Section 9.6 of this Act. |
13 | | Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, |
14 | | or by video, electronic, or other means. The subject must be |
15 | | offered an opportunity to ask questions about the HIV test and |
16 | | decline testing. Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a health |
17 | | care provider or health care professional from combining a form |
18 | | used to obtain informed consent for HIV testing with forms used |
19 | | to obtain written consent for general medical care or any other |
20 | | medical test or procedure provided that the forms make it clear |
21 | | that the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or |
22 | | medical procedures without being required to consent to HIV |
23 | | testing and clearly explain how the subject may opt out of HIV |
24 | | testing. |
25 | | (r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
26 | | HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2). |
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1 | | (s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using, |
2 | | disclosing, and requesting protected health information found |
3 | | in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d). |
4 | | (t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning |
5 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
6 | | (u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to |
7 | | it under 42 CFR 3.20. |
8 | | (v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, |
9 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
10 | | (w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, |
11 | | association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public |
12 | | or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity. |
13 | | (x) "Protected health information" has the meaning |
14 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
15 | | (y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, |
16 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
17 | | (z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of |
18 | | Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that, |
19 | | pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an |
20 | | instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect |
21 | | the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.
|
22 | | (aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the |
23 | | presence of the
antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV |
24 | | infection.
|
25 | | (bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
26 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
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1 | | (cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
2 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
4 | | Section 95. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease |
5 | | Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3 and 4 as follows:
|
6 | | (410 ILCS 325/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403)
|
7 | | Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
8 | | context clearly
requires otherwise:
|
9 | | (1) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
10 | | (2) "Local health authority" means the full-time official |
11 | | health
department of board of health, as recognized by the |
12 | | Department, having
jurisdiction over a particular area.
|
13 | | (3) "Sexually transmissible disease" means a bacterial, |
14 | | viral, fungal or
parasitic disease, determined by rule of the |
15 | | Department to be sexually
transmissible, to be a threat to the |
16 | | public health and welfare, and to be a
disease for which a |
17 | | legitimate public interest will be served by providing
for |
18 | | regulation and treatment. In considering which diseases are to |
19 | | be
designated sexually transmissible diseases, the Department |
20 | | shall consider
such diseases as chancroid, gonorrhea, |
21 | | granuloma inguinale, lymphogranuloma
venereum, genital herpes |
22 | | simplex, chlamydia, nongonococcal urethritis
(NGU), pelvic |
23 | | inflammatory disease (PID)/Acute
Salpingitis, syphilis, |
24 | | Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and Human
|
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1 | | Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) for designation, and shall |
2 | | consider the
recommendations and classifications of the |
3 | | Centers for Disease Control and
other nationally recognized |
4 | | medical authorities. Not all diseases that are
sexually |
5 | | transmissible need be designated for purposes of this Act.
|
6 | | (4) "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
7 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician |
8 | | assistant who has been delegated the provision of sexually |
9 | | transmissible disease therapy services or expedited partner |
10 | | therapy services by his or her supervising physician , or a |
11 | | licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a written |
12 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
13 | | authorizes the provision of sexually transmissible disease |
14 | | therapy services or expedited partner therapy services, or an |
15 | | advanced practice nurse who practices in a hospital or |
16 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center and possesses appropriate |
17 | | clinical privileges in accordance with the Nurse Practice Act . |
18 | | (5) "Expedited partner therapy" means to prescribe, |
19 | | dispense, furnish, or otherwise provide prescription |
20 | | antibiotic drugs to the partner or partners of persons |
21 | | clinically diagnosed as infected with a sexually transmissible |
22 | | disease, without physical examination of the partner or |
23 | | partners. |
24 | | (Source: P.A. 96-613, eff. 1-1-10.)
|
25 | | (410 ILCS 325/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)
|
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1 | | Sec. 4. Reporting required.
|
2 | | (a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the |
3 | | Medical Practice Act
of 1987, an advanced practice nurse |
4 | | licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act who has |
5 | | a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
6 | | physician that authorizes the provision of services for a |
7 | | sexually transmissible disease , or a physician assistant |
8 | | licensed under the provisions of the Physician Assistant |
9 | | Practice Act of 1987 who has been delegated authority to |
10 | | provide services for a sexually transmissible disease
who makes |
11 | | a diagnosis of or treats a person with a sexually
transmissible |
12 | | disease and each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually
|
13 | | transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result |
14 | | shall report such
facts as may be required by the Department by |
15 | | rule, within such time period as
the Department may require by |
16 | | rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.
|
17 | | (b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the |
18 | | information
required in reporting a sexually transmissible |
19 | | disease, the method of
reporting and specifying a minimum time |
20 | | period for reporting. In adopting
such rules, the Department |
21 | | shall consider the need for information,
protections for the |
22 | | privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the
practical |
23 | | abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable
|
24 | | fashion.
|
25 | | (c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates |
26 | | any false
information or report concerning the existence of any |
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1 | | sexually
transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of |
2 | | a Class A misdemeanor.
|
3 | | (d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section |
4 | | or the rules
adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department |
5 | | up to $500 for each
violation. The Department shall report each |
6 | | violation of this Section to
the regulatory agency responsible |
7 | | for licensing a health care professional
or a laboratory to |
8 | | which these provisions apply.
|
9 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
10 | | Section 100. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by |
11 | | changing Section 5 as follows:
|
12 | | (410 ILCS 335/5)
|
13 | | Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
|
14 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
15 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to |
16 | | practice
medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician |
17 | | assistant who has been delegated the
provision of health |
18 | | services by his or her supervising physician , or a licensed an
|
19 | | advanced
practice registered nurse who has a written |
20 | | collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician that |
21 | | authorizes the provision of health services .
|
22 | | "Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or |
23 | | other
institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to |
24 | | deliver health care
services.
|
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1 | | "Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or |
2 | | labor or
delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn |
3 | | infant, including
hospitalization.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 93-566, eff. 8-20-03; 94-910, eff. 6-23-06.)
|
5 | | Section 105. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended |
6 | | by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
7 | | (410 ILCS 513/10)
|
8 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
9 | | "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange |
10 | | Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health |
11 | | Information Exchange and Technology Act. |
12 | | "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
13 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
14 | | "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
15 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
16 | | "De-identified information" means health information that |
17 | | is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as |
18 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b). |
19 | | "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
20 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
21 | | "Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local |
22 | | government, and any board, commission, department, |
23 | | institution, or school district, any party to a public |
24 | | contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee |
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1 | | within the State, and every other person employing employees |
2 | | within the State. |
3 | | "Employment agency" means both public and private |
4 | | employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or |
5 | | labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly |
6 | | undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure |
7 | | opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place |
8 | | employees. |
9 | | "Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i) |
10 | | the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the |
11 | | individual, including a child who is born to or placed for |
12 | | adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying |
13 | | as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all |
14 | | other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or |
15 | | the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii) |
16 | | of this definition. |
17 | | "Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
18 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
19 | | "Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of |
20 | | employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic |
21 | | material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased |
22 | | occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course |
23 | | of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the |
24 | | workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to |
25 | | effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the |
26 | | workplace. |
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1 | | "Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
2 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
3 | | "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning |
4 | | ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR |
5 | | 160.103. |
6 | | "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it |
7 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
8 | | "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, |
9 | | (ii) a licensed physician assistant to whom the physician |
10 | | assistant's supervising physician has delegated the provision |
11 | | of genetic testing or genetic counseling-related services , |
12 | | (iii) a licensed an advanced practice registered nurse who has |
13 | | a written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
14 | | physician which authorizes the provision of genetic testing or |
15 | | genetic counseling-related health services , (iv) a licensed |
16 | | dentist, (v) a licensed podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic |
17 | | counselor, or (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic |
18 | | testing by a state or local public health department. |
19 | | "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
20 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
21 | | "Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood |
22 | | center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including |
23 | | any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois |
24 | | Finance Authority Act. |
25 | | "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health |
26 | | information exchange or health information organization that |
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1 | | exchanges health information electronically that (i) is |
2 | | established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information |
3 | | Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments |
4 | | thereto, and any administrative rules promulgated thereunder; |
5 | | (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the |
6 | | Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by |
7 | | the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the |
8 | | Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange |
9 | | Workgroup; provided that such designation
shall not require the |
10 | | establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other |
11 | | participation with the Illinois Health
Information Exchange or |
12 | | the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance |
13 | | with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate. |
14 | | "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it |
15 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
16 | | "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and |
17 | | Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by |
18 | | the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical |
19 | | Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent |
20 | | amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
|
21 | | "Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the |
22 | | jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a
managed |
23 | | care plan.
|
24 | | "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor |
25 | | union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated |
26 | | association designed to further the cause of the rights of |
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1 | | union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in |
2 | | part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers |
3 | | concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or |
4 | | apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of |
5 | | other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, |
6 | | including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships. |
7 | | "Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee, |
8 | | council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in |
9 | | this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant, |
10 | | deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a |
11 | | license or certificate of registration. |
12 | | "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
13 | | HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2). |
14 | | "Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes, |
15 | | operates, or maintains a
network of health care providers that |
16 | | have entered into agreements with the
plan to provide health |
17 | | care services to enrollees where the plan has the
ultimate and |
18 | | direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for |
19 | | the
provision of or pay for services
through:
|
20 | | (1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality |
21 | | assurance,
utilization review programs, or dispute |
22 | | resolution; or
|
23 | | (2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the |
24 | | plan to use the
participating providers and procedures |
25 | | covered by the plan.
|
26 | | A managed care plan may be established or operated by any |
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1 | | entity including
a licensed insurance company, hospital or |
2 | | medical service plan, health
maintenance organization, limited |
3 | | health service organization, preferred
provider organization, |
4 | | third party administrator, or an employer or employee
|
5 | | organization.
|
6 | | "Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using, |
7 | | disclosing, and requesting protected health information found |
8 | | in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d). |
9 | | "Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not |
10 | | intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the |
11 | | individual whom the information concerns. |
12 | | "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning |
13 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
14 | | "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it |
15 | | under 42 CFR 3.20. |
16 | | "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
17 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
18 | | "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, |
19 | | association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public |
20 | | or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity. |
21 | | "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to |
22 | | it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103. |
23 | | "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
24 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
25 | | "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of |
26 | | Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which |
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1 | | pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an |
2 | | instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect |
3 | | the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons. |
4 | | "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
5 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
6 | | "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
7 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates. |
8 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
9 | | Section 110. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation |
10 | | and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as |
11 | | follows:
|
12 | | (410 ILCS 642/10)
|
13 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
14 | | "Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or |
15 | | advanced practice nurse, as defined in the Nurse Practice Act, |
16 | | who is employed by a home health agency or hospice licensed in |
17 | | this State. |
18 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to |
19 | | practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed an advanced |
20 | | practice nurse who has a written collaborative agreement with a |
21 | | collaborating physician that authorizes services under this |
22 | | Act , or a licensed physician assistant who has been delegated |
23 | | the authority to perform services under this Act by his or her |
24 | | supervising physician . |
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1 | | "Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in |
2 | | Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home |
3 | | Nursing Agency Licensing Act.
|
4 | | "Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of |
5 | | the Hospice Program Licensing Act. |
6 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical |
7 | | Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 94-638, eff. 8-22-05; 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; |
9 | | 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
10 | | Section 115. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by |
11 | | changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-616, 6-103, 6-106.1, and 6-901 as |
12 | | follows:
|
13 | | (625 ILCS 5/1-159.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)
|
14 | | Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person |
15 | | who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a licensed |
16 | | physician
assistant who has been delegated the authority to |
17 | | make this determination by
his or her supervising physician , or |
18 | | by a licensed an advanced practice nurse who has a
written |
19 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
20 | | authorizes
the advanced practice nurse to make this |
21 | | determination : (1) cannot walk
without the use of, or
|
22 | | assistance from, a brace, cane, crutch, another person, |
23 | | prosthetic device,
wheelchair, or other assistive device; (2) |
24 | | is restricted by lung
disease to
such an extent that his or her |
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1 | | forced (respiratory) expiratory volume for one
second, when |
2 | | measured by spirometry, is less than one liter, or the arterial
|
3 | | oxygen tension is less than 60 mm/hg on room air at rest; (3) |
4 | | uses
portable
oxygen; (4) has a cardiac condition to the extent |
5 | | that the person's
functional
limitations are classified in |
6 | | severity as Class III or Class IV,
according to standards set |
7 | | by the American Heart Association; (5) is
severely limited in |
8 | | the person's ability to walk due to an arthritic,
neurological, |
9 | | oncological, or orthopedic condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet |
10 | | without
stopping to rest because of one of the above 5 |
11 | | conditions; or (7) is missing a hand or arm or has permanently |
12 | | lost the use of a hand or arm.
|
13 | | (Source: P.A. 98-405, eff. 1-1-14.)
|
14 | | (625 ILCS 5/3-616) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)
|
15 | | Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.
|
16 | | (a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of |
17 | | registration for
a motor vehicle of the first division or for a |
18 | | motor vehicle of the second
division weighing no more than |
19 | | 8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the
registration fees |
20 | | required under this Code from a person with disabilities or
a |
21 | | person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State,
|
22 | | if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates |
23 | | as provided for
in Section 3-611, provided that the person with |
24 | | disabilities or person who is
deaf or hard of hearing must not |
25 | | be disqualified from obtaining a driver's
license under |
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1 | | subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further |
2 | | provided
that any person making such a request must submit a |
3 | | statement, certified by
a
licensed physician, by a licensed |
4 | | physician assistant who has been delegated the
authority to |
5 | | make this certification by his or her supervising physician , or |
6 | | by a licensed
an advanced practice nurse who has a written |
7 | | collaborative agreement with a
collaborating physician that |
8 | | authorizes the advanced practice nurse to make
this |
9 | | certification , to
the effect that such person is a person with |
10 | | disabilities
as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, or |
11 | | alternatively provide adequate
documentation that such person |
12 | | has a Class 1A, Class 2A or Type Four
disability under the |
13 | | provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification
Card |
14 | | Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person
with a |
15 | | Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the Illinois |
16 | | Identification Card Act
indicating that the person thereon |
17 | | named has a disability shall be adequate
documentation of such |
18 | | a disability.
|
19 | | (b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to |
20 | | a parent or
legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the |
21 | | person with disabilities
has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability |
22 | | as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
Identification Card |
23 | | Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section
|
24 | | 1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered |
25 | | in his or her
name, provided that the person with disabilities |
26 | | relies frequently on the
parent or legal guardian for |
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1 | | transportation. Only one vehicle per family
may be registered |
2 | | under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in
|
3 | | writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person |
4 | | requesting
special plates under this subsection shall submit |
5 | | such documentation or such
physician's, physician assistant's, |
6 | | or advanced practice nurse's
statement as is required in |
7 | | subsection
(a) and a statement
describing the circumstances |
8 | | qualifying for issuance of special plates under
this |
9 | | subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual |
10 | | Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois |
11 | | Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person |
12 | | with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.
|
13 | | (c) The Secretary may issue a
parking decal or
device to a |
14 | | person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without
|
15 | | regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a |
16 | | driver's license
or registration of a vehicle by such person |
17 | | with disabilities or such person's
immediate family, provided |
18 | | such person with disabilities making such a request
has been |
19 | | issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
20 | | indicating that the
person named thereon has a Class 1A or |
21 | | Class 2A disability, or alternatively,
submits a statement |
22 | | certified by a licensed physician, or by a licensed physician
|
23 | | assistant or a licensed an advanced practice nurse as provided |
24 | | in subsection (a), to
the effect that such
person is a person |
25 | | with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. An optometrist |
26 | | may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability as defined in Section |
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1 | | 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the purpose of |
2 | | qualifying a person with disabilities for a parking decal or |
3 | | device under this subsection.
|
4 | | (d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations |
5 | | procedures
to certify or re-certify as necessary the |
6 | | eligibility of persons whose
disabilities are other than |
7 | | permanent for special plates or
parking decals or devices |
8 | | issued under subsections (a), (b)
and (c). Except as provided |
9 | | under subsection (f) of this Section, no
such special plates, |
10 | | decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of
State to |
11 | | or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person |
12 | | is
certified as meeting the definition of a person with |
13 | | disabilities pursuant to
Section 1-159.1 or meeting the |
14 | | requirement of a Type Four disability as
provided under Section |
15 | | 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the
period of |
16 | | time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced
|
17 | | practice nurse as provided in
subsection (a), determines the |
18 | | applicant will have the
disability, but not to exceed 6 months |
19 | | from the date of certification or
recertification.
|
20 | | (e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section |
21 | | may also apply
to have the special plates personalized, as |
22 | | provided under Section 3-405.1.
|
23 | | (f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue |
24 | | disability registration plates or a parking decal to
|
25 | | corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies, |
26 | | limited liability
companies, nursing homes, convalescent |
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1 | | homes, or special education cooperatives
which will transport |
2 | | persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe
by |
3 | | rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of |
4 | | organizations to
receive disability plates or decals and to |
5 | | designate which of the
2 person with disabilities emblems shall |
6 | | be placed on qualifying
vehicles.
|
7 | | (g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into
|
8 | | agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign |
9 | | jurisdictions, on
behalf of this State relating to the |
10 | | extension of parking privileges by
such jurisdictions to |
11 | | permanently disabled residents of this State who
display a |
12 | | special license plate or parking device that contains the
|
13 | | International symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and |
14 | | to
recognize such plates or devices issued by such other |
15 | | jurisdictions. This
State shall grant the same parking |
16 | | privileges which are granted to disabled
residents of this |
17 | | State to any non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed
in |
18 | | another state, district, territory or foreign country if such |
19 | | vehicle
displays the international symbol of access or a |
20 | | distinguishing insignia on
license plates or parking device |
21 | | issued in accordance with the laws of the
non-resident's state, |
22 | | district, territory or foreign country.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13.)
|
24 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)
|
25 | | Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers |
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1 | | or granted
permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, |
2 | | renew, or
allow the retention of any driver's
license nor issue |
3 | | any permit under this Code:
|
4 | | 1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of |
5 | | 18 years except
as provided in Section 6-107, and except |
6 | | that an instruction permit may be
issued under Section |
7 | | 6-107.1 to a child who
is not less than 15 years of age if |
8 | | the child is enrolled in an approved
driver education |
9 | | course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and
|
10 | | requires an instruction permit to participate therein, |
11 | | except that an
instruction permit may be issued under the |
12 | | provisions of Section 6-107.1
to a child who is 17 years |
13 | | and 3 months of age without the child having
enrolled in an
|
14 | | approved driver education course and except that an
|
15 | | instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least |
16 | | 15 years and 3
months of age, is enrolled in school, meets |
17 | | the educational requirements of
the Driver Education Act, |
18 | | and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in
his |
19 | | or her discretion may prescribe;
|
20 | | 1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less |
21 | | than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to |
22 | | any other requirements of this Code, successfully |
23 | | completed an adult driver education course as provided in |
24 | | Section 6-107.5 of this Code;
|
25 | | 2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an |
26 | | operator of a motorcycle
other than a motor driven cycle |
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1 | | unless the person has, in addition to
meeting the |
2 | | provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully
|
3 | | completed a motorcycle
training course approved by the |
4 | | Illinois Department of Transportation and
successfully |
5 | | completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle |
6 | | driver's
examination;
|
7 | | 3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license |
8 | | or permit has been
suspended, during the suspension, nor to |
9 | | any person whose driver's license or
permit has been |
10 | | revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and
|
11 | | 6-208;
|
12 | | 4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol |
13 | | or any other
drug to a degree that renders the person |
14 | | incapable of safely driving a motor
vehicle;
|
15 | | 5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been |
16 | | adjudged to be
afflicted with or suffering from any mental |
17 | | or physical disability or disease
and who has not at the |
18 | | time of application been restored to competency by the
|
19 | | methods provided by law;
|
20 | | 6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the |
21 | | Secretary of State
to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation |
22 | | or take an examination provided
for in this Code unless the |
23 | | person has
successfully passed the examination and |
24 | | submitted any required evaluation;
|
25 | | 7. To any person who is required under the provisions |
26 | | of the laws of
this State to deposit security or proof of |
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1 | | financial responsibility and who
has not deposited the |
2 | | security or proof;
|
3 | | 8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good |
4 | | cause to believe
that the person by reason of physical or |
5 | | mental disability would not be
able to safely operate a |
6 | | motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the
person shall |
7 | | furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written
|
8 | | statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a |
9 | | competent medical
specialist, a licensed physician |
10 | | assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical |
11 | | examinations by his or her supervising physician , or a |
12 | | licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written |
13 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician |
14 | | which authorizes him or her to perform medical |
15 | | examinations , to the effect that the operation of a motor |
16 | | vehicle by the
person would not be inimical to the public |
17 | | safety;
|
18 | | 9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age |
19 | | or older, unless
the person has successfully complied with |
20 | | the provisions of Section 6-109;
|
21 | | 10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of |
22 | | application for a
license, of any of the sexual offenses |
23 | | enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection
(b) of Section |
24 | | 6-205;
|
25 | | 11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with |
26 | | a classification
prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section |
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1 | | 6-104 and to any person who is under
the age of 18 years |
2 | | with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of
|
3 | | Section 6-104;
|
4 | | 12. To any person who has been either convicted of or |
5 | | adjudicated under
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon |
6 | | a violation of the Cannabis Control
Act, the Illinois |
7 | | Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control |
8 | | and Community Protection Act while that person was in |
9 | | actual
physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of |
10 | | this Section, any person
placed on probation under Section |
11 | | 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410
of the Illinois |
12 | | Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the |
13 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall |
14 | | not be considered convicted.
Any person found guilty of |
15 | | this offense, while in actual physical control of a
motor |
16 | | vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by |
17 | | the judge that
this offense did occur while the person was |
18 | | in actual physical control of a
motor vehicle and order the |
19 | | clerk of the court to report the violation to the
Secretary |
20 | | of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a |
21 | | new
license or permit for a period of one year;
|
22 | | 13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and |
23 | | who has committed
the offense
of operating a motor vehicle |
24 | | without a valid license or permit in violation of
Section |
25 | | 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;
|
26 | | 14. To any person who is
90 days or more
delinquent in |
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1 | | court ordered child support
payments or has been |
2 | | adjudicated in arrears
in an amount equal to 90 days' |
3 | | obligation or more
and who has been found in contempt
of
|
4 | | court for failure to pay the support, subject to the |
5 | | requirements and
procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of
|
6 | | the Illinois Vehicle Code;
|
7 | | 14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois |
8 | | Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 |
9 | | days or more delinquent in payment of support under an |
10 | | order of support entered by a court or administrative body |
11 | | of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and |
12 | | procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code |
13 | | regarding those certifications;
|
14 | | 15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment |
15 | | for violating
Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or |
16 | | the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law |
17 | | of another state relating to reckless homicide or for |
18 | | violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection |
19 | | (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated |
20 | | driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or |
21 | | drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any |
22 | | combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate |
23 | | cause of a death, within
24 months of release from a term |
24 | | of imprisonment;
|
25 | | 16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act |
26 | | related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, |
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1 | | by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the |
2 | | owner or employee of any commercial driver training school |
3 | | licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual |
4 | | authorized by the laws of this State to give driving |
5 | | instructions or administer all or part of a driver's |
6 | | license examination, promises or tenders to that person any |
7 | | property or personal advantage which that person is not |
8 | | authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or |
9 | | tendering such property or personal advantage shall be |
10 | | disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or |
11 | | permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State |
12 | | shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing |
13 | | this period of disqualification and the procedures by which |
14 | | persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review |
15 | | of the decision to disqualify;
|
16 | | 17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State |
17 | | cannot verify the
accuracy of any information or |
18 | | documentation submitted in application for a
driver's |
19 | | license; or
|
20 | | 18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the |
21 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is |
22 | | determined by the court to have been committed in |
23 | | furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized |
24 | | gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that |
25 | | involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use |
26 | | of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied |
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1 | | a license or permit for the period determined by the court.
|
2 | | The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction
|
3 | | information, if the information is required to be held |
4 | | confidential under
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. |
5 | | (Source: P.A. 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; |
6 | | 98-167, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
7 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-106.1)
|
8 | | Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.
|
9 | | (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver
|
10 | | permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of |
11 | | the
application and screening process under this Section to |
12 | | insure the
welfare and safety of children who are transported |
13 | | on school buses
throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants |
14 | | shall obtain the
proper application required by the Secretary |
15 | | of State from their
prospective or current employer and submit |
16 | | the completed
application to the prospective or current |
17 | | employer along
with the necessary fingerprint submission as |
18 | | required by the
Department of
State Police to conduct |
19 | | fingerprint based criminal background
checks on current and |
20 | | future information available in the state
system and current |
21 | | information available through the Federal Bureau
of |
22 | | Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the
|
23 | | fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the
|
24 | | fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or
|
25 | | submitting proof of successful completion of the annual |
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1 | | refresher
course. Individuals who on the effective date of this |
2 | | Act possess a valid
school bus driver permit that has been |
3 | | previously issued by the appropriate
Regional School |
4 | | Superintendent are not subject to the fingerprinting
|
5 | | provisions of this Section as long as the permit remains valid |
6 | | and does not
lapse. The applicant shall be required to pay all |
7 | | related
application and fingerprinting fees as established by |
8 | | rule
including, but not limited to, the amounts established by |
9 | | the Department of
State Police and the Federal Bureau of |
10 | | Investigation to process
fingerprint based criminal background |
11 | | investigations. All fees paid for
fingerprint processing |
12 | | services under this Section shall be deposited into the
State |
13 | | Police Services Fund for the cost incurred in processing the |
14 | | fingerprint
based criminal background investigations. All |
15 | | other fees paid under this
Section shall be deposited into the |
16 | | Road
Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of the |
17 | | Secretary of State in
administering this Section. All |
18 | | applicants must:
|
19 | | 1. be 21 years of age or older;
|
20 | | 2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's |
21 | | license
issued by the Secretary of State;
|
22 | | 3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been
|
23 | | revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately |
24 | | prior to
the date of application, or have not had his or |
25 | | her commercial motor vehicle
driving privileges
|
26 | | disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the |
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1 | | date of application;
|
2 | | 4. successfully pass a written test, administered by |
3 | | the
Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus |
4 | | safety, and
special traffic laws relating to school buses |
5 | | and submit to a review
of the applicant's driving habits by |
6 | | the Secretary of State at the time the
written test is |
7 | | given;
|
8 | | 5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in |
9 | | the operation of
school buses in accordance with rules |
10 | | promulgated by the Secretary of State;
|
11 | | 6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school |
12 | | buses by
submitting the results of a medical examination, |
13 | | including tests for drug
use for each applicant not subject |
14 | | to such testing pursuant to
federal law, conducted by a |
15 | | licensed physician, a licensed an advanced practice nurse
|
16 | | who has a written collaborative agreement with
a |
17 | | collaborating physician which authorizes him or her to |
18 | | perform medical
examinations , or a licensed physician |
19 | | assistant who has been delegated the
performance of medical |
20 | | examinations by his or her supervising physician
within 90 |
21 | | days of the date
of application according to standards |
22 | | promulgated by the Secretary of State;
|
23 | | 7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has |
24 | | not made a
false statement or knowingly concealed a |
25 | | material fact
in any application for permit;
|
26 | | 8. have completed an initial classroom course, |
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1 | | including first aid
procedures, in school bus driver safety |
2 | | as promulgated by the Secretary of
State; and after |
3 | | satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual
|
4 | | refresher course; such courses and the agency or |
5 | | organization conducting such
courses shall be approved by |
6 | | the Secretary of State; failure to
complete the annual |
7 | | refresher course, shall result in
cancellation of the |
8 | | permit until such course is completed;
|
9 | | 9. not have been under an order of court supervision |
10 | | for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as
|
11 | | defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of |
12 | | application that may
endanger the life or safety of any of |
13 | | the driver's passengers within the
duration of the permit |
14 | | period;
|
15 | | 10. not have been under an order of court supervision |
16 | | for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless |
17 | | driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, |
18 | | other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or |
19 | | any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting |
20 | | from the operation of a motor
vehicle within 3 years of the |
21 | | date of application;
|
22 | | 11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting
|
23 | | to commit any
one or more of the following offenses: (i) |
24 | | those offenses defined in
Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, |
25 | | 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1,
10-4,
10-5, |
26 | | 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, |
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1 | | 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6,
11-9, 11-9.1, |
2 | | 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, |
3 | | 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, |
4 | | 11-19.1,
11-19.2,
11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, |
5 | | 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, |
6 | | 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4,
|
7 | | 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9,
12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, |
8 | | 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11,
12-13, 12-14, |
9 | | 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, |
10 | | 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1,
|
11 | | 18-1,
18-2,
18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6,
20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, |
12 | | 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, |
13 | | 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, |
14 | | 31A-1.1,
33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section |
15 | | 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), |
16 | | (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and |
17 | | in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of |
18 | | Section
12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), |
19 | | of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article |
20 | | 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of |
21 | | 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the
Cannabis Control |
22 | | Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and
|
23 | | (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the |
24 | | Cannabis Control
Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the |
25 | | Illinois Controlled Substances
Act; (iv) those offenses |
26 | | defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
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1 | | Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in |
2 | | any other state or against
the laws of the United States, |
3 | | which if committed or attempted in this
State would be |
4 | | punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi)
|
5 | | the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs |
6 | | to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of |
7 | | 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses |
8 | | defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of
1934;
|
9 | | and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine |
10 | | Precursor Control Act;
|
11 | | 12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in |
12 | | motor vehicle
collisions or been repeatedly convicted of |
13 | | offenses against
laws and ordinances regulating the |
14 | | movement of traffic, to a degree which
indicates lack of |
15 | | ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the
|
16 | | safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the |
17 | | traffic laws and
the safety of other persons upon the |
18 | | highway;
|
19 | | 13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor
|
20 | | vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any |
21 | | person;
|
22 | | 14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to |
23 | | be
afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability |
24 | | or disease; and
|
25 | | 15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of |
26 | | reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under |
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1 | | Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the |
2 | | applicant to the Secretary of State. |
3 | | (b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period |
4 | | specified by
the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It |
5 | | shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this
|
6 | | Section.
|
7 | | (c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's |
8 | | driver's
license number, legal name, residence address, zip |
9 | | code, and date
of birth, a brief description of the holder and |
10 | | a space for signature. The
Secretary of State may require a |
11 | | suitable photograph of the holder.
|
12 | | (d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a |
13 | | pre-employment
interview with prospective school bus driver |
14 | | candidates, distributing school
bus driver applications and |
15 | | medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and
submitting |
16 | | the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State |
17 | | Police
that are required for the criminal background |
18 | | investigations. The employer
shall certify in writing to the |
19 | | Secretary of State that all pre-employment
conditions have been |
20 | | successfully completed including the successful completion
of |
21 | | an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through |
22 | | the
Department of State Police and the submission of necessary
|
23 | | fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for |
24 | | criminal
history information available through the Federal |
25 | | Bureau of
Investigation system. The applicant shall present the
|
26 | | certification to the Secretary of State at the time of |
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1 | | submitting
the school bus driver permit application.
|
2 | | (e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving
|
3 | | certification from the employer that all pre-employment |
4 | | conditions
have been successfully completed, and upon |
5 | | successful completion of
all training and examination |
6 | | requirements for the classification of
the vehicle to be |
7 | | operated, the Secretary of State shall
provisionally issue a |
8 | | School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall
remain in a |
9 | | provisional status pending the completion of the
Federal Bureau |
10 | | of Investigation's criminal background investigation based
|
11 | | upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau |
12 | | of
Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal |
13 | | Bureau of
Investigation shall report the findings directly to |
14 | | the Secretary
of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the |
15 | | bus driver
permit from provisional status upon the applicant's |
16 | | successful
completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's |
17 | | criminal
background investigation.
|
18 | | (f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the
|
19 | | employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an |
20 | | order of court supervision for or convicted in
another state of |
21 | | an offense that would make him or her ineligible
for a permit |
22 | | under subsection (a) of this Section. The
written notification |
23 | | shall be made within 5 days of the entry of
the order of court |
24 | | supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to |
25 | | provide the
notification is punishable as a petty
offense for a |
26 | | first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a
second or |
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1 | | subsequent violation.
|
2 | | (g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.
|
3 | | (1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
|
4 | | driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background |
5 | | investigation
discloses that he or she is not in compliance |
6 | | with the provisions of subsection
(a) of this Section.
|
7 | | (2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school
bus |
8 | | driver permit when he or she receives notice that the |
9 | | permit holder fails
to comply with any provision of this |
10 | | Section or any rule promulgated for the
administration of |
11 | | this Section.
|
12 | | (3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
|
13 | | driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial |
14 | | or
commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or |
15 | | otherwise
invalidated.
|
16 | | (4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus
|
17 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who |
18 | | fails to
obtain a negative result on a drug test as |
19 | | required in item 6 of
subsection (a) of this Section or |
20 | | under federal law.
|
21 | | (5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend
a |
22 | | school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon |
23 | | receiving
notice that the holder has failed to obtain a |
24 | | negative result on a
drug test as required in item 6 of |
25 | | subsection (a) of this Section
or under federal law.
|
26 | | (6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus |
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1 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice |
2 | | from the employer that the holder failed to perform the |
3 | | inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of |
4 | | Section 12-816 of this Code. |
5 | | (7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus |
6 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice |
7 | | from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an |
8 | | alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has |
9 | | submitted to a test required by that Section which |
10 | | disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or |
11 | | disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug |
12 | | Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set |
13 | | forth in 49 CFR 40.87. |
14 | | The Secretary of State shall notify the State |
15 | | Superintendent
of Education and the permit holder's |
16 | | prospective or current
employer that the applicant has (1) has |
17 | | failed a criminal
background investigation or (2) is no
longer |
18 | | eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related
|
19 | | cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver |
20 | | permit. The
cancellation shall remain in effect pending the |
21 | | outcome of a
hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. |
22 | | The scope of the
hearing shall be limited to the issuance |
23 | | criteria contained in
subsection (a) of this Section. A |
24 | | petition requesting a
hearing shall be submitted to the |
25 | | Secretary of State and shall
contain the reason the individual |
26 | | feels he or she is entitled to a
school bus driver permit. The |
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1 | | permit holder's
employer shall notify in writing to the |
2 | | Secretary of State
that the employer has certified the removal |
3 | | of the offending school
bus driver from service prior to the |
4 | | start of that school bus
driver's next workshift. An employing |
5 | | school board that fails to
remove the offending school bus |
6 | | driver from service is
subject to the penalties defined in |
7 | | Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A
school bus
contractor who |
8 | | violates a provision of this Section is
subject to the |
9 | | penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.
|
10 | | All valid school bus driver permits issued under this |
11 | | Section
prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until |
12 | | their
expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.
|
13 | | (h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service |
14 | | member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit |
15 | | holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of |
16 | | notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has |
17 | | been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this |
18 | | subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the |
19 | | permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as |
20 | | provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a |
21 | | permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this |
22 | | Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State |
23 | | shall not characterize the permit as invalid. |
24 | | (i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service |
25 | | member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a |
26 | | permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of |
|
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|
1 | | this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of |
2 | | subsection (b) of this Section. |
3 | | (j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this |
4 | | Section: |
5 | | "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive |
6 | | order of the President of the United States, an act of the |
7 | | Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor. |
8 | | "Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or |
9 | | reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois |
10 | | National Guard. |
11 | | (Source: P.A. 96-89, eff. 7-27-09; 96-818, eff. 11-17-09; |
12 | | 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1182, eff. |
13 | | 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section 950, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, |
14 | | Article 2, Section 1025, eff. 7-1-11; 97-224, eff. 7-28-11; |
15 | | 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-466, eff. |
16 | | 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, |
17 | | eff. 1-25-13.)
|
18 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-901) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901)
|
19 | | Sec. 6-901. Definitions. For the purposes of this
Article:
|
20 | | "Board" means the Driver's License Medical Advisory Board.
|
21 | | "Medical examiner" or "medical practitioner" means: |
22 | | (i) any
person licensed to practice medicine in all its |
23 | | branches in
the State of Illinois or any other state;
|
24 | | (ii) a licensed physician assistant who has been |
25 | | delegated the performance of medical examinations by his or |
|
| | HB0421 Engrossed | - 155 - | LRB099 05828 HAF 25872 b |
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|
1 | | her supervising physician ; or |
2 | | (iii) a licensed advanced practice nurse who has a |
3 | | written collaborative agreement with a collaborating |
4 | | physician which authorizes him or her to perform medical |
5 | | examinations . |
6 | | (Source: P.A. 96-962, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff. 7-22-11.)
|
7 | | Section 120. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is |
8 | | amended by changing Sections 102 and 303.05 as follows:
|
9 | | (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) |
10 | | Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
11 | | context
otherwise requires:
|
12 | | (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, |
13 | | chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as |
14 | | to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who |
15 | | is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled |
16 | | substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self |
17 | | control with reference to his or her addiction.
|
18 | | (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a |
19 | | controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, |
20 | | ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient, |
21 | | research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane |
22 | | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
|
23 | | (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his |
24 | | or her authorized agent),
|
|
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|
1 | | (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an |
2 | | order, or
|
3 | | (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane |
4 | | Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
|
5 | | (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf |
6 | | of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, |
7 | | dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not
include a |
8 | | common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
|
9 | | the carrier or warehouseman.
|
10 | | (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal |
11 | | substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to |
12 | | testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins, |
13 | | corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone),
and includes:
|
14 | | (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
15 | | (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
16 | | (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, |
17 | | (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], |
18 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
19 | | (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], |
20 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
21 | | (vi) 4-androstenediol |
22 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), |
23 | | (vii) 5-androstenediol |
24 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), |
25 | | (viii) 1-androstenedione |
26 | | ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), |
|
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1 | | (ix) 4-androstenedione |
2 | | (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), |
3 | | (x) 5-androstenedione |
4 | | (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), |
5 | | (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
6 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
7 | | (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
8 | | 1,4,-diene-3-one), |
9 | | (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- |
10 | | diene-3,17-dione), |
11 | | (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 |
12 | | [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
14 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
15 | | (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- |
16 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- |
17 | | androst-1,4-dien-3-one), |
18 | | (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone |
19 | | (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] |
20 | | -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), |
21 | | (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. |
22 | | '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
23 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
24 | | (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
25 | | androstan-3-one), |
26 | | (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- |
|
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1 | | 5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
2 | | (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
3 | | hydroxyestr-4-ene), |
4 | | (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- |
5 | | 1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
6 | | (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], |
7 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
8 | | (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
9 | | hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), |
10 | | (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) |
11 | | (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- |
12 | | androst-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- |
14 | | dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), |
15 | | (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
16 | | hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), |
17 | | (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
18 | | [5a]-androstan-3-one), |
19 | | (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
20 | | hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
21 | | (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
22 | | dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), |
23 | | (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
24 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
25 | | (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- |
26 | | dihydroxy-5a-androstane), |
|
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|
1 | | (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy |
2 | | -5a-androstane), |
3 | | (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
4 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), |
5 | | (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- |
6 | | methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
7 | | (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
8 | | hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), |
9 | | (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
10 | | hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), |
11 | | (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
12 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
14 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
15 | | (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone |
16 | | (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- |
17 | | androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- |
18 | | 1-testosterone'), |
19 | | (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
20 | | (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
21 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
22 | | (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
23 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
24 | | (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
25 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
26 | | (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
|
| | HB0421 Engrossed | - 160 - | LRB099 05828 HAF 25872 b |
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|
1 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
2 | | (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione |
3 | | (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), |
4 | | (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- |
5 | | en-3,17-dione), |
6 | | (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- |
7 | | en-3,17-dione), |
8 | | (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- |
9 | | hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), |
10 | | (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
11 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
12 | | (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
13 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
14 | | (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
15 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
16 | | (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
17 | | 2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
18 | | (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- |
19 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
20 | | (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- |
21 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
22 | | (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
23 | | (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), |
24 | | (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
25 | | (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
26 | | (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- |
|
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|
1 | | secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic |
2 | | acid lactone), |
3 | | (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
4 | | 4-en-3-one), |
5 | | (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- |
6 | | diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- |
7 | | 4,9,11-trien-3-one), |
8 | | (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, |
9 | | 11-trien-3-one).
|
10 | | Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an |
11 | | anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, |
12 | | distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to |
13 | | deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is |
14 | | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered |
15 | | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
|
16 | | which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services |
17 | | for such
administration, and which the person intends to |
18 | | administer or have
administered through such implants, shall |
19 | | not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to |
20 | | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or |
21 | | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
|
22 | | purposes of this Act.
|
23 | | (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
24 | | Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its |
25 | | successor agency.
|
26 | | (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" |
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1 | | means a Department of Human Services administrative employee |
2 | | licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances |
3 | | who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human |
4 | | Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription |
5 | | Information Library. |
6 | | (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of |
7 | | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a |
8 | | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the |
9 | | prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of |
10 | | professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident |
11 | | to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale |
12 | | or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs |
13 | | or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug |
14 | | orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing |
15 | | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded |
16 | | for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the |
17 | | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not |
18 | | reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a |
19 | | timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the |
20 | | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be |
21 | | compounded. |
22 | | (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or |
23 | | immediate
precursor, to a Schedule whether by
transfer from |
24 | | another Schedule or otherwise.
|
25 | | (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or |
26 | | immediate
precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act |
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1 | | or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, |
2 | | designated as a controlled substance by the Department through |
3 | | administrative rule. The term does not include distilled |
4 | | spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
|
5 | | defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the |
6 | | Tobacco Products Tax
Act of 1995.
|
7 | | (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: |
8 | | (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially |
9 | | similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance |
10 | | in Schedule I or II; |
11 | | (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or |
12 | | hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is |
13 | | substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, |
14 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
15 | | nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or |
16 | | II; or |
17 | | (3) with respect to a particular person, which such |
18 | | person represents or intends to have a stimulant, |
19 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
20 | | nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater |
21 | | than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect |
22 | | on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in |
23 | | Schedule I or II. |
24 | | (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, |
25 | | which, or
the container or labeling of which, without |
26 | | authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other |
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1 | | identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness |
2 | | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other |
3 | | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or |
4 | | dispensed the substance.
|
5 | | (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive |
6 | | or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, |
7 | | with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an |
8 | | agency relationship.
|
9 | | (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
10 | | Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and |
11 | | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
|
12 | | (j) (Blank).
|
13 | | (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of |
14 | | Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
15 | | (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" |
16 | | means the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation |
17 | | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
18 | | (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall |
19 | | depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes |
20 | | impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
21 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
22 | | but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles |
23 | | and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, |
24 | | barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and |
25 | | synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar |
26 | | sedative hypnotics.
|
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1 | | (n) (Blank).
|
2 | | (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State |
3 | | Police or his or her designated agents.
|
4 | | (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to |
5 | | an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the |
6 | | lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing, |
7 | | administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary |
8 | | to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
|
9 | | (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
|
10 | | (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by |
11 | | administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
|
12 | | (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
|
13 | | (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the |
14 | | official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic |
15 | | Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National |
16 | | Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances |
17 | | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or |
18 | | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other |
19 | | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
|
20 | | the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use |
21 | | as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or |
22 | | (3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their |
23 | | components, parts, or
accessories.
|
24 | | (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the |
25 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
|
26 | | purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control |
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1 | | facility license or
animal
shelter license under the Animal |
2 | | Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase, |
3 | | store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
|
4 | | Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal |
5 | | euthanasia.
|
6 | | (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III |
7 | | substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used |
8 | | by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
|
9 | | (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a |
10 | | controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of |
11 | | professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his or |
12 | | her treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that |
13 | | individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or |
14 | | addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein: |
15 | | and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the |
16 | | dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
|
17 | | prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the |
18 | | pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by |
19 | | accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to |
20 | | the following, in making the
judgment:
|
21 | | (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient |
22 | | relationship,
|
23 | | (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one |
24 | | prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
|
25 | | (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
|
26 | | (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be |
|
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1 | | clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual |
2 | | dose may be used legitimately),
|
3 | | (5) unusual geographic distances between patient, |
4 | | pharmacist and
prescriber,
|
5 | | (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
|
6 | | (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly |
7 | | altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any |
8 | | type. |
9 | | (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a |
10 | | pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to |
11 | | a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or |
12 | | hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous, |
13 | | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
|
14 | | (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State
Police of the |
15 | | State of Illinois, or its successor agency. |
16 | | (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
|
17 | | (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule |
18 | | designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced |
19 | | primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled |
20 | | substance;
|
21 | | (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or |
22 | | likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled |
23 | | substance; and
|
24 | | (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, |
25 | | curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled |
26 | | substance.
|
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1 | | (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, |
2 | | educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled |
3 | | substances within
educational facilities approved by the State |
4 | | Board of Education or
its successor agency.
|
5 | | (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, |
6 | | County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
|
7 | | (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a |
8 | | controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit |
9 | | appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack |
10 | | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical |
11 | | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person |
12 | | to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) |
13 | | is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled |
14 | | substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would |
15 | | lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a |
16 | | controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether |
17 | | the representations made or the circumstances of the
|
18 | | distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the |
19 | | substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of |
20 | | subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the |
21 | | following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be |
22 | | relevant:
|
23 | | (a) statements made by the owner or person in control |
24 | | of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
|
25 | | (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the |
26 | | substance may
be resold for profit;
|
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1 | | (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner |
2 | | normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled |
3 | | substances;
|
4 | | (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution |
5 | | included an
exchange of or demand for money or other |
6 | | property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the |
7 | | consideration was substantially greater than the
|
8 | | reasonable retail market value of the substance.
|
9 | | Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a |
10 | | noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was |
11 | | initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial |
12 | | introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its |
13 | | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
|
14 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or |
15 | | distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized |
16 | | to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this |
17 | | Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried |
18 | | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances |
19 | | involved were controlled substances.
|
20 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the |
21 | | manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding, |
22 | | processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or |
23 | | drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the |
24 | | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
|
25 | | (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is |
26 | | located in a state
of the United States that delivers, |
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1 | | dispenses or
distributes, through the United States Postal |
2 | | Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois residents, any |
3 | | substance which requires a prescription.
|
4 | | (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, |
5 | | propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a |
6 | | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
|
7 | | directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of |
8 | | natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
9 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
10 | | synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the |
11 | | substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term |
12 | | does not include:
|
13 | | (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding |
14 | | of a
controlled substance for his or her own use; or
|
15 | | (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent |
16 | | under his or her
supervision, the preparation, |
17 | | compounding, packaging, or labeling of a
controlled |
18 | | substance:
|
19 | | (a) as an incident to his or her administering or |
20 | | dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of |
21 | | his or her professional practice; or
|
22 | | (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or |
23 | | chemical
analysis and not for sale.
|
24 | | (z-1) (Blank).
|
25 | | (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
26 | | under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
|
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1 | | (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician |
2 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through |
3 | | a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to |
4 | | practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with |
5 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, |
6 | | (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated |
7 | | authority to prescribe through a written delegation of |
8 | | authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
9 | | of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with |
10 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced |
11 | | practice nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse |
12 | | midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been granted |
13 | | authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in accordance |
14 | | with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal |
15 | | euthanasia agency, or (v) (iv) a prescribing psychologist. |
16 | | (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether |
17 | | produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances |
18 | | of vegetable origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
19 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
20 | | synthesis:
|
21 | | (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, |
22 | | including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts |
23 | | of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of |
24 | | such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within |
25 | | the specific chemical designation; however the term |
26 | | "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline |
|
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1 | | alkaloids of opium;
|
2 | | (2) (blank);
|
3 | | (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
|
4 | | (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of |
5 | | coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and |
6 | | ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have |
7 | | been removed;
|
8 | | (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, |
9 | | and salts of isomers; |
10 | | (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, |
11 | | and salts of isomers; |
12 | | (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which |
13 | | contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to |
14 | | in subparagraphs (1) through (6). |
15 | | (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
|
16 | | Nurse Practice Act.
|
17 | | (cc) (Blank).
|
18 | | (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction |
19 | | forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine |
20 | | or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction |
21 | | forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
|
22 | | (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
|
23 | | somniferum L., except its seeds.
|
24 | | (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or |
25 | | solution or other liquid form of medication intended for |
26 | | administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form |
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1 | | of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal |
2 | | administration. |
3 | | (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon |
4 | | Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
5 | | (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, |
6 | | mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or |
7 | | agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or |
8 | | association, or any other entity.
|
9 | | (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or |
10 | | certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local |
11 | | registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist |
12 | | under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
|
13 | | (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in |
14 | | which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy |
15 | | Practice Act.
|
16 | | (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
17 | | under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
18 | | (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise |
19 | | requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all |
20 | | of its branches. |
21 | | (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of |
22 | | the opium
poppy, after mowing.
|
23 | | (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice |
24 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric |
25 | | physician,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, |
26 | | physician assistant,
advanced practice nurse,
licensed |
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|
1 | | practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or |
2 | | pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, or otherwise |
3 | | lawfully permitted by the
United States or this State to |
4 | | distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect to, |
5 | | administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
|
6 | | controlled substance in the course of professional practice or |
7 | | research.
|
8 | | (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written |
9 | | prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated |
10 | | prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written |
11 | | prescription that is individually generated by machine or |
12 | | computer in the prescriber's office.
|
13 | | (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice |
14 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, |
15 | | prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the |
16 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive |
17 | | authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical |
18 | | Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
|
19 | | veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant |
20 | | who
issues a
prescription for a controlled substance
in |
21 | | accordance
with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
22 | | written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5
of the
|
23 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
24 | | practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under |
25 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with |
26 | | Section 303.05, a written delegation,
and a written
|
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1 | | collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse |
2 | | Practice Act , or an advanced practice nurse certified as a |
3 | | nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse |
4 | | specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a |
5 | | hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the |
6 | | Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 .
|
7 | | (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral |
8 | | order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable |
9 | | federal requirements,
of
a physician licensed to practice |
10 | | medicine in all its branches,
dentist, podiatric physician or |
11 | | veterinarian for any controlled
substance, of an optometrist |
12 | | for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in |
13 | | accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric |
14 | | Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed |
15 | | under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act |
16 | | with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the |
17 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant |
18 | | for a
controlled substance
in accordance with Section 303.05, a |
19 | | written delegation, and a written supervision agreement |
20 | | required under
Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice |
21 | | Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice
nurse with prescriptive |
22 | | authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice |
23 | | Act who issues a prescription for a
controlled substance in |
24 | | accordance
with
Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
25 | | written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the |
26 | | Nurse Practice Act , or of an advanced practice nurse certified |
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|
1 | | as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse |
2 | | specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by a |
3 | | hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the |
4 | | Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05 when |
5 | | required by law.
|
6 | | (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an |
7 | | electronic library that contains reported controlled substance |
8 | | data. |
9 | | (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the |
10 | | entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on |
11 | | controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316. |
12 | | (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, |
13 | | planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled |
14 | | substance other than methamphetamine.
|
15 | | (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to |
16 | | register
under Section 302 of this Act.
|
17 | | (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each |
18 | | person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the |
19 | | laws of the United
States and of this State.
|
20 | | (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either |
21 | | the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the |
22 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the |
23 | | Secretary's designated agents. |
24 | | (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, |
25 | | district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, |
26 | | and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United |
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1 | | States of America.
|
2 | | (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an |
3 | | overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) |
4 | | causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
5 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
6 | | but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, |
7 | | methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine |
8 | | and its analogs. |
9 | | (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses |
10 | | a
controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of |
11 | | a member of his or her
household or for administering to an |
12 | | animal owned by him or her or by a member
of his or her |
13 | | household.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, |
15 | | eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; |
16 | | revised 10-1-14.)
|
17 | | (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
|
18 | | Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
|
19 | | (a) The Department of Financial and Professional |
20 | | Regulation shall register licensed
physician assistants, |
21 | | licensed advanced practice nurses, and prescribing |
22 | | psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical |
23 | | Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and
dispense |
24 | | controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia
|
25 | | agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia |
|
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1 | | drugs under the
following circumstances:
|
2 | | (1) with respect to physician assistants,
|
3 | | (A) the physician assistant has been
delegated
|
4 | | written authority to prescribe any Schedule III |
5 | | through V controlled substances by a physician |
6 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches in |
7 | | accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant |
8 | | Practice Act
of 1987;
and
the physician assistant has
|
9 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has |
10 | | paid the required fees as set by rule;
or
|
11 | | (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
|
12 | | authority by a supervising physician licensed to |
13 | | practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or |
14 | | dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a |
15 | | written delegation of authority and under the |
16 | | following conditions: |
17 | | (i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances |
18 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
19 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
20 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
21 | | routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. |
22 | | This delegation must identify the specific |
23 | | Schedule II controlled substances by either brand |
24 | | name or generic name. Schedule II controlled |
25 | | substances to be delivered by injection or other |
26 | | route of administration may not be delegated; |
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1 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
2 | | substances prescribed by the supervising |
3 | | physician; |
4 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
5 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
6 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
7 | | supervising physician; |
8 | | (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the |
9 | | condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
10 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
11 | | delegating physician; |
12 | | (v) the physician assistant must have |
13 | | completed the appropriate application forms and |
14 | | paid the required fees as set by rule; |
15 | | (vi) the physician assistant must provide |
16 | | evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact |
17 | | hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant |
18 | | program accredited by the Accreditation Review |
19 | | Commission on Education for the Physician |
20 | | Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for |
21 | | any new license issued with Schedule II authority |
22 | | after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
23 | | the 97th General Assembly; and |
24 | | (vii) the physician assistant must annually |
25 | | complete at least 5 hours of continuing education |
26 | | in pharmacology; |
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1 | | (2) with respect to advanced practice nurses, |
2 | | (A) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
3 | | authority to prescribe any Schedule III through V |
4 | | controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
5 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a |
6 | | collaborating podiatric physician in accordance with |
7 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
Act. The advanced |
8 | | practice nurse has completed the
appropriate |
9 | | application forms and has paid the required
fees as set |
10 | | by rule; or |
11 | | (B) the advanced practice nurse has been delegated
|
12 | | authority by a collaborating physician licensed to |
13 | | practice medicine in all its branches or collaborating |
14 | | podiatric physician to prescribe or dispense Schedule |
15 | | II controlled substances through a written delegation |
16 | | of authority and under the following conditions: |
17 | | (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances |
18 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
19 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
20 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
21 | | routinely prescribed by the collaborating |
22 | | physician or podiatric physician. This delegation |
23 | | must identify the specific Schedule II controlled |
24 | | substances by either brand name or generic name. |
25 | | Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered |
26 | | by injection or other route of administration may |
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1 | | not be delegated; |
2 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
3 | | substances prescribed by the collaborating |
4 | | physician or podiatric physician; |
5 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
6 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
7 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
8 | | collaborating physician or podiatric physician; |
9 | | (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss |
10 | | the condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
11 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
12 | | delegating physician or podiatric physician or in |
13 | | the course of review as required by Section 65-40 |
14 | | of the Nurse Practice Act; |
15 | | (v) the advanced practice nurse must have |
16 | | completed the appropriate application forms and |
17 | | paid the required fees as set by rule; |
18 | | (vi) the advanced practice nurse must provide |
19 | | evidence of satisfactory completion of at least 45 |
20 | | graduate contact hours in pharmacology for any new |
21 | | license issued with Schedule II authority after |
22 | | the effective date of this amendatory Act of the |
23 | | 97th General Assembly; and |
24 | | (vii) the advanced practice nurse must |
25 | | annually complete 5 hours of continuing education |
26 | | in pharmacology; |
|
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1 | | (2.5) with respect to advanced practice nurses |
2 | | certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, or |
3 | | clinical nurse specialists practicing in a hospital |
4 | | affiliate, |
5 | | (A) the advanced practice nurse certified as a |
6 | | nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse |
7 | | specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any |
8 | | Schedule II through V controlled substances by the |
9 | | hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the |
10 | | appropriate physician committee of the hospital |
11 | | affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse |
12 | | Practice Act, has completed the appropriate |
13 | | application forms, and has paid the required fees as |
14 | | set by rule; and |
15 | | (B) an advanced practice nurse certified as a nurse |
16 | | practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse |
17 | | specialist has been granted authority to prescribe any |
18 | | Schedule II controlled substances by the hospital |
19 | | affiliate upon the recommendation of the appropriate |
20 | | physician committee of the hospital affiliate, then |
21 | | the following conditions must be met: |
22 | | (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances |
23 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
24 | | application may be designated, provided that the |
25 | | designated Schedule II controlled substances are |
26 | | routinely prescribed by advanced practice nurses |
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1 | | in their area of certification; this grant of |
2 | | authority must identify the specific Schedule II |
3 | | controlled substances by either brand name or |
4 | | generic name; authority to prescribe or dispense |
5 | | Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered |
6 | | by injection or other route of administration may |
7 | | not be granted; |
8 | | (ii) any grant of authority must be controlled |
9 | | substances limited to the practice of the advanced |
10 | | practice nurse; |
11 | | (iii) any prescription must be limited to no |
12 | | more than a 30-day supply; |
13 | | (iv) the advanced practice nurse must discuss |
14 | | the condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
15 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
16 | | appropriate physician committee of the hospital |
17 | | affiliate or its physician designee; and |
18 | | (v) the advanced practice nurse must meet the |
19 | | education requirements of this Section; |
20 | | (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the |
21 | | euthanasia agency has
obtained a license from the |
22 | | Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation and |
23 | | obtained a registration number from the
Department; or
|
24 | | (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the |
25 | | prescribing psychologist has been delegated
authority to |
26 | | prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V |
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1 | | controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
2 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in |
3 | | accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist |
4 | | Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has |
5 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has paid |
6 | | the required
fees as set by rule. |
7 | | (b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to |
8 | | prescribe those
schedules of controlled substances for which a |
9 | | licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has |
10 | | delegated
prescriptive authority, except that an animal |
11 | | euthanasia agency does not have any
prescriptive authority.
A |
12 | | physician assistant and an advanced practice nurse are |
13 | | prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled |
14 | | substances not set forth in the required written delegation of |
15 | | authority.
|
16 | | (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, |
17 | | physician
assistants, advanced practice nurses, and animal |
18 | | euthanasia agencies may be issued a
mid-level practitioner
|
19 | | controlled substances license for Illinois.
|
20 | | (d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, |
21 | | but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an |
22 | | advanced practice nurse as part of a written collaborative |
23 | | agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall |
24 | | conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse |
25 | | Practice Act. |
26 | | (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |