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1 | | AN ACT concerning health.
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2 | | Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois, |
3 | | represented in the General Assembly:
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4 | | ARTICLE 1.
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5 | | Section 1-1. This Article may be referred to as Lali's Law.
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6 | | Section 1-5. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by adding |
7 | | Section 19.1 as follows:
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8 | | (225 ILCS 85/19.1 new) |
9 | | Sec. 19.1. Dispensing naloxone antidotes. |
10 | | (a) Due to the recent rise in opioid-related deaths in
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11 | | Illinois and the existence of an opioid antagonist that can
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12 | | reverse the deadly effects of overdose, the General Assembly
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13 | | finds that in order to avoid further loss where possible, it is
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14 | | responsible to allow greater access of such an antagonist to
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15 | | those populations at risk of overdose. |
16 | | (b) Notwithstanding any general or special law to the
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17 | | contrary, a licensed pharmacist may dispense an opioid |
18 | | antagonist
in accordance with written, standardized procedures |
19 | | or
protocols developed by the Department with the Department of
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20 | | Public Health and the Department of Human Services if the
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21 | | procedures or protocols are filed at the pharmacy before
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1 | | implementation and are available to the Department upon
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2 | | request. |
3 | | (c) Before dispensing an opioid antagonist pursuant to this
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4 | | Section, a pharmacist shall complete a training program
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5 | | approved by the Department of Human Services pursuant to
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6 | | Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
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7 | | Dependency Act. The training program shall include, but not be
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8 | | limited to, proper documentation and quality assurance. |
9 | | (d) For the purpose of this Section, "opioid antagonist" |
10 | | means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or |
11 | | inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, |
12 | | including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any |
13 | | other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the |
14 | | U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug |
15 | | overdose.
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16 | | ARTICLE 5.
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17 | | Section 5-1. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing |
18 | | Section 2 as follows:
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19 | | (5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)
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20 | | Sec. 2. Open meetings.
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21 | | (a) Openness required. All meetings of public
bodies shall |
22 | | be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c)
and |
23 | | closed in accordance with Section 2a.
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1 | | (b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained |
2 | | in subsection
(c) are in derogation of the requirement that |
3 | | public bodies
meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions |
4 | | are to be strictly
construed, extending only to subjects |
5 | | clearly within their scope.
The exceptions authorize but do not |
6 | | require the holding of
a closed meeting to discuss a subject |
7 | | included within an enumerated exception.
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8 | | (c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to |
9 | | consider the
following subjects:
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10 | | (1) The appointment, employment, compensation, |
11 | | discipline, performance,
or dismissal of specific |
12 | | employees of the public body or legal counsel for
the |
13 | | public body, including hearing
testimony on a complaint |
14 | | lodged against an employee of the public body or
against |
15 | | legal counsel for the public body to determine its |
16 | | validity.
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17 | | (2) Collective negotiating matters between the public |
18 | | body and its
employees or their representatives, or |
19 | | deliberations concerning salary
schedules for one or more |
20 | | classes of employees.
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21 | | (3) The selection of a person to fill a public office,
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22 | | as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public |
23 | | office, when the public
body is given power to appoint |
24 | | under law or ordinance, or the discipline,
performance or |
25 | | removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public |
26 | | body
is given power to remove the occupant under law or |
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1 | | ordinance.
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2 | | (4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or |
3 | | in closed
hearing where specifically authorized by law, to
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4 | | a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided |
5 | | that the body
prepares and makes available for public |
6 | | inspection a written decision
setting forth its |
7 | | determinative reasoning.
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8 | | (5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use |
9 | | of
the public body, including meetings held for the purpose |
10 | | of discussing
whether a particular parcel should be |
11 | | acquired.
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12 | | (6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of |
13 | | property owned
by the public body.
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14 | | (7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or |
15 | | investment
contracts. This exception shall not apply to the |
16 | | investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the |
17 | | Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.
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18 | | (8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and
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19 | | equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a |
20 | | reasonably
potential danger to the safety of employees, |
21 | | students, staff, the public, or
public
property.
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22 | | (9) Student disciplinary cases.
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23 | | (10) The placement of individual students in special |
24 | | education
programs and other matters relating to |
25 | | individual students.
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26 | | (11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or |
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1 | | on behalf of the
particular public body has been filed and |
2 | | is pending before a court or
administrative tribunal, or |
3 | | when the public body finds that an action is
probable or |
4 | | imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be
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5 | | recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed |
6 | | meeting.
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7 | | (12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of |
8 | | claims as provided
in the Local Governmental and |
9 | | Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if
otherwise the |
10 | | disposition of a claim or potential claim might be
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11 | | prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or |
12 | | risk management
information, records, data, advice or |
13 | | communications from or with respect
to any insurer of the |
14 | | public body or any intergovernmental risk management
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15 | | association or self insurance pool of which the public body |
16 | | is a member.
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17 | | (13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in |
18 | | the sale or rental
of housing, when closed meetings are |
19 | | authorized by the law or ordinance
prescribing fair housing |
20 | | practices and creating a commission or
administrative |
21 | | agency for their enforcement.
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22 | | (14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of |
23 | | undercover personnel
or equipment, or ongoing, prior or |
24 | | future criminal investigations, when
discussed by a public |
25 | | body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.
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26 | | (15) Professional ethics or performance when |
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1 | | considered by an advisory
body appointed to advise a |
2 | | licensing or regulatory agency on matters
germane to the |
3 | | advisory body's field of competence.
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4 | | (16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or |
5 | | professional ethics,
when meeting with a representative of |
6 | | a statewide association of which the
public body is a |
7 | | member.
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8 | | (17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or |
9 | | formal peer review
of physicians or other
health care |
10 | | professionals for a hospital, or
other institution |
11 | | providing medical care, that is operated by the public |
12 | | body.
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13 | | (18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner |
14 | | Review Board.
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15 | | (19) Review or discussion of applications received |
16 | | under the
Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures |
17 | | Act.
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18 | | (20) The classification and discussion of matters |
19 | | classified as
confidential or continued confidential by |
20 | | the State Government Suggestion Award
Board.
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21 | | (21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed |
22 | | under this Act,
whether for purposes of approval by the |
23 | | body of the minutes or semi-annual
review of the minutes as |
24 | | mandated by Section 2.06.
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25 | | (22) Deliberations for decisions of the State
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26 | | Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary
Review Board.
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1 | | (23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal |
2 | | utility or the
operation of a
municipal power agency or |
3 | | municipal natural gas agency when the
discussion involves |
4 | | (i) contracts relating to the
purchase, sale, or delivery |
5 | | of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results
or |
6 | | conclusions of load forecast studies.
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7 | | (24) Meetings of a residential health care facility |
8 | | resident sexual
assault and death review
team or
the |
9 | | Executive
Council under the Abuse Prevention Review
Team |
10 | | Act.
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11 | | (25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under |
12 | | Brian's Law. |
13 | | (26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed |
14 | | under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review |
15 | | Team Act. |
16 | | (27) (Blank). |
17 | | (28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be |
18 | | disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii) |
19 | | that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public |
20 | | Aid Code. |
21 | | (29) Meetings between internal or external auditors |
22 | | and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and |
23 | | their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal |
24 | | control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk |
25 | | areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews |
26 | | conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing |
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1 | | standards of the United States of America. |
2 | | (30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a |
3 | | fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team |
4 | | Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an |
5 | | eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected, |
6 | | alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section |
7 | | 15 of the Adult Protective Services Act. |
8 | | (31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the |
9 | | Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm |
10 | | Concealed Carry Act. |
11 | | (32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation |
12 | | Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion |
13 | | involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority |
14 | | Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the |
15 | | Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and |
16 | | 3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act. |
17 | | (33) Those meeting or portions of meetings of the |
18 | | advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created |
19 | | under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act |
20 | | during which specific controlled substance prescriber, |
21 | | dispenser, or patient information is discussed. |
22 | | (d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
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23 | | "Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose |
24 | | relationship
with the public body constitutes an |
25 | | employer-employee relationship under
the usual common law |
26 | | rules, and who is not an independent contractor.
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1 | | "Public office" means a position created by or under the
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2 | | Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is |
3 | | charged with
the exercise of some portion of the sovereign |
4 | | power of this State. The term
"public office" shall include |
5 | | members of the public body, but it shall not
include |
6 | | organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether
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7 | | established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to |
8 | | assist the
body in the conduct of its business.
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9 | | "Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body |
10 | | charged by law or
ordinance with the responsibility to conduct |
11 | | hearings, receive evidence or
testimony and make |
12 | | determinations based
thereon, but does not include
local |
13 | | electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition |
14 | | challenges.
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15 | | (e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed |
16 | | meeting.
Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of |
17 | | the nature of the
matter being considered and other information |
18 | | that will inform the
public of the business being conducted.
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19 | | (Source: P.A. 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; |
20 | | 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876, eff. |
21 | | 8-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. |
22 | | 7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised |
23 | | 10-1-14.)
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24 | | Section 5-10. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of |
25 | | 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:
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1 | | (5 ILCS 375/6.11)
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2 | | Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance |
3 | | Code
requirements. The program of health
benefits shall provide |
4 | | the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered
by a |
5 | | policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of |
6 | | the Illinois
Insurance Code. The program of health benefits |
7 | | shall provide the coverage
required under Sections 356g, |
8 | | 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m,
356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4, |
9 | | 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, |
10 | | 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, and 356z.22 of the
Illinois |
11 | | Insurance Code.
The program of health benefits must comply with |
12 | | Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, and 356z.19 , 370c, and 370c.1 |
13 | | of the
Illinois Insurance Code.
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14 | | Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if |
15 | | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
16 | | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
17 | | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
18 | | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
19 | | whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
20 | | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, |
21 | | eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15 .)
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22 | | Section 5-15. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
23 | | Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 and adding |
24 | | Sections 5-24 and 20-20 as follows:
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1 | | (20 ILCS 301/5-23) |
2 | | Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program. |
3 | | (a) Reports of drug overdose. |
4 | | (1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and |
5 | | Substance Abuse shall may publish annually a report on drug |
6 | | overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates |
7 | | from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or |
8 | | rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding |
9 | | period of not less than 5 years . The report shall also |
10 | | provide information on interventions that would be |
11 | | effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
12 | | overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose |
13 | | information reported to the Department of Public Health |
14 | | pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the |
15 | | Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, |
16 | | and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code . |
17 | | (2) The report may include: |
18 | | (A) Trends in drug overdose death rates. |
19 | | (B) Trends in emergency room utilization related |
20 | | to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room |
21 | | utilization. |
22 | | (C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and |
23 | | emergency services and the cost impact of emergency |
24 | | services utilization. |
25 | | (D) Suggested improvements in data collection. |
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1 | | (E) A description of other interventions effective |
2 | | in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
3 | | overdose. |
4 | | (F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate |
5 | | the public about unused medication and about how to |
6 | | properly dispose of unused medication, including the |
7 | | number of registered collection receptacles in this |
8 | | State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events. |
9 | | (b) Programs; drug overdose prevention. |
10 | | (1) The Director may establish a program to provide for |
11 | | the production and publication, in electronic and other |
12 | | formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
13 | | response literature. The Director may develop and |
14 | | disseminate curricula for use by professionals, |
15 | | organizations, individuals, or committees interested in |
16 | | the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, |
17 | | including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison |
18 | | personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment |
19 | | professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital |
20 | | staff, families and associates of drug users, peace |
21 | | officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle |
22 | | exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to |
23 | | information regarding drug overdose prevention, |
24 | | recognition, and response, literature produced by the |
25 | | Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and |
26 | | highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal |
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1 | | drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall |
2 | | provide information and resources for substance abuse |
3 | | treatment. |
4 | | The Director may establish or authorize programs for |
5 | | prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid |
6 | | antagonists naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly |
7 | | acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and |
8 | | Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose. |
9 | | Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid |
10 | | antagonists naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly |
11 | | acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and |
12 | | Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose to a |
13 | | person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in |
14 | | the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a |
15 | | position to assist another individual during an |
16 | | opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic |
17 | | instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist and |
18 | | education about administration by individuals who are not |
19 | | personally at risk of opioid overdose . |
20 | | (2) The Director may provide advice to State and local |
21 | | officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including |
22 | | the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs |
23 | | promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, |
24 | | trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the |
25 | | drug overdose crisis. |
26 | | (c) Grants. |
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1 | | (1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with |
2 | | this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose |
3 | | prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local |
4 | | health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, |
5 | | universities, community-based organizations, and |
6 | | faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a |
7 | | grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner |
8 | | the Director prescribes. |
9 | | (2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the |
10 | | necessity for overdose prevention projects in various |
11 | | settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to |
12 | | develop interventions that will be effective and viable in |
13 | | their local areas. |
14 | | (3) The Director shall give preference for grants to |
15 | | proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving |
16 | | interventions and responses, provide information to drug |
17 | | users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies |
18 | | for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give |
19 | | preference to proposals that include one or more of the |
20 | | following elements: |
21 | | (A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, |
22 | | including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a |
23 | | potentially fatal drug overdose. |
24 | | (B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
25 | | response education projects in drug treatment centers, |
26 | | outreach programs, and other organizations that work |
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1 | | with, or have access to, drug users and their families |
2 | | and communities. |
3 | | (C) Drug overdose recognition and response |
4 | | training, including rescue breathing, in drug |
5 | | treatment centers and for other organizations that |
6 | | work with, or have access to, drug users and their |
7 | | families and communities. |
8 | | (D) The production and distribution of targeted or |
9 | | mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and |
10 | | response , the potential dangers of keeping unused |
11 | | prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly |
12 | | dispose of unused prescription drugs . |
13 | | (E) Prescription and distribution of opioid |
14 | | antagonists naloxone hydrochloride or any other |
15 | | similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the |
16 | | U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of |
17 | | drug overdose . |
18 | | (F) The institution of education and training |
19 | | projects on drug overdose response and treatment for |
20 | | emergency services and law enforcement personnel. |
21 | | (G) A system of parent, family, and survivor |
22 | | education and mutual support groups. |
23 | | (4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General |
24 | | Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private |
25 | | foundations, the federal government, and other sources to |
26 | | fund the grants under this Section and to fund an |
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1 | | evaluation of the programs supported by the grants. |
2 | | (d) Health care professional prescription of opioid |
3 | | antagonists drug overdose treatment medication . |
4 | | (1) A health care professional who, acting in good |
5 | | faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or |
6 | | dispenses an opioid antagonist antidote to : (a) a patient |
7 | | who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is |
8 | | capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a |
9 | | person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in |
10 | | the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a |
11 | | position to assist another individual during an |
12 | | opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic |
13 | | instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall |
14 | | not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be |
15 | | subject to : (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action |
16 | | under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician |
17 | | Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the |
18 | | Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing |
19 | | statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful |
20 | | and wanton misconduct . |
21 | | (2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to |
22 | | administer an opioid antagonist antidote may in an |
23 | | emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist |
24 | | antidote if the person has received the patient information |
25 | | specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes |
26 | | in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug |
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1 | | overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her |
2 | | acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the |
3 | | Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant |
4 | | Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy |
5 | | Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute, |
6 | | or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil |
7 | | liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct |
8 | | arising from or related to the unauthorized practice of |
9 | | medicine or the possession of an opioid antidote . |
10 | | (3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid |
11 | | antagonist antidote to a patient shall ensure that the |
12 | | patient receives the patient information specified in |
13 | | paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may |
14 | | be provided by the health care professional or a |
15 | | community-based organization, substance abuse program, or |
16 | | other organization with which the health care professional |
17 | | establishes a written agreement that includes a |
18 | | description of how the organization will provide patient |
19 | | information, how employees or volunteers providing |
20 | | information will be trained, and standards for documenting |
21 | | the provision of patient information to patients. |
22 | | Provision of patient information shall be documented in the |
23 | | patient's medical record or through similar means as |
24 | | determined by agreement between the health care |
25 | | professional and the organization. The Director of the |
26 | | Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in |
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1 | | consultation with statewide organizations representing |
2 | | physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice nurses, |
3 | | physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other |
4 | | interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health |
5 | | care professionals, community-based organizations, |
6 | | substance abuse programs, and other organizations training |
7 | | materials in video, electronic, or other formats to |
8 | | facilitate the provision of such patient information. |
9 | | (4) For the purposes of this subsection: |
10 | | "Opioid antagonist antidote " means a drug that binds to |
11 | | opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of |
12 | | opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not |
13 | | limited to naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly |
14 | | acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and |
15 | | Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose . |
16 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
17 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician |
18 | | assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority |
19 | | the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote by |
20 | | his or her supervising physician, an advanced practice |
21 | | registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement |
22 | | with a collaborating physician that authorizes |
23 | | prescriptive authority the prescription or dispensation of |
24 | | an opioid antidote , or an advanced practice nurse or |
25 | | physician assistant who practices in a hospital , hospital |
26 | | affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and |
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1 | | possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance |
2 | | with the Nurse Practice Act or a pharmacist licensed to |
3 | | practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act . |
4 | | "Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of |
5 | | opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, |
6 | | may be in a position to assist another individual during an |
7 | | overdose and who has received patient information as |
8 | | required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the |
9 | | indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist |
10 | | antidote . |
11 | | "Patient information" includes information provided to |
12 | | the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; |
13 | | how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid |
14 | | antagonist antidote dosage and administration; the |
15 | | importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim |
16 | | after administration of the overdose antagonist antidote ; |
17 | | and other issues as necessary.
|
18 | | (e) Drug overdose response policy. |
19 | | (1) Every State and local government agency that |
20 | | employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms |
21 | | are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must |
22 | | possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to |
23 | | control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and |
24 | | administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide |
25 | | training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A |
26 | | State or local government agency that employs a fireman as |
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1 | | defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not |
2 | | respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical |
3 | | services shall be exempt from this subsection. |
4 | | (2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, |
5 | | special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport |
6 | | vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the |
7 | | Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which |
8 | | responds to requests for emergency services or transports |
9 | | patients between hospitals in emergency situations must |
10 | | possess opioid antagonists. |
11 | | (3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and |
12 | | (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the |
13 | | Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid |
14 | | antagonists and training programs on the administration of |
15 | | opioid antagonists. |
16 | | (Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)
|
17 | | (20 ILCS 301/5-24 new) |
18 | | Sec. 5-24. Opiate prescriptions; educational materials. |
19 | | The Department shall develop educational materials to educate |
20 | | holders of opiate prescriptions about the dangers of children |
21 | | and teens gaining access to these medications. The materials |
22 | | shall include information regarding the means by which the |
23 | | abuse of opiate prescriptions can lead to the illegal use of |
24 | | heroin. The Department shall also develop a method of |
25 | | distribution for such educational materials.
|
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1 | | (20 ILCS 301/20-20 new) |
2 | | Sec. 20-20. Immunity from prosecution; drugs; public |
3 | | education program. The Department shall develop and implement a |
4 | | public education program to educate the public about the |
5 | | provisions set forth in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled |
6 | | Substances Act granting immunity from prosecution for drug |
7 | | overdose victims or persons seeking help for drug overdose |
8 | | victims if the only evidence for the possession charge was |
9 | | obtained as a result of the person seeking or obtaining |
10 | | emergency medical assistance.
|
11 | | Section 5-25. The Department of State Police Law is amended |
12 | | by adding Section 2605-97 as follows:
|
13 | | (20 ILCS 2605/2605-97 new) |
14 | | Sec. 2605-97. Training; opioid antagonists. The Department |
15 | | shall conduct or approve a training program for State police |
16 | | officers in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined |
17 | | in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the |
18 | | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is in |
19 | | accordance with that Section. As used in this Section 2605-97, |
20 | | the term "State police officers" includes full-time or |
21 | | part-time State troopers, police officers, investigators, or |
22 | | any other employee of the Department exercising the powers of a |
23 | | peace officer.
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1 | | Section 5-30. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information |
2 | | Act is amended by changing Section 9.3 as follows:
|
3 | | (20 ILCS 3930/9.3) |
4 | | Sec. 9.3. The Prescription Pill and Drug Disposal Fund. The |
5 | | Prescription Pill and Drug Disposal Fund is created as a |
6 | | special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be |
7 | | used for grants by the Illinois Criminal Justice Information |
8 | | Authority to local law enforcement agencies for the purpose of |
9 | | facilitating the collection, transportation, and incineration |
10 | | of pharmaceuticals from residential sources that are collected |
11 | | and transported by law enforcement agencies under Section 17.9A |
12 | | of the Environmental Protection Act ; to municipalities or |
13 | | organizations that establish containers designated for the |
14 | | collection and disposal of unused controlled substances and |
15 | | conduct collection of unused controlled substances through |
16 | | mail-back programs; and for the publication or advertising of |
17 | | collection events or mail-back programs conducted by |
18 | | municipalities or organizations . Before awarding a grant from |
19 | | this Fund but no later than July 1, 2016 2012 , the Authority |
20 | | shall adopt rules that (i) specify the conditions under which |
21 | | grants will be awarded from this Fund and (ii) otherwise |
22 | | provide for the implementation and administration of the grant |
23 | | program created by this Section. Interest attributable to |
24 | | moneys in the Fund shall be paid into the Fund.
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
2 | | Section 5-35. The State Finance Act is amended by adding |
3 | | Section 5.866 as follows:
|
4 | | (30 ILCS 105/5.866 new) |
5 | | Sec. 5.866. The Parity Education Fund.
|
6 | | Section 5-40. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended |
7 | | by changing Section 7 and by adding Section 10.17 as follows:
|
8 | | (50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)
|
9 | | Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall |
10 | | adopt rules and
minimum standards for such schools which shall |
11 | | include but not be limited to
the following:
|
12 | | a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which |
13 | | shall be
offered by all certified schools shall include but not |
14 | | be limited to
courses of arrest, search and seizure, civil |
15 | | rights, human relations,
cultural
diversity, including racial |
16 | | and ethnic sensitivity,
criminal law, law of criminal |
17 | | procedure, vehicle and traffic law including
uniform and |
18 | | non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
|
19 | | traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of |
20 | | obtaining
physical evidence, court testimonies, statements, |
21 | | reports, firearms
training, training in the use of electronic |
22 | | control devices, including the psychological and physiological |
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1 | | effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid |
2 | | (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the |
3 | | administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph |
4 | | (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and |
5 | | Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, handling of
juvenile |
6 | | offenders, recognition of
mental conditions which require |
7 | | immediate assistance and methods to
safeguard and provide |
8 | | assistance to a person in need of mental
treatment, recognition |
9 | | of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of |
10 | | adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in |
11 | | Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against |
12 | | the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police |
13 | | vehicle
chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the |
14 | | high-speed chase, and
physical training. The curriculum shall |
15 | | include specific training in
techniques for immediate response |
16 | | to and investigation of cases of domestic
violence and of |
17 | | sexual assault of adults and children. The curriculum shall |
18 | | include
training in techniques designed to promote effective
|
19 | | communication at the initial contact with crime victims and |
20 | | ways to comprehensively
explain to victims and witnesses their |
21 | | rights under the Rights
of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and |
22 | | the Crime
Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also |
23 | | include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and |
24 | | interacting with persons with autism and other developmental |
25 | | disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against |
26 | | persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges |
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1 | | presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism |
2 | | and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for
|
3 | | permanent police officers shall include but not be limited to |
4 | | (1) refresher
and in-service training in any of the courses |
5 | | listed above in this
subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any |
6 | | of the subjects listed above in
this subparagraph, (3) training |
7 | | for supervisory personnel, and (4)
specialized training in |
8 | | subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training |
9 | | in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for |
10 | | probationary police officers, including University police |
11 | | officers.
|
12 | | b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and |
13 | | equipment
requirements.
|
14 | | c. Minimum requirements for instructors.
|
15 | | d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a |
16 | | probationary police
officer must satisfactorily complete |
17 | | before being eligible for permanent
employment as a local law |
18 | | enforcement officer for a participating local
governmental |
19 | | agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid
|
20 | | (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).
|
21 | | e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a |
22 | | probationary county
corrections officer must satisfactorily |
23 | | complete before being eligible for
permanent employment as a |
24 | | county corrections officer for a participating
local |
25 | | governmental agency.
|
26 | | f. Minimum basic training requirements which a |
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1 | | probationary court
security officer must satisfactorily |
2 | | complete before being eligible for
permanent employment as a |
3 | | court security officer for a participating local
governmental |
4 | | agency. The Board shall
establish those training requirements |
5 | | which it considers appropriate for court
security officers and |
6 | | shall certify schools to conduct that training.
|
7 | | A person hired to serve as a court security officer must |
8 | | obtain from the
Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her |
9 | | successful completion of the
training course; (ii) attesting to |
10 | | his or her satisfactory
completion of a training program of |
11 | | similar content and number of hours that
has been found |
12 | | acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or
|
13 | | (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training
|
14 | | course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior |
15 | | law enforcement
experience.
|
16 | | Individuals who currently serve as court security officers |
17 | | shall be deemed
qualified to continue to serve in that capacity |
18 | | so long as they are certified
as provided by this Act within 24 |
19 | | months of the effective date of this
amendatory Act of 1996. |
20 | | Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the
Board, |
21 | | shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.
|
22 | | All individuals hired as court security officers on or |
23 | | after the effective
date of this amendatory Act of 1996 shall |
24 | | be certified within 12 months of the
date of their hire, unless |
25 | | a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they
shall forfeit |
26 | | their positions.
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1 | | The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the |
2 | | Sheriff's Office if
there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission, |
3 | | shall maintain a list of all
individuals who have filed |
4 | | applications to become court security officers and
who meet the |
5 | | eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either
|
6 | | the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no |
7 | | Sheriff's Merit
Commission exists, shall establish a schedule |
8 | | of reasonable intervals for
verification of the applicants' |
9 | | qualifications under
this Act and as established by the Board.
|
10 | | (Source: P.A. 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 97-862, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49, |
11 | | eff. 7-1-13; 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, |
12 | | eff. 7-16-14.)
|
13 | | (50 ILCS 705/10.17 new) |
14 | | Sec. 10.17. Training; administration of opioid |
15 | | antagonists. The Board shall conduct or approve an in-service |
16 | | training program for police officers in the administration of |
17 | | opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection |
18 | | (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
19 | | Dependency Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used |
20 | | in this Section 10.17, the term "police officers" includes |
21 | | full-time or part-time probationary police officers, permanent |
22 | | or part-time police officers, law enforcement officers, |
23 | | recruits, permanent or probationary county corrections |
24 | | officers, permanent or probationary county security officers, |
25 | | and court security officers. The term does not include |
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1 | | auxiliary police officers as defined in Section 3.1-30-20 of |
2 | | the Illinois Municipal Code.
|
3 | | Section 5-45. The Illinois Fire Protection Training Act is |
4 | | amended by changing Section 8 and by adding Section 12.5 as |
5 | | follows:
|
6 | | (50 ILCS 740/8) (from Ch. 85, par. 538)
|
7 | | Sec. 8. Rules and minimum standards for schools. The Office
|
8 | | shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such
schools which |
9 | | shall include but not be limited to the following:
|
10 | | a. Minimum courses of study, resources, facilities, |
11 | | apparatus,
equipment, reference material, established records |
12 | | and procedures as
determined by the Office.
|
13 | | b. Minimum requirements for instructors.
|
14 | | c. Minimum basic training requirements, which a trainee |
15 | | must
satisfactorily complete before being eligible for |
16 | | permanent employment
as a fire fighter in the fire department |
17 | | of a participating local
governmental agency.
Those |
18 | | requirements shall include training in first aid (including
|
19 | | cardiopulmonary resuscitation) and training in the |
20 | | administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph |
21 | | (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and |
22 | | Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act .
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 88-661, eff. 1-1-95.)
|
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1 | | (50 ILCS 740/12.5 new) |
2 | | Sec. 12.5. In-service training; opioid antagonists. The |
3 | | Office shall distribute an in-service training program for fire |
4 | | fighters in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined |
5 | | in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the |
6 | | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is |
7 | | developed by the Department of Human Services in accordance |
8 | | with that Section. As used in this Section 12.5, the term "fire |
9 | | fighters" includes full-time or part-time fire fighters, but |
10 | | does not include auxiliary, reserve, or volunteer |
11 | | firefighters.
|
12 | | Section 5-50. The Counties Code is amended by changing |
13 | | Sections 3-3013 and 5-1069.3 as follows:
|
14 | | (55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)
|
15 | | Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine |
16 | | analysis;
summoning jury; reports. Every coroner, whenever, as |
17 | | soon as he knows or is
informed that the dead body of any |
18 | | person is found, or lying within his
county, whose death is |
19 | | suspected of being:
|
20 | | (a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently |
21 | | suicidal,
homicidal or accidental, including but not |
22 | | limited to deaths apparently
caused or contributed to by |
23 | | thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical or
radiational |
24 | | injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or
|
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1 | | suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined |
2 | | in the Illinois
Domestic
Violence Act of 1986;
|
3 | | (b) A maternal or fetal death due to abortion, or any |
4 | | death due to a
sex crime or a crime against nature;
|
5 | | (c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious, |
6 | | obscure,
mysterious or otherwise unexplained or where, in |
7 | | the written opinion of
the attending physician, the cause |
8 | | of death is not determined;
|
9 | | (d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug |
10 | | may have been
a contributory cause; or
|
11 | | (e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a |
12 | | licensed
physician;
|
13 | | shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge |
14 | | of the
same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the |
15 | | circumstances
of the death. In the case of death without |
16 | | attendance by a licensed
physician the body may be moved with |
17 | | the coroner's consent from the
place of death to a mortuary in |
18 | | the same county. Coroners in their
discretion shall notify such |
19 | | physician as is designated in accordance
with Section 3-3014 to |
20 | | attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by
autopsy or |
21 | | otherwise.
|
22 | | In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in |
23 | | which the
decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator |
24 | | of a motor
vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or |
25 | | older, the coroner shall
require that a blood specimen of at |
26 | | least 30 cc., and if medically
possible a urine specimen of at |
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1 | | least 30 cc. or as much as possible up
to 30 cc., be withdrawn |
2 | | from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after
the |
3 | | accident causing his death, by such physician as has been |
4 | | designated
in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner |
5 | | or deputy coroner or
a qualified person designated by such |
6 | | physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county
does not |
7 | | maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the
|
8 | | blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Department of |
9 | | State Police or any other accredited or State-certified |
10 | | laboratory
for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and |
11 | | dangerous or
narcotic drug content of such blood and urine |
12 | | specimens. Each specimen
submitted shall be accompanied by |
13 | | pertinent information concerning the
decedent upon a form |
14 | | prescribed by such laboratory. Any
person drawing blood and |
15 | | urine and any person making any examination of
the blood and |
16 | | urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all
|
17 | | liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred |
18 | | or
imposed.
|
19 | | In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the |
20 | | coroner and
referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above, |
21 | | blood, and whenever
possible, urine samples shall be analyzed |
22 | | for the presence of alcohol
and other drugs. When the coroner |
23 | | suspects that drugs may have been
involved in the death, either |
24 | | directly or indirectly, a toxicological
examination shall be |
25 | | performed which may include analyses of blood, urine,
bile, |
26 | | gastric contents and other tissues. When the coroner suspects
a |
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1 | | death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner |
2 | | shall
consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of |
3 | | samples. Information
submitted to the toxicologist shall |
4 | | include information as to height,
weight, age, sex and race of |
5 | | the decedent as well as medical history,
medications used by |
6 | | and the manner of death of decedent.
|
7 | | When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause |
8 | | of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical |
9 | | examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be |
10 | | submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be |
11 | | obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of |
12 | | the decedent in a timely fashion. Within 45 days after the |
13 | | collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner |
14 | | shall deliver those specimens, dried, to the Illinois |
15 | | Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for |
16 | | analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings to be |
17 | | maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police in the |
18 | | State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the |
19 | | same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified |
20 | | Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in |
21 | | addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that |
22 | | the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during |
23 | | the conduct of a criminal investigation.
|
24 | | In all counties, in cases of apparent
suicide, homicide, or |
25 | | accidental death or in other cases, within the
discretion of |
26 | | the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age
|
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1 | | from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The |
2 | | summons shall
command these persons to present themselves |
3 | | personally at such a place and
time as the coroner shall |
4 | | determine, and may be in any form which the
coroner shall |
5 | | determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request
|
6 | | for acknowledgement which the coroner deems practical and |
7 | | provides a
reliable proof of service. The summons may be served |
8 | | by first class mail.
From the 8 persons so summoned, the |
9 | | coroner shall select 6 to serve as the
jury for the inquest. |
10 | | Inquests may be continued from time
to time, as the coroner may |
11 | | deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in
a given case may view |
12 | | the body of the deceased.
If at any continuation of an inquest |
13 | | one or more of the original jurors
shall be unable to continue |
14 | | to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or
vacancies. A |
15 | | juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive
|
16 | | compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of |
17 | | compensation
that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the |
18 | | county. The coroner shall
furnish to each juror without fee at |
19 | | the time of his discharge a
certificate of the number of days |
20 | | in attendance at an inquest, and, upon
being presented with |
21 | | such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to
the juror |
22 | | the sum provided for his services.
|
23 | | In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of |
24 | | apparent suicide or
homicide or of accidental death, the |
25 | | coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall |
26 | | provide
at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner |
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1 | | shall select any 6
to serve as the jury for the inquest. |
2 | | Inquests may be continued from time
to time as the coroner may |
3 | | deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen
in a given case |
4 | | may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation
of an |
5 | | inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be |
6 | | unable
to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy |
7 | | or vacancies. At
the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to |
8 | | fill such vacancies shall be
supplied by the jury commission. A |
9 | | juror serving pursuant to this
paragraph in such county shall |
10 | | receive compensation from the county at the
same rate as the |
11 | | rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors
in |
12 | | the county.
|
13 | | In every case in which a fire is determined to be
a
|
14 | | contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the |
15 | | death to the
Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner |
16 | | shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30 |
17 | | days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a |
18 | | manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire |
19 | | Marshal. |
20 | | In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be |
21 | | the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or |
22 | | medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of |
23 | | Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt |
24 | | rules regarding specific information that must be reported in |
25 | | the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall |
26 | | report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section, |
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1 | | "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of |
2 | | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of |
3 | | Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General |
4 | | Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department |
5 | | shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose |
6 | | death figures organized by location, age, and any other |
7 | | factors, the Department deems appropriate. |
8 | | In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is |
9 | | determined to be
a
contributing factor in a death, the coroner |
10 | | shall report the death to the
Department of State Police.
|
11 | | All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of |
12 | | the State in
private care facilities or in programs funded by |
13 | | the Department of Human
Services under its powers relating to |
14 | | mental health and developmental
disabilities or alcoholism and |
15 | | substance
abuse or funded by the Department of Children and |
16 | | Family Services shall
be reported to the coroner of the county |
17 | | in which the facility is
located. If the coroner has reason to |
18 | | believe that an investigation is
needed to determine whether |
19 | | the death was caused by maltreatment or
negligent care of the |
20 | | ward of the State, the coroner may conduct a
preliminary |
21 | | investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of
|
22 | | death under circumstances set forth in paragraphs (a) through |
23 | | (e) of this
Section.
|
24 | | (Source: P.A. 95-484, eff. 6-1-08; 96-1059, eff. 7-14-10.)
|
25 | | (55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)
|
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| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 36 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits. If a county, |
2 | | including a home
rule
county, is a self-insurer for purposes of |
3 | | providing health insurance coverage
for its employees, the |
4 | | coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy
care |
5 | | benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and |
6 | | health
insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required |
7 | | under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u,
356w, 356x, |
8 | | 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, |
9 | | 356z.14, 356z.15, and 356z.22 of
the Illinois Insurance Code. |
10 | | The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and |
11 | | 356z.19 , and 370c of
the Illinois Insurance Code. The |
12 | | requirement that health benefits be covered
as provided in this |
13 | | Section is an
exclusive power and function of the State and is |
14 | | a denial and limitation under
Article VII, Section 6, |
15 | | subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home
rule county |
16 | | to which this Section applies must comply with every provision |
17 | | of
this Section.
|
18 | | Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if |
19 | | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
20 | | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
21 | | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
22 | | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
23 | | whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
24 | | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, |
25 | | eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
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1 | | Section 5-55. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by |
2 | | changing Section 10-4-2.3 as follows:
|
3 | | (65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)
|
4 | | Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits. If a |
5 | | municipality, including a
home rule municipality, is a |
6 | | self-insurer for purposes of providing health
insurance |
7 | | coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage |
8 | | for
the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by |
9 | | a policy of
accident and health insurance under Section 356t |
10 | | and the coverage required
under Sections 356g, 356g.5, |
11 | | 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, |
12 | | 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, and 356z.22 of the |
13 | | Illinois
Insurance
Code. The coverage shall comply with |
14 | | Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 356z.19 , and 370c of
the Illinois |
15 | | Insurance Code. The requirement that health
benefits be covered |
16 | | as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of
the |
17 | | State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section |
18 | | 6,
subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule |
19 | | municipality to which
this Section applies must comply with |
20 | | every provision of this Section.
|
21 | | Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if |
22 | | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
23 | | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
24 | | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
25 | | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 38 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
2 | | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, |
3 | | eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
4 | | Section 5-60. The School Code is amended by changing |
5 | | Section 22-30 and adding Section 22-80 as follows:
|
6 | | (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
|
7 | | Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma |
8 | | medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of |
9 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors ; administration of an |
10 | | opioid antagonist .
|
11 | | (a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following |
12 | | terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
|
13 | | "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler. |
14 | | "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used |
15 | | for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of |
16 | | epinephrine into the human body.
|
17 | | "Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a |
18 | | physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
|
19 | | (ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive |
20 | | authority the authority to prescribe
asthma
medications by his |
21 | | or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice
|
22 | | nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a |
23 | | collaborating physician that delegates prescriptive authority |
24 | | the
authority
to prescribe asthma medications ,
for a pupil that |
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1 | | pertains to the pupil's
asthma and that has an individual |
2 | | prescription label.
|
3 | | "Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid |
4 | | receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting |
5 | | on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone |
6 | | hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by |
7 | | the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. |
8 | | "School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school |
9 | | with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing. |
10 | | "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of |
11 | | his or
her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine |
12 | | auto-injector.
|
13 | | "Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her |
14 | | prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector. |
15 | | "Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician |
16 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a |
17 | | physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive |
18 | | authority the authority to prescribe asthma medications or |
19 | | epinephrine auto-injectors by his or her supervising |
20 | | physician, or (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a |
21 | | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that |
22 | | delegates prescriptive authority to issue a standing protocol |
23 | | for asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors . |
24 | | "Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer |
25 | | personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and |
26 | | 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under |
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1 | | subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to |
2 | | anaphylaxis. |
3 | | "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an |
4 | | epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school |
5 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school. |
6 | | (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
|
7 | | self-administration and self-carry of asthma
medication by a |
8 | | pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of |
9 | | an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
|
10 | | (1) the parents or
guardians of the pupil provide to |
11 | | the school (i) written
authorization from the parents or |
12 | | guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry |
13 | | of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma |
14 | | medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and |
15 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the |
16 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written |
17 | | authorization from the pupil's physician, physician |
18 | | assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and
|
19 | | (2) the
parents or guardians of the pupil provide to |
20 | | the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain |
21 | | the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, |
22 | | and the time at which or circumstances under which the |
23 | | asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the |
24 | | self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine |
25 | | auto-injector, a
written
statement from the pupil's |
26 | | physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice
nurse |
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1 | | containing
the following information:
|
2 | | (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine |
3 | | auto-injector;
|
4 | | (B) the prescribed dosage; and
|
5 | | (C) the time or times at which or the special |
6 | | circumstances
under which the epinephrine |
7 | | auto-injector is to be administered.
|
8 | | The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of |
9 | | the school
nurse or,
in the absence of a school nurse, the |
10 | | school's administrator.
|
11 | | (b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
12 | | may authorize the provision of a student-specific or |
13 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any |
14 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
15 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
16 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
17 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an |
18 | | epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the |
19 | | student's prescription on file. |
20 | | (b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic |
21 | | school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do |
22 | | the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine |
23 | | auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any |
24 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
25 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
26 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
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1 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the |
2 | | student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) |
3 | | administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that |
4 | | meets the prescription on file to any student who has an |
5 | | Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy |
6 | | Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan |
7 | | pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of |
8 | | 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; |
9 | | and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector |
10 | | to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in |
11 | | good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction ; and |
12 | | (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the |
13 | | school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is |
14 | | having an opioid overdose . |
15 | | (c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
16 | | must inform the parents or
guardians of the
pupil, in writing, |
17 | | that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
18 | | and its
employees and
agents, including a physician, physician |
19 | | assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing |
20 | | protocol or prescription for school epinephrine |
21 | | auto-injectors,
are to incur no liability or professional |
22 | | discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
|
23 | | of any injury arising from the
administration of asthma |
24 | | medication , or of an epinephrine auto-injector , or an opioid |
25 | | antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the |
26 | | pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
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1 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. The parents or |
2 | | guardians
of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that |
3 | | the school district, public school,
or nonpublic school and its |
4 | | employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for |
5 | | willful and wanton
conduct, as a result of any injury arising
|
6 | | from the
administration of asthma medication , or of an |
7 | | epinephrine auto-injector , or an opioid antagonist regardless |
8 | | of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or |
9 | | guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or |
10 | | advanced practice nurse and that the parents or
guardians must |
11 | | indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school, |
12 | | or nonpublic
school and
its
employees and agents against any |
13 | | claims, except a claim based on willful and
wanton conduct, |
14 | | arising out of the
administration of asthma medication , or of |
15 | | an epinephrine auto-injector , or an opioid antagonist |
16 | | regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's |
17 | | parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician |
18 | | assistant, or advanced practice nurse. |
19 | | (c-5) When Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act |
20 | | of the 98th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained |
21 | | personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine |
22 | | auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained |
23 | | personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic |
24 | | reaction , or administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom |
25 | | the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is |
26 | | having an opioid overdose , notwithstanding the lack of notice |
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1 | | to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the |
2 | | parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no |
3 | | liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school |
4 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees |
5 | | and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an |
6 | | advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or |
7 | | prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are |
8 | | to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for |
9 | | willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising |
10 | | from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or |
11 | | the use of an opioid antagonist regardless of whether |
12 | | authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or |
13 | | by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced |
14 | | practice nurse.
|
15 | | (d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry |
16 | | of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry |
17 | | of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective
for the school |
18 | | year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
|
19 | | subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of |
20 | | this
Section.
|
21 | | (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
22 | | fulfilled, a
pupil with asthma may self-administer and |
23 | | self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may |
24 | | self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector |
25 | | (i) while in
school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, |
26 | | (iii) while under the
supervision of
school personnel, or (iv) |
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1 | | before or after normal school activities, such
as while in |
2 | | before-school or after-school care on school-operated
|
3 | | property.
|
4 | | (e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
5 | | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer |
6 | | an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom |
7 | | the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to |
8 | | be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) |
9 | | while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the |
10 | | supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal |
11 | | school activities, such
as while in before-school or |
12 | | after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse |
13 | | or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine |
14 | | auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a |
15 | | school-sponsored activity. |
16 | | (e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
17 | | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer |
18 | | an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or |
19 | | trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid |
20 | | overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored |
21 | | activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school |
22 | | personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, |
23 | | such as while in before-school or after-school care on |
24 | | school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel |
25 | | may carry an opioid antagonist on their person while in school |
26 | | or at a school-sponsored activity. |
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1 | | (f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
2 | | may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine |
3 | | auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person |
4 | | is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and |
5 | | lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been |
6 | | delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or |
7 | | epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of |
8 | | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
9 | | practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority |
10 | | for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in |
11 | | accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may |
12 | | prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name |
13 | | of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to |
14 | | be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine |
15 | | auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the |
16 | | manufacturer's instructions. |
17 | | The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may |
18 | | maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure |
19 | | location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A |
20 | | health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive |
21 | | authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section |
22 | | 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act |
23 | | may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school |
24 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained |
25 | | for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall |
26 | | be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's |
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1 | | instructions. |
2 | | (f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine |
3 | | auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic |
4 | | school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the |
5 | | student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known. |
6 | | Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school |
7 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately |
8 | | activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, |
9 | | guardian, or emergency contact, if known. |
10 | | (f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an |
11 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, |
12 | | public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, |
13 | | physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the |
14 | | standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated |
15 | | epinephrine auto-injector of its use. |
16 | | Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid |
17 | | antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic |
18 | | school must notify the health care professional who provided |
19 | | the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use. |
20 | | (g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated |
21 | | epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to |
22 | | his or her school's administration proof of completion of a |
23 | | training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis |
24 | | that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. |
25 | | Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must |
26 | | also submit to his or her school's administration proof of |
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1 | | cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external |
2 | | defibrillator certification. The school district, public |
3 | | school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to |
4 | | the training curriculum and trained personnel. |
5 | | Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, |
6 | | trained personnel must submit to their school's administration |
7 | | proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and |
8 | | respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the |
9 | | requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must |
10 | | be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to |
11 | | the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary |
12 | | resuscitation and automated external defibrillator |
13 | | certification. The school district, public school, or |
14 | | nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training |
15 | | curriculum and the trained personnel. |
16 | | (h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to |
17 | | anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated |
18 | | epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in |
19 | | person. It must include, but is not limited to: |
20 | | (1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction; |
21 | | (2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and |
22 | | its related facilities; |
23 | | (3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens; |
24 | | (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an |
25 | | allergic reaction; |
26 | | (5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; |
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1 | | (6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as |
2 | | well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; |
3 | | (7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge |
4 | | required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an |
5 | | epinephrine auto-injector; and |
6 | | (8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted |
7 | | pursuant to this Section. |
8 | | In consultation with statewide professional organizations |
9 | | representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of |
10 | | its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State |
11 | | Board of Education shall make available resource materials |
12 | | consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating |
13 | | trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The |
14 | | State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this |
15 | | subject developed by other states, as well as any other |
16 | | curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other |
17 | | groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State |
18 | | Board is not required to create new resource materials. The |
19 | | State Board shall make these resource materials available on |
20 | | its Internet website. |
21 | | (h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an |
22 | | opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid |
23 | | antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training |
24 | | must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 |
25 | | of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and |
26 | | the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited |
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1 | | to: |
2 | | (1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose; |
3 | | (2) information on drug overdose prevention and |
4 | | recognition; |
5 | | (3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; |
6 | | (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid |
7 | | overdose; |
8 | | (5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration; |
9 | | (6) the importance of calling 911; |
10 | | (7) care for the overdose victim after administration |
11 | | of the overdose antagonist; |
12 | | (8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge |
13 | | required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a |
14 | | dose of an opioid antagonist; and |
15 | | (9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted |
16 | | pursuant to this Section. |
17 | | (i) Within 3 days after the administration of an |
18 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, |
19 | | trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored |
20 | | activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and |
21 | | manner prescribed by the Board the following information: |
22 | | (1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine |
23 | | (student, staff, visitor); |
24 | | (2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy; |
25 | | (3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode; |
26 | | (4) location where symptoms developed; |
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1 | | (5) number of doses administered; |
2 | | (6) type of person administering epinephrine (school |
3 | | nurse, trained personnel, student); and |
4 | | (7) any other information required by the Board. |
5 | | (i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid |
6 | | antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school |
7 | | must report to the Board, in a form and manner prescribed by |
8 | | the Board, the following information: |
9 | | (1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid |
10 | | antagonist (student, staff, or visitor); |
11 | | (2) the location where symptoms developed; |
12 | | (3) the type of person administering the opioid |
13 | | antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and |
14 | | (4) any other information required by the Board. |
15 | | (j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board |
16 | | shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the |
17 | | frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration |
18 | | during the preceding academic year. This report shall be |
19 | | published on the Board's Internet website on the date the |
20 | | report is delivered to the General Assembly. |
21 | | On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the |
22 | | Board shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the |
23 | | Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and |
24 | | circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the |
25 | | preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the |
26 | | State Board's Internet website on the date the report is |
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| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 52 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | delivered to the General Assembly. |
2 | | (k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this |
3 | | Section. |
4 | | (Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)
|
5 | | (105 ILCS 5/22-80 new) |
6 | | Sec. 22-80. Heroin and opioid prevention pilot program. By |
7 | | January 1, 2017, the State Board of Education and the |
8 | | Department of Human Services shall develop and establish a |
9 | | 3-year heroin and opioid drug prevention pilot program that |
10 | | offers educational materials and instruction on heroin and |
11 | | opioid abuse to all school districts in the State for use at |
12 | | their respective public elementary and secondary schools. A |
13 | | school district's participation in the pilot program shall be |
14 | | voluntary. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human |
15 | | Services shall reimburse a school district that decides to |
16 | | participate in the pilot program for any costs it incurs in |
17 | | connection with its participation in the pilot program. Each |
18 | | school district that participates in the pilot program shall |
19 | | have the discretion to determine which grade levels the school |
20 | | district will instruct under the program. |
21 | | The pilot program must use effective, research-proven, |
22 | | interactive teaching methods and technologies, and must |
23 | | provide students, parents, and school staff with scientific, |
24 | | social, and emotional learning content to help them understand |
25 | | the risk of drug use. Such learning content must specifically |
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1 | | target the dangers of prescription pain medication and heroin |
2 | | abuse. The Department may contract with a health education |
3 | | organization to fulfill the requirements of the pilot program. |
4 | | The State Board of Education, the Department of Human |
5 | | Services, and any contracted organization shall submit an |
6 | | annual report to the General Assembly that includes: (i) a list |
7 | | of school districts participating in the pilot program; (ii) |
8 | | the grade levels each school district instructs under the pilot |
9 | | program; and (iii) any findings regarding the effectiveness of |
10 | | the pilot program.
|
11 | | Section 5-65. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems |
12 | | Act is amended by changing Sections 3.30 and 3.50 as follows:
|
13 | | (210 ILCS 50/3.30)
|
14 | | Sec. 3.30. EMS Region Plan; Content.
|
15 | | (a) The EMS Medical Directors Committee shall address
at |
16 | | least the following:
|
17 | | (1) Protocols for inter-System/inter-Region
patient |
18 | | transports, including identifying the conditions of
|
19 | | emergency patients which may not be transported to the
|
20 | | different levels of emergency department, based on their
|
21 | | Department classifications and relevant Regional
|
22 | | considerations (e.g. transport times and distances);
|
23 | | (2) Regional standing medical orders;
|
24 | | (3) Patient transfer patterns, including criteria
for |
|
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|
1 | | determining whether a patient needs the specialized
|
2 | | services of a trauma center, along with protocols for the
|
3 | | bypassing of or diversion to any hospital, trauma center or
|
4 | | regional trauma center which are consistent with |
5 | | individual
System bypass or diversion protocols and |
6 | | protocols for
patient choice or refusal;
|
7 | | (4) Protocols for resolving Regional or
Inter-System |
8 | | conflict;
|
9 | | (5) An EMS disaster preparedness plan which
includes |
10 | | the actions and responsibilities of all EMS
participants |
11 | | within the Region. Within 90 days of the effective date of |
12 | | this
amendatory Act of 1996, an EMS System shall submit to |
13 | | the Department for review
an internal disaster plan. At a |
14 | | minimum, the plan shall include contingency
plans for the |
15 | | transfer of patients to other facilities if an evacuation |
16 | | of the
hospital becomes necessary due to a catastrophe, |
17 | | including but not limited to, a
power failure;
|
18 | | (6) Regional standardization of continuing
education |
19 | | requirements;
|
20 | | (7) Regional standardization of Do Not
Resuscitate |
21 | | (DNR) policies, and protocols for power of
attorney for |
22 | | health care;
|
23 | | (8) Protocols for disbursement of Department
grants; |
24 | | and
|
25 | | (9) Protocols for the triage, treatment, and transport |
26 | | of possible acute stroke patients ; and . |
|
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1 | | (10) Regional standing medical orders for the |
2 | | administration of opioid antagonists. |
3 | | (b) The Trauma Center Medical Directors or Trauma
Center |
4 | | Medical Directors Committee shall address at least
the |
5 | | following:
|
6 | | (1) The identification of Regional Trauma
Centers;
|
7 | | (2) Protocols for inter-System and inter-Region
trauma |
8 | | patient transports, including identifying the
conditions |
9 | | of emergency patients which may not be
transported to the |
10 | | different levels of emergency department,
based on their |
11 | | Department classifications and relevant
Regional |
12 | | considerations (e.g. transport times and
distances);
|
13 | | (3) Regional trauma standing medical orders;
|
14 | | (4) Trauma patient transfer patterns, including
|
15 | | criteria for determining whether a patient needs the
|
16 | | specialized services of a trauma center, along with
|
17 | | protocols for the bypassing of or diversion to any |
18 | | hospital,
trauma center or regional trauma center which are |
19 | | consistent
with individual System bypass or diversion |
20 | | protocols and
protocols for patient choice or refusal;
|
21 | | (5) The identification of which types of patients
can |
22 | | be cared for by Level I and Level II Trauma Centers;
|
23 | | (6) Criteria for inter-hospital transfer of
trauma |
24 | | patients;
|
25 | | (7) The treatment of trauma patients in each
trauma |
26 | | center within the Region;
|
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1 | | (8) A program for conducting a quarterly
conference |
2 | | which shall include at a minimum a discussion of
morbidity |
3 | | and mortality between all professional staff
involved in |
4 | | the care of trauma patients;
|
5 | | (9) The establishment of a Regional trauma
quality |
6 | | assurance and improvement subcommittee, consisting of
|
7 | | trauma surgeons, which shall perform periodic medical |
8 | | audits
of each trauma center's trauma services, and forward
|
9 | | tabulated data from such reviews to the Department; and
|
10 | | (10) The establishment, within 90 days of the effective |
11 | | date of this
amendatory Act of 1996, of an internal |
12 | | disaster plan, which shall include, at a
minimum, |
13 | | contingency plans for the transfer of patients to other |
14 | | facilities if
an evacuation of the hospital becomes |
15 | | necessary due to a catastrophe, including
but not limited |
16 | | to, a power failure.
|
17 | | (c) The Region's EMS Medical Directors and Trauma
Center |
18 | | Medical Directors Committees shall appoint any
subcommittees |
19 | | which they deem necessary to address specific
issues concerning |
20 | | Region activities.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 96-514, eff. 1-1-10.)
|
22 | | (210 ILCS 50/3.50)
|
23 | | Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Services personnel licensure |
24 | | levels.
|
25 | | (a) "Emergency Medical Technician" or
"EMT" means a person |
|
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|
|
1 | | who has successfully completed a course in basic life support
|
2 | | as approved by the
Department, is currently licensed by the |
3 | | Department in
accordance with standards prescribed by this Act |
4 | | and rules
adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and |
5 | | practices within an EMS
System. A valid Emergency Medical |
6 | | Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license issued under this Act shall |
7 | | continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency |
8 | | Medical Technician (EMT) license until the Emergency Medical |
9 | | Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license expires.
|
10 | | (b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate"
or "EMT-I" |
11 | | means a person who has successfully completed a
course in |
12 | | intermediate life support
as approved
by the Department, is |
13 | | currently licensed by the
Department in accordance with |
14 | | standards prescribed by this
Act and rules adopted by the |
15 | | Department pursuant to this
Act, and practices within an |
16 | | Intermediate or Advanced
Life Support EMS System.
|
17 | | (b-5) "Advanced Emergency Medical Technician" or "A-EMT" |
18 | | means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic |
19 | | and limited advanced emergency medical care as approved by the |
20 | | Department, is currently licensed by the Department in |
21 | | accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules |
22 | | adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices |
23 | | within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System. |
24 | | (c) "Paramedic (EMT-P)" means a person who
has successfully |
25 | | completed a
course in advanced life support care
as approved
by |
26 | | the Department, is licensed by the Department
in accordance |
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1 | | with standards prescribed by this Act and
rules adopted by the |
2 | | Department pursuant to this Act, and
practices within an |
3 | | Advanced Life Support EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical |
4 | | Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license issued under this Act |
5 | | shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as a |
6 | | Paramedic license until the Emergency Medical |
7 | | Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license expires.
|
8 | | (c-5) "Emergency Medical Responder" or "EMR (First |
9 | | Responder)" means a person who has successfully completed a |
10 | | course in emergency medical response as approved by the |
11 | | Department and provides emergency medical response services |
12 | | prior to the arrival of an ambulance or specialized emergency |
13 | | medical services vehicle, in accordance with the level of care |
14 | | established by the National EMS Educational Standards |
15 | | Emergency Medical Responder course as modified by the |
16 | | Department. An Emergency Medical Responder who provides |
17 | | services as part of an EMS System response plan shall comply |
18 | | with the applicable sections of the Program Plan, as approved |
19 | | by the Department, of that EMS System. The Department shall |
20 | | have the authority to adopt rules governing the curriculum, |
21 | | practice, and necessary equipment applicable to Emergency |
22 | | Medical Responders. |
23 | | On the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th |
24 | | General Assembly, a person who is licensed by the Department as |
25 | | a First Responder and has completed a Department-approved |
26 | | course in first responder defibrillator training based on, or |
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|
1 | | equivalent to, the National EMS Educational Standards or other |
2 | | standards previously recognized by the Department shall be |
3 | | eligible for licensure as an Emergency Medical Responder upon |
4 | | meeting the licensure requirements and submitting an |
5 | | application to the Department. A valid First Responder license |
6 | | issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be |
7 | | recognized as an Emergency Medical Responder license until the |
8 | | First Responder license expires. |
9 | | (c-10) All EMS Systems and licensees shall be fully |
10 | | compliant with the National EMS Education Standards, as |
11 | | modified by the Department in administrative rules, within 24 |
12 | | months after the adoption of the administrative rules. |
13 | | (d) The Department shall have the authority and
|
14 | | responsibility to:
|
15 | | (1) Prescribe education and training requirements, |
16 | | which
includes training in the use of epinephrine,
for all |
17 | | levels of EMS personnel except for EMRs, based on the |
18 | | National EMS Educational Standards
and any modifications |
19 | | to those curricula specified by the
Department through |
20 | | rules adopted pursuant to this Act.
|
21 | | (2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements
for all |
22 | | levels of EMS personnel, which shall include a requirement |
23 | | that
all phases of instruction, training, and field |
24 | | experience be
completed before taking the appropriate |
25 | | licensure examination.
Candidates may elect to take the |
26 | | appropriate National Registry examination in lieu of the
|
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1 | | Department's examination, but are responsible for making
|
2 | | their own arrangements for taking the National Registry
|
3 | | examination. In prescribing licensure testing requirements |
4 | | for honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the |
5 | | United States under this paragraph (2), the Department |
6 | | shall ensure that a candidate's military emergency medical |
7 | | training, emergency medical curriculum completed, and |
8 | | clinical experience, as described in paragraph (2.5), are |
9 | | recognized.
|
10 | | (2.5) Review applications for EMS personnel licensure |
11 | | from
honorably discharged members of the armed forces of |
12 | | the United States with military emergency medical |
13 | | training. Applications shall be filed with the Department |
14 | | within one year after military discharge and shall contain: |
15 | | (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency |
16 | | medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the |
17 | | emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a |
18 | | detailed description of the applicant's clinical |
19 | | experience. The Department may request additional and |
20 | | clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the |
21 | | application, including the applicant's training and |
22 | | experience, consistent with the standards set forth under |
23 | | subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the |
24 | | application clearly demonstrates that the training and |
25 | | experience meets such standards, the Department shall |
26 | | offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully |
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1 | | complete a Department-approved EMS personnel examination |
2 | | for the level of license for which the applicant is |
3 | | qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department |
4 | | shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all |
5 | | provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the |
6 | | level of EMS personnel
license issued. |
7 | | (3) License individuals as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT,
|
8 | | or Paramedic who have met the Department's education, |
9 | | training and
examination requirements.
|
10 | | (4) Prescribe annual continuing education and
|
11 | | relicensure requirements for all EMS personnel licensure
|
12 | | levels.
|
13 | | (5) Relicense individuals as an EMD, EMR, EMT, EMT-I, |
14 | | A-EMT,
or Paramedic every 4 years, based on their |
15 | | compliance with
continuing education and relicensure |
16 | | requirements as required by the Department pursuant to this |
17 | | Act. Every 4 years, a Paramedic shall have 100 hours of |
18 | | approved continuing education, an EMT-I and an advanced EMT |
19 | | shall have 80 hours of approved continuing education, and |
20 | | an EMT shall have 60 hours of approved continuing |
21 | | education. An Illinois licensed EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, |
22 | | A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN whose license has been |
23 | | expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement |
24 | | by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the |
25 | | applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of |
26 | | continuing medical education and clinical requirements to |
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1 | | be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule; |
2 | | (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS |
3 | | Medical Director attesting to the applicant's |
4 | | qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department |
5 | | approved test for the level of EMS personnel license sought |
6 | | to be reinstated.
|
7 | | (6) Grant inactive status to any EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, |
8 | | A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN who
qualifies, based on |
9 | | standards and procedures established by
the Department in |
10 | | rules adopted pursuant to this Act.
|
11 | | (7) Charge a fee for EMS personnel examination, |
12 | | licensure, and license renewal.
|
13 | | (8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the
|
14 | | license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an |
15 | | impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law |
16 | | judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of |
17 | | the evidence shows one or more of the following:
|
18 | | (A) The licensee has not met continuing
education |
19 | | or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the |
20 | | Department;
|
21 | | (B) The licensee has failed to maintain
|
22 | | proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she |
23 | | is licensed;
|
24 | | (C) The licensee, during the provision of
medical |
25 | | services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or
|
26 | | unprofessional conduct of a character likely to |
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1 | | deceive,
defraud, or harm the public;
|
2 | | (D) The licensee has failed to maintain or
has |
3 | | violated standards of performance and conduct as |
4 | | prescribed
by the Department in rules adopted pursuant |
5 | | to this Act or
his or her EMS System's Program Plan;
|
6 | | (E) The licensee is physically impaired to
the |
7 | | extent that he or she cannot physically perform the |
8 | | skills and
functions for which he or she is licensed, |
9 | | as verified by a
physician, unless the person is on |
10 | | inactive status pursuant
to Department regulations;
|
11 | | (F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the
extent |
12 | | that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate |
13 | | judgment,
skill and safety for performing the |
14 | | functions for which he
or she is licensed, as verified |
15 | | by a physician, unless the person
is on inactive status |
16 | | pursuant to Department regulations;
|
17 | | (G) The licensee has violated this Act or any
rule |
18 | | adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or |
19 | | (H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a |
20 | | plea of guilty or nolo-contendere) by a court of |
21 | | competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class |
22 | | 2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent |
23 | | offense. |
24 | | (9) Prescribe education and training requirements in |
25 | | the administration and use of opioid antagonists for all |
26 | | levels of EMS personnel based on the National EMS |
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1 | | Educational Standards and any modifications to those |
2 | | curricula specified by the Department through rules |
3 | | adopted pursuant to this Act. |
4 | | (d-5) An EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or |
5 | | PHRN who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or an |
6 | | Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves as a volunteer |
7 | | for units of local government with a population base of less |
8 | | than 5,000 or as a volunteer
for a not-for-profit organization |
9 | | that serves a service area
with a population base of less than |
10 | | 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver |
11 | | of the fees described under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of |
12 | | this Section on a form prescribed by the Department. |
13 | | The education requirements prescribed by the Department |
14 | | under this Section must allow for the suspension of those |
15 | | requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or |
16 | | reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois |
17 | | National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive |
18 | | order of the President of the United States, an act of the |
19 | | Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at |
20 | | the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill |
21 | | a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill |
22 | | the education requirement within 6 months after his or her |
23 | | release from active duty.
|
24 | | (e) In the event that any rule of the
Department or an EMS |
25 | | Medical Director that requires testing for drug
use as a |
26 | | condition of the applicable EMS personnel license conflicts |
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1 | | with or
duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining |
2 | | agreement
that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall |
3 | | not
apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining
|
4 | | agreement.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-509, eff. 8-23-11; |
6 | | 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1014, eff. 1-1-13; 98-53, eff. 1-1-14; |
7 | | 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14.)
|
8 | | Section 5-70. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by |
9 | | adding Section 6.14g as follows:
|
10 | | (210 ILCS 85/6.14g new) |
11 | | Sec. 6.14g. Reports to the Department; opioid overdoses. |
12 | | (a) As used in this Section: |
13 | | "Overdose" has the same meaning as provided in Section 414 |
14 | | of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. |
15 | | "Health care professional" includes a physician licensed |
16 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician |
17 | | assistant, or an advanced practice nurse licensed in the State. |
18 | | (b) When treatment is provided in a hospital's emergency |
19 | | department, a health care professional who treats a drug |
20 | | overdose or hospital administrator or designee shall report the |
21 | | case to the Department of Public Health within 48 hours of |
22 | | providing treatment for the drug overdose or at such time the |
23 | | drug overdose is confirmed. The Department shall by rule create |
24 | | a form for this purpose which requires the following |
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|
1 | | information, if known: (1) whether an opioid antagonist was |
2 | | administered; (2) the cause of the overdose; and (3) the |
3 | | demographic information of the person treated. The Department |
4 | | shall create the form with input from the statewide association |
5 | | representing a majority of hospitals in Illinois. The person |
6 | | completing the form may not disclose the name, address, or any |
7 | | other personal information of the individual experiencing the |
8 | | overdose. |
9 | | (c) The identity of the person and entity reporting under |
10 | | this subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of the |
11 | | report. For the purposes of this subsection, the health care |
12 | | professional, hospital administrator, or designee making the |
13 | | report and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, |
14 | | civilly, or professionally liable for reporting under this |
15 | | subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. |
16 | | (d) The Department shall provide a semiannual report to the |
17 | | General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The |
18 | | Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report |
19 | | of drug overdose figures. The figures shall be organized by the |
20 | | overdose location, the age of the victim, the cause of the |
21 | | overdose, and any other factors the Department deems |
22 | | appropriate.
|
23 | | Section 5-72. The Safe Pharmaceutical Disposal Act is |
24 | | amended by changing Section 17 as follows:
|
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| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 67 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | (210 ILCS 150/17) |
2 | | Sec. 17. Pharmaceutical disposal. Notwithstanding any
|
3 | | provision of law, any city, village, or municipality may
|
4 | | authorize the use of its city hall or police department to
|
5 | | display a container suitable for use as a receptacle for used,
|
6 | | expired, or unwanted pharmaceuticals. These used, expired, or
|
7 | | unwanted pharmaceuticals may include unused medication and |
8 | | prescription drugs , as well as controlled substances if |
9 | | collected in accordance with federal law . This
receptacle shall |
10 | | only permit the deposit of items, and the
contents shall be |
11 | | locked and secured. The container shall be
accessible to the |
12 | | public and shall have posted clearly legible
signage indicating |
13 | | that expired or unwanted prescription drugs
may be disposed of |
14 | | in the receptacle.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 97-546, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
16 | | Section 5-75. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by |
17 | | changing Sections 352, 370c, and 370c.1 and by adding Section |
18 | | 356z.23 as follows:
|
19 | | (215 ILCS 5/352) (from Ch. 73, par. 964)
|
20 | | Sec. 352. Scope of Article.
|
21 | | (a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), and |
22 | | (e),
this Article shall
apply to all companies transacting in |
23 | | this State the kinds of business
enumerated in clause (b) of |
24 | | Class 1 and clause (a) of Class 2 of section 4.
Nothing in this |
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|
1 | | Article shall apply to, or in any way affect policies or
|
2 | | contracts described in clause (a) of Class 1 of Section 4; |
3 | | however, this
Article shall apply to policies and contracts |
4 | | which contain benefits
providing reimbursement for the |
5 | | expenses of long term health care which are
certified or |
6 | | ordered by a physician including but not limited to
|
7 | | professional nursing care, custodial nursing care, and |
8 | | non-nursing
custodial care provided in a nursing home or at a |
9 | | residence of the insured.
|
10 | | (b) (Blank). This Article does not apply to policies of |
11 | | accident and health
insurance issued in compliance with Article |
12 | | XIXB of this Code.
|
13 | | (c) A policy issued and delivered in this State
that |
14 | | provides coverage under that policy for
certificate holders who |
15 | | are neither residents of nor employed in this State
does not |
16 | | need to provide to those nonresident
certificate holders who |
17 | | are not employed in this State the coverages or
services |
18 | | mandated by this Article.
|
19 | | (d) Stop-loss insurance is exempt from all Sections
of this |
20 | | Article, except this Section and Sections 353a, 354, 357.30, |
21 | | and
370. For purposes of this exemption, stop-loss insurance is |
22 | | further defined as
follows:
|
23 | | (1) The policy must be issued to and insure an |
24 | | employer, trustee, or other
sponsor of the plan, or the |
25 | | plan itself, but not employees, members, or
participants.
|
26 | | (2) Payments by the insurer must be made to the |
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1 | | employer, trustee, or
other sponsors of the plan, or the |
2 | | plan itself, but not to the employees,
members, |
3 | | participants, or health care providers.
|
4 | | (e) A policy issued or delivered in this State to the |
5 | | Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly
|
6 | | Illinois Department
of Public Aid) and providing coverage, |
7 | | under clause (b) of Class 1 or clause (a)
of Class 2 as |
8 | | described in Section 4, to persons who are enrolled under |
9 | | Article V of the Illinois
Public Aid Code or under the |
10 | | Children's Health Insurance Program Act is
exempt from all |
11 | | restrictions, limitations,
standards, rules, or regulations |
12 | | respecting benefits imposed by or under
authority of this Code, |
13 | | except those specified by subsection (1) of Section
143 , |
14 | | Section 370c, and Section 370c.1 . Nothing in this subsection, |
15 | | however, affects the total medical services
available to |
16 | | persons eligible for medical assistance under the Illinois |
17 | | Public
Aid Code.
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
|
19 | | (215 ILCS 5/356z.23 new) |
20 | | Sec. 356z.23. Coverage for opioid antagonists. |
21 | | (a) An individual or group policy of accident and health |
22 | | insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State |
23 | | after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th |
24 | | General Assembly that provides coverage for prescription drugs |
25 | | must provide coverage for at least one opioid antagonist, |
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1 | | including the medication product, administration devices, and |
2 | | any pharmacy administration fees related to the dispensing of |
3 | | the opioid antagonist. This coverage must include refills for |
4 | | expired or utilized opioid antagonists. |
5 | | (b) As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a |
6 | | drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the |
7 | | effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not |
8 | | limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly |
9 | | acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
|
10 | | (215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)
|
11 | | Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders.
|
12 | | (a) (1) On and after the effective date of this amendatory |
13 | | Act of the 97th General Assembly,
every insurer which amends, |
14 | | delivers, issues, or renews
group accident and health policies |
15 | | providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or
|
16 | | services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall offer |
17 | | to the
applicant or group policyholder subject to the insurer's |
18 | | standards of
insurability, coverage for reasonable and |
19 | | necessary treatment and services
for mental, emotional or |
20 | | nervous disorders or conditions, other than serious
mental |
21 | | illnesses as defined in item (2) of subsection (b), consistent |
22 | | with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code.
|
23 | | (2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional, |
24 | | nervous, or substance use
disorders or conditions shall be free |
25 | | to select the physician licensed to
practice medicine in all |
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1 | | its branches, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed |
2 | | clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional |
3 | | counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed |
4 | | speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified |
5 | | professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois |
6 | | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act of
his |
7 | | choice to treat such disorders, and
the insurer shall pay the |
8 | | covered charges of such physician licensed to
practice medicine |
9 | | in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed |
10 | | clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional |
11 | | counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed |
12 | | speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified |
13 | | professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois |
14 | | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act up
to the |
15 | | limits of coverage, provided (i)
the disorder or condition |
16 | | treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the
physician, |
17 | | licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, |
18 | | licensed
clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage |
19 | | and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or |
20 | | other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed |
21 | | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
22 | | Dependency Act is
authorized to provide said services under the |
23 | | statutes of this State and in
accordance with accepted |
24 | | principles of his profession.
|
25 | | (3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed |
26 | | clinical social
workers, licensed clinical professional |
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1 | | counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed |
2 | | speech-language pathologists, and other licensed or certified |
3 | | professionals at programs licensed pursuant to the Illinois |
4 | | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, those |
5 | | persons who may
provide services to individuals shall do so
|
6 | | after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical |
7 | | professional
counselor, licensed marriage and family |
8 | | therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other |
9 | | licensed or certified professional at a program licensed |
10 | | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
11 | | Dependency Act has informed the patient of the
desirability of |
12 | | the patient conferring with the patient's primary care
|
13 | | physician and the licensed clinical social worker, licensed |
14 | | clinical
professional counselor, licensed marriage and family |
15 | | therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other |
16 | | licensed or certified professional at a program licensed |
17 | | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
18 | | Dependency Act has
provided written
notification to the |
19 | | patient's primary care physician, if any, that services
are |
20 | | being provided to the patient. That notification may, however, |
21 | | be
waived by the patient on a written form. Those forms shall |
22 | | be retained by
the licensed clinical social worker, licensed |
23 | | clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family |
24 | | therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other |
25 | | licensed or certified professional at a program licensed |
26 | | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
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1 | | Dependency Act
for a period of not less than 5 years.
|
2 | | (b) (1) An insurer that provides coverage for hospital or |
3 | | medical
expenses under a group policy of accident and health |
4 | | insurance or
health care plan amended, delivered, issued, or |
5 | | renewed on or after the effective
date of this amendatory Act |
6 | | of the 97th General Assembly shall provide coverage
under the |
7 | | policy for treatment of serious mental illness and substance |
8 | | use disorders consistent with the parity requirements of |
9 | | Section 370c.1 of this Code. This subsection does not apply to |
10 | | any group policy of accident and health insurance or health |
11 | | care plan for any plan year of a small employer as defined in |
12 | | Section 5 of the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and |
13 | | Accountability Act.
|
14 | | (2) "Serious mental illness" means the following |
15 | | psychiatric illnesses as
defined in the most current edition of |
16 | | the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
(DSM) published by the |
17 | | American Psychiatric Association:
|
18 | | (A) schizophrenia;
|
19 | | (B) paranoid and other psychotic disorders;
|
20 | | (C) bipolar disorders (hypomanic, manic, depressive, |
21 | | and mixed);
|
22 | | (D) major depressive disorders (single episode or |
23 | | recurrent);
|
24 | | (E) schizoaffective disorders (bipolar or depressive);
|
25 | | (F) pervasive developmental disorders;
|
26 | | (G) obsessive-compulsive disorders;
|
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1 | | (H) depression in childhood and adolescence;
|
2 | | (I) panic disorder; |
3 | | (J) post-traumatic stress disorders (acute, chronic, |
4 | | or with delayed onset); and
|
5 | | (K) anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. |
6 | | (2.5) "Substance use disorder" means the following mental |
7 | | disorders as defined in the most current edition of the |
8 | | Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published by the |
9 | | American Psychiatric Association: |
10 | | (A) substance abuse disorders; |
11 | | (B) substance dependence disorders; and |
12 | | (C) substance induced disorders. |
13 | | (3) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal law and |
14 | | consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of |
15 | | this Code, the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment of
|
16 | | serious mental illness or substance use disorder shall furnish |
17 | | medical records or other necessary data
that substantiate that |
18 | | initial or continued treatment is at all times medically
|
19 | | necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely |
20 | | review by a
provider holding the same license and practicing in |
21 | | the same specialty as the
patient's provider, who is |
22 | | unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by
the patient |
23 | | (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the
|
24 | | patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's |
25 | | provider, and
the insurer in the event of a dispute between the |
26 | | insurer and patient's
provider regarding the medical necessity |
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1 | | of a treatment proposed by a patient's
provider. If the |
2 | | reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically
|
3 | | necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the |
4 | | treatment. Future
contractual or employment actions by the |
5 | | insurer regarding the patient's
provider may not be based on |
6 | | the provider's participation in this procedure.
Nothing |
7 | | prevents
the insured from agreeing in writing to continue |
8 | | treatment at his or her
expense. When making a determination of |
9 | | the medical necessity for a treatment
modality for serious |
10 | | mental illness or substance use disorder, an insurer must make |
11 | | the determination in a
manner that is consistent with the |
12 | | manner used to make that determination with
respect to other |
13 | | diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an
|
14 | | appeals process. Medical necessity determinations for |
15 | | substance use disorders shall be made in accordance with |
16 | | appropriate patient placement criteria established by the |
17 | | American Society of Addiction Medicine. No additional criteria |
18 | | may be used to make medical necessity determinations for |
19 | | substance use disorders.
|
20 | | (4) A group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued, |
21 | | or renewed on or after the effective date of this amendatory |
22 | | Act of the 97th General Assembly:
|
23 | | (A) shall provide coverage based upon medical |
24 | | necessity for the
treatment of mental illness and substance |
25 | | use disorders consistent with the parity requirements of |
26 | | Section 370c.1 of this Code; provided, however, that in |
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1 | | each calendar year coverage shall not be less than the |
2 | | following:
|
3 | | (i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and
|
4 | | (ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date |
5 | | of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient |
6 | | treatment including group and individual
outpatient |
7 | | treatment; and |
8 | | (iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for |
9 | | delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007 |
10 | | (the effective date of Public Act 94-906),
20 |
11 | | additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for |
12 | | treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that |
13 | | will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant |
14 | | to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A); and
|
15 | | (B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of |
16 | | days of inpatient
treatment or the number of outpatient |
17 | | visits covered under the plan.
|
18 | | (C) (Blank).
|
19 | | (5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may not count |
20 | | toward the number
of outpatient visits required to be covered |
21 | | under this Section an outpatient
visit for the purpose of |
22 | | medication management and shall cover the outpatient
visits |
23 | | under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient |
24 | | visits for
the treatment of physical illness.
|
25 | | (5.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended, |
26 | | delivered, issued, or renewed on or after the effective date of |
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1 | | this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall offer |
2 | | coverage for medically necessary acute treatment services and |
3 | | medically necessary clinical stabilization services. The |
4 | | treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and |
5 | | the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity |
6 | | determinations for substance use disorders in accordance with |
7 | | the most current edition of the American Society of Addiction |
8 | | Medicine Patient Placement Criteria. |
9 | | As used in this subsection: |
10 | | "Acute treatment services" means 24-hour medically |
11 | | supervised addiction treatment that provides evaluation and |
12 | | withdrawal management and may include biopsychosocial |
13 | | assessment, individual and group counseling, psychoeducational |
14 | | groups, and discharge planning. |
15 | | "Clinical stabilization services" means 24-hour treatment, |
16 | | usually following acute treatment services for substance |
17 | | abuse, which may include intensive education and counseling |
18 | | regarding the nature of addiction and its consequences, relapse |
19 | | prevention, outreach to families and significant others, and |
20 | | aftercare planning for individuals beginning to engage in |
21 | | recovery from addiction. |
22 | | (6) An issuer of a group health benefit
plan may provide or |
23 | | offer coverage required under this Section through a
managed |
24 | | care plan.
|
25 | | (7) (Blank).
|
26 | | (8)
(Blank).
|
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1 | | (9) With respect to substance use disorders, coverage for |
2 | | inpatient treatment shall include coverage for treatment in a |
3 | | residential treatment center licensed by the Department of |
4 | | Public Health or the Department of Human Services , Division of |
5 | | Alcoholism and Substance Abuse . |
6 | | (c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require |
7 | | coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for |
8 | | those individuals covered under Section 356z.15
of this Code. |
9 | | (d) The Department shall enforce the requirements of State |
10 | | and federal parity law, which includes ensuring compliance by |
11 | | individual and group policies; detecting violations of the law |
12 | | by individual and group policies proactively monitoring |
13 | | discriminatory practices; accepting, evaluating, and |
14 | | responding to complaints regarding such violations; and |
15 | | ensuring violations are appropriately remedied and deterred. |
16 | | (e) Availability of plan information. |
17 | | (1) The criteria for medical necessity determinations |
18 | | made under a group health plan with respect to mental |
19 | | health or substance use disorder benefits (or health |
20 | | insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan with |
21 | | respect to such benefits) must be made available by the |
22 | | plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer |
23 | | offering such coverage) to any current or potential |
24 | | participant, beneficiary, or contracting provider upon |
25 | | request. |
26 | | (2) The reason for any denial under a group health plan |
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1 | | (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with |
2 | | such plan) of reimbursement or payment for services with |
3 | | respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits |
4 | | in the case of any participant or beneficiary must be made |
5 | | available within a reasonable time and in a reasonable |
6 | | manner by the plan administrator (or the health insurance |
7 | | issuer offering such coverage) to the participant or |
8 | | beneficiary upon request. |
9 | | (f) As used in this Section, "group policy of accident and |
10 | | health insurance" and "group health benefit plan" includes (1) |
11 | | State-regulated employer-sponsored group health insurance |
12 | | plans written in Illinois and (2) State employee health plans. |
13 | | (Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; |
14 | | 97-437, eff. 8-18-11.)
|
15 | | (215 ILCS 5/370c.1) |
16 | | Sec. 370c.1. Mental health and addiction parity. |
17 | | (a) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act |
18 | | of the 99th General Assembly this amendatory Act of the 97th |
19 | | General Assembly , every insurer that amends, delivers, issues, |
20 | | or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health |
21 | | insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health |
22 | | Insurance Marketplace policy of accident and health insurance |
23 | | in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical |
24 | | treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, |
25 | | or substance use disorders or conditions shall ensure that: |
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1 | | (1) the financial requirements applicable to such |
2 | | mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or |
3 | | condition benefits are no more restrictive than the |
4 | | predominant financial requirements applied to |
5 | | substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by |
6 | | the policy and that there are no separate cost-sharing |
7 | | requirements that are applicable only with respect to |
8 | | mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or |
9 | | condition benefits; and |
10 | | (2) the treatment limitations applicable to such |
11 | | mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or |
12 | | condition benefits are no more restrictive than the |
13 | | predominant treatment limitations applied to substantially |
14 | | all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and |
15 | | that there are no separate treatment limitations that are |
16 | | applicable only with respect to mental, emotional, |
17 | | nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits. |
18 | | (b) The following provisions shall apply concerning |
19 | | aggregate lifetime limits: |
20 | | (1) In the case of a group or individual policy of |
21 | | accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan |
22 | | offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace policy of |
23 | | accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, |
24 | | or renewed in this State on or after the effective date of |
25 | | this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly this |
26 | | amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that provides |
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1 | | coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the |
2 | | treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
3 | | disorders or conditions the following provisions shall |
4 | | apply: |
5 | | (A) if the policy does not include an aggregate |
6 | | lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and |
7 | | medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any |
8 | | aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional, |
9 | | nervous, or substance use disorder or condition |
10 | | benefits; or |
11 | | (B) if the policy includes an aggregate lifetime |
12 | | limit on substantially all hospital and medical |
13 | | benefits (in this subsection referred to as the |
14 | | "applicable lifetime limit"), then the policy shall |
15 | | either: |
16 | | (i) apply the applicable lifetime limit both |
17 | | to the hospital and medical benefits to which it |
18 | | otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, |
19 | | nervous, or substance use disorder or condition |
20 | | benefits and not distinguish in the application of |
21 | | the limit between the hospital and medical |
22 | | benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or |
23 | | substance use disorder or condition benefits; or |
24 | | (ii) not include any aggregate lifetime limit |
25 | | on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
26 | | disorder or condition benefits that is less than |
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1 | | the applicable lifetime limit. |
2 | | (2) In the case of a policy that is not described in |
3 | | paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section and that |
4 | | includes no or different aggregate lifetime limits on |
5 | | different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the |
6 | | Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph |
7 | | (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section is |
8 | | applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, |
9 | | nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by |
10 | | substituting for the applicable lifetime limit an average |
11 | | aggregate lifetime limit that is computed taking into |
12 | | account the weighted average of the aggregate lifetime |
13 | | limits applicable to such categories. |
14 | | (c) The following provisions shall apply concerning annual |
15 | | limits: |
16 | | (1) In the case of a group or individual policy of |
17 | | accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan |
18 | | offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace policy of |
19 | | accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued, |
20 | | or renewed in this State on or after the effective date of |
21 | | this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly this |
22 | | amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that provides |
23 | | coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the |
24 | | treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use |
25 | | disorders or conditions the following provisions shall |
26 | | apply: |
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1 | | (A) if the policy does not include an annual limit |
2 | | on substantially all hospital and medical benefits, |
3 | | then the policy may not impose any annual limits on |
4 | | mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder |
5 | | or condition benefits; or |
6 | | (B) if the policy includes an annual limit on |
7 | | substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in |
8 | | this subsection referred to as the "applicable annual |
9 | | limit"), then the policy shall either: |
10 | | (i) apply the applicable annual limit both to |
11 | | the hospital and medical benefits to which it |
12 | | otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional, |
13 | | nervous, or substance use disorder or condition |
14 | | benefits and not distinguish in the application of |
15 | | the limit between the hospital and medical |
16 | | benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or |
17 | | substance use disorder or condition benefits; or |
18 | | (ii) not include any annual limit on mental, |
19 | | emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or |
20 | | condition benefits that is less than the |
21 | | applicable annual limit. |
22 | | (2) In the case of a policy that is not described in |
23 | | paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section and that |
24 | | includes no or different annual limits on different |
25 | | categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director |
26 | | shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of |
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1 | | paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is applied |
2 | | to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous, |
3 | | or substance use disorder or condition benefits by |
4 | | substituting for the applicable annual limit an average |
5 | | annual limit that is computed taking into account the |
6 | | weighted average of the annual limits applicable to such |
7 | | categories. |
8 | | (d) With respect to substance use disorders, an insurer |
9 | | shall use policies and procedures for the election and |
10 | | placement of substance abuse treatment drugs on their formulary |
11 | | that are no less favorable to the insured as those policies and |
12 | | procedures the insurer uses for the selection and placement of |
13 | | other drugs and shall follow the expedited coverage |
14 | | determination requirements for substance abuse treatment drugs |
15 | | set forth in Section 45.2 of the Managed Care Reform and |
16 | | Patient Rights Act. |
17 | | (e) (d) This Section shall be interpreted in a manner |
18 | | consistent with all applicable federal parity regulations |
19 | | including, but not limited to, the Mental Health Parity and |
20 | | Addiction Equity Act of 2008 at 78 FR 68240. the interim final |
21 | | regulations promulgated by the U.S. Department of Health and |
22 | | Human Services at 75 FR 5410, including the prohibition against |
23 | | applying a cumulative financial requirement or cumulative |
24 | | quantitative treatment limitation for mental, emotional, |
25 | | nervous, or substance use disorder benefits that accumulates |
26 | | separately from any cumulative financial requirement or |
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1 | | cumulative quantitative treatment limitation established for |
2 | | hospital and medical benefits in the same classification. |
3 | | (f) (e) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of this |
4 | | Section shall not be interpreted to allow the use of lifetime |
5 | | or annual limits otherwise prohibited by State or federal law. |
6 | | (f) This Section shall not apply to individual health |
7 | | insurance coverage as defined in Section 5 of the Illinois |
8 | | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. |
9 | | (g) As used in this Section: |
10 | | "Financial requirement" includes deductibles, copayments, |
11 | | coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximums, but does not include |
12 | | an aggregate lifetime limit or an annual limit subject to |
13 | | subsections (b) and (c). |
14 | | "Treatment limitation" includes limits on benefits based |
15 | | on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of |
16 | | coverage, days in a waiting period, or other similar limits on |
17 | | the scope or duration of treatment. "Treatment limitation" |
18 | | includes both quantitative treatment limitations, which are |
19 | | expressed numerically (such as 50 outpatient visits per year), |
20 | | and nonquantitative treatment limitations, which otherwise |
21 | | limit the scope or duration of treatment. A permanent exclusion |
22 | | of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder shall |
23 | | not be considered a treatment limitation. "Nonquantitative |
24 | | treatment" means those limitations as described under federal |
25 | | regulations (26 CFR 54.9812-1).
|
26 | | (h) The Department of Insurance shall implement the |
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1 | | following education initiatives: |
2 | | (1) By January 1, 2016, the Department shall develop a |
3 | | plan for a Consumer Education Campaign on parity. The |
4 | | Consumer Education Campaign shall focus its efforts |
5 | | throughout the State and include trainings in the northern, |
6 | | southern, and central regions of the State, as defined by |
7 | | the Department, as well as each of the 5 managed care |
8 | | regions of the State as identified by the Department of |
9 | | Healthcare and Family Services. Under this Consumer |
10 | | Education Campaign, the Department shall: (1) by January 1, |
11 | | 2017, provide at least one live training in each region on |
12 | | parity for consumers and providers and one webinar training |
13 | | to be posted on the Department website and (2) establish a |
14 | | consumer hotline to assist consumers in navigating the |
15 | | parity process by March 1, 2016. By January 1, 2018 the |
16 | | Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly on |
17 | | the success of the Consumer Education Campaign, which shall |
18 | | indicate whether additional training is necessary or would |
19 | | be recommended. |
20 | | (2) The Department, in coordination with the |
21 | | Department of Human Services and the Department of |
22 | | Healthcare and Family Services, shall convene a working |
23 | | group of health care insurance carriers, mental health |
24 | | advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, |
25 | | and mental health physician groups for the purpose of |
26 | | discussing issues related to the treatment and coverage of |
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1 | | substance abuse disorders and mental illness. The working |
2 | | group shall meet once before January 1, 2016 and shall meet |
3 | | semiannually thereafter. The Department shall issue an |
4 | | annual report to the General Assembly that includes a list |
5 | | of the health care insurance carriers, mental health |
6 | | advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups, |
7 | | and mental health physician groups that participated in the |
8 | | working group meetings, details on the issues and topics |
9 | | covered, and any legislative recommendations. |
10 | | (i) The Parity Education Fund is created as a special fund |
11 | | in the State treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund for |
12 | | appropriation by the General Assembly to the Department of |
13 | | Insurance shall be used for the purpose of providing financial |
14 | | support of the Consumer Education Campaign. |
15 | | (Source: P.A. 97-437, eff. 8-18-11.)
|
16 | | Section 5-80. The Health Carrier External Review Act is |
17 | | amended by changing Sections 20 and 35 as follows:
|
18 | | (215 ILCS 180/20)
|
19 | | Sec. 20. Notice of right to external review. |
20 | | (a) At the same time the health carrier sends written |
21 | | notice of a covered person's right to appeal a coverage |
22 | | decision upon an adverse determination or a final adverse |
23 | | determination, a health carrier shall notify a covered person, |
24 | | the covered person's authorized representative, if any, and a |
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1 | | covered person's health care provider in writing of the covered |
2 | | person's right to request an external review as provided by |
3 | | this Act. The written notice required shall include the |
4 | | following, or substantially equivalent, language: "We have |
5 | | denied your request for the provision of or payment for a |
6 | | health care service or course of treatment. You have the right |
7 | | to have our decision reviewed by an independent review |
8 | | organization not associated with us by submitting a written |
9 | | request for an external review to the Department of Insurance, |
10 | | Office of Consumer Health Information, 320 West Washington |
11 | | Street, 4th Floor, Springfield, Illinois, 62767.". The written |
12 | | notice shall include a copy of the Department's Request for |
13 | | External Review form. |
14 | | (a-5) The Department may prescribe the form and content of |
15 | | the notice required under this Section. |
16 | | (b) In addition to the notice required in subsection (a), |
17 | | for a notice related to an adverse determination, the health |
18 | | carrier shall include a statement informing the covered person |
19 | | of all of the following: |
20 | | (1) If the covered person has a medical condition where |
21 | | the timeframe for completion of (A) an expedited internal |
22 | | review of an appeal involving an adverse determination, (B) |
23 | | a final adverse determination, or (C) a standard external |
24 | | review as established in this Act, would seriously |
25 | | jeopardize the life or health of the covered person or |
26 | | would jeopardize the covered person's ability to regain |
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1 | | maximum function, then the covered person or the covered |
2 | | person's authorized representative may file a request for |
3 | | an expedited external review. |
4 | | (2) The covered person or the covered person's |
5 | | authorized representative may file an appeal under the |
6 | | health carrier's internal appeal process, but if the health |
7 | | carrier has not issued a written decision to the covered |
8 | | person or the covered person's authorized representative |
9 | | 30 days following the date the covered person or the |
10 | | covered person's authorized representative files an appeal |
11 | | of an adverse determination that involves a concurrent or |
12 | | prospective review request or 60 days following the date |
13 | | the covered person or the covered person's authorized |
14 | | representative files an appeal of an adverse determination |
15 | | that involves a retrospective review request with the |
16 | | health carrier and the covered person or the covered |
17 | | person's authorized representative has not requested or |
18 | | agreed to a delay, then the covered person or the covered |
19 | | person's authorized representative may file a request for |
20 | | external review and shall be considered to have exhausted |
21 | | the health carrier's internal appeal process for purposes |
22 | | of this Act. |
23 | | (3) If the covered person or the covered person's |
24 | | authorized representative filed a request for an expedited |
25 | | internal review of an adverse determination and has not |
26 | | received a decision on such request from the health carrier |
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1 | | within 48 hours, except to the extent the covered person or |
2 | | the covered person's authorized representative requested |
3 | | or agreed to a delay, then the covered person or the |
4 | | covered person's authorized representative may file a |
5 | | request for external review and shall be considered to have |
6 | | exhausted the health carrier's internal appeal process for |
7 | | the purposes of this Act. |
8 | | (4) If an adverse determination concerns a denial of |
9 | | coverage based on a determination that the recommended or |
10 | | requested health care service or treatment is experimental |
11 | | or investigational and the covered person's health care |
12 | | provider certifies in writing that the recommended or |
13 | | requested health care service or treatment that is the |
14 | | subject of the request would be significantly less |
15 | | effective if not promptly initiated, then the covered |
16 | | person or the covered person's authorized representative |
17 | | may request an expedited external review at the same time |
18 | | the covered person or the covered person's authorized |
19 | | representative files a request for an expedited internal |
20 | | appeal involving an adverse determination. The independent |
21 | | review organization assigned to conduct the expedited |
22 | | external review shall determine whether the covered person |
23 | | is required to complete the expedited review of the appeal |
24 | | prior to conducting the expedited external review. |
25 | | (c) In addition to the notice required in subsection (a), |
26 | | for a notice related to a final adverse determination, the |
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1 | | health carrier shall include a statement informing the covered |
2 | | person of all of the following: |
3 | | (1) if the covered person has a medical condition where |
4 | | the timeframe for completion of a standard external review |
5 | | would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the |
6 | | covered person or would jeopardize the covered person's |
7 | | ability to regain maximum function, then the covered person |
8 | | or the covered person's authorized representative may file |
9 | | a request for an expedited external review; or |
10 | | (2) if a final adverse determination concerns an |
11 | | admission, availability of care, continued stay, or health |
12 | | care service for which the covered person received |
13 | | emergency services, but has not been discharged from a |
14 | | facility, then the covered person, or the covered person's |
15 | | authorized representative, may request an expedited |
16 | | external review; or |
17 | | (3) if a final adverse determination concerns a denial |
18 | | of coverage based on a determination that the recommended |
19 | | or requested health care service or treatment is |
20 | | experimental or investigational, and the covered person's |
21 | | health care provider certifies in writing that the |
22 | | recommended or requested health care service or treatment |
23 | | that is the subject of the request would be significantly |
24 | | less effective if not promptly initiated, then the covered |
25 | | person or the covered person's authorized representative |
26 | | may request an expedited external review. |
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1 | | (d) In addition to the information to be provided pursuant |
2 | | to subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, the health |
3 | | carrier shall include a copy of the description of both the |
4 | | required standard and expedited external review procedures. |
5 | | The description shall highlight the external review procedures |
6 | | that give the covered person or the covered person's authorized |
7 | | representative the opportunity to submit additional |
8 | | information, including any forms used to process an external |
9 | | review.
|
10 | | (e) As part of any forms provided under subsection (d) of |
11 | | this Section, the health carrier shall include an authorization |
12 | | form, or other document approved by the Director, by which the |
13 | | covered person, for purposes of conducting an external review |
14 | | under this Act, authorizes the health carrier and the covered |
15 | | person's treating health care provider to disclose protected |
16 | | health information, including medical records, concerning the |
17 | | covered person that is pertinent to the external review, as |
18 | | provided in the Illinois Insurance Code. |
19 | | (Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 97-574, eff. 8-26-11.)
|
20 | | (215 ILCS 180/35)
|
21 | | Sec. 35. Standard external review. |
22 | | (a) Within 4 months after the date of receipt of a notice |
23 | | of an adverse determination or final adverse determination, a |
24 | | covered person or the covered person's authorized |
25 | | representative may file a request for an external review with |
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1 | | the Director. Within one business day after the date of receipt |
2 | | of a request for external review, the Director shall send a |
3 | | copy of the request to the health carrier. |
4 | | (b) Within 5 business days following the date of receipt of |
5 | | the external review request, the health carrier shall complete |
6 | | a preliminary review of the request to determine whether:
|
7 | | (1) the individual is or was a covered person in the |
8 | | health benefit plan at the time the health care service was |
9 | | requested or at the time the health care service was |
10 | | provided; |
11 | | (2) the health care service that is the subject of the |
12 | | adverse determination or the final adverse determination |
13 | | is a covered service under the covered person's health |
14 | | benefit plan, but the health carrier has determined that |
15 | | the health care service is not covered; |
16 | | (3) the covered person has exhausted the health |
17 | | carrier's internal appeal process unless the covered |
18 | | person is not required to exhaust the health carrier's |
19 | | internal appeal process pursuant to this Act; |
20 | | (4) (blank); and |
21 | | (5) the covered person has provided all the information |
22 | | and forms required to process an external review, as |
23 | | specified in this Act. |
24 | | (c) Within one business day after completion of the |
25 | | preliminary review, the health carrier shall notify the |
26 | | Director and covered person and, if applicable, the covered |
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1 | | person's authorized representative in writing whether the |
2 | | request is complete and eligible for external review. If the |
3 | | request: |
4 | | (1) is not complete, the health carrier shall inform |
5 | | the Director and covered person and, if applicable, the |
6 | | covered person's authorized representative in writing and |
7 | | include in the notice what information or materials are |
8 | | required by this Act to make the request complete; or |
9 | | (2) is not eligible for external review, the health |
10 | | carrier shall inform the Director and covered person and, |
11 | | if applicable, the covered person's authorized |
12 | | representative in writing and include in the notice the |
13 | | reasons for its ineligibility.
|
14 | | The Department may specify the form for the health |
15 | | carrier's notice of initial determination under this |
16 | | subsection (c) and any supporting information to be included in |
17 | | the notice. |
18 | | The notice of initial determination of ineligibility shall |
19 | | include a statement informing the covered person and, if |
20 | | applicable, the covered person's authorized representative |
21 | | that a health carrier's initial determination that the external |
22 | | review request is ineligible for review may be appealed to the |
23 | | Director by filing a complaint with the Director. |
24 | | Notwithstanding a health carrier's initial determination |
25 | | that the request is ineligible for external review, the |
26 | | Director may determine that a request is eligible for external |
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1 | | review and require that it be referred for external review. In |
2 | | making such determination, the Director's decision shall be in |
3 | | accordance with the terms of the covered person's health |
4 | | benefit plan, unless such terms are inconsistent with |
5 | | applicable law, and shall be subject to all applicable |
6 | | provisions of this Act. |
7 | | (d) Whenever the Director receives notice that a request is |
8 | | eligible for external review following the preliminary review |
9 | | conducted pursuant to this Section, within one business day |
10 | | after the date of receipt of the notice, the Director shall: |
11 | | (1) assign an independent review organization from the |
12 | | list of approved independent review organizations compiled |
13 | | and maintained by the Director pursuant to this Act and |
14 | | notify the health carrier of the name of the assigned |
15 | | independent review organization; and |
16 | | (2) notify in writing the covered person and, if |
17 | | applicable, the covered person's authorized representative |
18 | | of the request's eligibility and acceptance for external |
19 | | review and the name of the independent review organization. |
20 | | The Director shall include in the notice provided to the |
21 | | covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's |
22 | | authorized representative a statement that the covered person |
23 | | or the covered person's authorized representative may, within 5 |
24 | | business days following the date of receipt of the notice |
25 | | provided pursuant to item (2) of this subsection (d), submit in |
26 | | writing to the assigned independent review organization |
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1 | | additional information that the independent review |
2 | | organization shall consider when conducting the external |
3 | | review. The independent review organization is not required to, |
4 | | but may, accept and consider additional information submitted |
5 | | after 5 business days. |
6 | | (e) The assignment by the Director of an approved |
7 | | independent review organization to conduct an external review |
8 | | in accordance with this Section shall be done on a random basis |
9 | | among those independent review organizations approved by the |
10 | | Director pursuant to this Act. |
11 | | (f) Within 5 business days after the date of receipt of the |
12 | | notice provided pursuant to item (1) of subsection (d) of this |
13 | | Section, the health carrier or its designee utilization review |
14 | | organization shall provide to the assigned independent review |
15 | | organization the documents and any information considered in |
16 | | making the adverse determination or final adverse |
17 | | determination; in such cases, the following provisions shall |
18 | | apply: |
19 | | (1) Except as provided in item (2) of this subsection |
20 | | (f), failure by the health carrier or its utilization |
21 | | review organization to provide the documents and |
22 | | information within the specified time frame shall not delay |
23 | | the conduct of the external review. |
24 | | (2) If the health carrier or its utilization review |
25 | | organization fails to provide the documents and |
26 | | information within the specified time frame, the assigned |
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1 | | independent review organization may terminate the external |
2 | | review and make a decision to reverse the adverse |
3 | | determination or final adverse determination. |
4 | | (3) Within one business day after making the decision |
5 | | to terminate the external review and make a decision to |
6 | | reverse the adverse determination or final adverse |
7 | | determination under item (2) of this subsection (f), the |
8 | | independent review organization shall notify the Director, |
9 | | the health carrier, the covered person and, if applicable, |
10 | | the covered person's authorized representative, of its |
11 | | decision to reverse the adverse determination. |
12 | | (g) Upon receipt of the information from the health carrier |
13 | | or its utilization review organization, the assigned |
14 | | independent review organization shall review all of the |
15 | | information and documents and any other information submitted |
16 | | in writing to the independent review organization by the |
17 | | covered person and the covered person's authorized |
18 | | representative. |
19 | | (h) Upon receipt of any information submitted by the |
20 | | covered person or the covered person's authorized |
21 | | representative, the independent review organization shall |
22 | | forward the information to the health carrier within 1 business |
23 | | day. |
24 | | (1) Upon receipt of the information, if any, the health |
25 | | carrier may reconsider its adverse determination or final |
26 | | adverse determination that is the subject of the external |
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1 | | review.
|
2 | | (2) Reconsideration by the health carrier of its |
3 | | adverse determination or final adverse determination shall |
4 | | not delay or terminate the external review.
|
5 | | (3) The external review may only be terminated if the |
6 | | health carrier decides, upon completion of its |
7 | | reconsideration, to reverse its adverse determination or |
8 | | final adverse determination and provide coverage or |
9 | | payment for the health care service that is the subject of |
10 | | the adverse determination or final adverse determination. |
11 | | In such cases, the following provisions shall apply: |
12 | | (A) Within one business day after making the |
13 | | decision to reverse its adverse determination or final |
14 | | adverse determination, the health carrier shall notify |
15 | | the Director, the covered person and, if applicable, |
16 | | the covered person's authorized representative, and |
17 | | the assigned independent review organization in |
18 | | writing of its decision. |
19 | | (B) Upon notice from the health carrier that the |
20 | | health carrier has made a decision to reverse its |
21 | | adverse determination or final adverse determination, |
22 | | the assigned independent review organization shall |
23 | | terminate the external review. |
24 | | (i) In addition to the documents and information provided |
25 | | by the health carrier or its utilization review organization |
26 | | and the covered person and the covered person's authorized |
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1 | | representative, if any, the independent review organization, |
2 | | to the extent the information or documents are available and |
3 | | the independent review organization considers them |
4 | | appropriate, shall consider the following in reaching a |
5 | | decision: |
6 | | (1) the covered person's pertinent medical records; |
7 | | (2) the covered person's health care provider's |
8 | | recommendation; |
9 | | (3) consulting reports from appropriate health care |
10 | | providers and other documents submitted by the health |
11 | | carrier or its designee utilization review organization, |
12 | | the covered person, the covered person's authorized |
13 | | representative, or the covered person's treating provider; |
14 | | (4) the terms of coverage under the covered person's |
15 | | health benefit plan with the health carrier to ensure that |
16 | | the independent review organization's decision is not |
17 | | contrary to the terms of coverage under the covered |
18 | | person's health benefit plan with the health carrier, |
19 | | unless the terms are inconsistent with applicable law; |
20 | | (5) the most appropriate practice guidelines, which |
21 | | shall include applicable evidence-based standards and may |
22 | | include any other practice guidelines developed by the |
23 | | federal government, national or professional medical |
24 | | societies, boards, and associations; |
25 | | (6) any applicable clinical review criteria developed |
26 | | and used by the health carrier or its designee utilization |
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1 | | review organization; |
2 | | (7) the opinion of the independent review |
3 | | organization's clinical reviewer or reviewers after |
4 | | considering items (1) through (6) of this subsection (i) to |
5 | | the extent the information or documents are available and |
6 | | the clinical reviewer or reviewers considers the |
7 | | information or documents appropriate; and |
8 | | (8) (blank) ; and . |
9 | | (9) in the case of medically necessary determinations |
10 | | for substance use disorders, the patient placement |
11 | | criteria established by the American Society of Addiction |
12 | | Medicine. |
13 | | (j) Within 5 days after the date of receipt of all |
14 | | necessary information, but in no event more than 45 days after |
15 | | the date of receipt of the request for an external review, the |
16 | | assigned independent review organization shall provide written |
17 | | notice of its decision to uphold or reverse the adverse |
18 | | determination or the final adverse determination to the |
19 | | Director, the health carrier, the covered person, and, if |
20 | | applicable, the covered person's authorized representative. In |
21 | | reaching a decision, the assigned independent review |
22 | | organization is not bound by any claim determinations reached |
23 | | prior to the submission of information to the independent |
24 | | review organization. In such cases, the following provisions |
25 | | shall apply: |
26 | | (1) The independent review organization shall include |
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1 | | in the notice: |
2 | | (A) a general description of the reason for the |
3 | | request for external review; |
4 | | (B) the date the independent review organization |
5 | | received the assignment from the Director to conduct |
6 | | the external review; |
7 | | (C) the time period during which the external |
8 | | review was conducted; |
9 | | (D) references to the evidence or documentation, |
10 | | including the evidence-based standards, considered in |
11 | | reaching its decision; |
12 | | (E) the date of its decision; |
13 | | (F) the principal reason or reasons for its |
14 | | decision, including what applicable, if any, |
15 | | evidence-based standards that were a basis for its |
16 | | decision; and
|
17 | | (G) the rationale for its decision. |
18 | | (2) (Blank). |
19 | | (3) (Blank). |
20 | | (4) Upon receipt of a notice of a decision reversing |
21 | | the adverse determination or final adverse determination, |
22 | | the health carrier immediately shall approve the coverage |
23 | | that was the subject of the adverse determination or final |
24 | | adverse determination.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 96-967, eff. 1-1-11; 97-574, |
26 | | eff. 8-26-11.)
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1 | | Section 5-85. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by |
2 | | changing Sections 5-5 and 5-16.8 as follows:
|
3 | | (305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)
|
4 | | Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by |
5 | | rule, shall
determine the quantity and quality of and the rate |
6 | | of reimbursement for the
medical assistance for which
payment |
7 | | will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided,
|
8 | | which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient |
9 | | hospital
services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other |
10 | | laboratory and
X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home |
11 | | services; (5) physicians'
services whether furnished in the |
12 | | office, the patient's home, a
hospital, a skilled nursing home, |
13 | | or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any
other type of remedial |
14 | | care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7)
home health care |
15 | | services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic
|
16 | | services; (10) dental services, including prevention and |
17 | | treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for |
18 | | pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice |
19 | | dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10), |
20 | | "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective |
21 | | procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in |
22 | | the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy |
23 | | and related
services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and |
24 | | prosthetic devices; and
eyeglasses prescribed by a physician |
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1 | | skilled in the diseases of the eye,
or by an optometrist, |
2 | | whichever the person may select; (13) other
diagnostic, |
3 | | screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including |
4 | | to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or |
5 | | treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or |
6 | | co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is |
7 | | determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and |
8 | | evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and |
9 | | adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening, |
10 | | assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that |
11 | | includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a |
12 | | referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular |
13 | | instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14)
|
14 | | transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary; |
15 | | (15) medical
treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined |
16 | | in
Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency |
17 | | Treatment Act, for
injuries sustained as a result of the sexual |
18 | | assault, including
examinations and laboratory tests to |
19 | | discover evidence which may be used in
criminal proceedings |
20 | | arising from the sexual assault; (16) the
diagnosis and |
21 | | treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17)
any other medical |
22 | | care, and any other type of remedial care recognized
under the |
23 | | laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced
|
24 | | miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a |
25 | | physician,
such procedures are necessary for the preservation |
26 | | of the life of the
woman seeking such treatment, or except an |
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1 | | induced premature birth
intended to produce a live viable child |
2 | | and such procedure is necessary
for the health of the mother or |
3 | | her unborn child. The Illinois Department,
by rule, shall |
4 | | prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance
to |
5 | | anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician |
6 | | has been
found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a |
7 | | wilful and wanton
manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at |
8 | | the time such abortion
procedure was performed. The term "any |
9 | | other type of remedial care" shall
include nursing care and |
10 | | nursing home service for persons who rely on
treatment by |
11 | | spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.
|
12 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a |
13 | | comprehensive
tobacco use cessation program that includes |
14 | | purchasing prescription drugs or
prescription medical devices |
15 | | approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall
be covered |
16 | | under the medical assistance
program under this Article for |
17 | | persons who are otherwise eligible for
assistance under this |
18 | | Article.
|
19 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the |
20 | | Illinois
Department may not require, as a condition of payment |
21 | | for any laboratory
test authorized under this Article, that a |
22 | | physician's handwritten signature
appear on the laboratory |
23 | | test order form. The Illinois Department may,
however, impose |
24 | | other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test
order |
25 | | documentation.
|
26 | | Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the |
|
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1 | | Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department |
2 | | shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a |
3 | | vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals |
4 | | enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure |
5 | | that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the |
6 | | medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid |
7 | | managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a |
8 | | school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under |
9 | | this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only |
10 | | individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims |
11 | | for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients |
12 | | of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code, |
13 | | the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL |
14 | | KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the |
15 | | Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for |
16 | | payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the |
17 | | MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses. |
18 | | On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and |
19 | | Family Services may provide the following services to
persons
|
20 | | eligible for assistance under this Article who are |
21 | | participating in
education, training or employment programs |
22 | | operated by the Department of Human
Services as successor to |
23 | | the Department of Public Aid:
|
24 | | (1) dental services provided by or under the |
25 | | supervision of a dentist; and
|
26 | | (2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the |
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1 | | diseases of the
eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the |
2 | | person may select.
|
3 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and |
4 | | subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to |
5 | | allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no |
6 | | cost to render dental services through an enrolled |
7 | | not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally |
8 | | enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance |
9 | | program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public |
10 | | health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other |
11 | | enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through |
12 | | which dental services covered under this Section are performed. |
13 | | The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims |
14 | | for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under |
15 | | this provision. |
16 | | The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and |
17 | | classify the
medical services to be provided only in accordance |
18 | | with the classes of
persons designated in Section 5-2.
|
19 | | The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must |
20 | | provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based |
21 | | elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the |
22 | | diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii) |
23 | | short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued |
24 | | a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental |
25 | | formula is medically necessary.
|
26 | | The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of, |
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1 | | and shall
authorize payment for, screening by low-dose |
2 | | mammography for the presence of
occult breast cancer for women |
3 | | 35 years of age or older who are eligible
for medical |
4 | | assistance under this Article, as follows: |
5 | | (A) A baseline
mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of |
6 | | age.
|
7 | | (B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or |
8 | | older. |
9 | | (C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered |
10 | | medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for |
11 | | women under 40 years of age and having a family history of |
12 | | breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, |
13 | | positive genetic testing, or other risk factors. |
14 | | (D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire |
15 | | breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates |
16 | | heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically |
17 | | necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice |
18 | | medicine in all of its branches. |
19 | | All screenings
shall
include a physical breast exam, |
20 | | instruction on self-examination and
information regarding the |
21 | | frequency of self-examination and its value as a
preventative |
22 | | tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography" |
23 | | means
the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment |
24 | | dedicated specifically
for mammography, including the x-ray |
25 | | tube, filter, compression device,
and image receptor, with an |
26 | | average radiation exposure delivery
of less than one rad per |
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1 | | breast for 2 views of an average size breast.
The term also |
2 | | includes digital mammography.
|
3 | | On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a |
4 | | quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be |
5 | | reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same |
6 | | rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased |
7 | | reimbursement for digital mammography. |
8 | | The Department shall convene an expert panel including |
9 | | representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography |
10 | | facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish |
11 | | quality standards. |
12 | | Subject to federal approval, the Department shall |
13 | | establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally |
14 | | qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics. |
15 | | These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other |
16 | | hospital-based mammography facilities. |
17 | | The Department shall establish a methodology to remind |
18 | | women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but |
19 | | who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18 |
20 | | months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. |
21 | | The Department shall establish a performance goal for |
22 | | primary care providers with respect to their female patients |
23 | | over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance |
24 | | goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the |
25 | | form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers |
26 | | who meet that goal. |
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1 | | The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or |
2 | | patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast |
3 | | cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program |
4 | | in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality |
5 | | related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall |
6 | | be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall |
7 | | be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the |
8 | | pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes |
9 | | and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared |
10 | | to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot |
11 | | program. |
12 | | Any medical or health care provider shall immediately |
13 | | recommend, to
any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal |
14 | | services and is suspected
of drug abuse or is addicted as |
15 | | defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse
and Dependency |
16 | | Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider
|
17 | | licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed
|
18 | | hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services. |
19 | | The Department of Healthcare and Family Services
shall assure |
20 | | coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or
|
21 | | addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the |
22 | | Illinois Medicaid
Program in conjunction with the Department of |
23 | | Human Services.
|
24 | | All medical providers providing medical assistance to |
25 | | pregnant women
under this Code shall receive information from |
26 | | the Department on the
availability of services under the Drug |
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1 | | Free Families with a Future or any
comparable program providing |
2 | | case management services for addicted women,
including |
3 | | information on appropriate referrals for other social services
|
4 | | that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment |
5 | | for addiction.
|
6 | | The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the |
7 | | Departments of Human
Services (as successor to the Department |
8 | | of Alcoholism and Substance
Abuse) and Public Health, through a |
9 | | public awareness campaign, may
provide information concerning |
10 | | treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and
addiction, prenatal |
11 | | health care, and other pertinent programs directed at
reducing |
12 | | the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of |
13 | | medical
assistance.
|
14 | | Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services |
15 | | nor the Department of Human
Services shall sanction the |
16 | | recipient solely on the basis of
her substance abuse.
|
17 | | The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations |
18 | | governing
the dispensing of health services under this Article |
19 | | as it shall deem
appropriate. The Department
should
seek the |
20 | | advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by
|
21 | | the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of |
22 | | providing regular
advice on policy and administrative matters, |
23 | | information dissemination and
educational activities for |
24 | | medical and health care providers, and
consistency in |
25 | | procedures to the Illinois Department.
|
26 | | The Illinois Department may develop and contract with |
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1 | | Partnerships of
medical providers to arrange medical services |
2 | | for persons eligible under
Section 5-2 of this Code. |
3 | | Implementation of this Section may be by
demonstration projects |
4 | | in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall
be |
5 | | represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule, |
6 | | shall
develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships. |
7 | | Nothing in this
Section shall be construed to require that the |
8 | | sponsor organization be a
medical organization.
|
9 | | The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with |
10 | | medical
providers for physician services, inpatient and |
11 | | outpatient hospital care,
home health services, treatment for |
12 | | alcoholism and substance abuse, and
other services determined |
13 | | necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for
delivery by |
14 | | Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and
|
15 | | obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse |
16 | | medical services
delivered by Partnership providers to clients |
17 | | in target areas according to
provisions of this Article and the |
18 | | Illinois Health Finance Reform Act,
except that:
|
19 | | (1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and |
20 | | providing certain
services, which shall be determined by |
21 | | the Illinois Department, to persons
in areas covered by the |
22 | | Partnership may receive an additional surcharge
for such |
23 | | services.
|
24 | | (2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate |
25 | | financial
incentives to encourage the development of |
26 | | Partnerships and the efficient
delivery of medical care.
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1 | | (3) Persons receiving medical services through |
2 | | Partnerships may receive
medical and case management |
3 | | services above the level usually offered
through the |
4 | | medical assistance program.
|
5 | | Medical providers shall be required to meet certain |
6 | | qualifications to
participate in Partnerships to ensure the |
7 | | delivery of high quality medical
services. These |
8 | | qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois
|
9 | | Department and may be higher than qualifications for |
10 | | participation in the
medical assistance program. Partnership |
11 | | sponsors may prescribe reasonable
additional qualifications |
12 | | for participation by medical providers, only with
the prior |
13 | | written approval of the Illinois Department.
|
14 | | Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of |
15 | | practitioners,
hospitals, and other providers of medical |
16 | | services by clients.
In order to ensure patient freedom of |
17 | | choice, the Illinois Department shall
immediately promulgate |
18 | | all rules and take all other necessary actions so that
provided |
19 | | services may be accessed from therapeutically certified |
20 | | optometrists
to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric |
21 | | Practice Act of 1987 without
discriminating between service |
22 | | providers.
|
23 | | The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United |
24 | | States Health
Care Financing Administration to allow for the |
25 | | implementation of
Partnerships under this Section.
|
26 | | The Illinois Department shall require health care |
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1 | | providers to maintain
records that document the medical care |
2 | | and services provided to recipients
of Medical Assistance under |
3 | | this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not |
4 | | less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by |
5 | | applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that |
6 | | if an audit is initiated within the required retention period |
7 | | then the records must be retained until the audit is completed |
8 | | and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall
|
9 | | require health care providers to make available, when |
10 | | authorized by the
patient, in writing, the medical records in a |
11 | | timely fashion to other
health care providers who are treating |
12 | | or serving persons eligible for
Medical Assistance under this |
13 | | Article. All dispensers of medical services
shall be required |
14 | | to maintain and retain business and professional records
|
15 | | sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope, |
16 | | details and
receipt of the health care provided to persons |
17 | | eligible for medical
assistance under this Code, in accordance |
18 | | with regulations promulgated by
the Illinois Department. The |
19 | | rules and regulations shall require that proof
of the receipt |
20 | | of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and
|
21 | | eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany |
22 | | each claim
for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such |
23 | | medical services.
No such claims for reimbursement shall be |
24 | | approved for payment by the Illinois
Department without such |
25 | | proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department
shall have put |
26 | | into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment
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1 | | audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed |
2 | | adequate by
the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs, |
3 | | dentures, prosthetic
devices and eyeglasses for which payment |
4 | | is being made are actually being
received by eligible |
5 | | recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of
this |
6 | | amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish |
7 | | a
current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices |
8 | | and any
other items recognized as medical equipment and |
9 | | supplies reimbursable under
this Article and shall update such |
10 | | list on a quarterly basis, except that
the acquisition costs of |
11 | | all prescription drugs shall be updated no
less frequently than |
12 | | every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.
|
13 | | The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall |
14 | | require
that a written statement including the required opinion |
15 | | of a physician
shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for |
16 | | abortions, or induced
miscarriages or premature births. This |
17 | | statement shall indicate what
procedures were used in providing |
18 | | such medical services.
|
19 | | Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois |
20 | | Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 , (the |
21 | | effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to |
22 | | permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home |
23 | | Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement |
24 | | purposes. Following development of these procedures, the |
25 | | Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the |
26 | | viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary |
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1 | | operational or structural changes to its information |
2 | | technology platforms are implemented. |
3 | | Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois |
4 | | Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 ( the |
5 | | effective date of Public Act 98-963) this amendatory Act of the |
6 | | 98th General Assembly , establish procedures to permit ID/DD |
7 | | facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act to |
8 | | submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes. |
9 | | Following development of these procedures, the Department |
10 | | shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the |
11 | | new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or |
12 | | structural changes to its information technology platforms are |
13 | | implemented. |
14 | | The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of |
15 | | medical
services, other than an individual practitioner or |
16 | | group of practitioners,
desiring to participate in the Medical |
17 | | Assistance program
established under this Article to disclose |
18 | | all financial, beneficial,
ownership, equity, surety or other |
19 | | interests in any and all firms,
corporations, partnerships, |
20 | | associations, business enterprises, joint
ventures, agencies, |
21 | | institutions or other legal entities providing any
form of |
22 | | health care services in this State under this Article.
|
23 | | The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of |
24 | | medical
services desiring to participate in the medical |
25 | | assistance program
established under this Article disclose, |
26 | | under such terms and conditions as
the Illinois Department may |
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1 | | by rule establish, all inquiries from clients
and attorneys |
2 | | regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which
|
3 | | inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens |
4 | | for the
Illinois Department.
|
5 | | Enrollment of a vendor
shall be
subject to a provisional |
6 | | period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period |
7 | | of conditional enrollment, the Department may
terminate the |
8 | | vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the |
9 | | vendor from, the medical assistance
program without cause. |
10 | | Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or |
11 | | disenrollment is not subject to the
Department's hearing |
12 | | process.
However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without |
13 | | penalty.
|
14 | | The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional |
15 | | enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of |
16 | | the vendor. |
17 | | Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment |
18 | | period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be |
19 | | subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on |
20 | | the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the |
21 | | category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall |
22 | | establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review, |
23 | | which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and |
24 | | financial background checks; fingerprinting; license, |
25 | | certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or |
26 | | unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit |
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1 | | reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other |
2 | | screening as required by federal or State law. |
3 | | The Department shall define or specify the following: (i) |
4 | | by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for |
5 | | each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of |
6 | | screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under |
7 | | federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice, |
8 | | the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for |
9 | | each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the |
10 | | hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category |
11 | | of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during |
12 | | the conditional enrollment period. |
13 | | To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's |
14 | | payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a |
15 | | resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received |
16 | | by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no |
17 | | later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which |
18 | | medical goods or services were provided, with the following |
19 | | exceptions: |
20 | | (1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in |
21 | | process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period |
22 | | shall not begin until the date on the written notice from |
23 | | the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is |
24 | | complete. |
25 | | (2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois |
26 | | Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries |
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1 | | which result in an inability to receive, process, or |
2 | | adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin |
3 | | until the provider has been notified of the error. |
4 | | (3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois |
5 | | Department initiates the monthly billing process. |
6 | | (4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of |
7 | | local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000 |
8 | | when local government funds finance federal participation |
9 | | for claims payments. |
10 | | For claims for services rendered during a period for which |
11 | | a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be |
12 | | filed within 180 days after the Department determines the |
13 | | applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois |
14 | | Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted |
15 | | to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final |
16 | | adjudication by the primary payer. |
17 | | In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of |
18 | | receipt by the facility of required prescreening information, |
19 | | data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical |
20 | | Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient |
21 | | Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and |
22 | | within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required |
23 | | prescreening information, admission documents shall be |
24 | | submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to |
25 | | the Department of Human Services using required admission |
26 | | forms. Effective September
1, 2014, admission documents, |
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1 | | including all prescreening
information, must be submitted |
2 | | through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an |
3 | | accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify |
4 | | timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been |
5 | | completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection |
6 | | are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the |
7 | | admission transaction has been completed. |
8 | | Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance |
9 | | with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for |
10 | | payment under the medical assistance program, and the State |
11 | | shall have no liability for payment of those claims. |
12 | | To the extent consistent with applicable information and |
13 | | privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal |
14 | | agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department |
15 | | access to confidential and other information and data necessary |
16 | | to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other |
17 | | Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not |
18 | | limited to: information pertaining to licensure; |
19 | | certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage |
20 | | reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income; |
21 | | employment; supplemental security income; social security |
22 | | numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the |
23 | | National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency |
24 | | exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency; |
25 | | corporate information; and death records. |
26 | | The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with |
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1 | | State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into |
2 | | agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which |
3 | | such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for |
4 | | medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight. |
5 | | The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with |
6 | | other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with |
7 | | applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and |
8 | | effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the |
9 | | extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois |
10 | | Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and |
11 | | departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with |
12 | | federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to: |
13 | | the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the |
14 | | Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services; |
15 | | and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. |
16 | | Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department |
17 | | shall set forth a request for information to identify the |
18 | | benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit |
19 | | claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing |
20 | | and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or |
21 | | rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent |
22 | | adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider |
23 | | data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii) |
24 | | clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or |
25 | | post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case |
26 | | management system with link analysis. Such a request for |
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1 | | information shall not be considered as a request for proposal |
2 | | or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to |
3 | | take any action or acquire any products or services. |
4 | | The Illinois Department shall establish policies, |
5 | | procedures,
standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition, |
6 | | repair and replacement
of orthotic and prosthetic devices and |
7 | | durable medical equipment. Such
rules shall provide, but not be |
8 | | limited to, the following services: (1)
immediate repair or |
9 | | replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental, |
10 | | lease, purchase or lease-purchase of
durable medical equipment |
11 | | in a cost-effective manner, taking into
consideration the |
12 | | recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the
recipient's |
13 | | needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such
|
14 | | equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a |
15 | | recipient to temporarily acquire and
use alternative or |
16 | | substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or
|
17 | | replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized |
18 | | for such
recipient by the Department.
|
19 | | The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home |
20 | | prescreening
project, written inter-agency agreements with the |
21 | | Department of Human
Services and the Department on Aging, to |
22 | | effect the following: (i) intake
procedures and common |
23 | | eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving
|
24 | | non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and |
25 | | development of
non-institutional services in areas of the State |
26 | | where they are not currently
available or are undeveloped; and |
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1 | | (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to |
2 | | federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the |
3 | | determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants |
4 | | for institutional and home and community-based long term care; |
5 | | if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department |
6 | | may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement |
7 | | utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to |
8 | | effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and |
9 | | (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care |
10 | | eligibility criteria for institutional and home and |
11 | | community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October |
12 | | 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care |
13 | | providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an |
14 | | admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the |
15 | | long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level |
16 | | of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a |
17 | | workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and |
18 | | stakeholders representing the institutional and home and |
19 | | community-based long term care interests. This Section shall |
20 | | not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of |
21 | | care eligibility criteria for community-based services in |
22 | | circumstances where federal approval has been granted.
|
23 | | The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in |
24 | | cooperation
with other State Departments and agencies and in |
25 | | compliance with
applicable federal laws and regulations, |
26 | | appropriate and effective
systems of health care evaluation and |
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1 | | programs for monitoring of
utilization of health care services |
2 | | and facilities, as it affects
persons eligible for medical |
3 | | assistance under this Code.
|
4 | | The Illinois Department shall report annually to the |
5 | | General Assembly,
no later than the second Friday in April of |
6 | | 1979 and each year
thereafter, in regard to:
|
7 | | (a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of |
8 | | medical services by
public aid recipients;
|
9 | | (b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of |
10 | | the various medical
services by medical vendors;
|
11 | | (c) current rate structures and proposed changes in |
12 | | those rate structures
for the various medical vendors; and
|
13 | | (d) efforts at utilization review and control by the |
14 | | Illinois Department.
|
15 | | The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years |
16 | | ending on the June
30 prior to the report. The report shall |
17 | | include suggested legislation
for consideration by the General |
18 | | Assembly. The filing of one copy of the
report with the |
19 | | Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy
with |
20 | | the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the |
21 | | President,
one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with |
22 | | the Secretary of the
Senate, one copy with the Legislative |
23 | | Research Unit, and such additional
copies
with the State |
24 | | Government Report Distribution Center for the General
Assembly |
25 | | as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State
|
26 | | Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this |
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1 | | Section.
|
2 | | Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if |
3 | | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance |
4 | | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure |
5 | | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on |
6 | | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for |
7 | | whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
8 | | On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any |
9 | | rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter |
10 | | any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of |
11 | | reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with |
12 | | Section 5-5e. |
13 | | Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost |
14 | | effective
alternative to renal dialysis when medically |
15 | | necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of |
16 | | this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall |
17 | | cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage |
18 | | renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical |
19 | | benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of |
20 | | this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial |
21 | | requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under |
22 | | Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney |
23 | | transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal |
24 | | dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under |
25 | | this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the |
26 | | Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services |
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1 | | under this Section shall be limited to services associated with |
2 | | kidney transplantation. |
3 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the |
4 | | contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of |
5 | | medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of |
6 | | alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be |
7 | | covered under both fee for service and managed care medical |
8 | | assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for |
9 | | medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject |
10 | | to any (1) utilization control, other than those established |
11 | | under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient |
12 | | placement criteria,
(2) prior authorization mandate, or (3) |
13 | | lifetime restriction limit
mandate. |
14 | | On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for |
15 | | the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication |
16 | | product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees related |
17 | | to the dispensing and administration of the opioid antagonist, |
18 | | shall be covered under the medical assistance program for |
19 | | persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under |
20 | | this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" |
21 | | means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or |
22 | | inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors, |
23 | | including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any |
24 | | other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug |
25 | | Administration. |
26 | | (Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689, |
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1 | | eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; 98-104, Article 9, Section |
2 | | 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff. |
3 | | 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, |
4 | | eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14; |
5 | | revised 10-2-14.)
|
6 | | (305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)
|
7 | | Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical |
8 | | assistance program
shall
(i) provide the post-mastectomy care |
9 | | benefits required to be covered by a policy of
accident and |
10 | | health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required
|
11 | | under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, and 356z.6 of the |
12 | | Illinois
Insurance Code and (ii) be subject to the provisions |
13 | | of Sections 356z.19 , and 364.01 , 370c, and 370c.1 of the |
14 | | Illinois
Insurance Code.
|
15 | | On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any |
16 | | rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter |
17 | | any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of |
18 | | reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with |
19 | | Section 5-5e. |
20 | | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)
|
21 | | Section 5-88. The Environmental Protection Act is amended |
22 | | by changing Section 22.55 as follows:
|
23 | | (415 ILCS 5/22.55) |
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1 | | Sec. 22.55. Household Waste Drop-off Points. |
2 | | (a) Findings; Purpose and Intent. |
3 | | (1) The General Assembly finds that protection of human |
4 | | health and the environment can be enhanced if certain |
5 | | commonly generated household wastes are managed separately |
6 | | from the general household waste stream. |
7 | | (2) The purpose of this Section is to provide, to the |
8 | | extent allowed under federal law, a method for managing |
9 | | certain types of household waste separately from the |
10 | | general household waste stream. |
11 | | (b) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section: |
12 | | "Controlled substance" means a controlled substance as |
13 | | defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. |
14 | | "Household waste" means waste generated from a single |
15 | | residence or multiple residences. |
16 | | "Household waste drop-off point" means the portion of a |
17 | | site or facility used solely for the receipt and temporary |
18 | | storage of household waste. |
19 | | "One-day household waste collection event" means a |
20 | | household waste drop-off point approved by the Agency under |
21 | | subsection (d) of this Section. |
22 | | "Personal care product" means an item other than a |
23 | | pharmaceutical product that is consumed or applied by an |
24 | | individual for personal health, hygiene, or cosmetic |
25 | | reasons. Personal care products include, but are not |
26 | | limited to, items used in bathing, dressing, or grooming. |
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1 | | "Pharmaceutical product" means medicine or a product |
2 | | containing medicine. A pharmaceutical product may be sold |
3 | | by prescription or over the counter. "Pharmaceutical |
4 | | product" does not include (i) medicine that contains a |
5 | | radioactive component or a product that contains a |
6 | | radioactive component or (ii) a controlled substance . |
7 | | (c) Except as otherwise provided in Agency rules, the |
8 | | following requirements apply to each household waste drop-off |
9 | | point other than a one-day household waste collection event: |
10 | | (1) A household waste drop-off point must not accept |
11 | | waste other than the following types of household waste: |
12 | | pharmaceutical products, personal care products, batteries |
13 | | other than lead-acid batteries, paints, automotive fluids, |
14 | | compact fluorescent lightbulbs, mercury thermometers, and |
15 | | mercury thermostats. A household waste drop-off point may |
16 | | accept controlled substances in accordance with federal |
17 | | law. |
18 | | (2) Except as provided in subdivision (c)(2) of this |
19 | | Section, household waste drop-off points must be located at |
20 | | a site or facility where the types of products accepted at |
21 | | the household waste drop-off point are lawfully sold, |
22 | | distributed, or dispensed. For example, household waste |
23 | | drop-off points that accept prescription pharmaceutical |
24 | | products must be located at a site or facility where |
25 | | prescription pharmaceutical products are sold, |
26 | | distributed, or dispensed. |
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1 | | (A) Subdivision (c)(2) of this Section does not |
2 | | apply to household waste drop-off points operated by a |
3 | | government or school entity, or by an association or |
4 | | other organization of government or school entities. |
5 | | (B) Household waste drop-off points that accept |
6 | | mercury thermometers can be located at any site or |
7 | | facility where non-mercury thermometers are sold, |
8 | | distributed, or dispensed. |
9 | | (C) Household waste drop-off points that accept |
10 | | mercury thermostats can be located at any site or |
11 | | facility where non-mercury thermostats are sold, |
12 | | distributed, or dispensed. |
13 | | (3) The location of acceptance for each type of waste |
14 | | accepted at the household waste drop-off point must be |
15 | | clearly identified. Locations where pharmaceutical |
16 | | products are accepted must also include a copy of the sign |
17 | | required under subsection (j) of this Section. |
18 | | (4) Household waste must be accepted only from private |
19 | | individuals. Waste must not be accepted from other persons, |
20 | | including, but not limited to, owners and operators of |
21 | | rented or leased residences where the household waste was |
22 | | generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial, |
23 | | industrial, agricultural, and government operations or |
24 | | entities. |
25 | | (5) If more than one type of household waste is |
26 | | accepted, each type of household waste must be managed |
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1 | | separately prior to its packaging for off-site transfer. |
2 | | (6) Household waste must not be stored for longer than |
3 | | 90 days after its receipt, except as otherwise approved by |
4 | | the Agency in writing. |
5 | | (7) Household waste must be managed in a manner that |
6 | | protects against releases of the waste, prevents |
7 | | nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the |
8 | | environment. Household waste must also be properly secured |
9 | | to prevent unauthorized public access to the waste, |
10 | | including, but not limited to, preventing access to the |
11 | | waste during the non-business hours of the site or facility |
12 | | on which the household waste drop-off point is located. |
13 | | Containers in which pharmaceutical products are collected |
14 | | must be clearly marked "No Controlled Substances" , unless |
15 | | the household waste drop-off point accepts controlled |
16 | | substances in accordance with federal law . |
17 | | (8) Management of the household waste must be limited |
18 | | to the following: (i) acceptance of the waste, (ii) |
19 | | temporary storage of the waste prior to transfer, and (iii) |
20 | | off-site transfer of the waste and packaging for off-site |
21 | | transfer. |
22 | | (9) Off-site transfer of the household waste must |
23 | | comply with federal and State laws and regulations. |
24 | | (d) One-day household waste collection events. To further |
25 | | aid in the collection of certain household wastes, the Agency |
26 | | may approve the operation of one-day household waste collection |
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1 | | events. The Agency shall not approve a one-day household waste |
2 | | collection event at the same site or facility for more than one |
3 | | day each calendar quarter. Requests for approval must be |
4 | | submitted on forms prescribed by the Agency. The Agency must |
5 | | issue its approval in writing, and it may impose conditions as |
6 | | necessary to protect human health and the environment and to |
7 | | otherwise accomplish the purposes of this Act. One-day |
8 | | household waste collection events must be operated in |
9 | | accordance with the Agency's approval, including all |
10 | | conditions contained in the approval. The following |
11 | | requirements apply to all one-day household waste collection |
12 | | events, in addition to the conditions contained in the Agency's |
13 | | approval: |
14 | | (1) Waste accepted at the event must be limited to |
15 | | household waste and must not include garbage, landscape |
16 | | waste, controlled substances, or other waste excluded by |
17 | | the Agency in the Agency's approval or any conditions |
18 | | contained in the approval. A one-day household waste |
19 | | collection event may accept controlled substances in |
20 | | accordance with federal law. |
21 | | (2) Household waste must be accepted only from private |
22 | | individuals. Waste must not be accepted from other persons, |
23 | | including, but not limited to, owners and operators of |
24 | | rented or leased residences where the household waste was |
25 | | generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial, |
26 | | industrial, agricultural, and government operations or |
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1 | | entities. |
2 | | (3) Household waste must be managed in a manner that |
3 | | protects against releases of the waste, prevents |
4 | | nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the |
5 | | environment. Household waste must also be properly secured |
6 | | to prevent public access to the waste, including, but not |
7 | | limited to, preventing access to the waste during the |
8 | | event's non-business hours. |
9 | | (4) Management of the household waste must be limited |
10 | | to the following: (i) acceptance of the waste, (ii) |
11 | | temporary storage of the waste before transfer, and (iii) |
12 | | off-site transfer of the waste or packaging for off-site |
13 | | transfer. |
14 | | (5) Except as otherwise approved by the Agency, all |
15 | | household waste received at the collection event must be |
16 | | transferred off-site by the end of the day following the |
17 | | collection event. |
18 | | (6) The transfer and ultimate disposition of household |
19 | | waste received at the collection event must comply with the |
20 | | Agency's approval, including all conditions contained in |
21 | | the approval. |
22 | | (e) The Agency may adopt rules governing the operation of |
23 | | household waste drop-off points other than one-day household |
24 | | waste collection events. Those rules must be designed to |
25 | | protect against releases of waste to the environment, prevent |
26 | | nuisances, and otherwise protect human health and the |
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1 | | environment. As necessary to address different circumstances, |
2 | | the regulations may contain different requirements for |
3 | | different types of household waste and different types of |
4 | | household waste drop-off points, and the regulations may modify |
5 | | the requirements set forth in subsection (c) of this Section. |
6 | | The regulations may include, but are not limited to, the |
7 | | following: (i) identification of additional types of household |
8 | | waste that can be collected at household waste drop-off points, |
9 | | (ii) identification of the different types of household wastes |
10 | | that can be received at different household waste drop-off |
11 | | points, (iii) the maximum amounts of each type of household |
12 | | waste that can be stored at household waste drop-off points at |
13 | | any one time, and (iv) the maximum time periods each type of |
14 | | household waste can be stored at household waste drop-off |
15 | | points. |
16 | | (f) Prohibitions. |
17 | | (1) Except as authorized in a permit issued by the |
18 | | Agency, no person shall cause or allow the operation of a |
19 | | household waste drop-off point other than a one-day |
20 | | household waste collection event in violation of this |
21 | | Section or any regulations adopted under this Section. |
22 | | (2) No person shall cause or allow the operation of a |
23 | | one-day household waste collection event in violation of |
24 | | this Section or the Agency's approval issued under |
25 | | subsection (d) of this Section, including all conditions |
26 | | contained in the approval. |
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1 | | (g) Permit exemptions. |
2 | | (1) No permit is required under subdivision (d)(1) of |
3 | | Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a household |
4 | | waste drop-off point other than a one-day household waste |
5 | | collection event if the household waste drop-off point is |
6 | | operated in accordance with this Section and all |
7 | | regulations adopted under this Section. |
8 | | (2) No permit is required under subdivision (d)(1) of |
9 | | Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a one-day |
10 | | household waste collection event if the event is operated |
11 | | in accordance with this Section and the Agency's approval |
12 | | issued under subsection (d) of this Section, including all |
13 | | conditions contained in the approval, or for the operation |
14 | | of a household waste collection event by the Agency. |
15 | | (h) This Section does not apply to the following: |
16 | | (1) Persons accepting household waste that they are |
17 | | authorized to accept under a permit issued by the Agency. |
18 | | (2) Sites or facilities operated pursuant to an |
19 | | intergovernmental agreement entered into with the Agency |
20 | | under Section 22.16b(d) of this Act. |
21 | | (i) The Agency, in consultation with the Department of |
22 | | Public Health, must develop and implement a public information |
23 | | program regarding household waste drop-off points that accept |
24 | | pharmaceutical products , as well as mail-back programs |
25 | | authorized under federal law . |
26 | | (j) The Agency must develop a sign that provides |
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1 | | information on the proper disposal of unused pharmaceutical |
2 | | products. The sign shall include information on approved |
3 | | drop-off sites or list a website where updated information on |
4 | | drop-off sites can be accessed. The sign shall also include |
5 | | information on mail-back programs and self-disposal. The |
6 | | Agency shall make a copy of the sign available for downloading |
7 | | from its website. Every pharmacy shall display the sign in the |
8 | | area where medications are dispensed and shall also display any |
9 | | signs the Agency develops regarding local take-back programs or |
10 | | household waste collection events. These signs shall be no |
11 | | larger than 8.5 inches by 11 inches. |
12 | | (k) If an entity chooses to participate as a household |
13 | | waste drop-off point, then it must follow the provisions of |
14 | | this Section and any rules the Agency may adopt governing |
15 | | household waste drop-off points.
|
16 | | (l) The Agency shall establish, by rule, a statewide |
17 | | medication take-back program by June 1, 2016 to ensure that |
18 | | there are pharmaceutical product disposal options regularly |
19 | | available for residents across the State. No private entity may |
20 | | be compelled to serve as or fund a take-back location or |
21 | | program. Medications collected and disposed of under the |
22 | | program shall include controlled substances approved for |
23 | | collection by federal law. All medications collected and |
24 | | disposed of under the program must be managed in accordance |
25 | | with all applicable federal and State laws and regulations. The |
26 | | Agency shall issue a report to the General Assembly by June 1, |
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1 | | 2019 detailing the amount of pharmaceutical products annually |
2 | | collected under the program, as well as any legislative |
3 | | recommendations. |
4 | | (Source: P.A. 96-121, eff. 8-4-09.)
|
5 | | Section 5-90. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by |
6 | | changing Section 29B-1 as follows:
|
7 | | (720 ILCS 5/29B-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29B-1)
|
8 | | Sec. 29B-1. (a) A person commits the offense of money |
9 | | laundering:
|
10 | | (1) when, knowing that the property involved in a |
11 | | financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form |
12 | | of unlawful activity, he or she conducts or attempts to |
13 | | conduct such a financial transaction which in fact involves |
14 | | criminally derived property: |
15 | | (A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of |
16 | | the unlawful activity from which the criminally |
17 | | derived property was obtained; or |
18 | | (B) where he or she knows or reasonably should know |
19 | | that the financial transaction is designed in whole or |
20 | | in part: |
21 | | (i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the |
22 | | location, the source, the ownership or the control |
23 | | of the criminally derived property; or |
24 | | (ii) to avoid a transaction reporting |
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1 | | requirement under State law; or |
2 | | (1.5) when he or she transports, transmits, or |
3 | | transfers, or attempts to transport, transmit, or transfer |
4 | | a monetary instrument: |
5 | | (A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of |
6 | | the unlawful activity from which the criminally |
7 | | derived property was obtained; or |
8 | | (B) knowing, or having reason to know, that the |
9 | | financial transaction is designed in whole or in part: |
10 | | (i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the |
11 | | location, the source, the ownership or the control |
12 | | of the criminally derived property; or |
13 | | (ii) to avoid a transaction reporting |
14 | | requirement under State law;
or
|
15 | | (2) when, with the intent to:
|
16 | | (A) promote the carrying on of a specified criminal |
17 | | activity as defined
in this Article; or
|
18 | | (B) conceal or disguise the nature, location, |
19 | | source, ownership, or
control of property believed to |
20 | | be the proceeds of a specified criminal
activity as |
21 | | defined by subdivision (b)(6); or |
22 | | (C) avoid a transaction reporting requirement |
23 | | under State law,
|
24 | | he or she conducts or attempts to conduct a financial |
25 | | transaction
involving property he or she believes to be the |
26 | | proceeds of specified criminal
activity as defined by |
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1 | | subdivision (b)(6) or property used to conduct or
|
2 | | facilitate specified criminal activity as defined by |
3 | | subdivision (b)(6).
|
4 | | (b) As used in this Section:
|
5 | | (0.5) "Knowing that the property involved in a |
6 | | financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form |
7 | | of unlawful activity" means that the person knew the |
8 | | property involved in the transaction represented proceeds |
9 | | from some form, though not necessarily which form, of |
10 | | activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or |
11 | | foreign law.
|
12 | | (1) "Financial transaction" means a purchase, sale, |
13 | | loan, pledge, gift,
transfer, delivery or other |
14 | | disposition utilizing criminally derived property,
and |
15 | | with respect to financial institutions, includes a |
16 | | deposit, withdrawal,
transfer between accounts, exchange |
17 | | of currency, loan, extension of credit,
purchase or sale of |
18 | | any stock, bond, certificate of deposit or other monetary
|
19 | | instrument, use of safe deposit box, or any other payment, |
20 | | transfer or delivery by, through, or to a
financial |
21 | | institution.
For purposes of clause (a)(2) of this Section, |
22 | | the term "financial
transaction" also
means a transaction |
23 | | which without regard to whether the funds, monetary
|
24 | | instruments, or real or personal property involved in the |
25 | | transaction are
criminally derived, any transaction which |
26 | | in any way or degree: (1) involves
the movement of funds by |
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1 | | wire or any other means; (2) involves one or more
monetary |
2 | | instruments; or (3) the transfer of title to any real or |
3 | | personal
property.
The receipt by an attorney of bona fide |
4 | | fees for the purpose
of legal representation is not a |
5 | | financial transaction for purposes of this
Section.
|
6 | | (2) "Financial institution" means any bank; saving and |
7 | | loan
association; trust company; agency or branch of a |
8 | | foreign bank in the
United States; currency exchange; |
9 | | credit union, mortgage banking
institution; pawnbroker; |
10 | | loan or finance company; operator of a credit card
system; |
11 | | issuer, redeemer or cashier of travelers checks, checks or |
12 | | money
orders; dealer in precious metals, stones or jewels; |
13 | | broker or dealer in
securities or commodities; investment |
14 | | banker; or investment company.
|
15 | | (3) "Monetary instrument" means United States coins |
16 | | and currency;
coins and currency of a foreign country; |
17 | | travelers checks; personal checks,
bank checks, and money |
18 | | orders; investment securities; bearer
negotiable |
19 | | instruments; bearer investment securities; or bearer |
20 | | securities
and certificates of stock in such form that |
21 | | title thereto passes upon
delivery.
|
22 | | (4) "Criminally derived property" means: (A) any |
23 | | property, real or personal, constituting
or
derived from |
24 | | proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity |
25 | | that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign |
26 | | law; or (B) any property
represented to be property |
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1 | | constituting or derived from proceeds obtained,
directly |
2 | | or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony |
3 | | under State, federal, or foreign law.
|
4 | | (5) "Conduct" or "conducts" includes, in addition to |
5 | | its ordinary
meaning, initiating, concluding, or |
6 | | participating in initiating or concluding
a transaction.
|
7 | | (6) "Specified criminal activity" means any violation |
8 | | of Section 29D-15.1
(720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) and any violation |
9 | | of Article 29D of this Code.
|
10 | | (7) "Director" means the Director of State Police or |
11 | | his or her designated agents. |
12 | | (8) "Department" means the Department of State Police |
13 | | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
14 | | (9) "Transaction reporting requirement under State |
15 | | law" means any violation as defined under the Currency |
16 | | Reporting Act.
|
17 | | (c) Sentence.
|
18 | | (1) Laundering of criminally derived property of a |
19 | | value not exceeding
$10,000 is a Class 3 felony;
|
20 | | (2) Laundering of criminally derived property of a |
21 | | value exceeding
$10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a |
22 | | Class 2 felony;
|
23 | | (3) Laundering of criminally derived property of a |
24 | | value exceeding
$100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a |
25 | | Class 1 felony;
|
26 | | (4) Money laundering in violation of subsection (a)(2) |
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1 | | of this Section
is a Class X felony;
|
2 | | (5) Laundering of criminally derived property of a |
3 | | value exceeding
$500,000 is a
Class 1 non-probationable |
4 | | felony;
|
5 | | (6) In a prosecution under clause (a)(1.5)(B)(ii) of |
6 | | this Section, the sentences are as follows: |
7 | | (A) Laundering of property of a value not exceeding |
8 | | $10,000 is a Class 3 felony; |
9 | | (B) Laundering of property of a value exceeding |
10 | | $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony; |
11 | | (C) Laundering of property of a value exceeding |
12 | | $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1 |
13 | | felony; |
14 | | (D) Laundering of property of a value exceeding |
15 | | $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony. |
16 | | (d) Evidence. In a prosecution under this Article, either |
17 | | party may introduce the following evidence pertaining to the |
18 | | issue of whether the property or proceeds were known to be some |
19 | | form of criminally derived property or from some form of |
20 | | unlawful activity: |
21 | | (1) A financial transaction was conducted or |
22 | | structured or attempted in violation of the reporting |
23 | | requirements of any State or federal law; or |
24 | | (2) A financial transaction was conducted or attempted |
25 | | with the use of a false or fictitious name or a forged |
26 | | instrument; or |
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1 | | (3) A falsely altered or completed written instrument |
2 | | or a written instrument that contains any materially false |
3 | | personal identifying information was made, used, offered |
4 | | or presented, whether accepted or not, in connection with a |
5 | | financial transaction; or |
6 | | (4) A financial transaction was structured or |
7 | | attempted to be structured so as to falsely report the |
8 | | actual consideration or value of the transaction; or |
9 | | (5) A money transmitter, a person engaged in a trade or |
10 | | business or any employee of a money transmitter or a person |
11 | | engaged in a trade or business, knows or reasonably should |
12 | | know that false personal identifying information has been |
13 | | presented and incorporates the false personal identifying |
14 | | information into any report or record; or |
15 | | (6) The criminally derived property is transported or |
16 | | possessed in a fashion inconsistent with the ordinary or |
17 | | usual means of transportation or possession of such |
18 | | property and where the property is discovered in the |
19 | | absence of any documentation or other indicia of legitimate |
20 | | origin or right to such property; or |
21 | | (7) A person pays or receives substantially less than |
22 | | face value for one or more monetary instruments; or |
23 | | (8) A person engages in a transaction involving one or |
24 | | more monetary instruments, where the physical condition or |
25 | | form of the monetary instrument or instruments makes it |
26 | | apparent that they are not the product of bona fide |
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1 | | business or financial transactions. |
2 | | (e) Duty to enforce this Article. |
3 | | (1) It is the duty of the Department of State Police, |
4 | | and its agents, officers, and investigators, to enforce all |
5 | | provisions of this Article, except those specifically |
6 | | delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with |
7 | | the enforcement of the laws of the United States, or of any |
8 | | state, relating to money laundering. Only an agent, |
9 | | officer, or investigator designated by the Director may be |
10 | | authorized in accordance with this Section to serve seizure |
11 | | notices, warrants, subpoenas, and summonses under the |
12 | | authority of this State. |
13 | | (2) Any agent, officer, investigator, or peace officer |
14 | | designated by the Director may: (A) make seizure of |
15 | | property pursuant to the provisions of this Article; and |
16 | | (B) perform such other law enforcement duties as the |
17 | | Director designates. It is the duty of all State's |
18 | | Attorneys to prosecute violations of this Article and |
19 | | institute legal proceedings as authorized under this |
20 | | Article. |
21 | | (f) Protective orders. |
22 | | (1) Upon application of the State, the court may enter |
23 | | a restraining order or injunction, require the execution of |
24 | | a satisfactory performance bond, or take any other action |
25 | | to preserve the availability of property described in |
26 | | subsection (h) for forfeiture under this Article: |
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1 | | (A) upon the filing of an indictment, information, |
2 | | or complaint charging a violation of this Article for |
3 | | which forfeiture may be ordered under this Article and |
4 | | alleging that the property with respect to which the |
5 | | order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under |
6 | | this Article; or
|
7 | | (B) prior to the filing of such an indictment, |
8 | | information, or complaint, if, after notice to persons |
9 | | appearing to have an interest in the property and |
10 | | opportunity for a hearing, the court determines that: |
11 | | (i) there is probable cause to believe that the |
12 | | State will prevail on the issue of forfeiture and |
13 | | that failure to enter the order will result in the |
14 | | property being destroyed, removed from the |
15 | | jurisdiction of the court, or otherwise made |
16 | | unavailable for forfeiture; and |
17 | | (ii) the need to preserve the availability of |
18 | | the property through the entry of the requested |
19 | | order outweighs the hardship on any party against |
20 | | whom the order is to be entered. |
21 | | Provided, however, that an order entered pursuant |
22 | | to subparagraph (B) shall be effective for not more |
23 | | than 90 days, unless extended by the court for good |
24 | | cause shown or unless an indictment, information, |
25 | | complaint, or administrative notice has been filed. |
26 | | (2) A temporary restraining order under this |
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1 | | subsection may be entered upon application of the State |
2 | | without notice or opportunity for a hearing when an |
3 | | indictment, information, complaint, or administrative |
4 | | notice has not yet been filed with respect to the property, |
5 | | if the State demonstrates that there is probable cause to |
6 | | believe that the property with respect to which the order |
7 | | is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Section |
8 | | and that provision of notice will jeopardize the |
9 | | availability of the property for forfeiture. Such a |
10 | | temporary order shall expire not more than 30 days after |
11 | | the date on which it is entered, unless extended for good |
12 | | cause shown or unless the party against whom it is entered |
13 | | consents to an extension for a longer period. A hearing |
14 | | requested concerning an order entered under this paragraph |
15 | | shall be held at the earliest possible time and prior to |
16 | | the expiration of the temporary order. |
17 | | (3) The court may receive and consider, at a hearing |
18 | | held pursuant to this subsection (f), evidence and |
19 | | information that would be inadmissible under the Illinois |
20 | | rules of evidence.
|
21 | | (4) Order to repatriate and deposit. |
22 | | (A) In general. Pursuant to its authority to enter |
23 | | a pretrial restraining order under this Section, the |
24 | | court may order a defendant to repatriate any property |
25 | | that may be seized and forfeited and to deposit that |
26 | | property pending trial with the Illinois State Police |
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1 | | or another law enforcement agency designated by the |
2 | | Illinois State Police. |
3 | | (B) Failure to comply. Failure to comply with an |
4 | | order under this subsection (f) is punishable as a |
5 | | civil or criminal contempt of court.
|
6 | | (g) Warrant of seizure. The State may request the issuance |
7 | | of a warrant authorizing the seizure of property described in |
8 | | subsection (h) in the same manner as provided for a search |
9 | | warrant. If the court determines that there is probable cause |
10 | | to believe that the property to be seized would be subject to |
11 | | forfeiture, the court shall issue a warrant authorizing the |
12 | | seizure of such property. |
13 | | (h) Forfeiture. |
14 | | (1) The following are subject to forfeiture: |
15 | | (A) any property, real or personal, constituting, |
16 | | derived from, or traceable to any proceeds the person |
17 | | obtained directly or indirectly, as a result of a |
18 | | violation of this Article; |
19 | | (B) any of the person's property used, or intended |
20 | | to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or to |
21 | | facilitate the commission of, a violation of this |
22 | | Article; |
23 | | (C) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles |
24 | | or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to |
25 | | transport, or in any manner to facilitate the |
26 | | transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or |
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1 | | concealment of property described in subparagraphs (A) |
2 | | and (B), but: |
3 | | (i) no conveyance used by any person as a |
4 | | common carrier in the transaction of business as a |
5 | | common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this |
6 | | Section unless it appears that the owner or other |
7 | | person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting |
8 | | party or privy to a violation of this Article; |
9 | | (ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture |
10 | | under this Section by reason of any act or omission |
11 | | which the owner proves to have been committed or |
12 | | omitted without his or her knowledge or consent; |
13 | | (iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered |
14 | | by a bona fide security interest is subject to the |
15 | | interest of the secured party if he or she neither |
16 | | had knowledge of nor consented to the act or |
17 | | omission; |
18 | | (D) all real property, including any right, title, |
19 | | and interest (including, but not limited to, any |
20 | | leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land |
21 | | trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any |
22 | | appurtenances or improvements, which is used or |
23 | | intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, |
24 | | or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any |
25 | | violation of this Article or that is the proceeds of |
26 | | any violation or act that constitutes a violation of |
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1 | | this Article.
|
2 | | (2) Property subject to forfeiture under this Article |
3 | | may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon |
4 | | process or seizure warrant issued by any court having |
5 | | jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or |
6 | | any peace officer without process may be made: |
7 | | (A) if the seizure is incident to a seizure |
8 | | warrant; |
9 | | (B) if the property subject to seizure has been the |
10 | | subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a |
11 | | criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture |
12 | | proceeding based upon this Article; |
13 | | (C) if there is probable cause to believe that the |
14 | | property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health |
15 | | or safety; |
16 | | (D) if there is probable cause to believe that the |
17 | | property is subject to forfeiture under this Article |
18 | | and the property is seized under circumstances in which |
19 | | a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or |
20 | | (E) in accordance with the Code of Criminal |
21 | | Procedure of 1963. |
22 | | (3) In the event of seizure pursuant to paragraph (2), |
23 | | forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance |
24 | | with subsections (i) through (r). |
25 | | (4) Property taken or detained under this Section shall |
26 | | not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the |
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1 | | custody of the Director subject only to the order and |
2 | | judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the |
3 | | forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's |
4 | | Attorney under this Article. When property is seized under |
5 | | this Article, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an |
6 | | inventory of the seized property and estimate the |
7 | | property's value and shall forward a copy of the inventory |
8 | | of seized property and the estimate of the property's value |
9 | | to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the |
10 | | Director may: |
11 | | (A) place the property under seal; |
12 | | (B) remove the property to a place designated by |
13 | | the Director; |
14 | | (C) keep the property in the possession of the |
15 | | seizing agency; |
16 | | (D) remove the property to a storage area for |
17 | | safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable |
18 | | instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary |
19 | | purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account; |
20 | | (E) place the property under constructive seizure |
21 | | by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by |
22 | | giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and |
23 | | interest holders, or by filing notice of pending |
24 | | forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating |
25 | | to the property; or |
26 | | (F) provide for another agency or custodian, |
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1 | | including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to |
2 | | take custody of the property upon the terms and |
3 | | conditions set by the Director. |
4 | | (5) When property is forfeited under this Article, the |
5 | | Director shall sell all such property unless such property |
6 | | is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the |
7 | | public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale, |
8 | | together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance |
9 | | with paragraph (6). However, upon the application of the |
10 | | seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the |
11 | | investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which |
12 | | lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of |
13 | | forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for |
14 | | official use in the enforcement of laws, if the agency or |
15 | | prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be |
16 | | useful to the agency or prosecutor in its enforcement |
17 | | efforts. When any real property returned to the seizing |
18 | | agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the |
19 | | proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and |
20 | | distributed in accordance with paragraph (6). |
21 | | (6) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other |
22 | | property forfeited and seized under this Article shall be |
23 | | distributed as follows: |
24 | | (A) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan |
25 | | enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State |
26 | | law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or |
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1 | | participated in the investigation resulting in the |
2 | | forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable |
3 | | relationship to the degree of direct participation of |
4 | | the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in |
5 | | the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of |
6 | | the property forfeited and the total law enforcement |
7 | | effort with respect to the violation of the law upon |
8 | | which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to |
9 | | the agency or agencies shall be used for the |
10 | | enforcement of laws. |
11 | | (B)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of |
12 | | the State's Attorney of the county in which the |
13 | | prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was |
14 | | instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county |
15 | | treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for |
16 | | use in the enforcement of laws. In counties over |
17 | | 3,000,000 population, 25% shall be distributed to the |
18 | | Office of the State's Attorney for use in the |
19 | | enforcement of laws. If the prosecution is undertaken |
20 | | solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided |
21 | | hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General |
22 | | for use in the enforcement of laws. |
23 | | (ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office |
24 | | of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and |
25 | | deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund |
26 | | of that office to be used for additional expenses |
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1 | | incurred in the investigation, prosecution and |
2 | | appeal of cases arising under laws. The Office of |
3 | | the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall |
4 | | not receive distribution from cases brought in |
5 | | counties with over 3,000,000 population. |
6 | | (C) 10% shall be retained by the Department of |
7 | | State Police for expenses related to the |
8 | | administration and sale of seized and forfeited |
9 | | property. |
10 | | Moneys and the sale proceeds distributed to the |
11 | | Department of State Police under this Article shall be |
12 | | deposited in the Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund |
13 | | created in the State treasury and shall be used by the |
14 | | Department of State Police for State law enforcement |
15 | | purposes. |
16 | | (7) All moneys and sale proceeds of property forfeited |
17 | | and seized under this Article and distributed according to |
18 | | paragraph (6) may also be used to purchase opioid |
19 | | antagonists as defined in Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism |
20 | | and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act. |
21 | | (i) Notice to owner or interest holder. |
22 | | (1) Whenever notice of pending forfeiture or service of |
23 | | an in rem complaint is required under the provisions of |
24 | | this Article, such notice or service shall be given as |
25 | | follows: |
26 | | (A) If the owner's or interest holder's name and |
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1 | | current address are known, then by either personal |
2 | | service or mailing a copy of the notice by certified |
3 | | mail, return receipt requested, to that address. For |
4 | | purposes of notice under this Section, if a person has |
5 | | been arrested for the conduct giving rise to the |
6 | | forfeiture, then the address provided to the arresting |
7 | | agency at the time of arrest shall be deemed to be that |
8 | | person's known address. Provided, however, if an owner |
9 | | or interest holder's address changes prior to the |
10 | | effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the |
11 | | owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the |
12 | | seizing agency of the change in address or, if the |
13 | | owner or interest holder's address changes subsequent |
14 | | to the effective date of the notice of pending |
15 | | forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall |
16 | | promptly notify the State's Attorney of the change in |
17 | | address; or |
18 | | (B) If the property seized is a conveyance, to the |
19 | | address reflected in the office of the agency or |
20 | | official in which title or interest to the conveyance |
21 | | is required by law to be recorded, then by mailing a |
22 | | copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt |
23 | | requested, to that address; or |
24 | | (C) If the owner's or interest holder's address is |
25 | | not known, and is not on record as provided in |
26 | | paragraph (B), then by publication for 3 successive |
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1 | | weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the |
2 | | county in which the seizure occurred. |
3 | | (2) Notice served under this Article is effective upon |
4 | | personal service, the last date of publication, or the |
5 | | mailing of written notice, whichever is earlier. |
6 | | (j) Notice to State's Attorney. The law enforcement agency |
7 | | seizing property for forfeiture under this Article shall, |
8 | | within 90 days after seizure, notify the State's Attorney for |
9 | | the county, either where an act or omission giving rise to the |
10 | | forfeiture occurred or where the property was seized, of the |
11 | | seizure of the property and the facts and circumstances giving |
12 | | rise to the seizure and shall provide the State's Attorney with |
13 | | the inventory of the property and its estimated value. When the |
14 | | property seized for forfeiture is a vehicle, the law |
15 | | enforcement agency seizing the property shall immediately |
16 | | notify the Secretary of State that forfeiture proceedings are |
17 | | pending regarding such vehicle. |
18 | | (k) Non-judicial forfeiture. If non-real property that |
19 | | exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, |
20 | | or if real property is seized under the provisions of this |
21 | | Article, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem |
22 | | forfeiture proceedings as described in subsection (l) of this |
23 | | Section within 45 days from receipt of notice of seizure from |
24 | | the seizing agency under subsection (j) of this Section. |
25 | | However, if non-real property that does not exceed $20,000 in |
26 | | value excluding the value of any conveyance is seized, the |
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1 | | following procedure shall be used: |
2 | | (1) If, after review of the facts surrounding the |
3 | | seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the |
4 | | seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45 |
5 | | days after the receipt of notice of seizure from the |
6 | | seizing agency, the State's Attorney shall cause notice of |
7 | | pending forfeiture to be given to the owner of the property |
8 | | and all known interest holders of the property in |
9 | | accordance with subsection (i) of this Section. |
10 | | (2) The notice of pending forfeiture must include a |
11 | | description of the property, the estimated value of the |
12 | | property, the date and place of seizure, the conduct giving |
13 | | rise to forfeiture or the violation of law alleged, and a |
14 | | summary of procedures and procedural rights applicable to |
15 | | the forfeiture action. |
16 | | (3)(A) Any person claiming an interest in property |
17 | | which is the subject of notice under paragraph (1) of this |
18 | | subsection (k), must, in order to preserve any rights or |
19 | | claims to the property, within 45 days after the effective |
20 | | date of notice as described in subsection (i) of this |
21 | | Section, file a verified claim with the State's Attorney |
22 | | expressing his or her interest in the property. The claim |
23 | | must set forth: |
24 | | (i) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on |
25 | | the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the |
26 | | claimant; |
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1 | | (ii) the address at which the claimant will accept |
2 | | mail; |
3 | | (iii) the nature and extent of the claimant's |
4 | | interest in the property; |
5 | | (iv) the date, identity of the transferor, and |
6 | | circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the |
7 | | interest in the property;
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8 | | (v) the name and address of all other persons known |
9 | | to have an interest in the property; |
10 | | (vi) the specific provision of law relied on in |
11 | | asserting the property is not subject to forfeiture; |
12 | | (vii) all essential facts supporting each |
13 | | assertion; and |
14 | | (viii) the relief sought. |
15 | | (B) If a claimant files the claim and deposits with the |
16 | | State's Attorney a cost bond, in the form of a cashier's |
17 | | check payable to the clerk of the court, in the sum of 10% |
18 | | of the reasonable value of the property as alleged by the |
19 | | State's Attorney or the sum of $100, whichever is greater, |
20 | | upon condition that, in the case of forfeiture, the |
21 | | claimant must pay all costs and expenses of forfeiture |
22 | | proceedings, then the State's Attorney shall institute |
23 | | judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings and deposit the cost |
24 | | bond with the clerk of the court as described in subsection |
25 | | (l) of this Section within 45 days after receipt of the |
26 | | claim and cost bond. In lieu of a cost bond, a person |
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1 | | claiming interest in the seized property may file, under |
2 | | penalty of perjury, an indigency affidavit which has been |
3 | | approved by a circuit court judge. |
4 | | (C) If none of the seized property is forfeited in the |
5 | | judicial in rem proceeding, the clerk of the court shall |
6 | | return to the claimant, unless the court orders otherwise, |
7 | | 90% of the sum which has been deposited and shall retain as |
8 | | costs 10% of the money deposited. If any of the seized |
9 | | property is forfeited under the judicial forfeiture |
10 | | proceeding, the clerk of the court shall transfer 90% of |
11 | | the sum which has been deposited to the State's Attorney |
12 | | prosecuting the civil forfeiture to be applied to the costs |
13 | | of prosecution and the clerk shall retain as costs 10% of |
14 | | the sum deposited. |
15 | | (4) If no claim is filed or bond given within the 45 |
16 | | day period as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection |
17 | | (k), the State's Attorney shall declare the property |
18 | | forfeited and shall promptly notify the owner and all known |
19 | | interest holders of the property and the Director of State |
20 | | Police of the declaration of forfeiture and the Director |
21 | | shall dispose of the property in accordance with law. |
22 | | (l) Judicial in rem procedures. If property seized under |
23 | | the provisions of this Article is non-real property that |
24 | | exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance, |
25 | | or is real property, or a claimant has filed a claim and a cost |
26 | | bond under paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section, the |
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1 | | following judicial in rem procedures shall apply: |
2 | | (1) If, after a review of the facts surrounding the |
3 | | seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the |
4 | | seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45 |
5 | | days of the receipt of notice of seizure by the seizing |
6 | | agency or the filing of the claim and cost bond, whichever |
7 | | is later, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial |
8 | | forfeiture proceedings by filing a verified complaint for |
9 | | forfeiture and, if the claimant has filed a claim and cost |
10 | | bond, by depositing the cost bond with the clerk of the |
11 | | court. When authorized by law, a forfeiture must be ordered |
12 | | by a court on an action in rem brought by a State's |
13 | | Attorney under a verified complaint for forfeiture. |
14 | | (2) During the probable cause portion of the judicial |
15 | | in rem proceeding wherein the State presents its |
16 | | case-in-chief, the court must receive and consider, among |
17 | | other things, all relevant hearsay evidence and |
18 | | information. The laws of evidence relating to civil actions |
19 | | apply to all other portions of the judicial in rem |
20 | | proceeding. |
21 | | (3) Only an owner of or interest holder in the property |
22 | | may file an answer asserting a claim against the property |
23 | | in the action in rem. For purposes of this Section, the |
24 | | owner or interest holder shall be referred to as claimant. |
25 | | Upon motion of the State, the court shall first hold a |
26 | | hearing, wherein any claimant must establish by a |
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1 | | preponderance of the evidence, that he or she has a lawful, |
2 | | legitimate ownership interest in the property and that it |
3 | | was obtained through a lawful source. |
4 | | (4) The answer must be signed by the owner or interest |
5 | | holder under penalty of perjury and must set forth: |
6 | | (A) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on |
7 | | the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the |
8 | | claimant; |
9 | | (B) the address at which the claimant will accept |
10 | | mail; |
11 | | (C) the nature and extent of the claimant's |
12 | | interest in the property; |
13 | | (D) the date, identity of transferor, and |
14 | | circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the |
15 | | interest in the property; |
16 | | (E) the name and address of all other persons known |
17 | | to have an interest in the property; |
18 | | (F) all essential facts supporting each assertion; |
19 | | and |
20 | | (G) the precise relief sought.
|
21 | | (5) The answer must be filed with the court within 45 |
22 | | days after service of the civil in rem complaint. |
23 | | (6) The hearing must be held within 60 days after |
24 | | filing of the answer unless continued for good cause.
|
25 | | (7) The State shall show the existence of probable |
26 | | cause for forfeiture of the property. If the State shows |
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1 | | probable cause, the claimant has the burden of showing by a |
2 | | preponderance of the evidence that the claimant's interest |
3 | | in the property is not subject to forfeiture.
|
4 | | (8) If the State does not show existence of probable |
5 | | cause, the court shall order the interest in the property |
6 | | returned or conveyed to the claimant and shall order all |
7 | | other property forfeited to the State. If the State does |
8 | | show existence of probable cause, the court shall order all |
9 | | property forfeited to the State. |
10 | | (9) A defendant convicted in any criminal proceeding is |
11 | | precluded from later denying the essential allegations of |
12 | | the criminal offense of which the defendant was convicted |
13 | | in any proceeding under this Article regardless of the |
14 | | pendency of an appeal from that conviction. However, |
15 | | evidence of the pendency of an appeal is admissible. |
16 | | (10) An acquittal or dismissal in a criminal proceeding |
17 | | does not preclude civil proceedings under this Article; |
18 | | however, for good cause shown, on a motion by the State's |
19 | | Attorney, the court may stay civil forfeiture proceedings |
20 | | during the criminal trial for a related criminal indictment |
21 | | or information alleging a money laundering violation. Such |
22 | | a stay shall not be available pending an appeal. Property |
23 | | subject to forfeiture under this Article shall not be |
24 | | subject to return or release by a court exercising |
25 | | jurisdiction over a criminal case involving the seizure of |
26 | | such property unless such return or release is consented to |
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1 | | by the State's Attorney. |
2 | | (11) All property declared forfeited under this |
3 | | Article vests in this State on the commission of the |
4 | | conduct giving rise to forfeiture together with the |
5 | | proceeds of the property after that time. Any such property |
6 | | or proceeds subsequently transferred to any person remain |
7 | | subject to forfeiture and thereafter shall be ordered |
8 | | forfeited. |
9 | | (12) A civil action under this Article must be |
10 | | commenced within 5 years after the last conduct giving rise |
11 | | to forfeiture became known or should have become known or 5 |
12 | | years after the forfeitable property is discovered, |
13 | | whichever is later, excluding any time during which either |
14 | | the property or claimant is out of the State or in |
15 | | confinement or during which criminal proceedings relating |
16 | | to the same conduct are in progress. |
17 | | (m) Stay of time periods. If property is seized for |
18 | | evidence and for forfeiture, the time periods for instituting |
19 | | judicial and non-judicial forfeiture proceedings shall not |
20 | | begin until the property is no longer necessary for evidence. |
21 | | (n) Settlement of claims. Notwithstanding other provisions |
22 | | of this Article, the State's Attorney and a claimant of seized |
23 | | property may enter into an agreed-upon settlement concerning |
24 | | the seized property in such an amount and upon such terms as |
25 | | are set out in writing in a settlement agreement. |
26 | | (o) Property constituting attorney fees. Nothing in this |
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1 | | Article applies to property which constitutes reasonable bona |
2 | | fide attorney's fees paid to an attorney for services rendered |
3 | | or to be rendered in the forfeiture proceeding or criminal |
4 | | proceeding relating directly thereto where such property was |
5 | | paid before its seizure, before the issuance of any seizure |
6 | | warrant or court order prohibiting transfer of the property and |
7 | | where the attorney, at the time he or she received the property |
8 | | did not know that it was property subject to forfeiture under |
9 | | this Article. |
10 | | (p) Construction. It is the intent of the General Assembly |
11 | | that the forfeiture provisions of this Article be liberally |
12 | | construed so as to effect their remedial purpose. The |
13 | | forfeiture of property and other remedies hereunder shall be |
14 | | considered to be in addition to, and not exclusive of, any |
15 | | sentence or other remedy provided by law. |
16 | | (q) Judicial review. If property has been declared |
17 | | forfeited under subsection (k) of this Section, any person who |
18 | | has an interest in the property declared forfeited may, within |
19 | | 30 days after the effective date of the notice of the |
20 | | declaration of forfeiture, file a claim and cost bond as |
21 | | described in paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section. |
22 | | If a claim and cost bond is filed under this Section, then the |
23 | | procedures described in subsection (l) of this Section apply. |
24 | | (r) Burden of proof of exemption or exception. It is not |
25 | | necessary for the State to negate any exemption or exception in |
26 | | this Article in any complaint, information, indictment or other |
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1 | | pleading or in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding under |
2 | | this Article. The burden of proof of any exemption or exception |
3 | | is upon the person claiming it. |
4 | | (s) Review of administrative decisions.
All administrative |
5 | | findings, rulings, final determinations, findings, and |
6 | | conclusions of the State's Attorney's Office under this Article |
7 | | are final and conclusive decisions of the matters involved. Any |
8 | | person aggrieved by the decision may obtain review of the |
9 | | decision pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative |
10 | | Review Law and the rules adopted pursuant to that Law. Pending |
11 | | final decision on such review, the administrative acts, orders, |
12 | | and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full |
13 | | force and effect unless modified or suspended by order of court |
14 | | pending final judicial decision. Pending final decision on such |
15 | | review, the acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's |
16 | | Office remain in full force and effect, unless stayed by order |
17 | | of court. However, no stay of any decision of the |
18 | | administrative agency shall issue unless the person aggrieved |
19 | | by the decision establishes by a preponderance of the evidence |
20 | | that good cause exists for the stay. In determining good cause, |
21 | | the court shall find that the aggrieved party has established a |
22 | | substantial likelihood of prevailing on the merits and that |
23 | | granting the stay will not have an injurious effect on the |
24 | | general public.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 96-275, eff. 8-11-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; |
26 | | 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1234, eff. 7-23-10.)
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1 | | Section 5-95. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by |
2 | | changing Section 10 as follows:
|
3 | | (720 ILCS 550/10) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 710)
|
4 | | Sec. 10. (a)
Whenever any person who has not previously |
5 | | been convicted of, or placed
on probation or court supervision |
6 | | for, any offense under this Act or any
law of the United States |
7 | | or of any State relating to cannabis, or controlled
substances |
8 | | as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, pleads
|
9 | | guilty to or is found guilty of violating Sections 4(a), 4(b), |
10 | | 4(c),
5(a), 5(b), 5(c) or 8 of this Act, the court may, without |
11 | | entering a
judgment and with the consent of such person, |
12 | | sentence him to probation.
|
13 | | (b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall |
14 | | enter an order
specifying a period of probation of 24 months, |
15 | | and shall defer further
proceedings in
the case until the |
16 | | conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition
|
17 | | alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.
|
18 | | (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: |
19 | | (1) not violate
any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) |
20 | | refrain from possession of a
firearm
or other dangerous weapon; |
21 | | (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in
a manner |
22 | | as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the |
23 | | period of
the probation, with the cost of the testing to be |
24 | | paid by the probationer; and
(4) perform no less than 30 hours |
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1 | | of community service, provided community
service is available |
2 | | in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the
county |
3 | | board.
|
4 | | (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require
|
5 | | that the person:
|
6 | | (1) make a report to and appear in person before or |
7 | | participate with the
court or such courts, person, or |
8 | | social service agency as directed by the
court in the order |
9 | | of probation;
|
10 | | (2) pay a fine and costs;
|
11 | | (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational |
12 | | training;
|
13 | | (4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or |
14 | | treatment for drug
addiction or alcoholism;
|
15 | | (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the |
16 | | instruction or
residence of defendants on probation;
|
17 | | (6) support his dependents;
|
18 | | (7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other |
19 | | dangerous weapon;
|
20 | | (7-5) refrain from having in his or her body the |
21 | | presence of any illicit
drug prohibited by the Cannabis |
22 | | Control Act, the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, or the |
23 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, |
24 | | unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of
his |
25 | | or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the |
26 | | presence of any
illicit drug;
|
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1 | | (8) and in addition, if a minor:
|
2 | | (i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;
|
3 | | (ii) attend school;
|
4 | | (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
|
5 | | (iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a |
6 | | foster home.
|
7 | | (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the
|
8 | | court
may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and |
9 | | proceed as otherwise
provided.
|
10 | | (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and
conditions of |
11 | | probation, the court shall discharge such person and dismiss
|
12 | | the proceedings against him.
|
13 | | (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a |
14 | | conviction
for the purposes of imposing the conditions of |
15 | | probation and for appeal,
however, discharge and dismissal |
16 | | under this Section is not a conviction for
purposes of |
17 | | disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon |
18 | | conviction of
a crime (including the additional penalty imposed |
19 | | for subsequent offenses under
Section 4(c), 4(d), 5(c) or 5(d) |
20 | | of this Act).
|
21 | | (h) Discharge and dismissal under this Section,
Section 410 |
22 | | of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the |
23 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section |
24 | | 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or |
25 | | subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or |
26 | | the Criminal Code of 2012 may occur only once
with respect to |
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1 | | any person.
|
2 | | (i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, |
3 | | the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine |
4 | | Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years
subsequent |
5 | | to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge |
6 | | and
dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the |
7 | | sentencing proceeding
for that conviction
as a factor in |
8 | | aggravation.
|
9 | | (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is |
10 | | sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer |
11 | | the person to the drug court established in that judicial |
12 | | circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. |
13 | | The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of |
14 | | successfully completing a sentence of probation under this |
15 | | Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the |
16 | | court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers |
17 | | from a substance abuse problem that makes him or her |
18 | | substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of |
19 | | probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set |
20 | | forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the |
21 | | person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section, |
22 | | but may be considered for the drug court program. |
23 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; |
24 | | 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)
|
25 | | Section 5-100. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 168 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | amended by changing Sections 102, 301, 312, 314.5, 316, 317, |
2 | | 318, 319, 320, 406, and 410 as follows:
|
3 | | (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) |
4 | | Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
5 | | context
otherwise requires:
|
6 | | (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, |
7 | | chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as |
8 | | to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who |
9 | | is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled |
10 | | substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self |
11 | | control with reference to his or her addiction.
|
12 | | (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a |
13 | | controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, |
14 | | ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient, |
15 | | research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane |
16 | | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
|
17 | | (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his |
18 | | or her authorized agent),
|
19 | | (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an |
20 | | order, or
|
21 | | (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane |
22 | | Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
|
23 | | (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf |
24 | | of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, |
25 | | dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not
include a |
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1 | | common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
|
2 | | the carrier or warehouseman.
|
3 | | (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal |
4 | | substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to |
5 | | testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins, |
6 | | corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone),
and includes:
|
7 | | (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
8 | | (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
9 | | (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, |
10 | | (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], |
11 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
12 | | (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], |
13 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
14 | | (vi) 4-androstenediol |
15 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), |
16 | | (vii) 5-androstenediol |
17 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), |
18 | | (viii) 1-androstenedione |
19 | | ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), |
20 | | (ix) 4-androstenedione |
21 | | (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), |
22 | | (x) 5-androstenedione |
23 | | (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), |
24 | | (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
25 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
26 | | (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 170 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | 1,4,-diene-3-one), |
2 | | (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- |
3 | | diene-3,17-dione), |
4 | | (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 |
5 | | [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
6 | | (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
7 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
8 | | (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- |
9 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- |
10 | | androst-1,4-dien-3-one), |
11 | | (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone |
12 | | (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] |
13 | | -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), |
14 | | (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. |
15 | | '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
16 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
17 | | (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
18 | | androstan-3-one), |
19 | | (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- |
20 | | 5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
21 | | (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
22 | | hydroxyestr-4-ene), |
23 | | (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- |
24 | | 1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
25 | | (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], |
26 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
|
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1 | | (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
2 | | hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), |
3 | | (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) |
4 | | (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- |
5 | | androst-4-en-3-one), |
6 | | (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- |
7 | | dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), |
8 | | (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
9 | | hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), |
10 | | (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
11 | | [5a]-androstan-3-one), |
12 | | (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
13 | | hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
14 | | (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
15 | | dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), |
16 | | (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
17 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
18 | | (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- |
19 | | dihydroxy-5a-androstane), |
20 | | (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy |
21 | | -5a-androstane), |
22 | | (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
23 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), |
24 | | (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- |
25 | | methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
26 | | (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
|
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|
1 | | hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), |
2 | | (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
3 | | hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), |
4 | | (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
5 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
6 | | (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
7 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
8 | | (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone |
9 | | (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- |
10 | | androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- |
11 | | 1-testosterone'), |
12 | | (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
14 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
15 | | (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
16 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
17 | | (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
18 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
19 | | (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
20 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
21 | | (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione |
22 | | (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), |
23 | | (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- |
24 | | en-3,17-dione), |
25 | | (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- |
26 | | en-3,17-dione), |
|
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|
1 | | (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- |
2 | | hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), |
3 | | (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
4 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
5 | | (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
6 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
7 | | (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
8 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
9 | | (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
10 | | 2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
11 | | (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- |
12 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
13 | | (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- |
14 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
15 | | (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
16 | | (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), |
17 | | (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
18 | | (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
19 | | (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- |
20 | | secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic |
21 | | acid lactone), |
22 | | (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
23 | | 4-en-3-one), |
24 | | (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- |
25 | | diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- |
26 | | 4,9,11-trien-3-one), |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 174 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, |
2 | | 11-trien-3-one).
|
3 | | Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an |
4 | | anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, |
5 | | distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to |
6 | | deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is |
7 | | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered |
8 | | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
|
9 | | which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services |
10 | | for such
administration, and which the person intends to |
11 | | administer or have
administered through such implants, shall |
12 | | not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to |
13 | | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or |
14 | | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
|
15 | | purposes of this Act.
|
16 | | (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
17 | | Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its |
18 | | successor agency.
|
19 | | (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" |
20 | | means a Department of Human Services administrative employee |
21 | | licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances |
22 | | who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human |
23 | | Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription |
24 | | Information Library. |
25 | | (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of |
26 | | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 175 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the |
2 | | prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of |
3 | | professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident |
4 | | to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale |
5 | | or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs |
6 | | or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug |
7 | | orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing |
8 | | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded |
9 | | for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the |
10 | | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not |
11 | | reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a |
12 | | timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the |
13 | | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be |
14 | | compounded. |
15 | | (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or |
16 | | immediate
precursor, to a Schedule whether by
transfer from |
17 | | another Schedule or otherwise.
|
18 | | (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or |
19 | | immediate
precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act |
20 | | or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor, |
21 | | designated as a controlled substance by the Department through |
22 | | administrative rule. The term does not include distilled |
23 | | spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
|
24 | | defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the |
25 | | Tobacco Products Tax
Act of 1995.
|
26 | | (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 176 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially |
2 | | similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance |
3 | | in Schedule I or II; |
4 | | (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or |
5 | | hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is |
6 | | substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, |
7 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
8 | | nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or |
9 | | II; or |
10 | | (3) with respect to a particular person, which such |
11 | | person represents or intends to have a stimulant, |
12 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
13 | | nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater |
14 | | than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect |
15 | | on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in |
16 | | Schedule I or II. |
17 | | (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, |
18 | | which, or
the container or labeling of which, without |
19 | | authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other |
20 | | identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness |
21 | | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other |
22 | | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or |
23 | | dispensed the substance.
|
24 | | (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive |
25 | | or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, |
26 | | with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 177 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | agency relationship.
|
2 | | (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
3 | | Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and |
4 | | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
|
5 | | (j) (Blank).
|
6 | | (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of |
7 | | Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
8 | | (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" |
9 | | means the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation |
10 | | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
11 | | (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall |
12 | | depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes |
13 | | impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
14 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
15 | | but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles |
16 | | and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, |
17 | | barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and |
18 | | synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar |
19 | | sedative hypnotics.
|
20 | | (n) (Blank).
|
21 | | (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State |
22 | | Police or his or her designated agents.
|
23 | | (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to |
24 | | an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the |
25 | | lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing, |
26 | | administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 178 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
|
2 | | (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
|
3 | | (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by |
4 | | administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
|
5 | | (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
|
6 | | (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the |
7 | | official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic |
8 | | Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National |
9 | | Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances |
10 | | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or |
11 | | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other |
12 | | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
|
13 | | the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use |
14 | | as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or |
15 | | (3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their |
16 | | components, parts, or
accessories.
|
17 | | (t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an |
18 | | electronic record of health-related information on an |
19 | | individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by |
20 | | authorized health care clinicians and staff. |
21 | | (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the |
22 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
|
23 | | purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control |
24 | | facility license or
animal
shelter license under the Animal |
25 | | Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase, |
26 | | store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 179 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal |
2 | | euthanasia.
|
3 | | (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III |
4 | | substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used |
5 | | by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
|
6 | | (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a |
7 | | controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of |
8 | | professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his or |
9 | | her treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that |
10 | | individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or |
11 | | addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein: |
12 | | and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the |
13 | | dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
|
14 | | prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the |
15 | | pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by |
16 | | accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to |
17 | | the following, in making the
judgment:
|
18 | | (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient |
19 | | relationship,
|
20 | | (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one |
21 | | prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
|
22 | | (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
|
23 | | (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be |
24 | | clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual |
25 | | dose may be used legitimately),
|
26 | | (5) unusual geographic distances between patient, |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 180 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | pharmacist and
prescriber,
|
2 | | (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
|
3 | | (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly |
4 | | altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any |
5 | | type. |
6 | | (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a |
7 | | pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to |
8 | | a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or |
9 | | hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous, |
10 | | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
|
11 | | (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State
Police of the |
12 | | State of Illinois, or its successor agency. |
13 | | (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
|
14 | | (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule |
15 | | designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced |
16 | | primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled |
17 | | substance;
|
18 | | (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or |
19 | | likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled |
20 | | substance; and
|
21 | | (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, |
22 | | curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled |
23 | | substance.
|
24 | | (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, |
25 | | educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled |
26 | | substances within
educational facilities approved by the State |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 181 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | Board of Education or
its successor agency.
|
2 | | (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, |
3 | | County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
|
4 | | (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a |
5 | | controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit |
6 | | appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack |
7 | | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical |
8 | | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person |
9 | | to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) |
10 | | is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled |
11 | | substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would |
12 | | lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a |
13 | | controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether |
14 | | the representations made or the circumstances of the
|
15 | | distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the |
16 | | substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of |
17 | | subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the |
18 | | following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be |
19 | | relevant:
|
20 | | (a) statements made by the owner or person in control |
21 | | of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
|
22 | | (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the |
23 | | substance may
be resold for profit;
|
24 | | (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner |
25 | | normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled |
26 | | substances;
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 182 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution |
2 | | included an
exchange of or demand for money or other |
3 | | property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the |
4 | | consideration was substantially greater than the
|
5 | | reasonable retail market value of the substance.
|
6 | | Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a |
7 | | noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was |
8 | | initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial |
9 | | introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its |
10 | | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
|
11 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or |
12 | | distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized |
13 | | to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this |
14 | | Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried |
15 | | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances |
16 | | involved were controlled substances.
|
17 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the |
18 | | manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding, |
19 | | processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or |
20 | | drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the |
21 | | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
|
22 | | (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is |
23 | | located in a state
of the United States that delivers, |
24 | | dispenses or
distributes, through the United States Postal |
25 | | Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois residents, any |
26 | | substance which requires a prescription.
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 183 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, |
2 | | propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a |
3 | | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
|
4 | | directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of |
5 | | natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
6 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
7 | | synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the |
8 | | substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term |
9 | | does not include:
|
10 | | (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding |
11 | | of a
controlled substance for his or her own use; or
|
12 | | (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent |
13 | | under his or her
supervision, the preparation, |
14 | | compounding, packaging, or labeling of a
controlled |
15 | | substance:
|
16 | | (a) as an incident to his or her administering or |
17 | | dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of |
18 | | his or her professional practice; or
|
19 | | (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or |
20 | | chemical
analysis and not for sale.
|
21 | | (z-1) (Blank).
|
22 | | (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
23 | | under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
24 | | (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician |
25 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through |
26 | | a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 184 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with |
2 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, |
3 | | (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated |
4 | | authority to prescribe through a written delegation of |
5 | | authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
6 | | of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with |
7 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an animal |
8 | | euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist. |
9 | | (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether |
10 | | produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances |
11 | | of vegetable origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
12 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
13 | | synthesis:
|
14 | | (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, |
15 | | including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts |
16 | | of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of |
17 | | such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within |
18 | | the specific chemical designation; however the term |
19 | | "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline |
20 | | alkaloids of opium;
|
21 | | (2) (blank);
|
22 | | (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
|
23 | | (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of |
24 | | coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and |
25 | | ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have |
26 | | been removed;
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 185 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, |
2 | | and salts of isomers; |
3 | | (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, |
4 | | and salts of isomers; |
5 | | (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which |
6 | | contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to |
7 | | in subparagraphs (1) through (6). |
8 | | (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
|
9 | | Nurse Practice Act.
|
10 | | (cc) (Blank).
|
11 | | (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction |
12 | | forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine |
13 | | or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction |
14 | | forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
|
15 | | (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
|
16 | | somniferum L., except its seeds.
|
17 | | (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or |
18 | | solution or other liquid form of medication intended for |
19 | | administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form |
20 | | of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal |
21 | | administration. |
22 | | (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon |
23 | | Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
24 | | (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, |
25 | | mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or |
26 | | agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 186 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | association, or any other entity.
|
2 | | (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or |
3 | | certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local |
4 | | registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist |
5 | | under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
|
6 | | (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in |
7 | | which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy |
8 | | Practice Act.
|
9 | | (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
10 | | under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
11 | | (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise |
12 | | requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all |
13 | | of its branches. |
14 | | (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of |
15 | | the opium
poppy, after mowing.
|
16 | | (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice |
17 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric |
18 | | physician,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, |
19 | | physician assistant,
advanced practice nurse,
licensed |
20 | | practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or |
21 | | pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, or otherwise |
22 | | lawfully permitted by the
United States or this State to |
23 | | distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect to, |
24 | | administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
|
25 | | controlled substance in the course of professional practice or |
26 | | research.
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 187 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written |
2 | | prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated |
3 | | prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written |
4 | | prescription that is individually generated by machine or |
5 | | computer in the prescriber's office.
|
6 | | (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice |
7 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, |
8 | | prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the |
9 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive |
10 | | authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical |
11 | | Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
|
12 | | veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant |
13 | | who
issues a
prescription for a controlled substance
in |
14 | | accordance
with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
15 | | written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5
of the
|
16 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced |
17 | | practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under |
18 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with |
19 | | Section 303.05, a written delegation,
and a written
|
20 | | collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse |
21 | | Practice Act.
|
22 | | (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral |
23 | | order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable |
24 | | federal requirements,
of
a physician licensed to practice |
25 | | medicine in all its branches,
dentist, podiatric physician or |
26 | | veterinarian for any controlled
substance, of an optometrist |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 188 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in |
2 | | accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric |
3 | | Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed |
4 | | under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act |
5 | | with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the |
6 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant |
7 | | for a
controlled substance
in accordance with Section 303.05, a |
8 | | written delegation, and a written supervision agreement |
9 | | required under
Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice |
10 | | Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice
nurse with prescriptive |
11 | | authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice |
12 | | Act who issues a prescription for a
controlled substance in |
13 | | accordance
with
Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
14 | | written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the |
15 | | Nurse Practice Act when required by law.
|
16 | | (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an |
17 | | electronic library that contains reported controlled substance |
18 | | data. |
19 | | (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the |
20 | | entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on |
21 | | controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316. |
22 | | (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, |
23 | | planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled |
24 | | substance other than methamphetamine.
|
25 | | (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to |
26 | | register
under Section 302 of this Act.
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 189 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each |
2 | | person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the |
3 | | laws of the United
States and of this State.
|
4 | | (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either |
5 | | the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the |
6 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the |
7 | | Secretary's designated agents. |
8 | | (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, |
9 | | district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, |
10 | | and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United |
11 | | States of America.
|
12 | | (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an |
13 | | overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) |
14 | | causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
15 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
16 | | but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, |
17 | | methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine |
18 | | and its analogs. |
19 | | (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses |
20 | | a
controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of |
21 | | a member of his or her
household or for administering to an |
22 | | animal owned by him or her or by a member
of his or her |
23 | | household.
|
24 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, |
25 | | eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; |
26 | | revised 10-1-14.)
|
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| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 190 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | (720 ILCS 570/301) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1301)
|
2 | | Sec. 301. The Department of Financial and Professional |
3 | | Regulation shall promulgate
rules and charge reasonable fees |
4 | | and fines relating to the registration and
control of the |
5 | | manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled
|
6 | | substances within this State. The Department shall request a |
7 | | contact email address in its application for a new or renewed |
8 | | license to dispense controlled substances. All moneys received |
9 | | by the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation |
10 | | under this Act shall be deposited into the respective
|
11 | | professional dedicated funds in like manner as the primary |
12 | | professional
licenses. |
13 | | A pharmacy, manufacturer of controlled substances, or |
14 | | wholesale distributor of controlled substances that is |
15 | | regulated under this Act and owned and operated by the State is |
16 | | exempt from fees required under this Act. Pharmacists and |
17 | | pharmacy technicians working in facilities owned and operated |
18 | | by the State are not exempt from the payment of fees required |
19 | | by this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. Nothing in |
20 | | this Section shall be construed to prohibit the Department of |
21 | | Financial and Professional Regulation from imposing any fine or |
22 | | other penalty allowed under this Act.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
24 | | (720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312)
|
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| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 191 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled |
2 | | substances.
|
3 | | (a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule
|
4 | | II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in |
5 | | Section 206
of this Act; or which contains any quantity of |
6 | | amphetamine or
methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers |
7 | | or salts of optical
isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or |
8 | | pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances
|
9 | | to any person upon
a written or electronic prescription of any |
10 | | prescriber, dated and signed
by the
person prescribing (or |
11 | | electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on |
12 | | the day when issued and bearing the name and
address of the |
13 | | patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which
the |
14 | | controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address |
15 | | and
registry number under the laws of the United States |
16 | | relating to
controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or |
17 | | she is
required by
those laws to be registered. If the |
18 | | prescription is for an animal it
shall state the species of |
19 | | animal for which it is ordered. The
practitioner filling the |
20 | | prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date |
21 | | of filling
and his or her own signature on the face of the |
22 | | written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such |
23 | | filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v) |
24 | | of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.
The written |
25 | | prescription shall be
retained on file by the practitioner who |
26 | | filled it or pharmacy in which
the prescription was filled for |
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|
1 | | a period of 2 years, so as to be readily
accessible for |
2 | | inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged
in the |
3 | | enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or
|
4 | | pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or
|
5 | | employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the |
6 | | purpose of
investigation or as evidence, such officer or |
7 | | employee shall give to the
practitioner or pharmacy a receipt |
8 | | in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or |
9 | | computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the |
10 | | date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription
for a |
11 | | Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more |
12 | | than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5), |
13 | | and shall be valid for up to 90 days
after the date of |
14 | | issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or
V |
15 | | controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than |
16 | | 6 months
after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times |
17 | | unless renewed, in
writing, by the prescriber. A pharmacy shall |
18 | | maintain a policy regarding the type of identification |
19 | | necessary, if any, to receive a prescription in accordance with |
20 | | State and federal law. The pharmacy must post such information |
21 | | where prescriptions are filled.
|
22 | | (a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3 |
23 | | sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled |
24 | | substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before |
25 | | authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled |
26 | | substance, the physician must meet both of the following |
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1 | | conditions: |
2 | | (1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a |
3 | | legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician |
4 | | acting in the usual course of professional practice. |
5 | | (2) The individual physician must provide written |
6 | | instructions on each prescription (other than the first |
7 | | prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the |
8 | | prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the |
9 | | earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that |
10 | | prescription. |
11 | | (3) The physician shall document in the medical record |
12 | | of a patient the medical necessity for the amount and |
13 | | duration of the 3 sequential 30-day prescriptions for |
14 | | Schedule II narcotics. |
15 | | (b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this |
16 | | Section, a
pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule |
17 | | III, IV, or V
substances to any person either upon receiving a |
18 | | facsimile of a written,
signed prescription transmitted by the |
19 | | prescriber or the prescriber's agent
or upon a lawful oral |
20 | | prescription of a
prescriber which oral prescription shall be |
21 | | reduced
promptly to
writing by the pharmacist and such written |
22 | | memorandum thereof shall be
dated on the day when such oral |
23 | | prescription is received by the
pharmacist and shall bear the |
24 | | full name and address of the ultimate user
for whom, or of the |
25 | | owner of the animal for which the controlled
substance is |
26 | | dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number
|
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1 | | under the law of the United States relating to controlled |
2 | | substances of
the prescriber prescribing if he or she is |
3 | | required by those laws
to be so
registered, and the pharmacist |
4 | | filling such oral prescription shall
write the date of filling |
5 | | and his or her own signature on the face of such
written |
6 | | memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or
|
7 | | written memorandum of the oral
prescription shall be retained |
8 | | on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy
in which it is filled |
9 | | for a period of not less than two years, so as to
be readily |
10 | | accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged
in |
11 | | the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written
|
12 | | prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral |
13 | | prescription
and the written memorandum thereof
shall not be |
14 | | filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date
thereof or |
15 | | be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by
|
16 | | the prescriber.
|
17 | | (c) Except for any non-prescription targeted |
18 | | methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine |
19 | | Precursor Control Act, a
controlled substance included in |
20 | | Schedule V shall not be
distributed or dispensed other than for |
21 | | a medical purpose and not for
the purpose of evading this Act, |
22 | | and then:
|
23 | | (1) only personally by a person registered to dispense |
24 | | a Schedule V
controlled substance and then only to his or |
25 | | her patients, or
|
26 | | (2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to a |
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1 | | person over
21 years of age who has identified himself or |
2 | | herself to the pharmacist by means of
2 positive documents |
3 | | of identification.
|
4 | | (3) the dispenser shall record the name and address of |
5 | | the
purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the |
6 | | date and time of
the sale, and the dispenser's signature.
|
7 | | (4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more than |
8 | | 120
milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V |
9 | | substance which
contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any |
10 | | salts thereof, or
ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in |
11 | | any 96 hour period. The
purchaser shall sign a form, |
12 | | approved by the Department of Financial and Professional
|
13 | | Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any |
14 | | Schedule V
controlled substances within the immediately |
15 | | preceding 96 hours.
|
16 | | (5) (Blank).
|
17 | | (6) all records of purchases and sales shall be |
18 | | maintained for not
less than 2 years.
|
19 | | (7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain within |
20 | | any
consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of |
21 | | more than 120
milliliters or more than 120 grams containing |
22 | | codeine, dihydrocodeine or
any of its salts, or |
23 | | ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person
obtaining any |
24 | | such preparations or combination of preparations in excess
|
25 | | of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such |
26 | | controlled
substance.
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1 | | (8) a person qualified to dispense controlled |
2 | | substances under this
Act and registered thereunder shall |
3 | | at no time maintain or keep in stock
a quantity of Schedule |
4 | | V controlled substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each
|
5 | | substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in |
6 | | stock a
quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as |
7 | | defined in excess of 4.5
liters for each substance, plus |
8 | | the additional quantity of controlled
substances necessary |
9 | | to fill the largest number of prescription orders
filled by |
10 | | that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one |
11 | | week
in the previous year. These limitations shall not |
12 | | apply to Schedule V
controlled substances which Federal law |
13 | | prohibits from being dispensed
without a prescription.
|
14 | | (9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl |
15 | | nitrite for
inhalation or other introduction into the human |
16 | | body for euphoric or
physical effect.
|
17 | | (d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of |
18 | | controlled substances
received by him or her and a record of |
19 | | all such controlled substances
administered, dispensed or |
20 | | professionally used by him or her otherwise than by
|
21 | | prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with |
22 | | this
paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled |
23 | | substances listed in
Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a |
24 | | record of all those substances
dispensed and distributed by him |
25 | | or her other than those controlled substances
which are |
26 | | administered by the direct application of a controlled
|
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1 | | substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any |
2 | | other
means to the body of a patient or research subject. A |
3 | | practitioner who
dispenses, other than by administering, a |
4 | | controlled substance in
Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug |
5 | | listed in Section 206 of this Act,
or which contains any |
6 | | quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their
salts, |
7 | | optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or
|
8 | | methaqualone shall do so only upon
the issuance of a written |
9 | | prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a
|
10 | | prescriber.
|
11 | | (e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled |
12 | | substance in a
package prepared by him or her, and whenever a |
13 | | wholesale distributor
distributes a controlled substance in a |
14 | | package prepared by him or her or the
manufacturer, he or she |
15 | | shall securely affix to each package in which that
substance is |
16 | | contained a label showing in legible English the name and
|
17 | | address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity, |
18 | | kind and
form of controlled substance contained therein. No |
19 | | person except a
pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling |
20 | | a prescription under
this Act, shall alter, deface or remove |
21 | | any label so affixed.
|
22 | | (f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled |
23 | | substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a |
24 | | non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated |
25 | | by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she
shall |
26 | | affix to the container in which such substance is sold or
|
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1 | | dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the |
2 | | practitioner's
name and address, the name
of the patient, the |
3 | | name of the prescriber,
the directions
for use and cautionary |
4 | | statements, if any, contained in any prescription
or required |
5 | | by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name
|
6 | | of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity, |
7 | | except as otherwise
authorized by regulation by the Department |
8 | | of Financial and Professional Regulation. No
person shall |
9 | | alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the |
10 | | specific medication remains in the container.
|
11 | | (g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled |
12 | | substance has
been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner, |
13 | | or other persons
authorized under this Act, and the owner of |
14 | | any animal for which such
substance has been prescribed or |
15 | | dispensed by a veterinarian, may
lawfully possess such |
16 | | substance only in the container in which it was
delivered to |
17 | | him or her by the person dispensing such substance.
|
18 | | (h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or |
19 | | dispensing of
controlled substances that are under the |
20 | | prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The |
21 | | responsibility for
the proper filling of a prescription for |
22 | | controlled substance drugs
rests with the pharmacist. An order |
23 | | purporting to be a prescription
issued to any individual, which |
24 | | is not in the regular course of
professional treatment nor part |
25 | | of an authorized methadone maintenance
program, nor in |
26 | | legitimate and authorized research instituted by any
|
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1 | | accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable |
2 | | foundation, or
federal, state or local governmental agency, and |
3 | | which is intended to
provide that individual with controlled |
4 | | substances sufficient to
maintain that individual's or any |
5 | | other individual's physical or
psychological addiction, |
6 | | habitual or customary use, dependence, or
diversion of that |
7 | | controlled substance is not a prescription within the
meaning |
8 | | and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be
|
9 | | subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law |
10 | | relating to
controlled substances.
|
11 | | (i) A prescriber shall not pre-print preprint or cause to |
12 | | be
pre-printed preprinted a
prescription for any controlled |
13 | | substance; nor shall any practitioner
issue, fill or cause to |
14 | | be issued or filled, a pre-printed preprinted prescription
for |
15 | | any controlled substance.
|
16 | | (i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device |
17 | | to individually generate a printed prescription, but the |
18 | | prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual |
19 | | signature. |
20 | | (j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver, |
21 | | possess with
intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or |
22 | | cause to be administered
under his or her direction any |
23 | | anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than
the |
24 | | treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a |
25 | | physician licensed
to practice medicine in all its branches for |
26 | | a
valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice. |
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1 | | The use of
anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal |
2 | | manipulation that is intended
to increase muscle mass, strength |
3 | | or weight without a medical necessity to
do so, or for the |
4 | | intended purpose of improving physical appearance or
|
5 | | performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a |
6 | | valid medical
purpose or in the course of professional |
7 | | practice.
|
8 | | (k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the |
9 | | following conditions are met: |
10 | | (1) The controlled substances are not outwardly |
11 | | dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause |
12 | | injury to a person's life or health. |
13 | | (2) The inner container of a parcel containing |
14 | | controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required |
15 | | under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain |
16 | | outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper. |
17 | | (3) If the controlled substances consist of |
18 | | prescription medicines, the inner container must be |
19 | | labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or |
20 | | practitioner dispensing the prescription. |
21 | | (4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of |
22 | | markings that would indicate the nature of the contents. |
23 | | (Source: P.A. 96-166, eff. 1-1-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised |
24 | | 12-10-14.)
|
25 | | (720 ILCS 570/314.5) |
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1 | | Sec. 314.5. Medication shopping; pharmacy shopping. |
2 | | (a) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly or |
3 | | intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to |
4 | | obtain any controlled substance or prescription for a |
5 | | controlled substance from a prescriber or dispenser while being |
6 | | supplied with any controlled substance or prescription for a |
7 | | controlled substance by another prescriber or dispenser, |
8 | | without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled |
9 | | substance or prescription for a controlled substance to the |
10 | | prescriber or dispenser from whom the subsequent controlled |
11 | | substance or prescription for a controlled substance is sought. |
12 | | (b) It shall be unlawful for a person knowingly or |
13 | | intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to |
14 | | obtain any controlled substance from a pharmacy while being |
15 | | supplied with any controlled substance by another pharmacy, |
16 | | without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled |
17 | | substance to the pharmacy from which the subsequent controlled |
18 | | substance is sought. |
19 | | (c) A person may be in violation of Section 3.23 of the |
20 | | Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act or Section 406 of this Act |
21 | | when medication shopping or pharmacy shopping, or both. |
22 | | (d) When a person has been identified as having 3 6 or more |
23 | | prescribers or 3 6 or more pharmacies, or both, that do not |
24 | | utilize a common electronic file as specified in Section 20 of |
25 | | the Pharmacy Practice Act for controlled substances within the |
26 | | course of a continuous 30-day period, the Prescription |
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1 | | Monitoring Program may issue an unsolicited report to the |
2 | | prescribers , dispensers, and their designees informing them of |
3 | | the potential medication shopping. |
4 | | (e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create a |
5 | | requirement that any prescriber, dispenser, or pharmacist |
6 | | request any patient medication disclosure, report any patient |
7 | | activity, or prescribe or refuse to prescribe or dispense any |
8 | | medications. |
9 | | (f) This Section shall not be construed to apply to |
10 | | inpatients or residents at hospitals or other institutions or |
11 | | to institutional pharmacies.
|
12 | | (g) Any patient feedback, including grades, ratings, or |
13 | | written or verbal statements, in opposition to a clinical |
14 | | decision that the prescription of a controlled substance is not |
15 | | medically necessary shall not be the basis of any adverse |
16 | | action, evaluation, or any other type of negative |
17 | | credentialing, contracting, licensure, or employment action |
18 | | taken against a prescriber or dispenser. |
19 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
20 | | (720 ILCS 570/316)
|
21 | | Sec. 316. Prescription monitoring program. |
22 | | (a) The Department must provide for a
prescription |
23 | | monitoring program for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled |
24 | | substances that includes the following components and |
25 | | requirements:
|
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1 | | (1) The
dispenser must transmit to the
central |
2 | | repository, in a form and manner specified by the |
3 | | Department, the following information:
|
4 | | (A) The recipient's name and address .
|
5 | | (B) The recipient's date of birth and gender |
6 | | address .
|
7 | | (C) The national drug code number of the controlled
|
8 | | substance
dispensed.
|
9 | | (D) The date the controlled substance is |
10 | | dispensed.
|
11 | | (E) The quantity of the controlled substance |
12 | | dispensed and days supply .
|
13 | | (F) The dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement |
14 | | Administration
registration number.
|
15 | | (G) The prescriber's United States Drug |
16 | | Enforcement Administration
registration number.
|
17 | | (H) The dates the controlled substance |
18 | | prescription is filled. |
19 | | (I) The payment type used to purchase the |
20 | | controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party |
21 | | insurance). |
22 | | (J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing |
23 | | home, outpatient, etc.) for the controlled substances |
24 | | other than those filled at a retail pharmacy. |
25 | | (K) Any additional information that may be |
26 | | required by the department by administrative rule, |
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1 | | including but not limited to information required for |
2 | | compliance with the criteria for electronic reporting |
3 | | of the American Society for Automation and Pharmacy or |
4 | | its successor.
|
5 | | (2) The information required to be transmitted under |
6 | | this Section must be
transmitted not later more than the |
7 | | end of the next business day 7 days after the date on which |
8 | | a
controlled substance is dispensed, or at such other time |
9 | | as may be required by the Department by administrative |
10 | | rule.
|
11 | | (3) A dispenser must transmit the information required |
12 | | under this Section
by:
|
13 | | (A) an electronic device compatible with the |
14 | | receiving device of the
central repository;
|
15 | | (B) a computer diskette;
|
16 | | (C) a magnetic tape; or
|
17 | | (D) a pharmacy universal claim form or Pharmacy |
18 | | Inventory Control form;
|
19 | | (4) The Department may impose a civil fine of up to |
20 | | $100 per day for willful failure to report controlled |
21 | | substance dispensing to the Prescription Monitoring |
22 | | Program. The fine shall be calculated on no more than the |
23 | | number of days from the time the report was required to be |
24 | | made until the time the problem was resolved, and shall be |
25 | | payable to the Prescription Monitoring Program.
|
26 | | (b) The Department, by rule, may include in the monitoring |
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1 | | program certain other select drugs that are not included in |
2 | | Schedule II, III, IV, or V. The prescription monitoring program |
3 | | does not apply to
controlled substance prescriptions as |
4 | | exempted under Section
313.
|
5 | | (c) The collection of data on select drugs and scheduled |
6 | | substances by the Prescription Monitoring Program may be used |
7 | | as a tool for addressing oversight requirements of long-term |
8 | | care institutions as set forth by Public Act 96-1372. Long-term |
9 | | care pharmacies shall transmit patient medication profiles to |
10 | | the Prescription Monitoring Program monthly or more frequently |
11 | | as established by administrative rule. |
12 | | (d) The Department of Human Services shall appoint a |
13 | | full-time Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring |
14 | | Program. |
15 | | (e) Within one year of the effective date of this |
16 | | amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Department |
17 | | shall adopt rules establishing pilot initiatives involving a |
18 | | cross-section of hospitals in this State to increase electronic |
19 | | integration of a hospital's electronic health record with the |
20 | | Prescription Monitoring Program on or before January 1, 2019 to |
21 | | ensure all providers have timely access to relevant |
22 | | prescription information during the treatment of their |
23 | | patients. These rules shall also establish pilots that enhance |
24 | | the electronic integration of outpatient pharmacy records with |
25 | | the Prescription Monitoring Program to allow for faster |
26 | | transmission of the information required under this Section. In |
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1 | | collaboration with the Department of Human Services, the |
2 | | Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall |
3 | | identify funding sources to support the pilot projects in this |
4 | | Section and distribution of funds shall be based on voluntary |
5 | | and incentive-based models. The rules adopted by the Department |
6 | | shall also ensure that the Department continues to monitor |
7 | | updates in Electronic Health Record Technology and how other |
8 | | states have integrated their prescription monitoring databases |
9 | | with Electronic Health Records. |
10 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
11 | | (720 ILCS 570/317)
|
12 | | Sec. 317. Central repository for collection of |
13 | | information.
|
14 | | (a) The Department must designate a central repository for
|
15 | | the collection of information transmitted under Section 316 and |
16 | | former Section 321.
|
17 | | (b) The central repository must do the following:
|
18 | | (1) Create a database for information required to be |
19 | | transmitted under
Section 316 in the form required under |
20 | | rules adopted by the
Department, including search |
21 | | capability for the following:
|
22 | | (A) A recipient's name and address .
|
23 | | (B) A recipient's date of birth and gender address .
|
24 | | (C) The national drug code number of a controlled |
25 | | substance
dispensed.
|
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1 | | (D) The dates a controlled substance is dispensed.
|
2 | | (E) The quantities and days supply of a controlled |
3 | | substance dispensed.
|
4 | | (F) A dispenser's Administration
registration |
5 | | number.
|
6 | | (G) A prescriber's Administration
registration |
7 | | number.
|
8 | | (H) The dates the controlled substance |
9 | | prescription is filled. |
10 | | (I) The payment type used to purchase the |
11 | | controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party |
12 | | insurance). |
13 | | (J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing |
14 | | home, outpatient, etc.) for controlled substance |
15 | | prescriptions other than those filled at a retail |
16 | | pharmacy.
|
17 | | (2) Provide the Department with a database maintained |
18 | | by the central
repository. The Department of Financial and
|
19 | | Professional
Regulation must provide the
Department with |
20 | | electronic access to the license information of a |
21 | | prescriber or
dispenser.
|
22 | | (3) Secure the information collected by the central |
23 | | repository and the
database maintained by the central |
24 | | repository against access by unauthorized
persons. |
25 | | All prescribers shall designate one or more medical |
26 | | specialties or fields of medical care and treatment for which |
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1 | | the prescriber prescribes controlled substances when |
2 | | registering with the Prescription Monitoring Program. |
3 | | No fee shall be charged for access by a prescriber or |
4 | | dispenser.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
6 | | (720 ILCS 570/318)
|
7 | | Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information.
|
8 | | (a) Information received by the central repository under |
9 | | Section 316 and former Section 321
is confidential.
|
10 | | (b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the
|
11 | | confidentiality of the information described in subsection |
12 | | (a). The Department
may
disclose the information to another |
13 | | person only under
subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a |
14 | | fee not to exceed the actual cost
of
furnishing the
|
15 | | information.
|
16 | | (c) The Department may disclose confidential information |
17 | | described
in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in |
18 | | receiving, processing, or
storing the information.
|
19 | | (d) The Department may release confidential information |
20 | | described
in subsection (a) to the following persons:
|
21 | | (1) A governing body
that licenses practitioners and is |
22 | | engaged in an investigation, an
adjudication,
or a |
23 | | prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law |
24 | | that involves a
controlled substance.
|
25 | | (2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection |
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1 | | Division of the office of
the Attorney General, a |
2 | | prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy
|
3 | | Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the |
4 | | Attorney General,
who is engaged in any of the following |
5 | | activities involving controlled
substances:
|
6 | | (A) an investigation;
|
7 | | (B) an adjudication; or
|
8 | | (C) a prosecution
of a violation under any State or |
9 | | federal law that involves a controlled
substance.
|
10 | | (3) A law enforcement officer who is:
|
11 | | (A) authorized by the Illinois State Police or the |
12 | | office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or
|
13 | | municipal police department of Illinois to receive
|
14 | | information
of the type requested for the purpose of |
15 | | investigations involving controlled
substances; or
|
16 | | (B) approved by the Department to receive |
17 | | information of the
type requested for the purpose of |
18 | | investigations involving controlled
substances; and
|
19 | | (C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution of |
20 | | a violation
under
any State or federal law that |
21 | | involves a controlled substance.
|
22 | | (e) Before the Department releases confidential |
23 | | information under
subsection (d), the applicant must |
24 | | demonstrate in writing to the Department that:
|
25 | | (1) the applicant has reason to believe that a |
26 | | violation under any
State or
federal law that involves a |
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|
|
1 | | controlled substance has occurred; and
|
2 | | (2) the requested information is reasonably related to |
3 | | the investigation,
adjudication, or prosecution of the |
4 | | violation described in subdivision (1).
|
5 | | (f) The Department may receive and release prescription |
6 | | record information under Section 316 and former Section 321 to:
|
7 | | (1) a governing
body that licenses practitioners;
|
8 | | (2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection |
9 | | Division of the office of
the Attorney General, a |
10 | | prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy
|
11 | | Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the |
12 | | Attorney General;
|
13 | | (3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is:
|
14 | | (A) authorized to receive the type of
information |
15 | | released; and
|
16 | | (B) approved by the Department to receive the type |
17 | | of
information released; or
|
18 | | (4) prescription monitoring entities in other states |
19 | | per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h) |
20 | | below;
|
21 | | confidential prescription record information collected under |
22 | | Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or
|
23 | | practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing large |
24 | | quantities of
Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled
substances |
25 | | outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or business, as |
26 | | determined by the Advisory Committee created by Section 320.
|
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1 | | (g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be |
2 | | released until it
has been reviewed by an employee of the |
3 | | Department who is licensed as a
prescriber or a dispenser
and |
4 | | until that employee has certified
that further investigation is |
5 | | warranted. However, failure to comply with this
subsection (g) |
6 | | does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is otherwise
|
7 | | admissible in a proceeding described in subsection (h).
|
8 | | (h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving |
9 | | confidential
information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may |
10 | | disclose the information to a
law enforcement officer or an |
11 | | attorney for the office of the Attorney General
for use as |
12 | | evidence in the following:
|
13 | | (1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that |
14 | | involves a
controlled substance.
|
15 | | (2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile |
16 | | court that involves
a controlled substance.
|
17 | | (i) The Department may compile statistical reports from the
|
18 | | information described in subsection (a). The reports must not |
19 | | include
information that identifies, by name, license or |
20 | | address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other |
21 | | person
administering a controlled substance.
|
22 | | (j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a |
23 | | prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to |
24 | | assist the health care community in its goal of effective |
25 | | clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or |
26 | | abusing medications.
|
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1 | | (1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a |
2 | | stand-alone database which shall contain records for the |
3 | | previous 12 months. |
4 | | (2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure |
5 | | identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer |
6 | | solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the |
7 | | federal HIPAA law. |
8 | | (3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure |
9 | | link and encrypted software necessary to establish the link |
10 | | between an inquirer and the Department. Technical |
11 | | assistance shall also be provided. |
12 | | (4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must include |
13 | | the fee and the requestor's Drug Enforcement |
14 | | Administration license number and submitted upon the |
15 | | requestor's business stationery. |
16 | | (5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring Program |
17 | | Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the |
18 | | Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does |
19 | | not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or |
20 | | patient may be used for clinical studies. |
21 | | (6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used per |
22 | | administrative rule. |
23 | | (7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be |
24 | | construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use |
25 | | of this inquiry system.
|
26 | | (8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a |
|
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|
|
1 | | prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is |
2 | | initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall |
3 | | be held harmless from any civil liability.
|
4 | | (k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process by |
5 | | which to evaluate possible erroneous association of |
6 | | prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the |
7 | | Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL). |
8 | | (l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee |
9 | | is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of |
10 | | establishing a patient specific identifier. |
11 | | (m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them |
12 | | that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their |
13 | | personal prescription history pursuant to the validation |
14 | | process as set forth by administrative rule. |
15 | | (n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to |
16 | | develop operational push reports to entities with compatible |
17 | | electronic medical records. The process shall be covered within |
18 | | administrative rule established by the Department. |
19 | | (o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding |
20 | | healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients |
21 | | may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a unique |
22 | | identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system. |
23 | | (p) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall |
24 | | automatically create a log-in to the inquiry system when a |
25 | | prescriber or dispenser obtains or renews his or her controlled |
26 | | substance license. The Department of Financial and |
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|
|
1 | | Professional Regulation must provide the Prescription |
2 | | Monitoring Program with electronic access to the license |
3 | | information of a prescriber or dispenser to facilitate the |
4 | | creation of this profile. The Prescription Monitoring Program |
5 | | shall send the prescriber or dispenser information regarding |
6 | | the inquiry system, including instructions on how to log into |
7 | | the system, instructions on how to use the system to promote |
8 | | effective clinical practice, and opportunities for continuing |
9 | | education for the prescribing of controlled substances. The |
10 | | Prescription Monitoring Program shall also send to all enrolled |
11 | | prescribers, dispensers, and designees information regarding |
12 | | the unsolicited reports produced pursuant to Section 314.5 of |
13 | | this Act. |
14 | | (q) A prescriber or dispenser may authorize a designee to |
15 | | consult the inquiry system established by the Department under |
16 | | this subsection on his or her behalf, provided that all the |
17 | | following conditions are met: |
18 | | (1) the designee so authorized is employed by the same |
19 | | hospital or health care system; is employed by the same |
20 | | professional practice; or is under contract with such |
21 | | practice, hospital, or health care system; |
22 | | (2) the prescriber or dispenser takes reasonable steps |
23 | | to ensure that such designee is sufficiently competent in |
24 | | the use of the inquiry system; |
25 | | (3) the prescriber or dispenser remains responsible |
26 | | for ensuring that access to the inquiry system by the |
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|
|
1 | | designee is limited to authorized purposes and occurs in a |
2 | | manner that protects the confidentiality of the |
3 | | information obtained from the inquiry system, and remains |
4 | | responsible for any breach of confidentiality; and |
5 | | (4) the ultimate decision as to whether or not to |
6 | | prescribe or dispense a controlled substance remains with |
7 | | the prescriber or dispenser. |
8 | | The Prescription Monitoring Program shall send to |
9 | | registered designees information regarding the inquiry system, |
10 | | including instructions on how to log onto the system. |
11 | | (r) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall maintain an |
12 | | Internet website in conjunction with its prescriber and |
13 | | dispenser inquiry system. This website shall include, at a |
14 | | minimum, the following information: |
15 | | (1) current clinical guidelines developed by health |
16 | | care professional organizations on the prescribing of |
17 | | opioids or other controlled substances as determined by the |
18 | | Advisory Committee; |
19 | | (2) accredited continuing education programs related |
20 | | to prescribing of controlled substances; |
21 | | (3) programs or information developed by health care |
22 | | professionals that may be used to assess patients or help |
23 | | ensure compliance with prescriptions; |
24 | | (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the |
25 | | Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other |
26 | | public and private organizations which are relevant to |
|
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|
1 | | prescribing; |
2 | | (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing; |
3 | | (6) other information regarding the prescription of |
4 | | controlled substances; and |
5 | | (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal |
6 | | events, including take-back programs or other disposal |
7 | | options or events. |
8 | | The content of the Internet website shall be periodically |
9 | | reviewed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory |
10 | | Committee as set forth in Section 320 and updated in accordance |
11 | | with the recommendation of the advisory committee. |
12 | | (s) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall regularly |
13 | | send electronic updates to the registered users of the Program. |
14 | | The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall |
15 | | review any communications sent to registered users and also |
16 | | make recommendations for communications as set forth in Section |
17 | | 320. These updates shall include the following information: |
18 | | (1) opportunities for accredited continuing education |
19 | | programs related to prescribing of controlled substances; |
20 | | (2) current clinical guidelines developed by health |
21 | | care professional organizations on the prescribing of |
22 | | opioids or other drugs as determined by the Advisory |
23 | | Committee; |
24 | | (3) programs or information developed by health care |
25 | | professionals that may be used to assess patients or help |
26 | | ensure compliance with prescriptions; |
|
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|
|
1 | | (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the |
2 | | Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other |
3 | | public and private organizations which are relevant to |
4 | | prescribing; |
5 | | (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing; |
6 | | (6) other information regarding prescribing of |
7 | | controlled substances; |
8 | | (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal |
9 | | events, including take-back programs or other disposal |
10 | | options or events; and |
11 | | (8) reminders that the Prescription Monitoring Program |
12 | | is a useful clinical tool. |
13 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
|
14 | | (720 ILCS 570/319)
|
15 | | Sec. 319. Rules. The Department shall must adopt rules |
16 | | under the Illinois
Administrative
Procedure Act to
implement |
17 | | Sections 316 through 321, including the following:
|
18 | | (1) Information collection and retrieval procedures |
19 | | for the central
repository, including the
controlled |
20 | | substances to be included in
the program
required under |
21 | | Section 316 and Section 321 (now repealed).
|
22 | | (2) Design for the creation of the database required |
23 | | under Section
317.
|
24 | | (3) Requirements for the development and installation |
25 | | of on-line
electronic access by the Department to |
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|
|
1 | | information collected by the
central repository.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
3 | | (720 ILCS 570/320)
|
4 | | Sec. 320. Advisory committee.
|
5 | | (a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program |
6 | | Advisory Committee The Secretary of the Department of Human |
7 | | Services must appoint an advisory committee to
assist the |
8 | | Department of Human Services in implementing the Prescription |
9 | | Monitoring Program controlled substance
prescription
|
10 | | monitoring program created by this Article and to advise the |
11 | | Department on the professional performance of prescribers and |
12 | | dispensers and other matters germane to the advisory |
13 | | committee's field of competence Section 316 and former Section |
14 | | 321 of this Act.
The Advisory Committee consists of prescribers |
15 | | and dispensers .
|
16 | | (b) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring |
17 | | Program shall appoint Secretary of the Department of Human |
18 | | Services or his or her designee must determine the number of |
19 | | members to
serve on the advisory committee. The advisory |
20 | | committee shall be composed of prescribers and dispensers as |
21 | | follows: 4 physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its |
22 | | branches; one advanced practice nurse; one physician |
23 | | assistant; one optometrist; one dentist; one podiatric |
24 | | physician; and 3 pharmacists. The Clinical Director of the |
25 | | Prescription Monitoring Program may appoint a representative |
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|
|
1 | | of an organization representing a profession required to be |
2 | | appointed. The Clinical Director of the Prescription |
3 | | Monitoring Program shall serve as the chair of the committee. |
4 | | The Secretary must choose one of the members
of the advisory |
5 | | committee to serve as chair of the committee.
|
6 | | (c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers |
7 | | as it deems
appropriate.
|
8 | | (d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no |
9 | | compensation for
their services as members of the advisory |
10 | | committee but may be reimbursed for
their actual expenses |
11 | | incurred in serving on the advisory committee.
|
12 | | (e) The advisory committee shall: |
13 | | (1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act in |
14 | | order to determine whether changes should be recommended to |
15 | | the General Assembly ; . |
16 | | (2) review current drug schedules in order to manage |
17 | | changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the |
18 | | utilization of this Act ; . |
19 | | (3) review the following: current clinical guidelines |
20 | | developed by health care professional organizations on the |
21 | | prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances; |
22 | | accredited continuing education programs related to |
23 | | prescribing and dispensing; programs or information |
24 | | developed by health care professional organizations that |
25 | | may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance |
26 | | with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug |
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1 | | Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and |
2 | | Prevention, and other public and private organizations |
3 | | which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant |
4 | | medical studies; and other publications which involve the |
5 | | prescription of controlled substances; |
6 | | (4) make recommendations for inclusion of these |
7 | | materials or other studies which may be effective resources |
8 | | for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet website of |
9 | | the inquiry system established under Section 318; |
10 | | (5) on at least a quarterly basis, review the content |
11 | | of the Internet website of the inquiry system established |
12 | | pursuant to Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has |
13 | | the most current available information; |
14 | | (6) on at least a quarterly basis, review opportunities |
15 | | for federal grants and other forms of funding to support |
16 | | projects which will increase the number of pilot programs |
17 | | which integrate the inquiry system with electronic health |
18 | | records; and |
19 | | (7) on at least a quarterly basis, review communication |
20 | | to be sent to all registered users of the inquiry system |
21 | | established pursuant to Section 318, including |
22 | | recommendations for relevant accredited continuing |
23 | | education and information regarding prescribing and |
24 | | dispensing. |
25 | | (f) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring |
26 | | Program shall select 5 members, 3 physicians and 2 pharmacists, |
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1 | | of the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to |
2 | | serve as members of the peer review subcommittee. The purpose |
3 | | of the peer review subcommittee is to advise the Program on |
4 | | matters germane to the advisory committee's field of |
5 | | competence, establish a formal peer review of professional |
6 | | performance of prescribers and dispensers, and develop |
7 | | communications to transmit to prescribers and dispensers. The |
8 | | deliberations, information, and communications of the peer |
9 | | review subcommittee are privileged and confidential and shall |
10 | | not be disclosed in any manner except in accordance with |
11 | | current law. |
12 | | (1) The peer review subcommittee shall periodically |
13 | | review the data contained within the prescription |
14 | | monitoring program to identify those prescribers or |
15 | | dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside the |
16 | | currently accepted standards in the course of their |
17 | | professional practice. |
18 | | (2) The peer review subcommittee may identify |
19 | | prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing outside |
20 | | the currently accepted medical standards in the course of |
21 | | their professional practice and send the identified |
22 | | prescriber or dispenser a request for information |
23 | | regarding their prescribing or dispensing practices. This |
24 | | request for information shall be sent via certified mail, |
25 | | return receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall |
26 | | have 30 days to respond to the request for information. |
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1 | | (3) The peer review subcommittee shall refer a |
2 | | prescriber or a dispenser to the Department of Financial |
3 | | and Professional Regulation in the following situations: |
4 | | (i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond |
5 | | to three successive requests for information; |
6 | | (ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of the |
7 | | peer review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser |
8 | | does not have a satisfactory explanation for the |
9 | | practices identified by the peer review subcommittee |
10 | | in its request for information; or |
11 | | (iii) following communications with the peer |
12 | | review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does |
13 | | not sufficiently rectify the practices identified in |
14 | | the request for information in the opinion of a |
15 | | majority of the members of the peer review |
16 | | subcommittee. |
17 | | (4) The Department of Financial and Professional |
18 | | Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in |
19 | | accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber |
20 | | or dispenser referred by the peer review subcommittee. |
21 | | (5) The peer review subcommittee shall prepare an |
22 | | annual report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall |
23 | | contain the following information: the number of times the |
24 | | peer review subcommittee was convened; the number of |
25 | | prescribers or dispensers who were reviewed by the peer |
26 | | review committee; the number of requests for information |
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1 | | sent out by the peer review subcommittee; and the number of |
2 | | prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of |
3 | | Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report |
4 | | shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to |
5 | | the General Assembly. The report prepared by the peer |
6 | | review subcommittee shall not identify any prescriber, |
7 | | dispenser, or patient. |
8 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
9 | | (720 ILCS 570/406) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1406)
|
10 | | Sec. 406. (a) It is unlawful for any person:
|
11 | | (1) who is subject to Article III knowingly to |
12 | | distribute or dispense
a controlled substance in violation |
13 | | of Sections 308 through 314.5 of this Act; or
|
14 | | (2) who is a registrant, to manufacture a controlled |
15 | | substance not
authorized by his or her registration, or to |
16 | | distribute or dispense a controlled
substance not |
17 | | authorized by his or her registration to another registrant |
18 | | or other
authorized person; or
|
19 | | (3) to refuse or fail to make, keep or furnish any |
20 | | record, notification,
order form, statement, invoice or |
21 | | information required under this Act; or
|
22 | | (4) to refuse an entry into any premises for any |
23 | | inspection authorized by
this Act; or
|
24 | | (5) knowingly to keep or maintain any store, shop, |
25 | | warehouse, dwelling,
building, vehicle, boat, aircraft, or |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 224 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | other structure or place, which is
resorted to by a person |
2 | | unlawfully possessing controlled substances, or
which is |
3 | | used for possessing, manufacturing, dispensing or |
4 | | distributing
controlled substances in violation of this |
5 | | Act.
|
6 | | Any person who violates this subsection (a) is guilty of a |
7 | | Class A
misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony |
8 | | for each subsequent
offense. The fine for each subsequent |
9 | | offense shall not be more than
$100,000. In addition, any |
10 | | practitioner who is found guilty of violating
this subsection |
11 | | (a) is subject to suspension and revocation of his or her
|
12 | | professional license, in accordance with such procedures as are |
13 | | provided by
law for the taking of disciplinary action with |
14 | | regard to the license of
said practitioner's profession.
|
15 | | (b) It is unlawful for any person knowingly:
|
16 | | (1) to distribute, as a registrant, a controlled |
17 | | substance classified
in Schedule I or II, except pursuant |
18 | | to an order form as required by Section
307 of this Act; or
|
19 | | (2) to use, in the course of the manufacture or |
20 | | distribution of a
controlled
substance, a registration |
21 | | number which is fictitious, revoked, suspended,
or issued |
22 | | to another person; or
|
23 | | (3) to acquire or obtain , or attempt to acquire or |
24 | | obtain, possession of a controlled substance by
|
25 | | misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception or |
26 | | subterfuge; or
|
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| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 225 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | (3.1) to withhold information requested from a |
2 | | practitioner, with the intent to obtain a controlled |
3 | | substance that has not been prescribed, by |
4 | | misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception, subterfuge, |
5 | | or concealment of a material fact; or
|
6 | | (4) to furnish false or fraudulent material |
7 | | information in, or omit any
material information from, any |
8 | | application, report or other document required
to be kept |
9 | | or filed under this Act, or any record required to be kept |
10 | | by
this Act; or
|
11 | | (5) to make, distribute or possess any punch, die, |
12 | | plate, stone or other
thing designed to print, imprint or |
13 | | reproduce the trademark, trade name
or other identifying |
14 | | mark, imprint or device of another, or any likeness
of any |
15 | | of the foregoing, upon any controlled substance or |
16 | | container or labeling
thereof so as to render the drug a |
17 | | counterfeit substance; or
|
18 | | (6) (blank); or
|
19 | | (7) (blank).
|
20 | | Any person who violates this subsection (b) is guilty of a |
21 | | Class 4 felony
for the first offense and a Class 3 felony for |
22 | | each subsequent offense.
The fine for the first offense shall |
23 | | be not more than $100,000. The fine
for each subsequent offense |
24 | | shall not be more than $200,000.
|
25 | | (c) A person who knowingly or intentionally violates |
26 | | Section 316, 317, 318,
or 319 is guilty of a Class A |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 226 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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|
1 | | misdemeanor.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
3 | | (720 ILCS 570/410) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1410)
|
4 | | Sec. 410. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously |
5 | | been convicted
of, or placed on probation or court supervision |
6 | | for any offense under this
Act or any law of the United States |
7 | | or of any State relating to cannabis
or controlled substances, |
8 | | pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession
of a |
9 | | controlled or counterfeit substance under subsection (c) of |
10 | | Section
402 or of unauthorized possession of prescription form |
11 | | under Section 406.2, the court, without entering a judgment and |
12 | | with the consent of such
person, may sentence him or her to |
13 | | probation.
|
14 | | (b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall |
15 | | enter an order
specifying a period of probation of 24 months |
16 | | and shall defer further
proceedings in the case until the |
17 | | conclusion of the period or until the
filing of a petition |
18 | | alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.
|
19 | | (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: |
20 | | (1) not
violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2) |
21 | | refrain from
possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon; |
22 | | (3) submit to periodic drug
testing at a time and in a manner |
23 | | as ordered by the court, but no less than 3
times during the |
24 | | period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be
|
25 | | paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 227 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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|
1 | | of community
service, provided community service is available |
2 | | in the jurisdiction and is
funded
and approved by the county |
3 | | board.
|
4 | | (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require |
5 | | that the person:
|
6 | | (1) make a report to and appear in person before or |
7 | | participate with the
court or such courts, person, or |
8 | | social service agency as directed by the
court in the order |
9 | | of probation;
|
10 | | (2) pay a fine and costs;
|
11 | | (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational
|
12 | | training;
|
13 | | (4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or |
14 | | treatment or
rehabilitation approved by the Illinois |
15 | | Department of Human Services;
|
16 | | (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the |
17 | | instruction or
residence of defendants on probation;
|
18 | | (6) support his or her dependents;
|
19 | | (6-5) refrain from having in his or her body the |
20 | | presence of any illicit
drug prohibited by the Cannabis |
21 | | Control Act, the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, or the |
22 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, |
23 | | unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of
his |
24 | | or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the |
25 | | presence of any
illicit drug;
|
26 | | (7) and in addition, if a minor:
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 228 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster |
2 | | home;
|
3 | | (ii) attend school;
|
4 | | (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
|
5 | | (iv) contribute to his or her own support at home |
6 | | or in a foster home.
|
7 | | (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the |
8 | | court
may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and |
9 | | proceed as
otherwise provided.
|
10 | | (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of |
11 | | probation, the court
shall discharge the person and dismiss the |
12 | | proceedings against him or her.
|
13 | | (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a |
14 | | conviction
for the purposes of imposing the conditions of |
15 | | probation and for appeal,
however, discharge and dismissal |
16 | | under this Section is not a conviction for
purposes of this Act |
17 | | or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities
imposed by |
18 | | law upon conviction of a crime.
|
19 | | (h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under |
20 | | this Section,
Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section |
21 | | 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, |
22 | | Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, |
23 | | or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 |
24 | | or the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person.
|
25 | | (i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, |
26 | | the Cannabis
Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 229 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | Community Protection Act within 5 years
subsequent to a |
2 | | discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and
|
3 | | dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the |
4 | | sentencing proceeding
for that conviction
as evidence in |
5 | | aggravation.
|
6 | | (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is |
7 | | sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer |
8 | | the person to the drug court established in that judicial |
9 | | circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. |
10 | | The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of |
11 | | successfully completing a sentence of probation under this |
12 | | Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the |
13 | | court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers |
14 | | from a substance abuse problem that makes him or her |
15 | | substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of |
16 | | probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set |
17 | | forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the |
18 | | person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section, |
19 | | but may be considered for the drug court program. |
20 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; |
21 | | 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)
|
22 | | Section 5-105. The Methamphetamine Control and Community |
23 | | Protection Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:
|
24 | | (720 ILCS 646/70)
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 230 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | Sec. 70. Probation. |
2 | | (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been |
3 | | convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for |
4 | | any offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances |
5 | | Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or any law of the United States |
6 | | or of any state relating to cannabis or controlled substances, |
7 | | pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of less than |
8 | | 15 grams of methamphetamine under paragraph (1) or (2) of |
9 | | subsection (b) of Section 60 of this Act, the court, without |
10 | | entering a judgment and with the consent of the person, may |
11 | | sentence him or her to probation.
|
12 | | (b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall |
13 | | enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months |
14 | | and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the |
15 | | conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition |
16 | | alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.
|
17 | | (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person: |
18 | | (1) not violate any criminal statute of any |
19 | | jurisdiction; |
20 | | (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other |
21 | | dangerous weapon; |
22 | | (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a |
23 | | manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times |
24 | | during the period of the probation, with the cost of the |
25 | | testing to be paid by the probationer; and |
26 | | (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service, |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 231 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | if community service is available in the jurisdiction and |
2 | | is funded and approved by the county board.
|
3 | | (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require |
4 | | that the person take one or more of the following actions:
|
5 | | (1) make a report to and appear in person before or |
6 | | participate with the court or such courts, person, or |
7 | | social service agency as directed by the court in the order |
8 | | of probation;
|
9 | | (2) pay a fine and costs;
|
10 | | (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational |
11 | | training;
|
12 | | (4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or |
13 | | treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois |
14 | | Department of Human Services;
|
15 | | (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the |
16 | | instruction or residence of defendants on probation;
|
17 | | (6) support his or her dependents;
|
18 | | (7) refrain from having in his or her body the presence |
19 | | of any illicit drug prohibited by this Act, the Cannabis |
20 | | Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, |
21 | | unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his |
22 | | or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the |
23 | | presence of any illicit drug; or
|
24 | | (8) if a minor:
|
25 | | (i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster |
26 | | home;
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 232 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (ii) attend school;
|
2 | | (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; |
3 | | or
|
4 | | (iv) contribute to his or her own support at home |
5 | | or in a foster home.
|
6 | | (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the |
7 | | court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and |
8 | | proceed as otherwise provided.
|
9 | | (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of |
10 | | probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the |
11 | | proceedings against the person.
|
12 | | (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a |
13 | | conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of |
14 | | probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal |
15 | | under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act |
16 | | or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by |
17 | | law upon conviction of a crime.
|
18 | | (h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under |
19 | | this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances |
20 | | Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or |
21 | | 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c) |
22 | | of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal |
23 | | Code of 2012 with respect to any person.
|
24 | | (i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act, |
25 | | the Cannabis Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances |
26 | | Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 233 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this |
2 | | Section are admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that |
3 | | conviction as evidence in aggravation.
|
4 | | (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is |
5 | | sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer |
6 | | the person to the drug court established in that judicial |
7 | | circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act. |
8 | | The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of |
9 | | successfully completing a sentence of probation under this |
10 | | Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the |
11 | | court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers |
12 | | from a substance abuse problem that makes him or her |
13 | | substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of |
14 | | probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set |
15 | | forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the |
16 | | person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section, |
17 | | but may be considered for the drug court program. |
18 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; |
19 | | 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)
|
20 | | Section 5-110. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended |
21 | | by changing Sections 5-6-3.3, 5-6-3.4, 5-9-1.1, and 5-9-1.1-5 |
22 | | as follows:
|
23 | | (730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.3) |
24 | | Sec. 5-6-3.3. Offender Initiative Program. |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 234 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | (a) Statement of purpose. The General Assembly seeks to
|
2 | | continue other successful programs that promote public safety,
|
3 | | conserve valuable resources, and reduce recidivism by
|
4 | | defendants who can lead productive lives by creating the
|
5 | | Offender Initiative Program. |
6 | | (a-1) Whenever any person who has not previously been
|
7 | | convicted of, or placed on probation or conditional discharge
|
8 | | for, any felony offense under the laws of this State, the laws
|
9 | | of any other state, or the laws of the United States, is
|
10 | | arrested for and charged with a probationable felony offense of |
11 | | theft, retail theft, forgery, possession of a stolen motor
|
12 | | vehicle, burglary, possession of burglary tools, possession of
|
13 | | cannabis, possession of a controlled substance, or possession
|
14 | | of methamphetamine, the court, with the consent of the
|
15 | | defendant and the State's Attorney, may continue this matter to
|
16 | | allow a defendant to participate and complete the Offender
|
17 | | Initiative Program. |
18 | | (a-2) Exemptions. A defendant shall not be eligible for |
19 | | this Program if the offense he or she has been arrested for and |
20 | | charged with is a violent offense. For purposes of this
|
21 | | Program, a "violent offense" is any offense where bodily harm
|
22 | | was inflicted or where force was used against any person or
|
23 | | threatened against any person, any offense involving sexual
|
24 | | conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation, any
|
25 | | offense of domestic violence, domestic battery, violation of an
|
26 | | order of protection, stalking, hate crime, driving under the
|
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 235 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | influence of drugs or alcohol, and any offense involving the
|
2 | | possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. A defendant shall
|
3 | | not be eligible for this Program if he or she has previously
|
4 | | been adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a
|
5 | | violent offense as defined in this subsection. |
6 | | (b) When a defendant is placed in the Program, after both |
7 | | the defendant and State's Attorney waive preliminary hearing |
8 | | pursuant to Section 109-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of |
9 | | 1963, the court
shall enter an order specifying that
the |
10 | | proceedings shall be suspended while the defendant is |
11 | | participating in a Program of not less 12 months. |
12 | | (c) The conditions of the Program shall be that the
|
13 | | defendant: |
14 | | (1) not violate any criminal statute of this State or
|
15 | | any other jurisdiction; |
16 | | (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other
|
17 | | dangerous weapon; |
18 | | (3) make full restitution to the victim or property
|
19 | | owner pursuant to Section 5-5-6 of this Code; |
20 | | (4) obtain employment or perform not less than 30 hours
|
21 | | of community service, provided community service is
|
22 | | available in the county and is funded and approved by the
|
23 | | county board; and |
24 | | (5) attend educational courses designed to prepare the
|
25 | | defendant for obtaining a high school diploma or to work
|
26 | | toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 236 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | toward
completing a vocational training program. |
2 | | (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require
|
3 | | that the defendant: |
4 | | (1) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or
|
5 | | treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois
|
6 | | Department of Human Services; |
7 | | (2) refrain from having in his or her body the presence
|
8 | | of any illicit drug prohibited by the Methamphetamine
|
9 | | Control and Community Protection Act, the Cannabis Control
|
10 | | Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless
|
11 | | prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her
|
12 | | blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence
|
13 | | of any illicit drug; |
14 | | (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time, manner, |
15 | | and frequency as ordered by the court; |
16 | | (4) pay fines, fees and costs; and |
17 | | (5) in addition, if a minor: |
18 | | (i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster
|
19 | | home; |
20 | | (ii) attend school; |
21 | | (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
|
22 | | or |
23 | | (iv) contribute to his or her own support at home
|
24 | | or in a foster home. |
25 | | (e) When the State's Attorney makes a factually specific |
26 | | offer of proof that the defendant has failed to successfully |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 237 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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1 | | complete the Program or has violated any of the conditions of |
2 | | the Program, the court shall enter an order that the defendant |
3 | | has not successfully completed the Program and continue the |
4 | | case for arraignment pursuant to Section 113-1 of the Code of |
5 | | Criminal Procedure of 1963 for further proceedings as if the |
6 | | defendant had not participated in the Program. |
7 | | (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of the
|
8 | | Program, the State's Attorney shall dismiss the case or the |
9 | | court shall discharge the person and dismiss the
proceedings |
10 | | against the person. |
11 | | (g) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under
|
12 | | this Section with respect to any person.
|
13 | | (h) Notwithstanding subsection (a-1), if the court finds |
14 | | that the defendant suffers from a substance abuse problem, then |
15 | | before the person participates in the Program under this |
16 | | Section, the court may refer the person to the drug court |
17 | | established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of |
18 | | the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall |
19 | | evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully fulfilling |
20 | | the terms and conditions of the Program under this Section and |
21 | | shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the |
22 | | drug court team finds that the person suffers from a substance |
23 | | abuse problem that makes him or her substantially unlikely to |
24 | | successfully fulfill the terms and conditions of the Program, |
25 | | then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of |
26 | | a written order, and the person shall be ineligible to |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 238 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | participate in the Program under this Section, but may be |
2 | | considered for the drug court program. |
3 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
4 | | (730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.4) |
5 | | Sec. 5-6-3.4. Second Chance Probation. |
6 | | (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been |
7 | | convicted of, or placed on probation or conditional discharge |
8 | | for, any felony offense under the laws of this State, the laws |
9 | | of any other state, or the laws of the United States, including |
10 | | probation under Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled |
11 | | Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and |
12 | | Community Protection Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control |
13 | | Act, subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of |
14 | | 2012, Treatment Alternatives for Criminal Justice Clients |
15 | | (TASC) under Article 40 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse |
16 | | and Dependency Act, or prior successful completion of the |
17 | | Offender Initiative Program under Section 5-6-3.3 of this Code, |
18 | | and pleads guilty to, or is found guilty of, a probationable |
19 | | felony offense of possession of a controlled substance that is |
20 | | punishable as a Class 4 felony; possession of
methamphetamine |
21 | | that is punishable as a Class 4 felony; theft that is |
22 | | punishable as a Class 3 felony based on the value of the |
23 | | property or punishable as a Class 4 felony if the theft was |
24 | | committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was |
25 | | of governmental property; retail
theft that is punishable as a |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 239 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
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|
1 | | Class 3 felony based on the value of the property; criminal |
2 | | damage to property that is punishable as a Class 4 felony; |
3 | | criminal damage to
government supported property that is |
4 | | punishable as a Class 4 felony; or possession of cannabis which |
5 | | is punishable as a Class 4 felony, the court, with the consent |
6 | | of the defendant and the State's Attorney, may, without |
7 | | entering a judgment, sentence the defendant to probation under |
8 | | this Section. |
9 | | (a-1) Exemptions. A defendant is not eligible for this |
10 | | probation if the offense he or she pleads guilty to, or is |
11 | | found guilty of, is a violent offense, or he or she has |
12 | | previously been convicted of a violent offense. For purposes of |
13 | | this probation, a "violent offense" is any offense where bodily |
14 | | harm was inflicted or where force was used against any person |
15 | | or threatened against any person, any offense involving sexual |
16 | | conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation, any |
17 | | offense of domestic violence, domestic battery, violation of an |
18 | | order of protection, stalking, hate crime, driving under the |
19 | | influence of drugs or alcohol, and any offense involving the |
20 | | possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. A defendant shall |
21 | | not be eligible for this probation if he or she has previously |
22 | | been adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a |
23 | | violent offense as defined in this subsection. |
24 | | (b) When a defendant is placed on probation, the court |
25 | | shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of not |
26 | | less than 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 240 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of |
2 | | a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of |
3 | | probation. |
4 | | (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the |
5 | | defendant: |
6 | | (1) not violate any criminal statute of this State or |
7 | | any other jurisdiction; |
8 | | (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other |
9 | | dangerous weapon; |
10 | | (3) make full restitution to the victim or property |
11 | | owner under Section 5-5-6 of this Code; |
12 | | (4) obtain or attempt to obtain employment; |
13 | | (5) pay fines and costs; |
14 | | (6) attend educational courses designed to prepare the |
15 | | defendant for obtaining a high school diploma or to work |
16 | | toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work |
17 | | toward completing a vocational training program; |
18 | | (7) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a |
19 | | manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times |
20 | | during the period of probation, with the cost of the |
21 | | testing to be paid by the defendant; and |
22 | | (8) perform a minimum of 30 hours of community service. |
23 | | (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require |
24 | | that the defendant: |
25 | | (1) make a report to and appear in person before or |
26 | | participate with the court or such courts, person, or |
|
| | HB0001 Engrossed | - 241 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |
|
|
1 | | social service agency as directed by the court in the order |
2 | | of probation; |
3 | | (2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or |
4 | | treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois |
5 | | Department of Human Services; |
6 | | (3) attend or reside in a facility established for the |
7 | | instruction or residence of defendants on probation; |
8 | | (4) support his or her dependents; or |
9 | | (5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence |
10 | | of any illicit drug prohibited by the Methamphetamine |
11 | | Control and Community Protection Act, the Cannabis Control |
12 | | Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless |
13 | | prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her |
14 | | blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence |
15 | | of any illicit drug. |
16 | | (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the |
17 | | court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and |
18 | | proceed as otherwise provided by law. |
19 | | (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of |
20 | | probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the |
21 | | proceedings against the person. |
22 | | (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a |
23 | | conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of |
24 | | probation and for appeal; however, a discharge and dismissal |
25 | | under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this |
26 | | Code or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities |
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1 | | imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. |
2 | | (h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under |
3 | | this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances |
4 | | Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
5 | | Protection Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, |
6 | | Treatment Alternatives for Criminal Justice Clients (TASC) |
7 | | under Article 40 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
8 | | Dependency Act, the Offender Initiative Program under Section |
9 | | 5-6-3.3 of this Code, and subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of |
10 | | the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person. |
11 | | (i) If a person is convicted of any offense which occurred |
12 | | within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under |
13 | | this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section |
14 | | shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that |
15 | | conviction as evidence in aggravation.
|
16 | | (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), if the court finds that |
17 | | the defendant suffers from a substance abuse problem, then |
18 | | before the person is placed on probation under this Section, |
19 | | the court may refer the person to the drug court established in |
20 | | that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court |
21 | | Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's |
22 | | likelihood of successfully fulfilling the terms and conditions |
23 | | of probation under this Section and shall report the results of |
24 | | its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that |
25 | | the person suffers from a substance abuse problem that makes |
26 | | him or her substantially unlikely to successfully fulfill the |
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1 | | terms and conditions of probation under this Section, then the |
2 | | drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a |
3 | | written order, and the person shall be ineligible to be placed |
4 | | on probation under this Section, but may be considered for the |
5 | | drug court program. |
6 | | (Source: P.A. 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
7 | | (730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.1) |
8 | | (Text of Section from P.A. 94-550, 96-132, 96-402, 96-1234, |
9 | | 97-545, and 98-537) |
10 | | Sec. 5-9-1.1. Drug related offenses. |
11 | | (a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a drug |
12 | | related
offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or |
13 | | possession or delivery
of a controlled substance, other than |
14 | | methamphetamine, as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, as |
15 | | amended,
or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, as amended, |
16 | | in addition to any
other penalty imposed, a fine shall be |
17 | | levied by the court at not less than
the full street value of |
18 | | the cannabis or controlled substances seized. |
19 | | "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the |
20 | | basis of testimony
of law enforcement personnel and the |
21 | | defendant as to the amount seized and
such testimony as may be |
22 | | required by the court as to the current street
value of the |
23 | | cannabis or controlled substance seized. |
24 | | (b) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
25 | | of this
Section, a fine of
$100 shall be levied by the court, |
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1 | | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk |
2 | | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the |
3 | | Clerks of Courts Act
for deposit into the Trauma
Center Fund |
4 | | for distribution as provided under Section 3.225 of the |
5 | | Emergency
Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act. |
6 | | (c) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
7 | | of this
Section, a fee of $5 shall be assessed by the court, |
8 | | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk |
9 | | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the |
10 | | Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the Spinal Cord
Injury |
11 | | Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund.
This additional fee of $5 |
12 | | shall not be considered a part of the fine for
purposes of any |
13 | | reduction in the fine for time served either before or after
|
14 | | sentencing. |
15 | | (d) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
16 | | of this
Section for a drug related
offense involving possession |
17 | | or delivery
of cannabis or possession or delivery of a |
18 | | controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, |
19 | | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine |
20 | | Control and Community Protection Act, a fee of $50 shall be |
21 | | assessed by the court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected |
22 | | by the Circuit Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer
under |
23 | | Section 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the |
24 | | Performance-enhancing Substance Testing Fund.
This additional |
25 | | fee of $50 shall not be considered a part of the fine for
|
26 | | purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either |
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1 | | before or after
sentencing. The provisions of this subsection |
2 | | (d), other than this sentence, are inoperative after June 30, |
3 | | 2011. |
4 | | (e) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
5 | | of this
Section, a $25 assessment shall be assessed by the |
6 | | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit |
7 | | Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the |
8 | | Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The moneys |
9 | | deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund |
10 | | under this Section shall be appropriated to and administered by |
11 | | the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for |
12 | | funding of drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement |
13 | | Groups. |
14 | | (f) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
15 | | of this
Section, a $40 $20 assessment shall be assessed by the |
16 | | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit |
17 | | Clerk. Of the collected proceeds, (i) 90% shall be remitted to |
18 | | the State Treasurer for deposit into the Prescription Pill and |
19 | | Drug Disposal Fund; (ii) 5% shall be remitted for deposit into |
20 | | the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund, for use by the |
21 | | Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the costs |
22 | | associated with making grants from the Prescription Pill and |
23 | | Drug Disposal Fund; and (iii) the Circuit Clerk shall retain 5% |
24 | | for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and |
25 | | Administrative Fund for the costs associated with |
26 | | administering this subsection. |
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; 98-537, eff. 8-23-13.)
|
2 | | (Text of Section from P.A. 94-556, 96-132, 96-402, 96-1234, |
3 | | 97-545, and 98-537) |
4 | | Sec. 5-9-1.1. Drug related offenses. |
5 | | (a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a drug |
6 | | related
offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or |
7 | | possession or delivery
of a controlled substance as defined in |
8 | | the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances |
9 | | Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
10 | | Act, in addition to any
other penalty imposed, a fine shall be |
11 | | levied by the court at not less than
the full street value of |
12 | | the cannabis or controlled substances seized. |
13 | | "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the |
14 | | basis of testimony
of law enforcement personnel and the |
15 | | defendant as to the amount seized and
such testimony as may be |
16 | | required by the court as to the current street
value of the |
17 | | cannabis or controlled substance seized. |
18 | | (b) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
19 | | of this
Section, a fine of $100 shall be levied by the court, |
20 | | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk |
21 | | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the |
22 | | Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the Trauma
Center Fund |
23 | | for distribution as provided under Section 3.225 of the |
24 | | Emergency
Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act. |
25 | | (c) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
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1 | | of this
Section, a fee of $5 shall be assessed by the court, |
2 | | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk |
3 | | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the |
4 | | Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the Spinal Cord
Injury |
5 | | Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund.
This additional fee of $5 |
6 | | shall not be considered a part of the fine for
purposes of any |
7 | | reduction in the fine for time served either before or after
|
8 | | sentencing. |
9 | | (d) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
10 | | of this
Section for a drug related
offense involving possession |
11 | | or delivery
of cannabis or possession or delivery of a |
12 | | controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, |
13 | | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine |
14 | | Control and Community Protection Act, a fee of $50 shall be |
15 | | assessed by the court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected |
16 | | by the Circuit Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer
under |
17 | | Section 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the |
18 | | Performance-enhancing Substance Testing Fund.
This additional |
19 | | fee of $50 shall not be considered a part of the fine for
|
20 | | purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either |
21 | | before or after
sentencing. The provisions of this subsection |
22 | | (d), other than this sentence, are inoperative after June 30, |
23 | | 2011. |
24 | | (e) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
25 | | of this
Section, a $25 assessment shall be assessed by the |
26 | | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit |
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1 | | Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the |
2 | | Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The moneys |
3 | | deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund |
4 | | under this Section shall be appropriated to and administered by |
5 | | the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for |
6 | | funding of drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement |
7 | | Groups. |
8 | | (f) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
9 | | of this
Section, a $40 $20 assessment shall be assessed by the |
10 | | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit |
11 | | Clerk. Of the collected proceeds, (i) 90% shall be remitted to |
12 | | the State Treasurer for deposit into the Prescription Pill and |
13 | | Drug Disposal Fund; (ii) 5% shall be remitted for deposit into |
14 | | the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund, for use by the |
15 | | Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the costs |
16 | | associated with making grants from the Prescription Pill and |
17 | | Drug Disposal Fund; and (iii) the Circuit Clerk shall retain 5% |
18 | | for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and |
19 | | Administrative Fund for the costs associated with |
20 | | administering this subsection. |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; 98-537, eff. 8-23-13 .)
|
22 | | (730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.1-5) |
23 | | Sec. 5-9-1.1-5. Methamphetamine related offenses. |
24 | | (a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a |
25 | | methamphetamine related
offense involving possession or |
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1 | | delivery of methamphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of |
2 | | methamphetamine or possession of a methamphetamine |
3 | | manufacturing material as set forth in Section 10 of the |
4 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the |
5 | | intent to manufacture a substance containing methamphetamine |
6 | | or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine, in addition to |
7 | | any
other penalty imposed, a fine shall be levied by the court |
8 | | at not less than
the full street value of the methamphetamine |
9 | | or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or |
10 | | methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized. |
11 | | "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the |
12 | | basis of testimony
of law enforcement personnel and the |
13 | | defendant as to the amount seized and
such testimony as may be |
14 | | required by the court as to the current street
value of the |
15 | | methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine |
16 | | or methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized. |
17 | | (b) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
18 | | of this
Section, a fine of
$100 shall be levied by the court, |
19 | | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk |
20 | | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the |
21 | | Clerks of Courts Act
for deposit into the Methamphetamine Law |
22 | | Enforcement Fund and allocated as provided in subsection (d) of |
23 | | Section 5-9-1.2.
|
24 | | (c) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
25 | | of this
Section, a $25 assessment shall be assessed by the |
26 | | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit |
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1 | | Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the |
2 | | Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The moneys |
3 | | deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund |
4 | | under this Section shall be appropriated to and administered by |
5 | | the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for |
6 | | funding of drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement |
7 | | Groups. |
8 | | (d) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a) |
9 | | of this
Section, a $40 $20 assessment shall be assessed by the |
10 | | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit |
11 | | Clerk. Of the collected proceeds, (i) 90% shall be remitted to |
12 | | the State Treasurer for deposit into the Prescription Pill and |
13 | | Drug Disposal Fund; (ii) 5% shall be remitted for deposit into |
14 | | the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund, for use by the |
15 | | Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the costs |
16 | | associated with making grants from the Prescription Pill and |
17 | | Drug Disposal Fund; and (iii) the Circuit Clerk shall retain 5% |
18 | | for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and |
19 | | Administrative Fund for the costs associated with |
20 | | administering this subsection. |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; 98-537, eff. 8-23-13.)
|
22 | | Section 5-115. The Drug Court Treatment Act is amended by |
23 | | changing Section 20 and by adding Sections 45 and 50 as |
24 | | follows:
|
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1 | | (730 ILCS 166/20)
|
2 | | Sec. 20. Eligibility.
|
3 | | (a) A defendant may be admitted into a drug court program |
4 | | only upon the
agreement of the prosecutor and the defendant and |
5 | | with the approval of the
court.
|
6 | | (b) A defendant shall be excluded from a drug court program |
7 | | if any of one of
the following apply:
|
8 | | (1) The crime is a crime of violence as set forth in |
9 | | clause (4) of this
subsection (b).
|
10 | | (2) The defendant denies his or her use of or addiction |
11 | | to drugs.
|
12 | | (3) The defendant does not demonstrate a willingness to |
13 | | participate in
a treatment program.
|
14 | | (4) The defendant has been convicted of a crime of |
15 | | violence within the
past
10 years excluding incarceration |
16 | | time . As used in this Section, "crime of violence" means , |
17 | | including but not limited to : first
degree murder, second |
18 | | degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a
|
19 | | child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual |
20 | | assault, armed
robbery, aggravated arson, arson, |
21 | | aggravated kidnaping, kidnaping, aggravated
battery |
22 | | resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability, |
23 | | stalking,
aggravated stalking, or any offense
involving |
24 | | the discharge of a firearm.
|
25 | | (c) Notwithstanding subsection (a), the defendant may be |
26 | | admitted into a drug court program only upon the agreement of |
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1 | | the prosecutor if: |
2 | | (1) the defendant is charged with a Class 2 or greater |
3 | | felony violation of: |
4 | | (A) Section 401, 401.1, 405, or 405.2 of the |
5 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act; |
6 | | (B) Section 5, 5.1, or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control |
7 | | Act; |
8 | | (C) Section 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 56, |
9 | | or 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
10 | | Protection Act; or |
11 | | (2) the defendant has previously, on 3 or more |
12 | | occasions, either completed a drug court program, been |
13 | | discharged from a drug court program, or been terminated |
14 | | from a drug court program.
|
15 | | (5) The defendant has previously completed or has been |
16 | | discharged from a
drug court program.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 92-58, eff. 1-1-02.)
|
18 | | (730 ILCS 166/45 new) |
19 | | Sec. 45. Education seminars for drug court prosecutors. |
20 | | Subject to appropriation, the Office of the State's Attorneys |
21 | | Appellate Prosecutor shall conduct mandatory education |
22 | | seminars on the subjects of substance abuse and addiction for |
23 | | all drug court prosecutors throughout the State.
|
24 | | (730 ILCS 166/50 new) |
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1 | | Sec. 50. Education seminars for public defenders. Subject |
2 | | to appropriation, the Office of the State Appellate Defender |
3 | | shall conduct mandatory education seminars on the subjects of |
4 | | substance abuse and addiction for all public defenders and |
5 | | assistant public defenders practicing in drug courts |
6 | | throughout the State.
|
7 | | Section 5-120. The Veterans and Servicemembers Court
|
8 | | Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:
|
9 | | (730 ILCS 167/20)
|
10 | | Sec. 20. Eligibility. Veterans and Servicemembers are |
11 | | eligible for Veterans and
Servicemembers Courts, provided the |
12 | | following:
|
13 | | (a) A defendant, who is eligible for probation based on the |
14 | | nature of the crime convicted of and in consideration of his or |
15 | | her criminal background, if any, may be admitted into a |
16 | | Veterans and Servicemembers Court program
only upon the |
17 | | agreement of the prosecutor and the defendant and with the |
18 | | approval of the Court.
|
19 | | (b) A defendant shall be excluded from Veterans and |
20 | | Servicemembers Court program if
any of one of the following |
21 | | applies:
|
22 | | (1) The crime is a crime of violence as set forth in |
23 | | clause (3) of this subsection (b). |
24 | | (2) The defendant does not demonstrate a willingness to |
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1 | | participate in a treatment
program.
|
2 | | (3) The defendant has been convicted of a crime of |
3 | | violence within the past 10
years excluding incarceration |
4 | | time . As used in this Section, "crime of violence" means , |
5 | | including but not limited to : first degree murder,
second |
6 | | degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a |
7 | | child, aggravated criminal
sexual assault, criminal sexual |
8 | | assault, armed robbery, aggravated arson, arson,
|
9 | | aggravated kidnapping and kidnapping, aggravated battery |
10 | | resulting in great bodily harm
or permanent disability, |
11 | | stalking, aggravated stalking, or any offense involving |
12 | | the
discharge of a firearm or where occurred serious bodily |
13 | | injury or death to any person. |
14 | | (4) (Blank).
|
15 | | (5) The crime for which the defendant has been |
16 | | convicted is non-probationable. |
17 | | (6) The sentence imposed on the defendant, whether the |
18 | | result of a plea or a finding of guilt, renders the |
19 | | defendant ineligible for probation.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 97-946, eff. 8-13-12; 98-152, eff. 1-1-14.)
|
21 | | Section 5-125. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by adding |
22 | | Section 36 and by changing Section 70 as follows:
|
23 | | (745 ILCS 49/36 new) |
24 | | Sec. 36. Pharmacists; exemptions from civil liability for |
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1 | | the dispensing of an opioid antagonist to individuals who may |
2 | | or may not be at risk for an opioid overdose. Any person |
3 | | licensed as a pharmacist in Illinois or any other state or |
4 | | territory of the United States who in good faith dispenses or |
5 | | administers an opioid antagonist as defined in Section 5-23 of |
6 | | the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act in |
7 | | compliance with the procedures or protocols developed under |
8 | | Section 19.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act, or the standing |
9 | | order of any person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of |
10 | | 1987, without fee or compensation in any way, shall not, as a |
11 | | result of her or his acts or omissions, except for willful or |
12 | | wanton misconduct on the part of the person, in dispensing the |
13 | | drug or administering the drug, be liable for civil damages.
|
14 | | (745 ILCS 49/70)
|
15 | | Sec. 70. Law enforcement officers, firemen, Emergency |
16 | | Medical Technicians (EMTs) and First Responders; exemption |
17 | | from
civil liability for emergency care.
Any law enforcement |
18 | | officer or fireman as defined in Section 2 of the
Line of Duty |
19 | | Compensation Act, any "emergency medical technician (EMT)" as |
20 | | defined in Section 3.50 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) |
21 | | Systems Act, and any "first responder" as defined in Section |
22 | | 3.60 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act,
who |
23 | | in good faith
provides emergency care , including the |
24 | | administration of an opioid antagonist as defined in Section |
25 | | 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, |
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1 | | without fee or compensation to any person shall not, as a |
2 | | result of
his or her acts or omissions, except willful and |
3 | | wanton misconduct on the
part of
the person, in providing the |
4 | | care, be liable to a person to whom such
care is provided for |
5 | | civil damages.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 93-1047, eff. 10-18-04; 94-826, eff. 1-1-07.)
|