Public Act 099-0078
HB4137 EnrolledLRB099 07987 AMC 28127 b
AN ACT to revise the law by combining multiple enactments
and making technical corrections.
Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
represented in the General Assembly:
Section 1. Nature of this Act.
(a) This Act may be cited as the First 2015 General
Revisory Act.
(b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change
in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from
multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical
corrections and revisions in the law.
This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain
Sections that have been added or amended by more than one
Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section
has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may
incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the
successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises
cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.
(c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended
Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois
that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section.
The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to
include the different versions of the Section found in the
Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not
include other versions of the Section to be found in Public
Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources
is not a part of the text of the Section.
(d) Public Acts 98-590 through 98-1173 were considered in
the preparation of the combining revisories included in this
Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or
underscoring because no additional changes are being made in
the material that is being combined.
Section 5. The Effective Date of Laws Act is amended by
changing Section 6 as follows:
(5 ILCS 75/6) (from Ch. 1, par. 1206)
Sec. 6. As used in this Act, "Constitution" means the
Constitution of the State of Illinois of 1970.
(Source: P.A. 78-85; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 10. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by
changing Section 4.27 as follows:
(5 ILCS 80/4.27)
Sec. 4.27. Acts repealed on January 1, 2017. The following
are repealed on January 1, 2017:
The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987.
The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.
The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act.
Articles II, III, IV, V, V 1/2, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII,
XXXI, XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.
(Source: P.A. 94-787, eff. 5-19-06; 94-870, eff. 6-16-06;
94-956, eff. 6-27-06; 94-1076, eff. 12-29-06; 95-331, eff.
8-21-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 15. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is
amended by changing Section 10-40 as follows:
(5 ILCS 100/10-40) (from Ch. 127, par. 1010-40)
Sec. 10-40. Rules of evidence; official notice. In
contested cases:
(a) Irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence
shall be excluded. The rules of evidence and privilege as
applied in civil cases in the circuit courts of this State
shall be followed. Evidence not admissible under those rules of
evidence may be admitted, however, (except where precluded by
statute) if it is of a type commonly relied upon by reasonably
prudent men in the conduct of their affairs. Objections to
evidentiary offers may be made and shall be noted in the
record. Subject to these requirements, when a hearing will be
expedited and the interests of the parties will not be
prejudiced, any part of the evidence may be received in written
form.
(b) Subject to the evidentiary requirements of subsection
(a) of this Section, a party may conduct cross-examination
required for a full and fair disclosure of the facts.
(c) Notice may be taken of matters of which the circuit
courts of this State may take judicial notice. In addition,
notice may be taken of generally recognized technical or
scientific facts within the agency's specialized knowledge.
Parties shall be notified either before or during the hearing,
or by reference in preliminary reports or otherwise, of the
material noticed, including any staff memoranda or data, and
they shall be afforded an opportunity to contest the material
so noticed. The agency's experience, technical competence, and
specialized knowledge may be utilized in the evaluation of the
evidence.
(Source: P.A. 87-823; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 20. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing
Section 2 as follows:
(5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)
Sec. 2. Open meetings.
(a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall
be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and
closed in accordance with Section 2a.
(b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained
in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that
public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions
are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects
clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not
require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject
included within an enumerated exception.
(c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to
consider the following subjects:
(1) The appointment, employment, compensation,
discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific
employees of the public body or legal counsel for the
public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint
lodged against an employee of the public body or against
legal counsel for the public body to determine its
validity.
(2) Collective negotiating matters between the public
body and its employees or their representatives, or
deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more
classes of employees.
(3) The selection of a person to fill a public office,
as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public
office, when the public body is given power to appoint
under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or
removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public
body is given power to remove the occupant under law or
ordinance.
(4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or
in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to
a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided
that the body prepares and makes available for public
inspection a written decision setting forth its
determinative reasoning.
(5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use
of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose
of discussing whether a particular parcel should be
acquired.
(6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of
property owned by the public body.
(7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or
investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the
investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the
Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.
(8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and
equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a
reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees,
students, staff, the public, or public property.
(9) Student disciplinary cases.
(10) The placement of individual students in special
education programs and other matters relating to
individual students.
(11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or
on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and
is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or
when the public body finds that an action is probable or
imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be
recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed
meeting.
(12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of
claims as provided in the Local Governmental and
Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the
disposition of a claim or potential claim might be
prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or
risk management information, records, data, advice or
communications from or with respect to any insurer of the
public body or any intergovernmental risk management
association or self insurance pool of which the public body
is a member.
(13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in
the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are
authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing
practices and creating a commission or administrative
agency for their enforcement.
(14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of
undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or
future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public
body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.
(15) Professional ethics or performance when
considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a
licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the
advisory body's field of competence.
(16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or
professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of
a statewide association of which the public body is a
member.
(17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or
formal peer review of physicians or other health care
professionals for a hospital, or other institution
providing medical care, that is operated by the public
body.
(18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner
Review Board.
(19) Review or discussion of applications received
under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures
Act.
(20) The classification and discussion of matters
classified as confidential or continued confidential by
the State Government Suggestion Award Board.
(21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed
under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the
body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as
mandated by Section 2.06.
(22) Deliberations for decisions of the State
Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.
(23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal
utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or
municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves
(i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery
of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or
conclusions of load forecast studies.
(24) Meetings of a residential health care facility
resident sexual assault and death review team or the
Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team
Act.
(25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under
Brian's Law.
(26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed
under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review
Team Act.
(27) (Blank).
(28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be
disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii)
that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public
Aid Code.
(29) Meetings between internal or external auditors
and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and
their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal
control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk
areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews
conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing
standards of the United States of America.
(30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a
fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team
Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an
eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected,
alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section
15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.
(31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the
Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm
Concealed Carry Act.
(32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation
Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion
involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority
Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the
Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and
3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act.
(d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
"Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose
relationship with the public body constitutes an
employer-employee relationship under the usual common law
rules, and who is not an independent contractor.
"Public office" means a position created by or under the
Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is
charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign
power of this State. The term "public office" shall include
members of the public body, but it shall not include
organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether
established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to
assist the body in the conduct of its business.
"Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body
charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct
hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make
determinations based thereon, but does not include local
electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition
challenges.
(e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed
meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of
the nature of the matter being considered and other information
that will inform the public of the business being conducted.
(Source: P.A. 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11;
97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876, eff.
8-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff.
7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised
10-1-14.)
Section 25. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by
changing Sections 2 and 7.5 as follows:
(5 ILCS 140/2) (from Ch. 116, par. 202)
Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act:
(a) "Public body" means all legislative, executive,
administrative, or advisory bodies of the State, state
universities and colleges, counties, townships, cities,
villages, incorporated towns, school districts and all other
municipal corporations, boards, bureaus, committees, or
commissions of this State, any subsidiary bodies of any of the
foregoing including but not limited to committees and
subcommittees thereof, and a School Finance Authority created
under Article 1E of the School Code. "Public body" does not
include a child death review team or the Illinois Child Death
Review Teams Executive Council established under the Child
Death Review Team Act, or a regional youth advisory board or
the Statewide Youth Advisory Board established under the
Department of Children and Family Services Statewide Youth
Advisory Board Act.
(b) "Person" means any individual, corporation,
partnership, firm, organization or association, acting
individually or as a group.
(c) "Public records" means all records, reports, forms,
writings, letters, memoranda, books, papers, maps,
photographs, microfilms, cards, tapes, recordings, electronic
data processing records, electronic communications, recorded
information and all other documentary materials pertaining to
the transaction of public business, regardless of physical form
or characteristics, having been prepared by or for, or having
been or being used by, received by, in the possession of, or
under the control of any public body.
(c-5) "Private information" means unique identifiers,
including a person's social security number, driver's license
number, employee identification number, biometric identifiers,
personal financial information, passwords or other access
codes, medical records, home or personal telephone numbers, and
personal email addresses. Private information also includes
home address and personal license plates, except as otherwise
provided by law or when compiled without possibility of
attribution to any person.
(c-10) "Commercial purpose" means the use of any part of a
public record or records, or information derived from public
records, in any form for sale, resale, or solicitation or
advertisement for sales or services. For purposes of this
definition, requests made by news media and non-profit,
scientific, or academic organizations shall not be considered
to be made for a "commercial purpose" when the principal
purpose of the request is (i) to access and disseminate
information concerning news and current or passing events, (ii)
for articles of opinion or features of interest to the public,
or (iii) for the purpose of academic, scientific, or public
research or education.
(d) "Copying" means the reproduction of any public record
by means of any photographic, electronic, mechanical or other
process, device or means now known or hereafter developed and
available to the public body.
(e) "Head of the public body" means the president, mayor,
chairman, presiding officer, director, superintendent,
manager, supervisor or individual otherwise holding primary
executive and administrative authority for the public body, or
such person's duly authorized designee.
(f) "News media" means a newspaper or other periodical
issued at regular intervals whether in print or electronic
format, a news service whether in print or electronic format, a
radio station, a television station, a television network, a
community antenna television service, or a person or
corporation engaged in making news reels or other motion
picture news for public showing.
(g) "Recurrent requester", as used in Section 3.2 of this
Act, means a person that, in the 12 months immediately
preceding the request, has submitted to the same public body
(i) a minimum of 50 requests for records, (ii) a minimum of 15
requests for records within a 30-day period, or (iii) a minimum
of 7 requests for records within a 7-day period. For purposes
of this definition, requests made by news media and non-profit,
scientific, or academic organizations shall not be considered
in calculating the number of requests made in the time periods
in this definition when the principal purpose of the requests
is (i) to access and disseminate information concerning news
and current or passing events, (ii) for articles of opinion or
features of interest to the public, or (iii) for the purpose of
academic, scientific, or public research or education.
For the purposes of this subsection (g), "request" means a
written document (or oral request, if the public body chooses
to honor oral requests) that is submitted to a public body via
personal delivery, mail, telefax, electronic mail, or other
means available to the public body and that identifies the
particular public record the requester seeks. One request may
identify multiple records to be inspected or copied.
(h) "Voluminous request" means a request that: (i) includes
more than 5 individual requests for more than 5 different
categories of records or a combination of individual requests
that total requests for more than 5 different categories of
records in a period of 20 business days; or (ii) requires the
compilation of more than 500 letter or legal-sized pages of
public records unless a single requested record exceeds 500
pages. "Single requested record" may include, but is not
limited to, one report, form, e-mail, letter, memorandum, book,
map, microfilm, tape, or recording.
"Voluminous request" does not include a request made by
news media and non-profit, scientific, or academic
organizations if the principal purpose of the request is: (1)
to access and disseminate information concerning news and
current or passing events; (2) for articles of opinion or
features of interest to the public; or (3) for the purpose of
academic, scientific, or public research or education.
For the purposes of this subsection (h), "request" means a
written document, or oral request, if the public body chooses
to honor oral requests, that is submitted to a public body via
personal delivery, mail, telefax, electronic mail, or other
means available to the public body and that identifies the
particular public record or records the requester seeks. One
request may identify multiple individual records to be
inspected or copied.
(Source: P.A. 97-579, eff. 8-26-11; 98-806, eff. 1-1-15;
98-1129, eff. 12-3-14; revised 12-19-14.)
(5 ILCS 140/7.5)
Sec. 7.5. Statutory exemptions Exemptions. To the extent
provided for by the statutes referenced below, the following
shall be exempt from inspection and copying:
(a) All information determined to be confidential
under Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and
Development Act.
(b) Library circulation and order records identifying
library users with specific materials under the Library
Records Confidentiality Act.
(c) Applications, related documents, and medical
records received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
Procedures Board and any and all documents or other records
prepared by the Experimental Organ Transplantation
Procedures Board or its staff relating to applications it
has received.
(d) Information and records held by the Department of
Public Health and its authorized representatives relating
to known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible
disease or any information the disclosure of which is
restricted under the Illinois Sexually Transmissible
Disease Control Act.
(e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
under Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.
(f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of
the Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying
Qualifications Based Selection Act.
(g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
and exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid
Tuition Act.
(h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted
under the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and
records of any lawfully created State or local inspector
general's office that would be exempt if created or
obtained by an Executive Inspector General's office under
that Act.
(i) Information contained in a local emergency energy
plan submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local
emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under
Section 11-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
(j) Information and data concerning the distribution
of surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless
carriers under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety
Act.
(k) Law enforcement officer identification information
or driver identification information compiled by a law
enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation
under Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(l) Records and information provided to a residential
health care facility resident sexual assault and death
review team or the Executive Council under the Abuse
Prevention Review Team Act.
(m) Information provided to the predatory lending
database created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential
Real Property Disclosure Act, except to the extent
authorized under that Article.
(n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of
compensation and expenses for court appointed trial
counsel as provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital
Crimes Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply
until the conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the
prosecution chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior
to trial or sentencing.
(o) Information that is prohibited from being
disclosed under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and
Hazardous Substances Registry Act.
(p) Security portions of system safety program plans,
investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or
information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the
Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of
the Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair
County Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety
Act.
(q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
Personnel Records Review Act.
(r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
Illinois School Student Records Act.
(s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted
under Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
(t) All identified or deidentified health information
in the form of health data or medical records contained in,
stored in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from
the Illinois Health Information Exchange, and identified
or deidentified health information in the form of health
data and medical records of the Illinois Health Information
Exchange in the possession of the Illinois Health
Information Exchange Authority due to its administration
of the Illinois Health Information Exchange. The terms
"identified" and "deidentified" shall be given the same
meaning as in the Health Insurance Accountability and
Portability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, or any
subsequent amendments thereto, and any regulations
promulgated thereunder.
(u) Records and information provided to an independent
team of experts under Brian's Law.
(v) Names and information of people who have applied
for or received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under
the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for
or received a concealed carry license under the Firearm
Concealed Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the
Firearm Concealed Carry Act; and databases under the
Firearm Concealed Carry Act, records of the Concealed Carry
Licensing Review Board under the Firearm Concealed Carry
Act, and law enforcement agency objections under the
Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
(w) Personally identifiable information which is
exempted from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section
19.1 of the Toll Highway Act.
(x) Information which is exempted from disclosure
under Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section
8-11-21 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
(y) Confidential information under the Adult
Protective Services Act and its predecessor enabling
statute, the Elder Abuse and Neglect Act, including
information about the identity and administrative finding
against any caregiver of a verified and substantiated
decision of abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an
eligible adult maintained in the Registry established
under Section 7.5 of the Adult Protective Services Act.
(z) Records and information provided to a fatality
review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory
Council under Section 15 of the Adult Protective Services
Act.
(aa) Information which is exempted from disclosure
under Section 2.37 of the Wildlife Code.
(Source: P.A. 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-342,
eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49,
eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1039,
eff. 8-25-14; 98-1045, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 30. The State Records Act is amended by changing
Section 15b as follows:
(5 ILCS 160/15b) (from Ch. 116, par. 43.18b)
Sec. 15b. The head of each agency shall:
(1) Determine what records are "essential" for
emergency government operation through consultation with
all branches of government, State agencies, and with the
State Civil Defense Agency.
(2) Determine what records are "essential" for
post-emergency government operations and provide for their
protection and preservation.
(3) Establish the manner in which essential records for
emergency and post-emergency government operations shall
be preserved to ensure insure emergency usability.
(4) Establish and maintain an essential records
preservation program.
The Secretary may provide for security storage or
relocation of essential State records in the event of an
emergency arising from enemy attack or natural disaster.
(Source: P.A. 85-414; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 35. The Electronic Commerce Security Act is amended
by changing Section 10-115 as follows:
(5 ILCS 175/10-115)
Sec. 10-115. Commercially reasonable; reliance.
(a) The commercial reasonableness of a security procedure
is a question of law to be determined in light of the purposes
of the procedure and the commercial circumstances at the time
the procedure was used, including the nature of the
transaction, sophistication of the parties, volume of similar
transactions engaged in by either or both of the parties,
availability of alternatives offered to but rejected by either
of the parties, cost of alternative procedures, and procedures
in general use for similar types of transactions.
(b) Whether reliance on a security procedure was reasonable
and in good faith is to be determined in light of all the
circumstances known to the relying party at the time of the
reliance, having due regard to the:
(1) the information that the relying party knew or
should have known of at the time of reliance that would
suggest that reliance was or was not reasonable;
(2) the value or importance of the electronic record,
if known;
(3) any course of dealing between the relying party and
the purported sender and the available indicia of
reliability or unreliability apart from the security
procedure;
(4) any usage of trade, particularly trade conducted by
trustworthy systems or other computer-based means; and
(5) whether the verification was performed with the
assistance of an independent third party.
(Source: P.A. 90-759, eff. 7-1-99; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 40. The Employee Rights Violation Act is amended by
changing Section 2 as follows:
(5 ILCS 285/2) (from Ch. 127, par. 63b100-2)
Sec. 2. For the purposes of this Act, the terms used herein
shall have the meanings ascribed to them in this Section:
(a) "Policy making officer" means: (i) an employee of a
State agency who is engaged predominantly in executive and
management functions and is charged with the responsibility of
directing the effectuation of such management policies and
practices; or (ii) an employee of a State agency whose
principal work is substantially different from that of his
subordinates and who has authority in the interest of the State
agency to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote,
discharge, direct, reward, or discipline employees, or to
adjust their grievances, or to effectively recommend such
action, if the exercise of such authority is not of a merely
routine or clerical nature, but requires the consistent use of
independent judgment; or (iii) a Director, Assistant Director
or Deputy Director of a State agency. ;
(b) "State agency" means the Departments of the Executive
Branch of State government listed in Section 5-15 of the
Departments of State Government Law (20 ILCS 5/5-15). ;
(c) "Director" includes the Secretary of Transportation.
(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 45. The Election Code is amended by changing
Sections 10-10 and 16-6.1 as follows:
(10 ILCS 5/10-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-10)
Sec. 10-10. Within 24 hours after the receipt of the
certificate of nomination or nomination papers or proposed
question of public policy, as the case may be, and the
objector's petition, the chairman of the electoral board other
than the State Board of Elections shall send a call by
registered or certified mail to each of the members of the
electoral board, and to the objector who filed the objector's
petition, and either to the candidate whose certificate of
nomination or nomination papers are objected to or to the
principal proponent or attorney for proponents of a question of
public policy, as the case may be, whose petitions are objected
to, and shall also cause the sheriff of the county or counties
in which such officers and persons reside to serve a copy of
such call upon each of such officers and persons, which call
shall set out the fact that the electoral board is required to
meet to hear and pass upon the objections to nominations made
for the office, designating it, and shall state the day, hour
and place at which the electoral board shall meet for the
purpose, which place shall be in the county court house in the
county in the case of the County Officers Electoral Board, the
Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the Township Officers
Electoral Board or the Education Officers Electoral Board,
except that the Municipal Officers Electoral Board, the
Township Officers Electoral Board, and the Education Officers
Electoral Board may meet at the location where the governing
body of the municipality, township, or community college
district, respectively, holds its regularly scheduled
meetings, if that location is available; provided that voter
records may be removed from the offices of an election
authority only at the discretion and under the supervision of
the election authority. In those cases where the State Board of
Elections is the electoral board designated under Section 10-9,
the chairman of the State Board of Elections shall, within 24
hours after the receipt of the certificate of nomination or
nomination papers or petitions for a proposed amendment to
Article IV of the Constitution or proposed statewide question
of public policy, send a call by registered or certified mail
to the objector who files the objector's petition, and either
to the candidate whose certificate of nomination or nomination
papers are objected to or to the principal proponent or
attorney for proponents of the proposed Constitutional
amendment or statewide question of public policy and shall
state the day, hour and place at which the electoral board
shall meet for the purpose, which place may be in the Capitol
Building or in the principal or permanent branch office of the
State Board. The day of the meeting shall not be less than 3
nor more than 5 days after the receipt of the certificate of
nomination or nomination papers and the objector's petition by
the chairman of the electoral board.
The electoral board shall have the power to administer
oaths and to subpoena and examine witnesses and, at the request
of either party and only upon a vote by a majority of its
members, may authorize the chairman to issue subpoenas
requiring the attendance of witnesses and subpoenas duces tecum
requiring the production of such books, papers, records and
documents as may be evidence of any matter under inquiry before
the electoral board, in the same manner as witnesses are
subpoenaed in the Circuit Court.
Service of such subpoenas shall be made by any sheriff or
other person in the same manner as in cases in such court and
the fees of such sheriff shall be the same as is provided by
law, and shall be paid by the objector or candidate who causes
the issuance of the subpoena. In case any person so served
shall knowingly neglect or refuse to obey any such subpoena, or
to testify, the electoral board shall at once file a petition
in the circuit court of the county in which such hearing is to
be heard, or has been attempted to be heard, setting forth the
facts, of such knowing refusal or neglect, and accompanying the
petition with a copy of the citation and the answer, if one has
been filed, together with a copy of the subpoena and the return
of service thereon, and shall apply for an order of court
requiring such person to attend and testify, and forthwith
produce books and papers, before the electoral board. Any
circuit court of the state, excluding the judge who is sitting
on the electoral board, upon such showing shall order such
person to appear and testify, and to forthwith produce such
books and papers, before the electoral board at a place to be
fixed by the court. If such person shall knowingly fail or
refuse to obey such order of the court without lawful excuse,
the court shall punish him or her by fine and imprisonment, as
the nature of the case may require and may be lawful in cases
of contempt of court.
The electoral board on the first day of its meeting shall
adopt rules of procedure for the introduction of evidence and
the presentation of arguments and may, in its discretion,
provide for the filing of briefs by the parties to the
objection or by other interested persons.
In the event of a State Electoral Board hearing on
objections to a petition for an amendment to Article IV of the
Constitution pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the
Constitution, or to a petition for a question of public policy
to be submitted to the voters of the entire State, the
certificates of the county clerks and boards of election
commissioners showing the results of the random sample of
signatures on the petition shall be prima facie valid and
accurate, and shall be presumed to establish the number of
valid and invalid signatures on the petition sheets reviewed in
the random sample, as prescribed in Section 28-11 and 28-12 of
this Code. Either party, however, may introduce evidence at
such hearing to dispute the findings as to particular
signatures. In addition to the foregoing, in the absence of
competent evidence presented at such hearing by a party
substantially challenging the results of a random sample, or
showing a different result obtained by an additional sample,
this certificate of a county clerk or board of election
commissioners shall be presumed to establish the ratio of valid
to invalid signatures within the particular election
jurisdiction.
The electoral board shall take up the question as to
whether or not the certificate of nomination or nomination
papers or petitions are in proper form, and whether or not they
were filed within the time and under the conditions required by
law, and whether or not they are the genuine certificate of
nomination or nomination papers or petitions which they purport
to be, and whether or not in the case of the certificate of
nomination in question it represents accurately the decision of
the caucus or convention issuing it, and in general shall
decide whether or not the certificate of nomination or
nominating papers or petitions on file are valid or whether the
objections thereto should be sustained and the decision of a
majority of the electoral board shall be final subject to
judicial review as provided in Section 10-10.1. The electoral
board must state its findings in writing and must state in
writing which objections, if any, it has sustained. A copy of
the decision shall be served upon the parties to the
proceedings in open proceedings before the electoral board. If
a party does not appear for receipt of the decision, the
decision shall be deemed to have been served on the absent
party on the date when a copy of the decision is personally
delivered or on the date when a copy of the decision is
deposited in the Unites States mail, in a sealed envelope or
package, with postage prepaid, addressed to each party affected
by the decision or to such party's attorney of record, if any,
at the address on record for such person in the files of the
electoral board.
Upon the expiration of the period within which a proceeding
for judicial review must be commenced under Section 10-10.1,
the electoral board shall, unless a proceeding for judicial
review has been commenced within such period, transmit, by
registered or certified mail, a certified copy of its ruling,
together with the original certificate of nomination or
nomination papers or petitions and the original objector's
petition, to the officer or board with whom the certificate of
nomination or nomination papers or petitions, as objected to,
were on file, and such officer or board shall abide by and
comply with the ruling so made to all intents and purposes.
(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; 98-691, eff. 7-1-14;
revised 11-25-14.)
(10 ILCS 5/16-6.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 16-6.1)
Sec. 16-6.1. In elections held pursuant to the provisions
of Section 12 of Article VI of the Constitution relating to
retention of judges in office, the form of the proposition to
be submitted for each candidate shall be as provided in
paragraph (1) or (2), as the election authority may choose.
(1) The names of all persons seeking retention in the
same office shall be listed, in the order provided in this
Section, with one proposition that reads substantially as
follows: "Shall each of the persons listed be retained in
office as (insert name of office and court)?". To the right
of each candidate's name must be places for the voter to
mark "Yes" or "No". If the list of candidates for retention
in the same office exceeds one page of the ballot, the
proposition must appear on each page upon which the list of
candidates continues.
(2) The form of the proposition for each candidate
shall be substantially as follows:
-----------------------------------------------------
Shall ....... (insert name YES
of candidate) be retained in --------------
office as ..... (insert name NO
of office and Court)?
-----------------------------------------------------
The names of all candidates thus submitting their names for
retention in office in any particular judicial district or
circuit shall appear on the same ballot which shall be separate
from all other ballots voted on at the general election.
Propositions on Supreme Court judges, if any are seeking
retention, shall appear on the ballot in the first group, for
judges of the Appellate Court in the second group immediately
under the first, and for circuit judges in the last group. The
grouping of candidates for the same office shall be preceded by
a heading describing the office and the court. If there are two
or more candidates for each office, the names of such
candidates in each group shall be listed in the order
determined as follows: The name of the person with the greatest
length of time served in the specified office of the specified
court shall be listed first in each group. The rest of the
names shall be listed in the appropriate order based on the
same seniority standard. If two or more candidates for each
office have served identical periods of time in the specified
office, such candidates shall be listed alphabetically at the
appropriate place in the order of names based on seniority in
the office as described. Circuit judges shall be credited for
the purposes of this section with service as associate judges
prior to July 1, 1971 and with service on any court the judges
of which were made associate judges on January 1, 1964 by
virtue of Paragraph 4, subparagraphs (c) and (d) of the
Schedule to Article VI of the former Illinois Constitution.
At the top of the ballot on the same side as the
propositions on the candidates are listed shall be printed an
explanation to read substantially as follows: "Vote on the
proposition with respect to all or any of the judges listed on
this ballot. No judge listed is running against any other
judge. The sole question is whether each judge shall be
retained in his or her present office".
Such separate ballot shall be printed on paper of
sufficient size so that when folded once it shall be large
enough to contain the following words, which shall be printed
on the back, "Ballot for judicial candidates seeking retention
in office". Such ballot shall be handed to the elector at the
same time as the ballot containing the names of other
candidates for the general election and shall be returned
therewith by the elector to the proper officer in the manner
designated by this Act. All provisions of this Act relating to
ballots shall apply to such separate ballot, except as
otherwise specifically provided in this section. Such separate
ballot shall be printed upon paper of a green color. No other
ballot at the same election shall be green in color.
In precincts in which voting machines are used, the special
ballot containing the propositions on the retention of judges
may be placed on the voting machines if such voting machines
permit the casting of votes on such propositions.
An electronic voting system authorized by Article 24A may
be used in voting and tabulating the judicial retention
ballots. When an electronic voting system is used which
utilizes a ballot label booklet and ballot card, there shall be
used in the label booklet a separate ballot label page or pages
as required for such proposition, which page or pages for such
proposition shall be of a green color separate and distinct
from the ballot label page or pages used for any other
proposition or candidates.
(Source: P.A. 92-178, eff. 1-1-02; 92-465, eff. 1-1-02; revised
11-25-14.)
Section 50. The State Comptroller Act is amended by
changing Section 26 as follows:
(15 ILCS 405/26)
Sec. 26. Illinois Gives Initiative.
(a) The Illinois Gives Initiative is hereby created to
provide a mechanism whereby an employee or annuitant may
authorize the withholding of a portion of his or her salary,
wages, or annuity for payment to Illinois chapters of the
American Red Cross whose territories include areas affected by
a declaration of disaster issued in accordance with Section 7
of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.
(b) The initiative shall be administered by the State
Comptroller, who is authorized to:
(1) develop an electronic mechanism whereby an
employee or annuitant may register with the Office of the
Comptroller for the withholding to be deducted from the
next available scheduled pay period;
(2) develop policies and procedures necessary for the
efficient transmission of the notification of the
withholding under this Section to the employee's Payroll
Officer or the annuitant's Retirement Agency; and
(3) develop policies and procedures necessary for the
efficient distribution of the withholdings under this
Section to designated Illinois chapters of the American Red
Cross.
(Source: P.A. 98-700, eff. 7-7-14; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 55. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by
changing Section 8.09 as follows:
(20 ILCS 105/8.09)
Sec. 8.09. Unlicensed or uncertified facilities. No public
official, agent, or employee may place any person in or with,
or recommend that any person be placed in or with, or directly
or indirectly cause any person to be placed in or with any
unlicensed or uncertified: (i) board and care home as defined
in the Board and Care Home Act and licensed under the Assisted
Living and Shared Housing Act; (ii) assisted living or shared
housing establishment as defined in the Assisted Living and
Shared Housing Act; (iii) facility licensed under the Nursing
Home Care Act; (iv) supportive living facility as described in
Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code; (v)
free-standing hospice residence licensed under the Hospice
Program Licensing Act; or (vi) home services agency licensed
under the Home Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency
Licensing Act if licensure or certification is required. No
public official, agent, or employee may place the name of such
a facility on a list of facilities to be circulated to the
public, unless the facility is licensed or certified. Use of
the Department of Public Health's annual list of licensed
facilities shall satisfy compliance with this Section for all
facilities licensed or certified by the Illinois Department of
Public Health.
(Source: P.A. 96-1318, eff. 7-27-10; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 60. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 40-5 as follows:
(20 ILCS 301/40-5)
Sec. 40-5. Election of treatment. An addict or alcoholic
who is charged with or convicted of a crime or any other person
charged with or convicted of a misdemeanor violation of the Use
of Intoxicating Compounds Act and who has not been previously
convicted of a violation of that Act may elect treatment under
the supervision of a licensed program designated by the
Department, referred to in this Article as "designated
program", unless:
(1) the crime is a crime of violence;
(2) the crime is a violation of Section 401(a), 401(b),
401(c) where the person electing treatment has been
previously convicted of a non-probationable felony or the
violation is non-probationable, 401(d) where the violation
is non-probationable, 401.1, 402(a), 405 or 407 of the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 12-7.3 of
the Criminal Code of 2012, or Section 4(d), 4(e), 4(f),
4(g), 5(d), 5(e), 5(f), 5(g), 5.1, 7 or 9 of the Cannabis
Control Act or Section 15, 20, 55, 60(b)(3), 60(b)(4),
60(b)(5), 60(b)(6), or 65 of the Methamphetamine Control
and Community Protection Act or is otherwise ineligible for
probation under Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control
and Community Protection Act;
(3) the person has a record of 2 or more convictions of
a crime of violence;
(4) other criminal proceedings alleging commission of
a felony are pending against the person;
(5) the person is on probation or parole and the
appropriate parole or probation authority does not consent
to that election;
(6) the person elected and was admitted to a designated
program on 2 prior occasions within any consecutive 2-year
period;
(7) the person has been convicted of residential
burglary and has a record of one or more felony
convictions;
(8) the crime is a violation of Section 11-501 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance; or
(9) the crime is a reckless homicide or a reckless
homicide of an unborn child, as defined in Section 9-3 or
9-3.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
2012, in which the cause of death consists of the driving
of a motor vehicle by a person under the influence of
alcohol or any other drug or drugs at the time of the
violation.
Nothing in this Section shall preclude an individual who is
charged with or convicted of a crime that is a violation of
Section 60(b)(1) or 60(b)(2) of the Methamphetamine Control and
Community Protection Act, and who is otherwise eligible to make
the election provided for under this Section, from being
eligible to make an election for treatment as a condition of
probation as provided for under this Article.
(Source: P.A. 97-889, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
98-896, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1124, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 65. The Children and Family Services Act is amended
by changing Section 8 as follows:
(20 ILCS 505/8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5008)
Sec. 8. Scholarships and fee waivers. Each year the
Department shall select a minimum of 53 students (at least 4 of
whom shall be children of veterans) to receive scholarships and
fee waivers which will enable them to attend and complete their
post-secondary education at a community college, university,
or college. Youth shall be selected from among the youth for
whom the Department has court-ordered legal responsibility,
youth who aged out of care at age 18 or older, or youth
formerly under care who have been adopted or who have been
placed in private guardianship. Recipients must have earned a
high school diploma from an accredited institution or , a high
school equivalency General Education Development certificate
or diploma, or have met the State criteria for high school
graduation before the start of the school year for which they
are applying for the scholarship and waiver. high school
equivalency Scholarships and fee waivers shall be available to
students for at least 5 years, provided they are continuing to
work toward graduation. Unused scholarship dollars and fee
waivers shall be reallocated to new recipients. No later than
January 1, 2015, the Department shall promulgate rules
identifying the criteria for "continuing to work toward
graduation", and for reallocating unused scholarships and fee
waivers. Selection shall be made on the basis of several
factors, including, but not limited to, scholastic record,
aptitude, and general interest in higher education. The
selection committee shall include at least 2 individuals
formerly under the care of the Department who have completed
their post-secondary education. In accordance with this Act,
tuition scholarships and fee waivers shall be available to such
students at any university or college maintained by the State
of Illinois. The Department shall provide maintenance and
school expenses, except tuition and fees, during the academic
years to supplement the students' earnings or other resources
so long as they consistently maintain scholastic records which
are acceptable to their schools and to the Department. Students
may attend other colleges and universities, if scholarships are
awarded them, and receive the same benefits for maintenance and
other expenses as those students attending any Illinois State
community college, university, or college under this Section.
Beginning with recipients receiving scholarships and waivers
in August 2014, the Department shall collect data and report
annually to the General Assembly on measures of success,
including (i) the number of youth applying for and receiving
scholarships, (ii) the percentage of scholarship recipients
who complete their college or university degree within 5 years,
(iii) the average length of time it takes for scholarship
recipients to complete their college or university degree, (iv)
the reasons that scholarship recipients are discharged or fail
to complete their college or university degree, (v) when
available, youths' outcomes 5 years and 10 years after being
awarded the scholarships, and (vi) budget allocations for
maintenance and school expenses incurred by the Department.
(Source: P.A. 97-799, eff. 7-13-12; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15;
98-805, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 70. The High Speed Internet Services and
Information Technology Act is amended by changing Section 30 as
follows:
(20 ILCS 661/30)
Sec. 30. High Speed Internet Services and Information
Technology Fund.
(a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
to be known as the High Speed Internet Services and Information
Technology Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, by the
Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Development
for purposes of providing grants to the nonprofit organization
enlisted under this Act.
(b) On the effective date of this Act, $4,000,000 in the
Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund shall be
transferred to the High Speed Internet Services and Information
Technology Fund. Nothing contained in this subsection (b) shall
affect the validity of grants issued with moneys from the
Digital Divide Elimination Infrastructure Fund before June 30,
2007.
(Source: P.A. 95-684, eff. 10-19-07; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 75. The Department of Human Services Act is amended
by changing Section 10-66 as follows:
(20 ILCS 1305/10-66)
Sec. 10-66. Rate reductions. Rates for medical services
purchased by the Divisions of Alcoholism Alcohol and Substance
Abuse, Community Health and Prevention, Developmental
Disabilities, Mental Health, or Rehabilitation Services within
the Department of Human Services shall not be reduced below the
rates calculated on April 1, 2011 unless the Department of
Human Services promulgates rules and rules are implemented
authorizing rate reductions.
(Source: P.A. 97-74, eff. 6-30-11; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 80. The Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing
Sections 15.4 and 18.6 as follows:
(20 ILCS 1705/15.4)
Sec. 15.4. Authorization for nursing delegation to permit
direct care staff to administer medications.
(a) This Section applies to (i) all programs for persons
with a developmental disability in settings of 16 persons or
fewer that are funded or licensed by the Department of Human
Services and that distribute or administer medications and (ii)
all intermediate care facilities for the developmentally
disabled with 16 beds or fewer that are licensed by the
Department of Public Health. The Department of Human Services
shall develop a training program for authorized direct care
staff to administer medications under the supervision and
monitoring of a registered professional nurse. This training
program shall be developed in consultation with professional
associations representing (i) physicians licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, (ii) registered professional
nurses, and (iii) pharmacists.
(b) For the purposes of this Section:
"Authorized direct care staff" means non-licensed persons
who have successfully completed a medication administration
training program approved by the Department of Human Services
and conducted by a nurse-trainer. This authorization is
specific to an individual receiving service in a specific
agency and does not transfer to another agency.
"Medications" means oral and topical medications, insulin
in an injectable form, oxygen, epinephrine auto-injectors, and
vaginal and rectal creams and suppositories. "Oral" includes
inhalants and medications administered through enteral tubes,
utilizing aseptic technique. "Topical" includes eye, ear, and
nasal medications. Any controlled substances must be packaged
specifically for an identified individual.
"Insulin in an injectable form" means a subcutaneous
injection via an insulin pen pre-filled by the manufacturer.
Authorized direct care staff may administer insulin, as ordered
by a physician, advanced practice nurse, or physician
assistant, if: (i) the staff has successfully completed a
Department-approved advanced training program specific to
insulin administration developed in consultation with
professional associations listed in subsection (a) of this
Section, and (ii) the staff consults with the registered nurse,
prior to administration, of any insulin dose that is determined
based on a blood glucose test result. The authorized direct
care staff shall not: (i) calculate the insulin dosage needed
when the dose is dependent upon a blood glucose test result, or
(ii) administer insulin to individuals who require blood
glucose monitoring greater than 3 times daily, unless directed
to do so by the registered nurse.
"Nurse-trainer training program" means a standardized,
competency-based medication administration train-the-trainer
program provided by the Department of Human Services and
conducted by a Department of Human Services master
nurse-trainer for the purpose of training nurse-trainers to
train persons employed or under contract to provide direct care
or treatment to individuals receiving services to administer
medications and provide self-administration of medication
training to individuals under the supervision and monitoring of
the nurse-trainer. The program incorporates adult learning
styles, teaching strategies, classroom management, and a
curriculum overview, including the ethical and legal aspects of
supervising those administering medications.
"Self-administration of medications" means an individual
administers his or her own medications. To be considered
capable to self-administer their own medication, individuals
must, at a minimum, be able to identify their medication by
size, shape, or color, know when they should take the
medication, and know the amount of medication to be taken each
time.
"Training program" means a standardized medication
administration training program approved by the Department of
Human Services and conducted by a registered professional nurse
for the purpose of training persons employed or under contract
to provide direct care or treatment to individuals receiving
services to administer medications and provide
self-administration of medication training to individuals
under the delegation and supervision of a nurse-trainer. The
program incorporates adult learning styles, teaching
strategies, classroom management, curriculum overview,
including ethical-legal aspects, and standardized
competency-based evaluations on administration of medications
and self-administration of medication training programs.
(c) Training and authorization of non-licensed direct care
staff by nurse-trainers must meet the requirements of this
subsection.
(1) Prior to training non-licensed direct care staff to
administer medication, the nurse-trainer shall perform the
following for each individual to whom medication will be
administered by non-licensed direct care staff:
(A) An assessment of the individual's health
history and physical and mental status.
(B) An evaluation of the medications prescribed.
(2) Non-licensed authorized direct care staff shall
meet the following criteria:
(A) Be 18 years of age or older.
(B) Have completed high school or have a high
school equivalency certificate.
(C) Have demonstrated functional literacy.
(D) Have satisfactorily completed the Health and
Safety component of a Department of Human Services
authorized direct care staff training program.
(E) Have successfully completed the training
program, pass the written portion of the comprehensive
exam, and score 100% on the competency-based
assessment specific to the individual and his or her
medications.
(F) Have received additional competency-based
assessment by the nurse-trainer as deemed necessary by
the nurse-trainer whenever a change of medication
occurs or a new individual that requires medication
administration enters the program.
(3) Authorized direct care staff shall be re-evaluated
by a nurse-trainer at least annually or more frequently at
the discretion of the registered professional nurse. Any
necessary retraining shall be to the extent that is
necessary to ensure competency of the authorized direct
care staff to administer medication.
(4) Authorization of direct care staff to administer
medication shall be revoked if, in the opinion of the
registered professional nurse, the authorized direct care
staff is no longer competent to administer medication.
(5) The registered professional nurse shall assess an
individual's health status at least annually or more
frequently at the discretion of the registered
professional nurse.
(d) Medication self-administration shall meet the
following requirements:
(1) As part of the normalization process, in order for
each individual to attain the highest possible level of
independent functioning, all individuals shall be
permitted to participate in their total health care
program. This program shall include, but not be limited to,
individual training in preventive health and
self-medication procedures.
(A) Every program shall adopt written policies and
procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining
preventative health and self-medication skills in
consultation with a registered professional nurse,
advanced practice nurse, physician assistant, or
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches.
(B) Individuals shall be evaluated to determine
their ability to self-medicate by the nurse-trainer
through the use of the Department's required,
standardized screening and assessment instruments.
(C) When the results of the screening and
assessment indicate an individual not to be capable to
self-administer his or her own medications, programs
shall be developed in consultation with the Community
Support Team or Interdisciplinary Team to provide
individuals with self-medication administration.
(2) Each individual shall be presumed to be competent
to self-administer medications if:
(A) authorized by an order of a physician licensed
to practice medicine in all its branches; and
(B) approved to self-administer medication by the
individual's Community Support Team or
Interdisciplinary Team, which includes a registered
professional nurse or an advanced practice nurse.
(e) Quality Assurance.
(1) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice
nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches, physician
assistant, or pharmacist shall review the following for all
individuals:
(A) Medication orders.
(B) Medication labels, including medications
listed on the medication administration record for
persons who are not self-medicating to ensure the
labels match the orders issued by the physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
advanced practice nurse, or physician assistant.
(C) Medication administration records for persons
who are not self-medicating to ensure that the records
are completed appropriately for:
(i) medication administered as prescribed;
(ii) refusal by the individual; and
(iii) full signatures provided for all
initials used.
(2) Reviews shall occur at least quarterly, but may be
done more frequently at the discretion of the registered
professional nurse or advanced practice nurse.
(3) A quality assurance review of medication errors and
data collection for the purpose of monitoring and
recommending corrective action shall be conducted within 7
days and included in the required annual review.
(f) Programs using authorized direct care staff to
administer medications are responsible for documenting and
maintaining records on the training that is completed.
(g) The absence of this training program constitutes a
threat to the public interest, safety, and welfare and
necessitates emergency rulemaking by the Departments of Human
Services and Public Health under Section 5-45 of the Illinois
Administrative Procedure Act.
(h) Direct care staff who fail to qualify for delegated
authority to administer medications pursuant to the provisions
of this Section shall be given additional education and testing
to meet criteria for delegation authority to administer
medications. Any direct care staff person who fails to qualify
as an authorized direct care staff after initial training and
testing must within 3 months be given another opportunity for
retraining and retesting. A direct care staff person who fails
to meet criteria for delegated authority to administer
medication, including, but not limited to, failure of the
written test on 2 occasions shall be given consideration for
shift transfer or reassignment, if possible. No employee shall
be terminated for failure to qualify during the 3-month time
period following initial testing. Refusal to complete training
and testing required by this Section may be grounds for
immediate dismissal.
(i) No authorized direct care staff person delegated to
administer medication shall be subject to suspension or
discharge for errors resulting from the staff person's acts or
omissions when performing the functions unless the staff
person's actions or omissions constitute willful and wanton
conduct. Nothing in this subsection is intended to supersede
paragraph (4) of subsection (c).
(j) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice
nurse, physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches, or physician assistant shall be on duty or on call at
all times in any program covered by this Section.
(k) The employer shall be responsible for maintaining
liability insurance for any program covered by this Section.
(l) Any direct care staff person who qualifies as
authorized direct care staff pursuant to this Section shall be
granted consideration for a one-time additional salary
differential. The Department shall determine and provide the
necessary funding for the differential in the base. This
subsection (l) is inoperative on and after June 30, 2000.
(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-901, eff. 8-15-14;
revised 10-2-14.)
(20 ILCS 1705/18.6)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
Sec. 18.6. Mental Health Services Strategic Planning Task
Force.
(a) Task Force. The Mental Health Services Strategic
Planning Task Force is created.
(b) Meeting. The Task Force shall be appointed and hold its
first meeting within 90 days after the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.
(c) Composition. The Task Force shall be comprised of the
following members:
(1) Two members of the Senate appointed by the
President of the Senate and 2 members of the Senate
appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate.
(2) Two members of the House of Representatives
appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives
and 2 members of the House of Representatives appointed by
the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.
(3) One representative of the Division of Mental Health
within the Department of Human Services.
(4) One representative of the Department of Healthcare
and Family Services.
(5) One representative of the Bureau of Long Term Care
within the Department of Public Health.
(6) One representative of the Illinois Children's
Mental Health Partnership.
(7) Six representatives of the mental health providers
and community stakeholders selected from names submitted
by associates representing the various types of providers.
(8) Three representatives of the consumer community
including a primary consumer, secondary consumer, and a
representative of a mental health consumer advocacy
organization.
(9) An individual from a union representing State
employees providing services to persons with mental
illness.
(10) One academic specialist in mental health
outcomes, research, and evidence-based practices.
(d) Duty. The Task Force shall meet with the Office of the
Governor and the appropriate legislative committees on mental
health to develop a 5-year comprehensive strategic plan for the
State's mental health services. The plan shall address the
following topics:
(1) Provide sufficient home and community-based
services to give consumers real options in care settings.
(2) Improve access to care.
(3) Reduce regulatory redundancy.
(4) Maintain financial viability for providers in a
cost-effective manner to the State.
(5) Ensure care is effective, efficient, and
appropriate regardless of the setting in which it is
provided.
(6) Ensure quality of care in all care settings via the
use of appropriate clinical outcomes.
(7) Ensure hospitalizations and institutional care,
when necessary, is available to meet demand now and in the
future.
(e) The Task Force shall work in conjunction with the
Department of Human Services' Division of Developmental
Disabilities to ensure effective treatment for those dually
diagnosed with both mental illness and developmental
disabilities. The Task Force shall also work in conjunction
with the Department of Human Services' Division of Alcoholism
Alcohol and Substance Abuse to ensure effective treatment for
those who are dually diagnosed with both mental illness as well
as substance abuse challenges.
(f) Compensation. Members of the Task Force shall not
receive compensation nor reimbursement for necessary expenses
incurred in performing the duties associated with the Task
Force.
(g) Reporting. The Task Force shall present its plan to the
Governor and the General Assembly no later than 18 months after
the effective date of the amendatory Act of the 97th General
Assembly. With its approval and authorization, and subject to
appropriation, the Task Force shall convene quarterly meetings
during the implementation of the 5-year strategic plan to
monitor progress, review outcomes, and make ongoing
recommendations. These ongoing recommendations shall be
presented to the Governor and the General Assembly for
feedback, suggestions, support, and approval. Within one year
after recommendations are presented to the Governor and the
General Assembly, the General Assembly shall vote on whether
the recommendations should become law.
(h) Administrative support. The Department of Human
Services shall provide administrative and staff support to the
Task Force.
(i) This Section is repealed on December 31, 2019.
(Source: P.A. 97-438, eff. 8-18-11; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 85. The Department of Public Health Act is amended
by changing Section 2.1 as follows:
(20 ILCS 2305/2.1)
Sec. 2.1. Information sharing.
(a) Whenever a State or local law enforcement authority
learns of a case of an illness, health condition, or unusual
disease or symptom cluster, reportable pursuant to rules
adopted by the Department or by a local board of health or
local public health authority, or a suspicious event that may
be the cause of or related to a public health emergency, as
that term is defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency
Management Agency Act, it shall immediately notify the Illinois
Emergency Management Agency and the Department or local board
of health or local public health authority.
(b) Whenever the Department or a local board of health or
local public health authority learns of a case of an illness,
health condition, or unusual disease or symptom cluster,
reportable pursuant to rules adopted by the Department or by a
local board of health or a local public health authority, or a
suspicious event that it reasonably believes has the potential
to be the cause of or related to a public health emergency, as
that term is defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency
Management Agency Act, it shall immediately notify the Illinois
Emergency Management Agency, the appropriate State and local
law enforcement authorities, other appropriate State agencies,
and federal health and law enforcement authorities and, after
that notification, it shall provide law enforcement
authorities with such other information as law enforcement
authorities may request for the purpose of conducting a
criminal investigation or a criminal prosecution of or arising
out of that matter. No information containing the identity or
tending to reveal the identity of any person may be redisclosed
by law enforcement, except in a prosecution of that person for
the commission of a crime.
(c) Sharing of information on reportable illnesses, health
conditions, unusual disease or symptom clusters, or suspicious
events between and among public health and law enforcement
authorities shall be restricted to the information necessary
for the treatment in response to, control of, investigation of,
and prevention of a public health emergency, as that term is
defined in Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management
Agency Act, or for criminal investigation or criminal
prosecution of or arising out of that matter.
(d) The operation of the language of this Section is not
dependent upon a declaration of disaster by the Governor
pursuant to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act.
(Source: P.A. 93-829, eff. 7-28-04; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 90. The Illinois Commission on Volunteerism and
Community Service Act is amended by changing Section 6.1 as
follows:
(20 ILCS 2330/6.1) (was 20 ILCS 710/6.1)
Sec. 6.1. Functions of Commission. The Commission shall
meet at least quarterly and shall advise and consult with the
Department of Public Health and the Governor's Office on all
matters relating to community service in Illinois. In addition,
the Commission shall have the following duties:
(a) prepare a 3-year State service plan, developed
through an open, public process and updated annually;
(b) prepare the financial assistance applications of
the State under the National and Community Service Trust
Fund Act of 1993, as amended by the Serve America Act;
(c) assist in the preparation of the application by the
State Board of Education for assistance under that Act;
(d) prepare the State's application under that Act for
the approval of national service positions;
(e) assist in the provision of health care and child
care benefits under that Act;
(f) develop a State recruitment, placement, and
information dissemination system for participants in
programs that receive assistance under the national
service laws;
(g) administer the State's grant program including
selection, oversight, and evaluation of grant recipients;
(h) make technical assistance available to enable
applicants to plan and implement service programs and to
apply for assistance under the national service laws;
(i) develop projects, training methods, curriculum
materials, and other activities related to service;
(j) coordinate its functions with any division of the
federal Corporation for National and Community Service
outlined in the National and Community Service Trust Fund
Act of 1993, as amended by the Serve America Act; .
(k) publicize Commission services and promote
community involvement in the activities of the Commission;
(l) promote increased visibility and support for
volunteers of all ages, especially youth and senior
citizens, and community service in meeting the needs of
Illinois residents; and
(m) represent the Department of Public Health and the
Governor's Office on such occasions and in such manner as
the Department may provide.
(Source: P.A. 98-692, eff. 7-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 95. The Blind Vendors Act is amended by changing
Section 30 as follows:
(20 ILCS 2421/30)
Sec. 30. Vending machine income and compliance.
(a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e),
and (i) of this Section, after July 1, 2010, all vending
machine income, as defined by this Act, from vending machines
on State property shall accrue to (1) the blind vendor
operating the vending facilities on the property or (2) in the
event there is no blind vendor operating a facility on the
property, the Blind Vendors Trust Fund for use exclusively as
set forth in subsection (a) of Section 25 of this Act.
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section, all State university cafeterias and vending
machines are exempt from this Act.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section, all vending facilities at the Governor Samuel H.
Shapiro Developmental Center in Kankakee are exempt from this
Act.
(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section, in the event there is no blind vendor operating a
vending facility on the State property, all vending machine
income, as defined in this Act, from vending machines on the
State property of the Department of Corrections and the
Department of Juvenile Justice shall accrue to the State agency
and be allocated in accordance with the commissary provisions
in the Unified Code of Corrections.
(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section, in the event a blind vendor is operating a
vending facility on the State property of the Department of or
Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, a commission
shall be paid to the State agency equal to 10% of the net
proceeds from vending machines servicing State employees and
25% of the net proceeds from vending machines servicing
visitors on the State property.
(f) The Secretary, directly or by delegation of authority,
shall ensure compliance with this Section and Section 15 of
this Act with respect to buildings, installations, facilities,
roadside rest stops, and any other State property, and shall be
responsible for the collection of, and accounting for, all
vending machine income on this property. The Secretary shall
enforce these provisions through litigation, arbitration, or
any other legal means available to the State, and each State
agency in control of this property shall be subject to the
enforcement. State agencies or departments failing to comply
with an order of the Department may be held in contempt in any
court of general jurisdiction.
(g) Any limitation on the placement or operation of a
vending machine by a State agency based on a determination that
such placement or operation would adversely affect the
interests of the State must be explained in writing to the
Secretary. The Secretary shall promptly determine whether the
limitation is justified. If the Secretary determines that the
limitation is not justified, the State agency seeking the
limitation shall immediately remove the limitation.
(h) The amount of vending machine income accruing from
vending machines on State property that may be used for the
functions of the Committee shall be determined annually by a
two-thirds vote of the Committee, except that no more than 25%
of the annual vending machine income may be used by the
Committee for this purpose, based upon the income accruing to
the Blind Vendors Trust Fund in the preceding year. The
Committee may establish its budget and expend funds through
contract or otherwise without the approval of the Department.
(i) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section, with respect to vending machines located on any
facility or property controlled or operated by the Division of
Mental Health or the Division of Developmental Disabilities
within the Department of Human Services:
(1) Any written contract in place as of the effective
date of this Act between the Division and the Business
Enterprise Program for the Blind shall be maintained and
fully adhered to including any moneys paid to the
individual facilities.
(2) With respect to existing vending machines with no
written contract or agreement in place as of the effective
date of this Act between the Division and a private vendor,
bottler, or vending machine supplier, the Business
Enterprise Program for the Blind has the right to provide
the vending services as provided in this Act, provided that
the blind vendor must provide 10% of gross sales from those
machines to the individual facilities.
(Source: P.A. 96-644, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 100. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by
changing Sections 4.5 and 5.2 as follows:
(20 ILCS 2630/4.5)
Sec. 4.5. Ethnic and racial data collection.
(a) Ethnic and racial data for every adult or juvenile
arrested shall be collected at the following points of contact
by the entity identified in this subsection or another entity
authorized and qualified to collect and report on this data:
(1) at arrest or booking, by the supervising law
enforcement agency;
(2) upon admittance to the Department of Corrections,
by the Department of Corrections;
(3) upon admittance to the Department of Juvenile
Justice, by the Department of Juvenile Justice; and
(4) (3) upon transfer from the Department of Juvenile
Justice to the Department of Corrections, by the Department
of Juvenile Justice.
(b) Ethnic and racial data shall be collected through
selection of one of the following categories:
(1) American Indian or Alaskan Native;
(2) Asian or Pacific Islander;
(3) Black or African American;
(4) White or Caucasian;
(5) Hispanic or Latino; or
(6) Unknown.
(c) The collecting entity shall make a good-faith effort to
collect race and ethnicity information as self-reported by the
adult or juvenile. If the adult or juvenile is unable or
unwilling to provide race and ethnicity information, the
collecting entity shall make a good-faith effort to deduce the
race and ethnicity of the adult or juvenile.
(Source: P.A. 98-528, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-25-14.)
(20 ILCS 2630/5.2)
Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.
(a) General Provisions.
(1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have
the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a
particular context clearly requires a different meaning.
(A) The following terms shall have the meanings
ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections,
730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:
(i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),
(ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),
(iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),
(iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),
(v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),
(vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),
(vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),
(viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),
(ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),
(x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),
(xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),
(xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),
(xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),
(xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and
(xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).
(B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated
by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS
5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the
defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct
result of the charge.
(C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or
sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a
verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by
a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent
jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury.
An order of supervision successfully completed by the
petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified
probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J))
successfully completed by the petitioner is not a
conviction. An order of supervision or an order of
qualified probation that is terminated
unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the
unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or
modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is
reversed or vacated.
(D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense,
business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal
ordinance violation (as defined in subsection
(a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic
offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not
be considered a criminal offense.
(E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the
records or return them to the petitioner and to
obliterate the petitioner's name from any official
index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act
shall require the physical destruction of the circuit
court file, but such records relating to arrests or
charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded
as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and
(d)(9)(B)(ii).
(F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means
the sentence, order of supervision, or order of
qualified probation (as defined by subsection
(a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by
subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in
any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner
has included the criminal offense for which the
sentence or order of supervision or qualified
probation was imposed in his or her petition. If
multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders
of qualified probation terminate on the same day and
are last in time, they shall be collectively considered
the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were
ordered to run concurrently.
(G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense,
business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a
municipal or local ordinance.
(H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an
offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that
is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was
charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and
released without charging.
(I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor
prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under
this Section.
(J) "Qualified probation" means an order of
probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act,
Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and
Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4
of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section
12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as
those provisions existed before their deletion by
Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois
Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section
40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control
Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful
completion" of an order of qualified probation under
Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other
Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism
and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the
probation was terminated satisfactorily and the
judgment of conviction was vacated.
(K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically
maintain the records, unless the records would
otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the
records unavailable without a court order, subject to
the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The
petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the
official index required to be kept by the circuit court
clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the
entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.
(L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor"
includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent
solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when
the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.
(M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or
order of supervision or qualified probation includes
either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of
the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this
Section.
(2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or
convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a
petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records
pursuant to this Section.
(3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in
subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6)
of this Section, the court shall not order:
(A) the sealing or expungement of the records of
arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result
in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i)
any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii)
Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii)
Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the
arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of
subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision
of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the
offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender
has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or
11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar
provision of a local ordinance.
(B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor
traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)),
unless the petitioner was arrested and released
without charging.
(C) the sealing of the records of arrests or
charges not initiated by arrest which result in an
order of supervision or a conviction for the following
offenses:
(i) offenses included in Article 11 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012
or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except
Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a
local ordinance;
(ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30,
26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a
local ordinance;
(iii) Sections 12-3.1 or 12-3.2 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,
or Section 125 of the Stalking No Contact Order
Act, or Section 219 of the Civil No Contact Order
Act, or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
(iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors
under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or
(v) any offense or attempted offense that
would subject a person to registration under the
Sex Offender Registration Act.
(D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which
results in the petitioner being charged with a felony
offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest
for a felony offense unless:
(i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and
is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to
subsection (c);
(ii) the charge is brought along with another
charge as a part of one case and the charge results
in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the
conviction was reversed or vacated, and another
charge brought in the same case results in a
disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is
eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or
a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or
(iv) of this subsection;
(iii) the charge results in first offender
probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);
(iv) the charge is for a felony offense listed
in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to
a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F);
(v) the charge results in acquittal,
dismissal, or the petitioner's release without
conviction; or
(vi) the charge results in a conviction, but
the conviction was reversed or vacated.
(b) Expungement.
(1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to
expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not
initiated by arrest when:
(A) He or she has never been convicted of a
criminal offense; and
(B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest
sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal,
dismissal, or the petitioner's release without
charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);
(ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless
excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of
supervision and such supervision was successfully
completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by
subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of
qualified probation (as defined in subsection
(a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully
completed by the petitioner.
(2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.
(A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by
arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal,
dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging,
or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is
no waiting period to petition for the expungement of
such records.
(B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by
arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of
supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner,
the following time frames will apply:
(i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in
orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708,
3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance, or under
Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a
similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not
be eligible for expungement until 5 years have
passed following the satisfactory termination of
the supervision.
(i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted
in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor
violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of
the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of
a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the
offender reaching the age of 25 years and the
offender has no other conviction for violating
Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance
shall not be eligible for expungement until the
petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.
(ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in
orders of supervision for any other offenses shall
not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have
passed following the satisfactory termination of
the supervision.
(C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by
arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of
qualified probation, successfully completed by the
petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for
expungement until 5 years have passed following the
satisfactory termination of the probation.
(3) Those records maintained by the Department for
persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be
expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court
Act of 1987.
(4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or
convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose
identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into
possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity
was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization,
upon learning of the person having been arrested using his
or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief
judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a
court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to
correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and
all official records of the arresting authority, the
Department, other criminal justice agencies, the
prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if
any, by removing his or her name from all such records in
connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by
inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known
or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The
records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until
further order of the court upon good cause shown and the
name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official
index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under
Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall
not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk
before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section
shall limit the Department of State Police or other
criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing
under an offender's name the false names he or she has
used.
(5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal
sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault,
predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal
sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the
victim of that offense may request that the State's
Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred
file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at
the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to
seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection
with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that
offense. However, the records of the arresting authority
and the Department of State Police concerning the offense
shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown,
shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in
connection with the proceedings of the trial court
concerning the offense available for public inspection.
(6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review
or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear
and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually
innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner
factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement
order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been
determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of
Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the
Department of State Police from maintaining all records of
any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and
conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions
pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section
410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70
of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of
Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of
Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois
Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of
the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or
Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.
(8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of
innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of
innocence shall also enter an order expunging the
conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to
be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702
of the Code of Civil Procedure.
(c) Sealing.
(1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision
of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights
to expungement of criminal records, this subsection
authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of
minors prosecuted as adults.
(2) Eligible Records. The following records may be
sealed:
(A) All arrests resulting in release without
charging;
(B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when
the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as
excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);
(C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
resulting in orders of supervision, including orders
of supervision for municipal ordinance violations,
successfully completed by the petitioner, unless
excluded by subsection (a)(3);
(D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
resulting in convictions, including convictions on
municipal ordinance violations, unless excluded by
subsection (a)(3);
(E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
resulting in orders of first offender probation under
Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of
the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of
the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of
Corrections; and
(F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
resulting in felony convictions for the following
offenses:
(i) Class 4 felony convictions for:
Prostitution under Section 11-14 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
2012.
Possession of cannabis under Section 4 of
the Cannabis Control Act.
Possession of a controlled substance under
Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act.
Offenses under the Methamphetamine
Precursor Control Act.
Offenses under the Steroid Control Act.
Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or
paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of
1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of
the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
of 2012.
Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
Possession of burglary tools under Section
19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012.
(ii) Class 3 felony convictions for:
Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or
paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of
1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of
the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
of 2012.
Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
Possession with intent to manufacture or
deliver a controlled substance under Section
401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
(3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records
identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be
sealed as follows:
(A) Records identified as eligible under
subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any
time.
(B) Records identified as eligible under
subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed (i) 3 years after
the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as
defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has
never been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined
in subsection (a)(1)(D)); or (ii) 4 years after the
termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as
defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has
ever been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined
in subsection (a)(1)(D)).
(C) Records identified as eligible under
subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be
sealed 4 years after the termination of the
petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection
(a)(1)(F)).
(D) Records identified in subsection
(a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has
reached the age of 25 years.
(4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not
have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as
provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted
of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of
prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection
(c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony
offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction
records previously ordered sealed by the court.
(5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a
disposition for an eligible record under this subsection
(c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the
right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the
sealing of the records.
(d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to
expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing
under subsections (c) and (e-5):
(1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to
petition for the expungement or sealing of records under
this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition
requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the
clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the
charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or
charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition
must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner
shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.
(2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be
verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of
birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not
initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the
case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of
the arresting authority, and such other information as the
court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding,
the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court
clerk of any change of his or her address. If the
petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for
sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10)
of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of
Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the
petition.
(3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the
petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken
within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing
the absence within his or her body of all illegal
substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community
Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she
is petitioning to:
(A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);
(B) seal felony records for a violation of the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,
or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);
(C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or
(D) expunge felony records of a qualified
probation under clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).
(4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall
promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to
support the petition under subsection (e-5) or (e-6) on the
State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of
prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police,
the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the
unit of local government effecting the arrest.
(5) Objections.
(A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition
may file an objection to the petition. All objections
shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit
court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis
of the objection. Whenever a person who has been
convicted of an offense is granted a pardon by the
Governor which specifically authorizes expungement, an
objection to the petition may not be filed.
(B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal
must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of
the petition.
(6) Entry of order.
(A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the
charge was brought, any judge of that circuit
designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less
than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge
at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the
petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this
subsection (d)(6).
(B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the
Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or
the chief legal officer files an objection to the
petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the
date of service of the petition, the court shall enter
an order granting or denying the petition.
(7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall
set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all
parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing
date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the
hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the
Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought
in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the
court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or
should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition
to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence
presented at the hearing. The court may consider the
following:
(A) the strength of the evidence supporting the
defendant's conviction;
(B) the reasons for retention of the conviction
records by the State;
(C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history,
and employment history;
(D) the period of time between the petitioner's
arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and
the filing of the petition under this Section; and
(E) the specific adverse consequences the
petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.
(8) Service of order. After entering an order to
expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of
the order to the Department, in a form and manner
prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the
State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of
prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the
chief legal officer of the unit of local government
effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice
agencies as may be ordered by the court.
(9) Implementation of order.
(A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records
pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:
(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined
in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency,
the Department, and any other agency as ordered by
the court, within 60 days of the date of service of
the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or
reconsider the order is filed pursuant to
paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;
(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk
shall be impounded until further order of the court
upon good cause shown and the name of the
petitioner obliterated on the official index
required to be kept by the circuit court clerk
under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
the order shall not affect any index issued by the
circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;
and
(iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged
records, the court, the Department, or the agency
receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in
response to inquiries when no records ever
existed.
(B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records
pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:
(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined
in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency
and any other agency as ordered by the court,
within 60 days of the date of service of the order,
unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider
the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of
subsection (d) of this Section;
(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk
shall be impounded until further order of the court
upon good cause shown and the name of the
petitioner obliterated on the official index
required to be kept by the circuit court clerk
under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
the order shall not affect any index issued by the
circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;
(iii) the records shall be impounded by the
Department within 60 days of the date of service of
the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion
to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed
pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of
this Section;
(iv) records impounded by the Department may
be disseminated by the Department only as required
by law or to the arresting authority, the State's
Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the
same or a similar offense or for the purpose of
sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the
Department of Corrections upon conviction for any
offense; and
(v) in response to an inquiry for such records
from anyone not authorized by law to access such
records, the court, the Department, or the agency
receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in
response to inquiries when no records ever
existed.
(B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records
under subsection (e-6):
(i) the records shall be expunged (as defined
in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency
and any other agency as ordered by the court,
within 60 days of the date of service of the order,
unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider
the order is filed under paragraph (12) of
subsection (d) of this Section;
(ii) the records of the circuit court clerk
shall be impounded until further order of the court
upon good cause shown and the name of the
petitioner obliterated on the official index
required to be kept by the circuit court clerk
under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
the order shall not affect any index issued by the
circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;
(iii) the records shall be impounded by the
Department within 60 days of the date of service of
the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion
to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed
under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this
Section;
(iv) records impounded by the Department may
be disseminated by the Department only as required
by law or to the arresting authority, the State's
Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the
same or a similar offense or for the purpose of
sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the
Department of Corrections upon conviction for any
offense; and
(v) in response to an inquiry for these records
from anyone not authorized by law to access the
records, the court, the Department, or the agency
receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in
response to inquiries when no records ever
existed.
(C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under
subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency
as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court
shall seal the records (as defined in subsection
(a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records
from anyone not authorized by law to access such
records, the court, the Department, or the agency
receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in
response to inquiries when no records ever existed.
(D) The Department shall send written notice to the
petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge
or seal records within 60 days of the date of service
of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or
reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the
order resolving the motion, if that order requires the
Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of
an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department
shall send written notice to the petitioner of its
compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court
judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of
the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not
required while any motion to vacate, modify, or
reconsider, or any appeal or petition for
discretionary appellate review, is pending.
(10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a
fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to
expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of
the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court
clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated
with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit
court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the
petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall
deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and
Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs
incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the
additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or
expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall
collect and forward the Department of State Police portion
of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in
the State Police Services Fund.
(11) Final Order. No court order issued under the
expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall
become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after
service of the order on the petitioner and all parties
entitled to notice of the petition.
(12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under
Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the
petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a
motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting
or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days
of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after
service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or
reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section
2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a
motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the
motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties
entitled to notice of the petition.
(13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition
under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section
shall not be considered void because it fails to comply
with the provisions of this Section or because of any error
asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The
circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether
the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider
its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of
this subsection (d).
(14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal
Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order
granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice
of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the
order within 60 days of service of the order even if a
party is seeking relief from the order through a motion
filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is
appealing the order.
(15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to
Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the
order granting the petition to expunge through a motion
filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is
appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay
of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the
petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until
there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the
case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.
(16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public
Act 98-163 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013
(the effective date of Public Act 98-163) and to all orders
ruling on a petition to expunge or seal on or after August
5, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-163).
(e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense
is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically
authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition
to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been
convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief
Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the
presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court
order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official
records of the arresting authority and order that the records
of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until
further order of the court upon good cause shown or as
otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant
obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the
circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts
Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the
offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order
shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk
before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the
Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the
arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a
later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose
of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for
any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall
have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining
to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the
circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to
the person who was pardoned.
(e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an
offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by
the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes
sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief
Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any
judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in
counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding
trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order
entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records
of the arresting authority and order that the records of the
circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further
order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise
provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated
from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit
court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in
connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for
which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order
shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk
before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the
Department may be disseminated by the Department only as
required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law
enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a
later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose
of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for
any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall
have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining
to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the
circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to
the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for
sealing.
(e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an
offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement
by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes
expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief
Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any
judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in
counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding
trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order
entered expunging the record of arrest from the official
records of the arresting authority and order that the records
of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until
further order of the court upon good cause shown or as
otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner
obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the
circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts
Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the
offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate
but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit
court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed
by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as
required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law
enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a
later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose
of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for
any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall
have access to all expunged records of the Department
pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of
expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy
of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of
eligibility for expungement.
(f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department
of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing,
especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a
random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their
criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the
Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois
Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as
appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not
disclose any data in a manner that would allow the
identification of any particular individual or employing unit.
The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no
later than September 1, 2010.
(Source: P.A. 97-443, eff. 8-19-11; 97-698, eff. 1-1-13;
97-1026, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff.
1-1-13; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150,
eff. 1-25-13; 98-133, eff. 1-1-14; 98-142, eff. 1-1-14; 98-163,
eff. 8-5-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-635,
eff. 1-1-15; 98-637, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14;
98-1009, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-30-14.)
Section 105. The Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act is
amended by changing Sections 3 and 12 as follows:
(20 ILCS 3960/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1153)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:
"Health care facilities" means and includes the following
facilities, organizations, and related persons:
(1) An ambulatory surgical treatment center required
to be licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act.
(2) An institution, place, building, or agency
required to be licensed pursuant to the Hospital Licensing
Act.
(3) Skilled and intermediate long term care facilities
licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act.
(A) If a demonstration project under the Nursing
Home Care Act applies for a certificate of need to
convert to a nursing facility, it shall meet the
licensure and certificate of need requirements in
effect as of the date of application.
(B) Except as provided in item (A) of this
subsection, this Act does not apply to facilities
granted waivers under Section 3-102.2 of the Nursing
Home Care Act.
(3.5) Skilled and intermediate care facilities
licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act. (A) No permit
or exemption is required for a facility licensed under the
ID/DD Community Care Act prior to the reduction of the
number of beds at a facility. If there is a total reduction
of beds at a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community
Care Act, this is a discontinuation or closure of the
facility. If a facility licensed under the ID/DD Community
Care Act reduces the number of beds or discontinues the
facility, that facility must notify the Board as provided
in Section 14.1 of this Act.
(3.7) Facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental
Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.
(4) Hospitals, nursing homes, ambulatory surgical
treatment centers, or kidney disease treatment centers
maintained by the State or any department or agency
thereof.
(5) Kidney disease treatment centers, including a
free-standing hemodialysis unit required to be licensed
under the End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act.
(A) This Act does not apply to a dialysis facility
that provides only dialysis training, support, and
related services to individuals with end stage renal
disease who have elected to receive home dialysis.
(B) This Act does not apply to a dialysis unit
located in a licensed nursing home that offers or
provides dialysis-related services to residents with
end stage renal disease who have elected to receive
home dialysis within the nursing home.
(C) The Board, however, may require dialysis
facilities and licensed nursing homes under items (A)
and (B) of this subsection to report statistical
information on a quarterly basis to the Board to be
used by the Board to conduct analyses on the need for
proposed kidney disease treatment centers.
(6) An institution, place, building, or room used for
the performance of outpatient surgical procedures that is
leased, owned, or operated by or on behalf of an
out-of-state facility.
(7) An institution, place, building, or room used for
provision of a health care category of service, including,
but not limited to, cardiac catheterization and open heart
surgery.
(8) An institution, place, building, or room housing
major medical equipment used in the direct clinical
diagnosis or treatment of patients, and whose project cost
is in excess of the capital expenditure minimum.
"Health care facilities" does not include the following
entities or facility transactions:
(1) Federally-owned facilities.
(2) Facilities used solely for healing by prayer or
spiritual means.
(3) An existing facility located on any campus facility
as defined in Section 5-5.8b of the Illinois Public Aid
Code, provided that the campus facility encompasses 30 or
more contiguous acres and that the new or renovated
facility is intended for use by a licensed residential
facility.
(4) Facilities licensed under the Supportive
Residences Licensing Act or the Assisted Living and Shared
Housing Act.
(5) Facilities designated as supportive living
facilities that are in good standing with the program
established under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public
Aid Code.
(6) Facilities established and operating under the
Alternative Health Care Delivery Act as a children's
community-based health care center children's respite care
center alternative health care model demonstration program
or as an Alzheimer's Disease Management Center alternative
health care model demonstration program.
(7) The closure of an entity or a portion of an entity
licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized
Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD
Community Care Act, with the exception of facilities
operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes, that elect
to convert, in whole or in part, to an assisted living or
shared housing establishment licensed under the Assisted
Living and Shared Housing Act and with the exception of a
facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health
Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in connection with a proposal to
close a facility and re-establish the facility in another
location.
(8) Any change of ownership of a health care healthcare
facility that is licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act,
the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013,
or the ID/DD Community Care Act, with the exception of
facilities operated by a county or Illinois Veterans Homes.
Changes of ownership of facilities licensed under the
Nursing Home Care Act must meet the requirements set forth
in Sections 3-101 through 3-119 of the Nursing Home Care
Act. children's community-based health care center of 2013
and with the exception of a facility licensed under the
Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 in
connection with a proposal to close a facility and
re-establish the facility in another location of 2013
With the exception of those health care facilities
specifically included in this Section, nothing in this Act
shall be intended to include facilities operated as a part of
the practice of a physician or other licensed health care
professional, whether practicing in his individual capacity or
within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or
professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or
professional group. Further, this Act shall not apply to
physicians or other licensed health care professional's
practices where such practices are carried out in a portion of
a health care facility under contract with such health care
facility by a physician or by other licensed health care
professionals, whether practicing in his individual capacity
or within the legal structure of any partnership, medical or
professional corporation, or unincorporated medical or
professional groups, unless the entity constructs, modifies,
or establishes a health care facility as specifically defined
in this Section. This Act shall apply to construction or
modification and to establishment by such health care facility
of such contracted portion which is subject to facility
licensing requirements, irrespective of the party responsible
for such action or attendant financial obligation.
"Person" means any one or more natural persons, legal
entities, governmental bodies other than federal, or any
combination thereof.
"Consumer" means any person other than a person (a) whose
major occupation currently involves or whose official capacity
within the last 12 months has involved the providing,
administering or financing of any type of health care facility,
(b) who is engaged in health research or the teaching of
health, (c) who has a material financial interest in any
activity which involves the providing, administering or
financing of any type of health care facility, or (d) who is or
ever has been a member of the immediate family of the person
defined by (a), (b), or (c).
"State Board" or "Board" means the Health Facilities and
Services Review Board.
"Construction or modification" means the establishment,
erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization,
improvement, extension, discontinuation, change of ownership,
of or by a health care facility, or the purchase or acquisition
by or through a health care facility of equipment or service
for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes or for facility
administration or operation, or any capital expenditure made by
or on behalf of a health care facility which exceeds the
capital expenditure minimum; however, any capital expenditure
made by or on behalf of a health care facility for (i) the
construction or modification of a facility licensed under the
Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act or (ii) a conversion
project undertaken in accordance with Section 30 of the Older
Adult Services Act shall be excluded from any obligations under
this Act.
"Establish" means the construction of a health care
facility or the replacement of an existing facility on another
site or the initiation of a category of service.
"Major medical equipment" means medical equipment which is
used for the provision of medical and other health services and
which costs in excess of the capital expenditure minimum,
except that such term does not include medical equipment
acquired by or on behalf of a clinical laboratory to provide
clinical laboratory services if the clinical laboratory is
independent of a physician's office and a hospital and it has
been determined under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act to
meet the requirements of paragraphs (10) and (11) of Section
1861(s) of such Act. In determining whether medical equipment
has a value in excess of the capital expenditure minimum, the
value of studies, surveys, designs, plans, working drawings,
specifications, and other activities essential to the
acquisition of such equipment shall be included.
"Capital Expenditure" means an expenditure: (A) made by or
on behalf of a health care facility (as such a facility is
defined in this Act); and (B) which under generally accepted
accounting principles is not properly chargeable as an expense
of operation and maintenance, or is made to obtain by lease or
comparable arrangement any facility or part thereof or any
equipment for a facility or part; and which exceeds the capital
expenditure minimum.
For the purpose of this paragraph, the cost of any studies,
surveys, designs, plans, working drawings, specifications, and
other activities essential to the acquisition, improvement,
expansion, or replacement of any plant or equipment with
respect to which an expenditure is made shall be included in
determining if such expenditure exceeds the capital
expenditures minimum. Unless otherwise interdependent, or
submitted as one project by the applicant, components of
construction or modification undertaken by means of a single
construction contract or financed through the issuance of a
single debt instrument shall not be grouped together as one
project. Donations of equipment or facilities to a health care
facility which if acquired directly by such facility would be
subject to review under this Act shall be considered capital
expenditures, and a transfer of equipment or facilities for
less than fair market value shall be considered a capital
expenditure for purposes of this Act if a transfer of the
equipment or facilities at fair market value would be subject
to review.
"Capital expenditure minimum" means $11,500,000 for
projects by hospital applicants, $6,500,000 for applicants for
projects related to skilled and intermediate care long-term
care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, and
$3,000,000 for projects by all other applicants, which shall be
annually adjusted to reflect the increase in construction costs
due to inflation, for major medical equipment and for all other
capital expenditures.
"Non-clinical service area" means an area (i) for the
benefit of the patients, visitors, staff, or employees of a
health care facility and (ii) not directly related to the
diagnosis, treatment, or rehabilitation of persons receiving
services from the health care facility. "Non-clinical service
areas" include, but are not limited to, chapels; gift shops;
news stands; computer systems; tunnels, walkways, and
elevators; telephone systems; projects to comply with life
safety codes; educational facilities; student housing;
patient, employee, staff, and visitor dining areas;
administration and volunteer offices; modernization of
structural components (such as roof replacement and masonry
work); boiler repair or replacement; vehicle maintenance and
storage facilities; parking facilities; mechanical systems for
heating, ventilation, and air conditioning; loading docks; and
repair or replacement of carpeting, tile, wall coverings,
window coverings or treatments, or furniture. Solely for the
purpose of this definition, "non-clinical service area" does
not include health and fitness centers.
"Areawide" means a major area of the State delineated on a
geographic, demographic, and functional basis for health
planning and for health service and having within it one or
more local areas for health planning and health service. The
term "region", as contrasted with the term "subregion", and the
word "area" may be used synonymously with the term "areawide".
"Local" means a subarea of a delineated major area that on
a geographic, demographic, and functional basis may be
considered to be part of such major area. The term "subregion"
may be used synonymously with the term "local".
"Physician" means a person licensed to practice in
accordance with the Medical Practice Act of 1987, as amended.
"Licensed health care professional" means a person
licensed to practice a health profession under pertinent
licensing statutes of the State of Illinois.
"Director" means the Director of the Illinois Department of
Public Health.
"Agency" means the Illinois Department of Public Health.
"Alternative health care model" means a facility or program
authorized under the Alternative Health Care Delivery Act.
"Out-of-state facility" means a person that is both (i)
licensed as a hospital or as an ambulatory surgery center under
the laws of another state or that qualifies as a hospital or an
ambulatory surgery center under regulations adopted pursuant
to the Social Security Act and (ii) not licensed under the
Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act, the Hospital
Licensing Act, or the Nursing Home Care Act. Affiliates of
out-of-state facilities shall be considered out-of-state
facilities. Affiliates of Illinois licensed health care
facilities 100% owned by an Illinois licensed health care
facility, its parent, or Illinois physicians licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches shall not be considered
out-of-state facilities. Nothing in this definition shall be
construed to include an office or any part of an office of a
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in
Illinois that is not required to be licensed under the
Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act.
"Change of ownership of a health care facility" means a
change in the person who has ownership or control of a health
care facility's physical plant and capital assets. A change in
ownership is indicated by the following transactions: sale,
transfer, acquisition, lease, change of sponsorship, or other
means of transferring control.
"Related person" means any person that: (i) is at least 50%
owned, directly or indirectly, by either the health care
facility or a person owning, directly or indirectly, at least
50% of the health care facility; or (ii) owns, directly or
indirectly, at least 50% of the health care facility.
"Charity care" means care provided by a health care
facility for which the provider does not expect to receive
payment from the patient or a third-party payer.
"Freestanding emergency center" means a facility subject
to licensure under Section 32.5 of the Emergency Medical
Services (EMS) Systems Act.
"Category of service" means a grouping by generic class of
various types or levels of support functions, equipment, care,
or treatment provided to patients or residents, including, but
not limited to, classes such as medical-surgical, pediatrics,
or cardiac catheterization. A category of service may include
subcategories or levels of care that identify a particular
degree or type of care within the category of service. Nothing
in this definition shall be construed to include the practice
of a physician or other licensed health care professional while
functioning in an office providing for the care, diagnosis, or
treatment of patients. A category of service that is subject to
the Board's jurisdiction must be designated in rules adopted by
the Board.
"State Board Staff Report" means the document that sets
forth the review and findings of the State Board staff, as
prescribed by the State Board, regarding applications subject
to Board jurisdiction.
(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-277, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
eff. 7-13-12; 97-980, eff. 8-17-12; 98-414, eff. 1-1-14;
98-629, eff. 1-1-15; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-1086, eff.
8-26-14; revised 10-22-14.)
(20 ILCS 3960/12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1162)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2019)
Sec. 12. Powers and duties of State Board. For purposes of
this Act, the State Board shall exercise the following powers
and duties:
(1) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, criteria,
procedures or reviews which may vary according to the purpose
for which a particular review is being conducted or the type of
project reviewed and which are required to carry out the
provisions and purposes of this Act. Policies and procedures of
the State Board shall take into consideration the priorities
and needs of medically underserved areas and other health care
services identified through the comprehensive health planning
process, giving special consideration to the impact of projects
on access to safety net services.
(2) Adopt procedures for public notice and hearing on all
proposed rules, regulations, standards, criteria, and plans
required to carry out the provisions of this Act.
(3) (Blank).
(4) Develop criteria and standards for health care
facilities planning, conduct statewide inventories of health
care facilities, maintain an updated inventory on the Board's
web site reflecting the most recent bed and service changes and
updated need determinations when new census data become
available or new need formulae are adopted, and develop health
care facility plans which shall be utilized in the review of
applications for permit under this Act. Such health facility
plans shall be coordinated by the Board with pertinent State
Plans. Inventories pursuant to this Section of skilled or
intermediate care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home
Care Act, skilled or intermediate care facilities licensed
under the ID/DD Community Care Act, facilities licensed under
the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or nursing
homes licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act shall be
conducted on an annual basis no later than July 1 of each year
and shall include among the information requested a list of all
services provided by a facility to its residents and to the
community at large and differentiate between active and
inactive beds.
In developing health care facility plans, the State Board
shall consider, but shall not be limited to, the following:
(a) The size, composition and growth of the population
of the area to be served;
(b) The number of existing and planned facilities
offering similar programs;
(c) The extent of utilization of existing facilities;
(d) The availability of facilities which may serve as
alternatives or substitutes;
(e) The availability of personnel necessary to the
operation of the facility;
(f) Multi-institutional planning and the establishment
of multi-institutional systems where feasible;
(g) The financial and economic feasibility of proposed
construction or modification; and
(h) In the case of health care facilities established
by a religious body or denomination, the needs of the
members of such religious body or denomination may be
considered to be public need.
The health care facility plans which are developed and
adopted in accordance with this Section shall form the basis
for the plan of the State to deal most effectively with
statewide health needs in regard to health care facilities.
(5) Coordinate with the Center for Comprehensive Health
Planning and other state agencies having responsibilities
affecting health care facilities, including those of licensure
and cost reporting. Beginning no later than January 1, 2013,
the Department of Public Health shall produce a written annual
report to the Governor and the General Assembly regarding the
development of the Center for Comprehensive Health Planning.
The Chairman of the State Board and the State Board
Administrator shall also receive a copy of the annual report.
(6) Solicit, accept, hold and administer on behalf of the
State any grants or bequests of money, securities or property
for use by the State Board or Center for Comprehensive Health
Planning in the administration of this Act; and enter into
contracts consistent with the appropriations for purposes
enumerated in this Act.
(7) The State Board shall prescribe procedures for review,
standards, and criteria which shall be utilized to make
periodic reviews and determinations of the appropriateness of
any existing health services being rendered by health care
facilities subject to the Act. The State Board shall consider
recommendations of the Board in making its determinations.
(8) Prescribe, in consultation with the Center for
Comprehensive Health Planning, rules, regulations, standards,
and criteria for the conduct of an expeditious review of
applications for permits for projects of construction or
modification of a health care facility, which projects are
classified as emergency, substantive, or non-substantive in
nature.
Six months after June 30, 2009 (the effective date of
Public Act 96-31), substantive projects shall include no more
than the following:
(a) Projects to construct (1) a new or replacement
facility located on a new site or (2) a replacement
facility located on the same site as the original facility
and the cost of the replacement facility exceeds the
capital expenditure minimum, which shall be reviewed by the
Board within 120 days;
(b) Projects proposing a (1) new service within an
existing healthcare facility or (2) discontinuation of a
service within an existing healthcare facility, which
shall be reviewed by the Board within 60 days; or
(c) Projects proposing a change in the bed capacity of
a health care facility by an increase in the total number
of beds or by a redistribution of beds among various
categories of service or by a relocation of beds from one
physical facility or site to another by more than 20 beds
or more than 10% of total bed capacity, as defined by the
State Board, whichever is less, over a 2-year period.
The Chairman may approve applications for exemption that
meet the criteria set forth in rules or refer them to the full
Board. The Chairman may approve any unopposed application that
meets all of the review criteria or refer them to the full
Board.
Such rules shall not abridge the right of the Center for
Comprehensive Health Planning to make recommendations on the
classification and approval of projects, nor shall such rules
prevent the conduct of a public hearing upon the timely request
of an interested party. Such reviews shall not exceed 60 days
from the date the application is declared to be complete.
(9) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards, and criteria
pertaining to the granting of permits for construction and
modifications which are emergent in nature and must be
undertaken immediately to prevent or correct structural
deficiencies or hazardous conditions that may harm or injure
persons using the facility, as defined in the rules and
regulations of the State Board. This procedure is exempt from
public hearing requirements of this Act.
(10) Prescribe rules, regulations, standards and criteria
for the conduct of an expeditious review, not exceeding 60
days, of applications for permits for projects to construct or
modify health care facilities which are needed for the care and
treatment of persons who have acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS) or related conditions.
(11) Issue written decisions upon request of the applicant
or an adversely affected party to the Board. Requests for a
written decision shall be made within 15 days after the Board
meeting in which a final decision has been made. A "final
decision" for purposes of this Act is the decision to approve
or deny an application, or take other actions permitted under
this Act, at the time and date of the meeting that such action
is scheduled by the Board. State Board members shall provide
their rationale when voting on an item before the State Board
at a State Board meeting in order to comply with subsection (b)
of Section 3-108 of the Administrative Review Law of the Code
of Civil Procedure. The transcript of the State Board meeting
shall be incorporated into the Board's final decision. The
staff of the Board shall prepare a written copy of the final
decision and the Board shall approve a final copy for inclusion
in the formal record. The Board shall consider, for approval,
the written draft of the final decision no later than the next
scheduled Board meeting. The written decision shall identify
the applicable criteria and factors listed in this Act and the
Board's regulations that were taken into consideration by the
Board when coming to a final decision. If the Board denies or
fails to approve an application for permit or exemption, the
Board shall include in the final decision a detailed
explanation as to why the application was denied and identify
what specific criteria or standards the applicant did not
fulfill.
(12) Require at least one of its members to participate in
any public hearing, after the appointment of a majority of the
members to the Board.
(13) Provide a mechanism for the public to comment on, and
request changes to, draft rules and standards.
(14) Implement public information campaigns to regularly
inform the general public about the opportunity for public
hearings and public hearing procedures.
(15) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines for
long-term care that recognizes that nursing homes are a
different business line and service model from other regulated
facilities. An open and transparent process shall be developed
that considers the following: how skilled nursing fits in the
continuum of care with other care providers, modernization of
nursing homes, establishment of more private rooms,
development of alternative services, and current trends in
long-term care services. The Chairman of the Board shall
appoint a permanent Health Services Review Board Long-term Care
Facility Advisory Subcommittee that shall develop and
recommend to the Board the rules to be established by the Board
under this paragraph (15). The Subcommittee shall also provide
continuous review and commentary on policies and procedures
relative to long-term care and the review of related projects.
In consultation with other experts from the health field of
long-term care, the Board and the Subcommittee shall study new
approaches to the current bed need formula and Health Service
Area boundaries to encourage flexibility and innovation in
design models reflective of the changing long-term care
marketplace and consumer preferences. The Subcommittee shall
evaluate, and make recommendations to the State Board
regarding, the buying, selling, and exchange of beds between
long-term care facilities within a specified geographic area or
drive time. The Board shall file the proposed related
administrative rules for the separate rules and guidelines for
long-term care required by this paragraph (15) by no later than
September 30, 2011. The Subcommittee shall be provided a
reasonable and timely opportunity to review and comment on any
review, revision, or updating of the criteria, standards,
procedures, and rules used to evaluate project applications as
provided under Section 12.3 of this Act.
(16) Prescribe and provide forms pertaining to the State
Board Staff Report. A State Board Staff Report shall pertain to
applications that include, but are not limited to, applications
for permit or exemption, applications for permit renewal,
applications for extension of the obligation period,
applications requesting a declaratory ruling, or applications
under the Health Care Worker Self-Referral Self Referral Act.
State Board Staff Reports shall compare applications to the
relevant review criteria under the Board's rules.
(17) (16) Establish a separate set of rules and guidelines
for facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health
Rehabilitation Act of 2013. An application for the
re-establishment of a facility in connection with the
relocation of the facility shall not be granted unless the
applicant has a contractual relationship with at least one
hospital to provide emergency and inpatient mental health
services required by facility consumers, and at least one
community mental health agency to provide oversight and
assistance to facility consumers while living in the facility,
and appropriate services, including case management, to assist
them to prepare for discharge and reside stably in the
community thereafter. No new facilities licensed under the
Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall be
established after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of Public
Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly
except in connection with the relocation of an existing
facility to a new location. An application for a new location
shall not be approved unless there are adequate community
services accessible to the consumers within a reasonable
distance, or by use of public transportation, so as to
facilitate the goal of achieving maximum individual self-care
and independence. At no time shall the total number of
authorized beds under this Act in facilities licensed under the
Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013 exceed the
number of authorized beds on June 16, 2014 (the effective date
of Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General
Assembly.
(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
eff. 7-13-12; 97-1045, eff. 8-21-13; 97-1115, eff. 8-27-12;
98-414, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff.
6-16-14; 98-1086, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 110. The Home Repair and Construction Task Force
Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:
(20 ILCS 5050/20)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
Sec. 20. Duties. The Task Force shall:
(1) discuss whether the residents of Illinois would
benefit from legislation requiring home repair and
construction service providers to obtain a license from the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation before
offering these theses services in Illinois;
(2) if it is determined that licensure is required,
determine:
(A) the requirements applicants must meet to
qualify for a license;
(B) grounds for denial or revocation of a license;
and
(C) any other considerations relevant to a
licensing requirement; and
(3) make recommendations to the General Assembly.
(Source: P.A. 98-1030, eff. 8-25-14; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 115. The State Finance Act is amended by setting
forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 5.855 and by
changing Sections 6z-43 and 8.12 as follows:
(30 ILCS 105/5.855)
Sec. 5.855. The Special Olympics Illinois and Special
Children's Charities Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-649, eff. 6-16-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.856)
Sec. 5.856 5.855. The Supportive Living Facility Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.857)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2016)
Sec. 5.857 5.855. The Capital Development Board Revolving
Fund. This Section is repealed July 1, 2016.
(Source: P.A. 98-674, eff. 6-30-14; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.858)
Sec. 5.858 5.855. The Hospital Licensure Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-683, eff. 6-30-14; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.859)
Sec. 5.859 5.855. The Illinois National Guard Billeting
Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-733, eff. 7-16-14; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.860)
Sec. 5.860 5.855. The Job Opportunities for Qualified
Applicants Enforcement Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-774, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.861)
Sec. 5.861 5.855. The Distance Learning Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-792, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.862)
Sec. 5.862 5.855. The State Treasurer's Administrative
Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-965, eff. 8-15-14; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.863)
Sec. 5.863 5.855. The Stroke Data Collection Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-1001, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.864)
Sec. 5.864 5.855. The Natural Resources Restoration Trust
Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-1010, eff. 8-19-14; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.865)
Sec. 5.865 5.855. The Specialized Services for Survivors of
Human Trafficking Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15; revised 9-23-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/5.867)
(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a
delayed effective date)
Sec. 5.867 5.855. The Illinois Secure Choice
Administrative Fund.
(Source: P.A. 98-1150, eff. 6-1-15; revised 2-2-15.)
(30 ILCS 105/6z-43)
Sec. 6z-43. Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund.
(a) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund
to be known as the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, which
shall contain 3 accounts: (i) the General Account, (ii) the
Tobacco Settlement Bond Proceeds Account and (iii) the Tobacco
Settlement Residual Account. There shall be deposited into the
several accounts of the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund and
the Attorney General Tobacco Fund all monies paid to the State
pursuant to (1) the Master Settlement Agreement entered in the
case of People of the State of Illinois v. Philip Morris, et
al. (Circuit Court of Cook County, No. 96-L13146) and (2) any
settlement with or judgment against any tobacco product
manufacturer other than one participating in the Master
Settlement Agreement in satisfaction of any released claim as
defined in the Master Settlement Agreement, as well as any
other monies as provided by law. Moneys shall be deposited into
the Tobacco Settlement Bond Proceeds Account and the Tobacco
Settlement Residual Account as provided by the terms of the
Railsplitter Tobacco Settlement Authority Act, provided that
an annual amount not less than $2,500,000, subject to
appropriation, shall be deposited into the Attorney General
Tobacco Fund for use only by the Attorney General's office. The
scheduled $2,500,000 deposit into the Tobacco Settlement
Residual Account for fiscal year 2011 should be transferred to
the Attorney General Tobacco Fund in fiscal year 2012 as soon
as this fund has been established. All other moneys available
to be deposited into the Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund shall
be deposited into the General Account. An investment made from
moneys credited to a specific account constitutes part of that
account and such account shall be credited with all income from
the investment of such moneys. The Treasurer may invest the
moneys in the several accounts the Fund in the same manner, in
the same types of investments, and subject to the same
limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the
investment of pension funds other than those established under
Article 3 or 4 of the Code. Notwithstanding the foregoing, to
the extent necessary to preserve the tax-exempt status of any
bonds issued pursuant to the Railsplitter Tobacco Settlement
Authority Act, the interest on which is intended to be
excludable from the gross income of the owners for federal
income tax purposes, moneys on deposit in the Tobacco
Settlement Bond Proceeds Account and the Tobacco Settlement
Residual Account may be invested in obligations the interest
upon which is tax-exempt under the provisions of Section 103 of
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as now or hereafter amended,
or any successor code or provision.
(b) Moneys on deposit in the Tobacco Settlement Bond
Proceeds Account and the Tobacco Settlement Residual Account
may be expended, subject to appropriation, for the purposes
authorized in subsection (g) of Section 3-6 Section 6(g) of the
Railsplitter Tobacco Settlement Authority Act.
(c) As soon as may be practical after June 30, 2001, upon
notification from and at the direction of the Governor, the
State Comptroller shall direct and the State Treasurer shall
transfer the unencumbered balance in the Tobacco Settlement
Recovery Fund as of June 30, 2001, as determined by the
Governor, into the Budget Stabilization Fund. The Treasurer may
invest the moneys in the Budget Stabilization Fund in the same
manner, in the same types of investments, and subject to the
same limitations provided in the Illinois Pension Code for the
investment of pension funds other than those established under
Article 3 or 4 of the Code.
(d) All federal financial participation moneys received
pursuant to expenditures from the Fund shall be deposited into
the General Account.
(Source: P.A. 96-958, eff. 7-1-10; 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; revised
12-1-14.)
(30 ILCS 105/8.12) (from Ch. 127, par. 144.12)
Sec. 8.12. State Pensions Fund.
(a) The moneys in the State Pensions Fund shall be used
exclusively for the administration of the Uniform Disposition
of Unclaimed Property Act and for the expenses incurred by the
Auditor General for administering the provisions of Section
2-8.1 of the Illinois State Auditing Act and for the funding of
the unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems.
Beginning in State fiscal year 2016, payments to the designated
retirement systems under this Section shall be in addition to,
and not in lieu of, any State contributions required under the
Illinois Pension Code.
"Designated retirement systems" means:
(1) the State Employees' Retirement System of
Illinois;
(2) the Teachers' Retirement System of the State of
Illinois;
(3) the State Universities Retirement System;
(4) the Judges Retirement System of Illinois; and
(5) the General Assembly Retirement System.
(b) Each year the General Assembly may make appropriations
from the State Pensions Fund for the administration of the
Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act.
Each month, the Commissioner of the Office of Banks and
Real Estate shall certify to the State Treasurer the actual
expenditures that the Office of Banks and Real Estate incurred
conducting unclaimed property examinations under the Uniform
Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act during the immediately
preceding month. Within a reasonable time following the
acceptance of such certification by the State Treasurer, the
State Treasurer shall pay from its appropriation from the State
Pensions Fund to the Bank and Trust Company Fund, the Savings
Bank Regulatory Fund, and the Residential Finance Regulatory
Fund an amount equal to the expenditures incurred by each Fund
for that month.
Each month, the Director of Financial Institutions shall
certify to the State Treasurer the actual expenditures that the
Department of Financial Institutions incurred conducting
unclaimed property examinations under the Uniform Disposition
of Unclaimed Property Act during the immediately preceding
month. Within a reasonable time following the acceptance of
such certification by the State Treasurer, the State Treasurer
shall pay from its appropriation from the State Pensions Fund
to the Financial Institution Fund and the Credit Union Fund an
amount equal to the expenditures incurred by each Fund for that
month.
(c) As soon as possible after the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the General
Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund (1) to
the State Universities Retirement System the amount certified
under Section 15-165 during the prior year, (2) to the Judges
Retirement System of Illinois the amount certified under
Section 18-140 during the prior year, and (3) to the General
Assembly Retirement System the amount certified under Section
2-134 during the prior year as part of the required State
contributions to each of those designated retirement systems;
except that amounts appropriated under this subsection (c) in
State fiscal year 2005 shall not reduce the amount in the State
Pensions Fund below $5,000,000. If the amount in the State
Pensions Fund does not exceed the sum of the amounts certified
in Sections 15-165, 18-140, and 2-134 by at least $5,000,000,
the amount paid to each designated retirement system under this
subsection shall be reduced in proportion to the amount
certified by each of those designated retirement systems.
(c-5) For fiscal years 2006 through 2015, the General
Assembly shall appropriate from the State Pensions Fund to the
State Universities Retirement System the amount estimated to be
available during the fiscal year in the State Pensions Fund;
provided, however, that the amounts appropriated under this
subsection (c-5) shall not reduce the amount in the State
Pensions Fund below $5,000,000.
(c-6) For fiscal year 2016 and each fiscal year thereafter,
as soon as may be practical after any money is deposited into
the State Pensions Fund from the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund,
the State Treasurer shall apportion the deposited amount among
the designated retirement systems as defined in subsection (a)
to reduce their actuarial reserve deficiencies. The State
Comptroller and State Treasurer shall pay the apportioned
amounts to the designated retirement systems to fund the
unfunded liabilities of the designated retirement systems. The
amount apportioned to each designated retirement system shall
constitute a portion of the amount estimated to be available
for appropriation from the State Pensions Fund that is the same
as that retirement system's portion of the total actual reserve
deficiency of the systems, as determined annually by the
Governor's Office of Management and Budget at the request of
the State Treasurer. The amounts apportioned under this
subsection shall not reduce the amount in the State Pensions
Fund below $5,000,000.
(d) The Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall
determine the individual and total reserve deficiencies of the
designated retirement systems. For this purpose, the
Governor's Office of Management and Budget shall utilize the
latest available audit and actuarial reports of each of the
retirement systems and the relevant reports and statistics of
the Public Employee Pension Fund Division of the Department of
Insurance.
(d-1) As soon as practicable after the effective date of
this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the
Comptroller shall direct and the Treasurer shall transfer from
the State Pensions Fund to the General Revenue Fund, as funds
become available, a sum equal to the amounts that would have
been paid from the State Pensions Fund to the Teachers'
Retirement System of the State of Illinois, the State
Universities Retirement System, the Judges Retirement System
of Illinois, the General Assembly Retirement System, and the
State Employees' Retirement System of Illinois after the
effective date of this amendatory Act during the remainder of
fiscal year 2004 to the designated retirement systems from the
appropriations provided for in this Section if the transfers
provided in Section 6z-61 had not occurred. The transfers
described in this subsection (d-1) are to partially repay the
General Revenue Fund for the costs associated with the bonds
used to fund the moneys transferred to the designated
retirement systems under Section 6z-61.
(e) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act
of 1994 shall first apply to distributions from the Fund for
State fiscal year 1996.
(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-24,
eff. 6-19-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-674, eff. 6-30-14;
98-1081, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 120. The Public Funds Investment Act is amended by
changing Section 6.5 as follows:
(30 ILCS 235/6.5)
Sec. 6.5. Federally insured deposits at Illinois financial
institutions.
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any
other statute, whenever a public agency invests public funds in
an interest-bearing savings account, demand deposit account,
interest-bearing certificate of deposit, or interest-bearing
time deposit under Section 2 of this Act, the provisions of
Section 6 of this Act and any other statutory requirements
pertaining to the eligibility of a bank to receive or hold
public deposits or to the pledging of collateral by a bank to
secure public deposits do not apply to any bank receiving or
holding all or part of the invested public funds if (i) the
public agency initiates the investment at or through a bank
located in Illinois and (ii) the invested public funds are at
all times fully insured by an agency or instrumentality of the
federal government.
(b) Nothing in this Section is intended to:
(1) prohibit a public agency from requiring the bank at
or through which the investment of public funds is
initiated to provide the public agency with the information
otherwise required by subsection (a), (b), or (c) of
Section 6 of this Act as a condition of investing the
public funds at or through that bank; or
(2) permit a bank to receive or hold public deposits if
that bank is prohibited from doing so by any rule,
sanction, or order issued by a regulatory agency or by a
court.
(c) For purposes of this Section, the term "bank" includes
any person doing a banking business whether subject to the laws
of this or any other jurisdiction.
(Source: P.A. 98-703, eff. 7-7-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14;
revised 10-2-14.)
Section 125. The Illinois Coal Technology Development
Assistance Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
(30 ILCS 730/3) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 8203)
Sec. 3. Transfers to Coal Technology Development
Assistance Fund Funds. As soon as may be practicable after the
first day of each month, the Department of Revenue shall
certify to the Treasurer an amount equal to 1/64 of the revenue
realized from the tax imposed by the Electricity Excise Tax
Law, Section 2 of the Public Utilities Revenue Act, Section 2
of the Messages Tax Act, and Section 2 of the Gas Revenue Tax
Act, during the preceding month. Upon receipt of the
certification, the Treasurer shall transfer the amount shown on
such certification from the General Revenue Fund to the Coal
Technology Development Assistance Fund, which is hereby
created as a special fund in the State treasury, except that no
transfer shall be made in any month in which the Fund has
reached the following balance:
(1) $7,000,000 during fiscal year 1994.
(2) $8,500,000 during fiscal year 1995.
(3) $10,000,000 during fiscal years 1996 and 1997.
(4) During fiscal year 1998 through fiscal year 2004,
an amount equal to the sum of $10,000,000 plus additional
moneys deposited into the Coal Technology Development
Assistance Fund from the Renewable Energy Resources and
Coal Technology Development Assistance Charge under
Section 6.5 of the Renewable Energy, Energy Efficiency, and
Coal Resources Development Law of 1997.
(5) During fiscal year 2005, an amount equal to the sum
of $7,000,000 plus additional moneys deposited into the
Coal Technology Development Assistance Fund from the
Renewable Energy Resources and Coal Technology Development
Assistance Charge under Section 6.5 of the Renewable
Energy, Energy Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development
Law of 1997.
(6) During fiscal year 2006 and each fiscal year
thereafter, an amount equal to the sum of $10,000,000 plus
additional moneys deposited into the Coal Technology
Development Assistance Fund from the Renewable Energy
Resources and Coal Technology Development Assistance
Charge under Section 6.5 of the Renewable Energy, Energy
Efficiency, and Coal Resources Development Law of 1997.
(Source: P.A. 93-839, eff. 7-30-04; revised 12-1-14.)
Section 130. The Charitable Trust Stabilization Act is
amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
(30 ILCS 790/10)
Sec. 10. The Charitable Trust Stabilization Committee.
(a) The Charitable Trust Stabilization Committee is
created. The Committee consists of the following members:
(1) the Attorney General or his or her designee, who
shall serve as co-chair of the Committee;
(2) a member that represents the Office of the State
Treasurer that is appointed by the Treasurer, who shall
serve as co-chair of the Committee;
(3) the Lieutenant Governor or his or her designee;
(4) the Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity
or his or her designee;
(5) the chief executive officer of the Division of
Financial Institutions in the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation Regulations or his or her
designee; and
(6) six private citizens, who shall serve a term of 6
years, appointed by the State Treasurer with advice and
consent of the Senate.
(b) The State Treasurer shall adopt rules, including
procedures and criteria for grant awards. The Committee must
meet at least once each calendar quarter, and it may establish
committees and officers as it deems necessary. For purposes of
Committee meetings, a quorum is a majority of the members.
Meetings of the Committee are subject to the Open Meetings Act.
The Committee must afford an opportunity for public comment at
each of its meetings.
(c) Committee members shall serve without compensation,
but may be reimbursed for their reasonable travel expenses from
funds available for that purpose. The Office of the State
Treasurer shall, subject to appropriation, provide staff and
administrative support services to the Committee.
(d) The State Treasurer shall administer the Charitable
Trust Stabilization Fund.
The State Treasurer may transfer all or a portion of the
balance of the fund to a third-party administrator to fulfill
the mission of the Committee and the purposes of the fund in
accordance with this Act and in compliance with Section 5(c) of
this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-274, eff. 8-8-11; revised 12-1-14.)
Section 135. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing
Section 8.38 as follows:
(30 ILCS 805/8.38)
Sec. 8.38. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8
of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the
implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 98-641,
98-666, 98-729, 98-930, or 98-1027 this amendatory Act of the
98th General Assembly.
(Source: P.A. 98-641, eff. 6-9-14; 98-666, eff. 1-1-15; 98-729,
eff. 7-26-14; 98-930, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 10-6-14.)
Section 140. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by
changing Section 901 as follows:
(35 ILCS 5/901) (from Ch. 120, par. 9-901)
Sec. 901. Collection authority.
(a) In general.
The Department shall collect the taxes imposed by this Act.
The Department shall collect certified past due child support
amounts under Section 2505-650 of the Department of Revenue Law
(20 ILCS 2505/2505-650). Except as provided in subsections (c),
(e), (f), (g), and (h) of this Section, money collected
pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act
shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund in the State
treasury; money collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d)
of Section 201 of this Act shall be paid into the Personal
Property Tax Replacement Fund, a special fund in the State
Treasury; and money collected under Section 2505-650 of the
Department of Revenue Law (20 ILCS 2505/2505-650) shall be paid
into the Child Support Enforcement Trust Fund, a special fund
outside the State Treasury, or to the State Disbursement Unit
established under Section 10-26 of the Illinois Public Aid
Code, as directed by the Department of Healthcare and Family
Services.
(b) Local Government Distributive Fund.
Beginning August 1, 1969, and continuing through June 30,
1994, the Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General
Revenue Fund to a special fund in the State treasury, to be
known as the "Local Government Distributive Fund", an amount
equal to 1/12 of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed
by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during
the preceding month. Beginning July 1, 1994, and continuing
through June 30, 1995, the Treasurer shall transfer each month
from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government
Distributive Fund an amount equal to 1/11 of the net revenue
realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of
Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month. Beginning
July 1, 1995 and continuing through January 31, 2011, the
Treasurer shall transfer each month from the General Revenue
Fund to the Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal
to the net of (i) 1/10 of the net revenue realized from the tax
imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the
Illinois Income Tax Act during the preceding month (ii) minus,
beginning July 1, 2003 and ending June 30, 2004, $6,666,666,
and beginning July 1, 2004, zero. Beginning February 1, 2011,
and continuing through January 31, 2015, the Treasurer shall
transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local
Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i)
6% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior
to 2011 to the 5% individual income tax rate after 2010) of the
net revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a)
and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts,
and estates during the preceding month and (ii) 6.86% (10% of
the ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011
to the 7% corporate income tax rate after 2010) of the net
revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and
(b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the
preceding month. Beginning February 1, 2015 and continuing
through January 31, 2025, the Treasurer shall transfer each
month from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government
Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum of (i) 8% (10% of
the ratio of the 3% individual income tax rate prior to 2011 to
the 3.75% individual income tax rate after 2014) of the net
revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and
(b) of Section 201 of this Act upon individuals, trusts, and
estates during the preceding month and (ii) 9.14% (10% of the
ratio of the 4.8% corporate income tax rate prior to 2011 to
the 5.25% corporate income tax rate after 2014) of the net
revenue realized from the tax imposed by subsections (a) and
(b) of Section 201 of this Act upon corporations during the
preceding month. Beginning February 1, 2025, the Treasurer
shall transfer each month from the General Revenue Fund to the
Local Government Distributive Fund an amount equal to the sum
of (i) 9.23% (10% of the ratio of the 3% individual income tax
rate prior to 2011 to the 3.25% individual income tax rate
after 2024) of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by
subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon
individuals, trusts, and estates during the preceding month and
(ii) 10% of the net revenue realized from the tax imposed by
subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act upon
corporations during the preceding month. Net revenue realized
for a month shall be defined as the revenue from the tax
imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act
which is deposited in the General Revenue Fund, the Education
Assistance Fund, the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government
Distributive Fund, the Fund for the Advancement of Education,
and the Commitment to Human Services Fund during the month
minus the amount paid out of the General Revenue Fund in State
warrants during that same month as refunds to taxpayers for
overpayment of liability under the tax imposed by subsections
(a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act.
Beginning on August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public
Act 98-1052) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly,
the Comptroller shall perform the transfers required by this
subsection (b) no later than 60 days after he or she receives
the certification from the Treasurer as provided in Section 1
of the State Revenue Sharing Act.
(c) Deposits Into Income Tax Refund Fund.
(1) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the
Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts
collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and
(3), of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in the State
treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The
Department shall deposit 6% of such amounts during the
period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30,
1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each
fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the
Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the
Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999 through 2001, the
Annual Percentage shall be 7.1%. For fiscal year 2003, the
Annual Percentage shall be 8%. For fiscal year 2004, the
Annual Percentage shall be 11.7%. Upon the effective date
of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the
Annual Percentage shall be 10% for fiscal year 2005. For
fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For
fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For
fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 7.75%. For
fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For
fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For
fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For
fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 8.75%. For
fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.75%. For
fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 9.5%. For
fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 10%. For
all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be
calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be
the amount of refunds approved for payment by the
Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of
overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and
(b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201 of this Act plus the
amount of such refunds remaining approved but unpaid at the
end of the preceding fiscal year, minus the amounts
transferred into the Income Tax Refund Fund from the
Tobacco Settlement Recovery Fund, and the denominator of
which shall be the amounts which will be collected pursuant
to subsections (a) and (b)(1), (2), and (3) of Section 201
of this Act during the preceding fiscal year; except that
in State fiscal year 2002, the Annual Percentage shall in
no event exceed 7.6%. The Director of Revenue shall certify
the Annual Percentage to the Comptroller on the last
business day of the fiscal year immediately preceding the
fiscal year for which it is to be effective.
(2) Beginning on January 1, 1989 and thereafter, the
Department shall deposit a percentage of the amounts
collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and
(8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act into a fund in
the State treasury known as the Income Tax Refund Fund. The
Department shall deposit 18% of such amounts during the
period beginning January 1, 1989 and ending on June 30,
1989. Beginning with State fiscal year 1990 and for each
fiscal year thereafter, the percentage deposited into the
Income Tax Refund Fund during a fiscal year shall be the
Annual Percentage. For fiscal years 1999, 2000, and 2001,
the Annual Percentage shall be 19%. For fiscal year 2003,
the Annual Percentage shall be 27%. For fiscal year 2004,
the Annual Percentage shall be 32%. Upon the effective date
of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly, the
Annual Percentage shall be 24% for fiscal year 2005. For
fiscal year 2006, the Annual Percentage shall be 20%. For
fiscal year 2007, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For
fiscal year 2008, the Annual Percentage shall be 15.5%. For
fiscal year 2009, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For
fiscal year 2010, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For
fiscal year 2011, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For
fiscal year 2012, the Annual Percentage shall be 17.5%. For
fiscal year 2013, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For
fiscal year 2014, the Annual Percentage shall be 13.4%. For
fiscal year 2015, the Annual Percentage shall be 14%. For
all other fiscal years, the Annual Percentage shall be
calculated as a fraction, the numerator of which shall be
the amount of refunds approved for payment by the
Department during the preceding fiscal year as a result of
overpayment of tax liability under subsections (a) and
(b)(6), (7), and (8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this
Act plus the amount of such refunds remaining approved but
unpaid at the end of the preceding fiscal year, and the
denominator of which shall be the amounts which will be
collected pursuant to subsections (a) and (b)(6), (7), and
(8), (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act during the
preceding fiscal year; except that in State fiscal year
2002, the Annual Percentage shall in no event exceed 23%.
The Director of Revenue shall certify the Annual Percentage
to the Comptroller on the last business day of the fiscal
year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which it is
to be effective.
(3) The Comptroller shall order transferred and the
Treasurer shall transfer from the Tobacco Settlement
Recovery Fund to the Income Tax Refund Fund (i) $35,000,000
in January, 2001, (ii) $35,000,000 in January, 2002, and
(iii) $35,000,000 in January, 2003.
(d) Expenditures from Income Tax Refund Fund.
(1) Beginning January 1, 1989, money in the Income Tax
Refund Fund shall be expended exclusively for the purpose
of paying refunds resulting from overpayment of tax
liability under Section 201 of this Act, for paying rebates
under Section 208.1 in the event that the amounts in the
Homeowners' Tax Relief Fund are insufficient for that
purpose, and for making transfers pursuant to this
subsection (d).
(2) The Director shall order payment of refunds
resulting from overpayment of tax liability under Section
201 of this Act from the Income Tax Refund Fund only to the
extent that amounts collected pursuant to Section 201 of
this Act and transfers pursuant to this subsection (d) and
item (3) of subsection (c) have been deposited and retained
in the Fund.
(3) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal
year, the Director shall order transferred and the State
Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the
Income Tax Refund Fund to the Personal Property Tax
Replacement Fund an amount, certified by the Director to
the Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount
collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of Section
201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax Refund Fund
during the fiscal year over the amount of refunds resulting
from overpayment of tax liability under subsections (c) and
(d) of Section 201 of this Act paid from the Income Tax
Refund Fund during the fiscal year.
(4) As soon as possible after the end of each fiscal
year, the Director shall order transferred and the State
Treasurer and State Comptroller shall transfer from the
Personal Property Tax Replacement Fund to the Income Tax
Refund Fund an amount, certified by the Director to the
Comptroller, equal to the excess of the amount of refunds
resulting from overpayment of tax liability under
subsections (c) and (d) of Section 201 of this Act paid
from the Income Tax Refund Fund during the fiscal year over
the amount collected pursuant to subsections (c) and (d) of
Section 201 of this Act deposited into the Income Tax
Refund Fund during the fiscal year.
(4.5) As soon as possible after the end of fiscal year
1999 and of each fiscal year thereafter, the Director shall
order transferred and the State Treasurer and State
Comptroller shall transfer from the Income Tax Refund Fund
to the General Revenue Fund any surplus remaining in the
Income Tax Refund Fund as of the end of such fiscal year;
excluding for fiscal years 2000, 2001, and 2002 amounts
attributable to transfers under item (3) of subsection (c)
less refunds resulting from the earned income tax credit.
(5) This Act shall constitute an irrevocable and
continuing appropriation from the Income Tax Refund Fund
for the purpose of paying refunds upon the order of the
Director in accordance with the provisions of this Section.
(e) Deposits into the Education Assistance Fund and the
Income Tax Surcharge Local Government Distributive Fund.
On July 1, 1991, and thereafter, of the amounts collected
pursuant to subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act,
minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department
shall deposit 7.3% into the Education Assistance Fund in the
State Treasury. Beginning July 1, 1991, and continuing through
January 31, 1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to
subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income
Tax Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the
Department shall deposit 3.0% into the Income Tax Surcharge
Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.
Beginning February 1, 1993 and continuing through June 30,
1993, of the amounts collected pursuant to subsections (a) and
(b) of Section 201 of the Illinois Income Tax Act, minus
deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the Department shall
deposit 4.4% into the Income Tax Surcharge Local Government
Distributive Fund in the State Treasury. Beginning July 1,
1993, and continuing through June 30, 1994, of the amounts
collected under subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this
Act, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, the
Department shall deposit 1.475% into the Income Tax Surcharge
Local Government Distributive Fund in the State Treasury.
(f) Deposits into the Fund for the Advancement of
Education. Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall
deposit the following portions of the revenue realized from the
tax imposed upon individuals, trusts, and estates by
subsections (a) and (b) of Section 201 of this Act during the
preceding month, minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund
Fund, into the Fund for the Advancement of Education:
(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February
1, 2025, 1/30; and
(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.
If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of
Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act,
the Department shall not make the deposits required by this
subsection (f) on or after the effective date of the reduction.
(g) Deposits into the Commitment to Human Services Fund.
Beginning February 1, 2015, the Department shall deposit the
following portions of the revenue realized from the tax imposed
upon individuals, trusts, and estates by subsections (a) and
(b) of Section 201 of this Act during the preceding month,
minus deposits into the Income Tax Refund Fund, into the
Commitment to Human Services Fund:
(1) beginning February 1, 2015, and prior to February
1, 2025, 1/30; and
(2) beginning February 1, 2025, 1/26.
If the rate of tax imposed by subsection (a) and (b) of
Section 201 is reduced pursuant to Section 201.5 of this Act,
the Department shall not make the deposits required by this
subsection (g) on or after the effective date of the reduction.
(h) Deposits into the Tax Compliance and Administration
Fund. Beginning on the first day of the first calendar month to
occur on or after August 26, 2014 (the effective date of Public
Act 98-1098) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly,
each month the Department shall pay into the Tax Compliance and
Administration Fund, to be used, subject to appropriation, to
fund additional auditors and compliance personnel at the
Department, an amount equal to 1/12 of 5% of the cash receipts
collected during the preceding fiscal year by the Audit Bureau
of the Department from the tax imposed by subsections (a), (b),
(c), and (d) of Section 201 of this Act, net of deposits into
the Income Tax Refund Fund made from those cash receipts.
(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-24,
eff. 6-19-13; 98-674, eff. 6-30-14; 98-1052, eff. 8-26-14;
98-1098, eff. 8-26-14; revised 9-26-14.)
Section 145. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section
2 as follows:
(35 ILCS 105/2) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.2)
Sec. 2. Definitions.
"Use" means the exercise by any person of any right or
power over tangible personal property incident to the ownership
of that property, except that it does not include the sale of
such property in any form as tangible personal property in the
regular course of business to the extent that such property is
not first subjected to a use for which it was purchased, and
does not include the use of such property by its owner for
demonstration purposes: Provided that the property purchased
is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite
first being used, to the extent to which it is resold as an
ingredient of an intentionally produced product or by-product
of manufacturing. "Use" does not mean the demonstration use or
interim use of tangible personal property by a retailer before
he sells that tangible personal property. For watercraft or
aircraft, if the period of demonstration use or interim use by
the retailer exceeds 18 months, the retailer shall pay on the
retailers' original cost price the tax imposed by this Act, and
no credit for that tax is permitted if the watercraft or
aircraft is subsequently sold by the retailer. "Use" does not
mean the physical incorporation of tangible personal property,
to the extent not first subjected to a use for which it was
purchased, as an ingredient or constituent, into other tangible
personal property (a) which is sold in the regular course of
business or (b) which the person incorporating such ingredient
or constituent therein has undertaken at the time of such
purchase to cause to be transported in interstate commerce to
destinations outside the State of Illinois: Provided that the
property purchased is deemed to be purchased for the purpose of
resale, despite first being used, to the extent to which it is
resold as an ingredient of an intentionally produced product or
by-product of manufacturing.
"Watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4
watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration
and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped
with an inboard motor.
"Purchase at retail" means the acquisition of the ownership
of or title to tangible personal property through a sale at
retail.
"Purchaser" means anyone who, through a sale at retail,
acquires the ownership of tangible personal property for a
valuable consideration.
"Sale at retail" means any transfer of the ownership of or
title to tangible personal property to a purchaser, for the
purpose of use, and not for the purpose of resale in any form
as tangible personal property to the extent not first subjected
to a use for which it was purchased, for a valuable
consideration: Provided that the property purchased is deemed
to be purchased for the purpose of resale, despite first being
used, to the extent to which it is resold as an ingredient of
an intentionally produced product or by-product of
manufacturing. For this purpose, slag produced as an incident
to manufacturing pig iron or steel and sold is considered to be
an intentionally produced by-product of manufacturing. "Sale
at retail" includes any such transfer made for resale unless
made in compliance with Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation
Tax Act, as incorporated by reference into Section 12 of this
Act. Transactions whereby the possession of the property is
transferred but the seller retains the title as security for
payment of the selling price are sales.
"Sale at retail" shall also be construed to include any
Illinois florist's sales transaction in which the purchase
order is received in Illinois by a florist and the sale is for
use or consumption, but the Illinois florist has a florist in
another state deliver the property to the purchaser or the
purchaser's donee in such other state.
Nonreusable tangible personal property that is used by
persons engaged in the business of operating a restaurant,
cafeteria, or drive-in is a sale for resale when it is
transferred to customers in the ordinary course of business as
part of the sale of food or beverages and is used to deliver,
package, or consume food or beverages, regardless of where
consumption of the food or beverages occurs. Examples of those
items include, but are not limited to nonreusable, paper and
plastic cups, plates, baskets, boxes, sleeves, buckets or other
containers, utensils, straws, placemats, napkins, doggie bags,
and wrapping or packaging materials that are transferred to
customers as part of the sale of food or beverages in the
ordinary course of business.
The purchase, employment and transfer of such tangible
personal property as newsprint and ink for the primary purpose
of conveying news (with or without other information) is not a
purchase, use or sale of tangible personal property.
"Selling price" means the consideration for a sale valued
in money whether received in money or otherwise, including
cash, credits, property other than as hereinafter provided, and
services, but not including the value of or credit given for
traded-in tangible personal property where the item that is
traded-in is of like kind and character as that which is being
sold, and shall be determined without any deduction on account
of the cost of the property sold, the cost of materials used,
labor or service cost or any other expense whatsoever, but does
not include interest or finance charges which appear as
separate items on the bill of sale or sales contract nor
charges that are added to prices by sellers on account of the
seller's tax liability under the "Retailers' Occupation Tax
Act", or on account of the seller's duty to collect, from the
purchaser, the tax that is imposed by this Act, or, except as
otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette tax imposed by
a home rule unit, on account of the seller's tax liability
under any local occupation tax administered by the Department,
or, except as otherwise provided with respect to any cigarette
tax imposed by a home rule unit on account of the seller's duty
to collect, from the purchasers, the tax that is imposed under
any local use tax administered by the Department. Effective
December 1, 1985, "selling price" shall include charges that
are added to prices by sellers on account of the seller's tax
liability under the Cigarette Tax Act, on account of the
seller's duty to collect, from the purchaser, the tax imposed
under the Cigarette Use Tax Act, and on account of the seller's
duty to collect, from the purchaser, any cigarette tax imposed
by a home rule unit.
Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, for any motor
vehicle, as defined in Section 1-146 of the Vehicle Code, that
is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of leasing
the vehicle for a defined period that is longer than one year
and (1) is a motor vehicle of the second division that: (A) is
a self-contained motor vehicle designed or permanently
converted to provide living quarters for recreational,
camping, or travel use, with direct walk through access to the
living quarters from the driver's seat; (B) is of the van
configuration designed for the transportation of not less than
7 nor more than 16 passengers; or (C) has a gross vehicle
weight rating of 8,000 pounds or less or (2) is a motor vehicle
of the first division, "selling price" or "amount of sale"
means the consideration received by the lessor pursuant to the
lease contract, including amounts due at lease signing and all
monthly or other regular payments charged over the term of the
lease. Also included in the selling price is any amount
received by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle
that is not calculated at the time the lease is executed,
including, but not limited to, excess mileage charges and
charges for excess wear and tear. For sales that occur in
Illinois, with respect to any amount received by the lessor
from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is not calculated
at the time the lease is executed, the lessor who purchased the
motor vehicle does not incur the tax imposed by the Use Tax Act
on those amounts, and the retailer who makes the retail sale of
the motor vehicle to the lessor is not required to collect the
tax imposed by this Act or to pay the tax imposed by the
Retailers' Occupation Tax Act on those amounts. However, the
lessor who purchased the motor vehicle assumes the liability
for reporting and paying the tax on those amounts directly to
the Department in the same form (Illinois Retailers' Occupation
Tax, and local retailers' occupation taxes, if applicable) in
which the retailer would have reported and paid such tax if the
retailer had accounted for the tax to the Department. For
amounts received by the lessor from the lessee that are not
calculated at the time the lease is executed, the lessor must
file the return and pay the tax to the Department by the due
date otherwise required by this Act for returns other than
transaction returns. If the retailer is entitled under this Act
to a discount for collecting and remitting the tax imposed
under this Act to the Department with respect to the sale of
the motor vehicle to the lessor, then the right to the discount
provided in this Act shall be transferred to the lessor with
respect to the tax paid by the lessor for any amount received
by the lessor from the lessee for the leased vehicle that is
not calculated at the time the lease is executed; provided that
the discount is only allowed if the return is timely filed and
for amounts timely paid. The "selling price" of a motor vehicle
that is sold on or after January 1, 2015 for the purpose of
leasing for a defined period of longer than one year shall not
be reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in
tangible personal property owned by the lessor, nor shall it be
reduced by the value of or credit given for traded-in tangible
personal property owned by the lessee, regardless of whether
the trade-in value thereof is assigned by the lessee to the
lessor. In the case of a motor vehicle that is sold for the
purpose of leasing for a defined period of longer than one
year, the sale occurs at the time of the delivery of the
vehicle, regardless of the due date of any lease payments. A
lessor who incurs a Retailers' Occupation Tax liability on the
sale of a motor vehicle coming off lease may not take a credit
against that liability for the Use Tax the lessor paid upon the
purchase of the motor vehicle (or for any tax the lessor paid
with respect to any amount received by the lessor from the
lessee for the leased vehicle that was not calculated at the
time the lease was executed) if the selling price of the motor
vehicle at the time of purchase was calculated using the
definition of "selling price" as defined in this paragraph.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the
contrary, lessors shall file all returns and make all payments
required under this paragraph to the Department by electronic
means in the manner and form as required by the Department.
This paragraph does not apply to leases of motor vehicles for
which, at the time the lease is entered into, the term of the
lease is not a defined period, including leases with a defined
initial period with the option to continue the lease on a
month-to-month or other basis beyond the initial defined
period.
The phrase "like kind and character" shall be liberally
construed (including but not limited to any form of motor
vehicle for any form of motor vehicle, or any kind of farm or
agricultural implement for any other kind of farm or
agricultural implement), while not including a kind of item
which, if sold at retail by that retailer, would be exempt from
retailers' occupation tax and use tax as an isolated or
occasional sale.
"Department" means the Department of Revenue.
"Person" means any natural individual, firm, partnership,
association, joint stock company, joint adventure, public or
private corporation, limited liability company, or a receiver,
executor, trustee, guardian or other representative appointed
by order of any court.
"Retailer" means and includes every person engaged in the
business of making sales at retail as defined in this Section.
A person who holds himself or herself out as being engaged
(or who habitually engages) in selling tangible personal
property at retail is a retailer hereunder with respect to such
sales (and not primarily in a service occupation)
notwithstanding the fact that such person designs and produces
such tangible personal property on special order for the
purchaser and in such a way as to render the property of value
only to such purchaser, if such tangible personal property so
produced on special order serves substantially the same
function as stock or standard items of tangible personal
property that are sold at retail.
A person whose activities are organized and conducted
primarily as a not-for-profit service enterprise, and who
engages in selling tangible personal property at retail
(whether to the public or merely to members and their guests)
is a retailer with respect to such transactions, excepting only
a person organized and operated exclusively for charitable,
religious or educational purposes either (1), to the extent of
sales by such person to its members, students, patients or
inmates of tangible personal property to be used primarily for
the purposes of such person, or (2), to the extent of sales by
such person of tangible personal property which is not sold or
offered for sale by persons organized for profit. The selling
of school books and school supplies by schools at retail to
students is not "primarily for the purposes of" the school
which does such selling. This paragraph does not apply to nor
subject to taxation occasional dinners, social or similar
activities of a person organized and operated exclusively for
charitable, religious or educational purposes, whether or not
such activities are open to the public.
A person who is the recipient of a grant or contract under
Title VII of the Older Americans Act of 1965 (P.L. 92-258) and
serves meals to participants in the federal Nutrition Program
for the Elderly in return for contributions established in
amount by the individual participant pursuant to a schedule of
suggested fees as provided for in the federal Act is not a
retailer under this Act with respect to such transactions.
Persons who engage in the business of transferring tangible
personal property upon the redemption of trading stamps are
retailers hereunder when engaged in such business.
The isolated or occasional sale of tangible personal
property at retail by a person who does not hold himself out as
being engaged (or who does not habitually engage) in selling
such tangible personal property at retail or a sale through a
bulk vending machine does not make such person a retailer
hereunder. However, any person who is engaged in a business
which is not subject to the tax imposed by the "Retailers'
Occupation Tax Act" because of involving the sale of or a
contract to sell real estate or a construction contract to
improve real estate, but who, in the course of conducting such
business, transfers tangible personal property to users or
consumers in the finished form in which it was purchased, and
which does not become real estate, under any provision of a
construction contract or real estate sale or real estate sales
agreement entered into with some other person arising out of or
because of such nontaxable business, is a retailer to the
extent of the value of the tangible personal property so
transferred. If, in such transaction, a separate charge is made
for the tangible personal property so transferred, the value of
such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the amount so
separately charged, but not less than the cost of such property
to the transferor; if no separate charge is made, the value of
such property, for the purposes of this Act, is the cost to the
transferor of such tangible personal property.
"Retailer maintaining a place of business in this State",
or any like term, means and includes any of the following
retailers:
1. A retailer having or maintaining within this State,
directly or by a subsidiary, an office, distribution house,
sales house, warehouse or other place of business, or any
agent or other representative operating within this State
under the authority of the retailer or its subsidiary,
irrespective of whether such place of business or agent or
other representative is located here permanently or
temporarily, or whether such retailer or subsidiary is
licensed to do business in this State. However, the
ownership of property that is located at the premises of a
printer with which the retailer has contracted for printing
and that consists of the final printed product, property
that becomes a part of the final printed product, or copy
from which the printed product is produced shall not result
in the retailer being deemed to have or maintain an office,
distribution house, sales house, warehouse, or other place
of business within this State.
1.1. A retailer having a contract with a person located
in this State under which the person, for a commission or
other consideration based upon the sale of tangible
personal property by the retailer, directly or indirectly
refers potential customers to the retailer by providing to
the potential customers a promotional code or other
mechanism that allows the retailer to track purchases
referred by such persons. Examples of mechanisms that allow
the retailer to track purchases referred by such persons
include but are not limited to the use of a link on the
person's Internet website, promotional codes distributed
through the person's hand-delivered or mailed material,
and promotional codes distributed by the person through
radio or other broadcast media. The provisions of this
paragraph 1.1 shall apply only if the cumulative gross
receipts from sales of tangible personal property by the
retailer to customers who are referred to the retailer by
all persons in this State under such contracts exceed
$10,000 during the preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on
the last day of March, June, September, and December. A
retailer meeting the requirements of this paragraph 1.1
shall be presumed to be maintaining a place of business in
this State but may rebut this presumption by submitting
proof that the referrals or other activities pursued within
this State by such persons were not sufficient to meet the
nexus standards of the United States Constitution during
the preceding 4 quarterly periods.
1.2. Beginning July 1, 2011, a retailer having a
contract with a person located in this State under which:
A. the retailer sells the same or substantially
similar line of products as the person located in this
State and does so using an identical or substantially
similar name, trade name, or trademark as the person
located in this State; and
B. the retailer provides a commission or other
consideration to the person located in this State based
upon the sale of tangible personal property by the
retailer.
The provisions of this paragraph 1.2 shall apply only if
the cumulative gross receipts from sales of tangible
personal property by the retailer to customers in this
State under all such contracts exceed $10,000 during the
preceding 4 quarterly periods ending on the last day of
March, June, September, and December.
2. A retailer soliciting orders for tangible personal
property by means of a telecommunication or television
shopping system (which utilizes toll free numbers) which is
intended by the retailer to be broadcast by cable
television or other means of broadcasting, to consumers
located in this State.
3. A retailer, pursuant to a contract with a
broadcaster or publisher located in this State, soliciting
orders for tangible personal property by means of
advertising which is disseminated primarily to consumers
located in this State and only secondarily to bordering
jurisdictions.
4. A retailer soliciting orders for tangible personal
property by mail if the solicitations are substantial and
recurring and if the retailer benefits from any banking,
financing, debt collection, telecommunication, or
marketing activities occurring in this State or benefits
from the location in this State of authorized installation,
servicing, or repair facilities.
5. A retailer that is owned or controlled by the same
interests that own or control any retailer engaging in
business in the same or similar line of business in this
State.
6. A retailer having a franchisee or licensee operating
under its trade name if the franchisee or licensee is
required to collect the tax under this Section.
7. A retailer, pursuant to a contract with a cable
television operator located in this State, soliciting
orders for tangible personal property by means of
advertising which is transmitted or distributed over a
cable television system in this State.
8. A retailer engaging in activities in Illinois, which
activities in the state in which the retail business
engaging in such activities is located would constitute
maintaining a place of business in that state.
"Bulk vending machine" means a vending machine, containing
unsorted confections, nuts, toys, or other items designed
primarily to be used or played with by children which, when a
coin or coins of a denomination not larger than $0.50 are
inserted, are dispensed in equal portions, at random and
without selection by the customer.
(Source: P.A. 98-628, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1080, eff. 8-26-14;
98-1089, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 150. The Cigarette Tax Act is amended by changing
Section 4g as follows:
(35 ILCS 130/4g)
(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a
delayed effective date)
Sec. 4g. Retailer's license. Beginning on January 1, 2016,
no person may engage in business as a retailer of cigarettes in
this State without first having obtained a license from the
Department. Application for license shall be made to the
Department, by electronic means, in a form prescribed by the
Department. Each applicant for a license under this Section
shall furnish to the Department, in an electronic format
established by the Department, the following information:
(1) the name and address of the applicant;
(2) the address of the location at which the applicant
proposes to engage in business as a retailer of cigarettes
in this State; and
(3) such other additional information as the
Department may lawfully require by its rules and
regulations.
The annual license fee payable to the Department for each
retailer's license shall be $75. The fee shall be deposited
into the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be
for the cost of tobacco retail inspection and contraband
tobacco and tobacco smuggling with at least two-thirds of the
money being used for contraband tobacco and tobacco smuggling
operations and enforcement.
Each applicant for a license shall pay the fee to the
Department at the time of submitting its application for a
license to the Department. The Department shall require an
applicant for a license under this Section to electronically
file and pay the fee.
A separate annual license fee shall be paid for each place
of business at which a person who is required to procure a
retailer's license under this Section proposes to engage in
business as a retailer in Illinois under this Act.
The following are ineligible to receive a retailer's
license under this Act:
(1) a person who has been convicted of a felony related
to the illegal transportation, sale, or distribution of
cigarettes, or a tobacco-related felony, under any federal
or State law, if the Department, after investigation and a
hearing if requested by the applicant, determines that the
person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant
the public trust; or
(2) a corporation, if any officer, manager, or director
thereof, or any stockholder or stockholders owning in the
aggregate more than 5% of the stock of such corporation,
would not be eligible to receive a license under this Act
for any reason.
The Department, upon receipt of an application and license
fee, in proper form, from a person who is eligible to receive a
retailer's license under this Act, shall issue to such
applicant a license in form as prescribed by the Department.
That license shall permit the applicant to whom it is issued to
engage in business as a retailer under this Act at the place
shown in his or her application. All licenses issued by the
Department under this Section shall be valid for a period not
to exceed one year after issuance unless sooner revoked,
canceled, or suspended as provided in this Act. No license
issued under this Section is transferable or assignable. The
license shall be conspicuously displayed in the place of
business conducted by the licensee in Illinois under such
license. The Department shall not issue a retailer's license to
a retailer unless the retailer is also registered under the
Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. A person who obtains a license
as a retailer who ceases to do business as specified in the
license, or who never commenced business, or who obtains a
distributor's license, or whose license is suspended or
revoked, shall immediately surrender the license to the
Department.
Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department
under this Section subsection may, within 30 days after notice
of the decision, protest and request a hearing. Upon receiving
a request for a hearing, the Department shall give written
notice to the person requesting the hearing of the time and
place fixed for the hearing and shall hold a hearing in
conformity with the provisions of this Act and then issue its
final administrative decision in the matter to that person. In
the absence of a protest and request for a hearing within 30
days, the Department's decision shall become final without any
further determination being made or notice given.
(Source: P.A. 98-1055, eff. 1-1-16; revised 12-1-14.)
Section 155. The Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995 is
amended by changing Section 10-21 as follows:
(35 ILCS 143/10-21)
(This Section may contain text from a Public Act with a
delayed effective date)
Sec. 10-21. Retailer's license. Beginning on January 1,
2016, no person may engage in business as a retailer of tobacco
products in this State without first having obtained a license
from the Department. Application for license shall be made to
the Department, by electronic means, in a form prescribed by
the Department. Each applicant for a license under this Section
shall furnish to the Department, in an electronic format
established by the Department, the following information:
(1) the name and address of the applicant;
(2) the address of the location at which the applicant
proposes to engage in business as a retailer of tobacco
products in this State;
(3) such other additional information as the
Department may lawfully require by its rules and
regulations.
The annual license fee payable to the Department for each
retailer's license shall be $75. The fee will be deposited into
the Tax Compliance and Administration Fund and shall be used
for the cost of tobacco retail inspection and contraband
tobacco and tobacco smuggling with at least two-thirds of the
money being used for contraband tobacco and tobacco smuggling
operations and enforcement.
Each applicant for license shall pay such fee to the
Department at the time of submitting its application for
license to the Department. The Department shall require an
applicant for a license under this Section to electronically
file and pay the fee.
A separate annual license fee shall be paid for each place
of business at which a person who is required to procure a
retailer's license under this Section proposes to engage in
business as a retailer in Illinois under this Act.
The following are ineligible to receive a retailer's
license under this Act:
(1) a person who has been convicted of a felony under
any federal or State law for smuggling cigarettes or
tobacco products or tobacco tax evasion, if the Department,
after investigation and a hearing if requested by the
applicant, determines that such person has not been
sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant the public trust;
and
(2) a corporation, if any officer, manager or director
thereof, or any stockholder or stockholders owning in the
aggregate more than 5% of the stock of such corporation,
would not be eligible to receive a license under this Act
for any reason.
The Department, upon receipt of an application and license
fee, in proper form, from a person who is eligible to receive a
retailer's license under this Act, shall issue to such
applicant a license in form as prescribed by the Department,
which license shall permit the applicant to which it is issued
to engage in business as a retailer under this Act at the place
shown in his application. All licenses issued by the Department
under this Section shall be valid for a period not to exceed
one year after issuance unless sooner revoked, canceled or
suspended as provided in this Act. No license issued under this
Section is transferable or assignable. Such license shall be
conspicuously displayed in the place of business conducted by
the licensee in Illinois under such license. A person who
obtains a license as a retailer who ceases to do business as
specified in the license, or who never commenced business, or
who obtains a distributor's license, or whose license is
suspended or revoked, shall immediately surrender the license
to the Department. The Department shall not issue a license to
a retailer unless the retailer is also validly registered under
the Retailers Occupation Tax Act.
A retailer as defined under this Act need not obtain an
additional license under this Act, but shall be deemed to be
sufficiently licensed by virtue of his being properly licensed
as a retailer under Section 4g of the Cigarette Tax Act.
Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department
under this Section subsection may, within 30 days after notice
of the decision, protest and request a hearing. Upon receiving
a request for a hearing, the Department shall give notice to
the person requesting the hearing of the time and place fixed
for the hearing and shall hold a hearing in conformity with the
provisions of this Act and then issue its final administrative
decision in the matter to that person. In the absence of a
protest and request for a hearing within 30 days, the
Department's decision shall become final without any further
determination being made or notice given.
(Source: P.A. 98-1055, eff. 1-1-16; revised 12-1-14.)
Section 160. The Local Government Disaster Service
Volunteer Act is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
(50 ILCS 122/15)
Sec. 15. Local government disaster service volunteer
leave. An employee of a local agency who is a certified
disaster service volunteer of the American Red Cross or
assigned to the Illinois Emergency Management Agency in
accordance with the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act,
the Emergency Management Assistance Compact Act, or other
applicable administrative rules may be granted leave from his
or her work with pay for not more than 20 working days in any
12-month period to participate in specialized disaster relief
services for the American Red Cross or for the Illinois
Emergency Management Agency, as the case may be, upon the
request of the American Red Cross or the Illinois Emergency
Management Agency for the services of that employee and upon
the approval of that employee's agency, without loss of
seniority, pay, vacation time, compensatory time, personal
days, sick time, or earned overtime accumulation. The agency
must compensate an employee granted leave under this Section at
his or her regular rate of pay for those regular work hours
during which the employee is absent from work. Leave under this
Act shall not be unreasonably denied for services related to a
disaster within the United States or its territories.
(Source: P.A. 92-95, eff. 7-18-01; 93-893, eff. 8-10-04;
revised 12-1-14.)
Section 165. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by
changing Section 9 as follows:
(50 ILCS 705/9) (from Ch. 85, par. 509)
Sec. 9. A special fund is hereby established in the State
Treasury to be known as the "The Traffic and Criminal
Conviction Surcharge Fund" and shall be financed as provided in
Section 9.1 of this Act and Section 5-9-1 of the "Unified Code
of Corrections", unless the fines, costs, or additional amounts
imposed are subject to disbursement by the circuit clerk under
Section 27.5 of the Clerks of Courts Act. Moneys in this Fund
shall be expended as follows:
(1) a A portion of the total amount deposited in the
Fund may be used, as appropriated by the General Assembly,
for the ordinary and contingent expenses of the Illinois
Law Enforcement Training Standards Board;
(2) a A portion of the total amount deposited in the
Fund shall be appropriated for the reimbursement of local
governmental agencies participating in training programs
certified by the Board, in an amount equaling 1/2 of the
total sum paid by such agencies during the State's previous
fiscal year for mandated training for probationary police
officers or probationary county corrections officers and
for optional advanced and specialized law enforcement or
county corrections training; these . These reimbursements
may include the costs for tuition at training schools, the
salaries of trainees while in schools, and the necessary
travel and room and board expenses for each trainee; if . If
the appropriations under this paragraph (2) are not
sufficient to fully reimburse the participating local
governmental agencies, the available funds shall be
apportioned among such agencies, with priority first given
to repayment of the costs of mandatory training given to
law enforcement officer or county corrections officer
recruits, then to repayment of costs of advanced or
specialized training for permanent police officers or
permanent county corrections officers;
(3) a A portion of the total amount deposited in the
Fund may be used to fund the "Intergovernmental Law
Enforcement Officer's In-Service Training Act", veto
overridden October 29, 1981, as now or hereafter amended,
at a rate and method to be determined by the board;
(4) a A portion of the Fund also may be used by the
Illinois Department of State Police for expenses incurred
in the training of employees from any State, county or
municipal agency whose function includes enforcement of
criminal or traffic law;
(5) a A portion of the Fund may be used by the Board to
fund grant-in-aid programs and services for the training of
employees from any county or municipal agency whose
functions include corrections or the enforcement of
criminal or traffic law;
(6) for For fiscal years 2013, 2014, and 2015 only, a
portion of the Fund also may be used by the Department of
State Police to finance any of its lawful purposes or
functions; and
(7) a A portion of the Fund may be used by the Board,
subject to appropriation, to administer grants to local law
enforcement agencies for the purpose of purchasing
bulletproof vests under the Law Enforcement Officer
Bulletproof Vest Act.
All payments from the Traffic and Criminal Conviction
Surcharge Fund shall be made each year from moneys appropriated
for the purposes specified in this Section. No more than 50% of
any appropriation under this Act shall be spent in any city
having a population of more than 500,000. The State Comptroller
and the State Treasurer shall from time to time, at the
direction of the Governor, transfer from the Traffic and
Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund to the General Revenue Fund
in the State Treasury such amounts as the Governor determines
are in excess of the amounts required to meet the obligations
of the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund.
(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13;
98-674, eff. 6-30-14; 98-743, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 170. The Children's Advocacy Center Act is amended
by changing Section 4 as follows:
(55 ILCS 80/4) (from Ch. 23, par. 1804)
Sec. 4. Children's Advocacy Center.
(a) A CAC may be established to coordinate the activities
of the various agencies involved in the investigation,
prosecution and treatment of child maltreatment. The
individual county or regional Advisory Board shall set the
written protocol of the CAC within the appropriate
jurisdiction. The operation of the CAC may be funded through
public or private grants, contracts, donations, fees, and other
available sources under this Act. Each CAC shall operate to the
best of its ability in accordance with available funding. In
counties in which a referendum has been adopted under Section 5
of this Act, the Advisory Board, by the majority vote of its
members, shall submit a proposed annual budget for the
operation of the CAC to the county board, which shall
appropriate funds and levy a tax sufficient to operate the CAC.
The county board in each county in which a referendum has been
adopted shall establish a Children's Advocacy Center Fund and
shall deposit the net proceeds of the tax authorized by Section
6 of this Act in that Fund, which shall be kept separate from
all other county funds and shall only be used for the purposes
of this Act.
(b) The Advisory Board shall pay from the Children's
Advocacy Center Fund or from other available funds the salaries
of all employees of the Center and the expenses of acquiring a
physical plant for the Center by construction or lease and
maintaining the Center, including the expenses of
administering the coordination of the investigation,
prosecution and treatment referral of child maltreatment under
the provisions of the protocol adopted pursuant to this Act.
(c) Every CAC shall include at least the following
components:
(1) A multidisciplinary, coordinated systems approach
to the investigation of child maltreatment which shall
include, at a minimum: ;
(i) an interagency notification procedure;
(ii) a policy on multidisciplinary team
collaboration and communication that requires MDT
members share information pertinent to investigations
and the safety of children;
(iii) (blank);
(iv) a description of the role each agency has in
responding to a referral for services in an individual
case;
(v) a dispute resolution process between the
involved agencies when a conflict arises on how to
proceed on the referral of a particular case;
(vi) a process for the CAC to assist in the
forensic interview of children that witness alleged
crimes;
(vii) a child-friendly, trauma informed space for
children and their non-offending family members;
(viii) an MDT approach including law enforcement,
prosecution, medical, mental health, victim advocacy,
and other community resources;
(ix) medical evaluation on-site or off-site
through referral;
(x) mental health services on-site or off-site
through referral;
(xi) on-site forensic interviews;
(xii) culturally competent services;
(xiii) case tracking and review;
(xiv) case staffing on each investigation;
(xv) effective organizational capacity; and
(xvi) a policy or procedure to familiarize a child
and his or her non-offending family members or
guardians with the court process as well as
preparations for testifying in court, if necessary; .
(2) A safe, separate space with assigned personnel
designated for the investigation and coordination of child
maltreatment cases;
(3) A multidisciplinary case review process for
purposes of decision-making, problem solving, systems
coordination, and information sharing;
(4) A comprehensive client tracking system to receive
and coordinate information concerning child maltreatment
cases from each participating agency;
(5) Multidisciplinary specialized training for all
professionals involved with the victims and non-offending
family members in child maltreatment cases; and
(6) A process for evaluating the effectiveness of the
CAC and its operations.
(d) In the event that a CAC has been established as
provided in this Section, the Advisory Board of that CAC may,
by a majority vote of the members, authorize the CAC to
coordinate the activities of the various agencies involved in
the investigation, prosecution, and treatment referral in
cases of serious or fatal injury to a child. For CACs receiving
funds under Section 5 or 6 of this Act, the Advisory Board
shall provide for the financial support of these activities in
a manner similar to that set out in subsections (a) and (b) of
this Section and shall be allowed to submit a budget that
includes support for physical abuse and neglect activities to
the County Board, which shall appropriate funds that may be
available under Section 5 of this Act. In cooperation with the
Department of Children and Family Services Child Death Review
Teams, the Department of Children and Family Services Office of
the Inspector General, and other stakeholders, this protocol
must be initially implemented in selected counties to the
extent that State appropriations or funds from other sources
for this purpose allow.
(e) CACI may also provide technical assistance and guidance
to the Advisory Boards.
(Source: P.A. 98-809, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-2-2014.)
Section 175. The Township Code is amended by changing
Section 30-50 as follows:
(60 ILCS 1/30-50)
Sec. 30-50. Purchase and use of property.
(a) The electors may make all orders for the purchase,
sale, conveyance, regulation, or use of the township's
corporate property (including the direct sale or lease of
single township road district property) that may be deemed
conducive to the interests of its inhabitants, including the
lease, for up to 10 years, or for up to 25 years if the lease is
for a wireless telecommunications tower, at fair market value,
of corporate property for which no use or need during the lease
period is anticipated at the time of leasing. The property may
be leased to another governmental body, however, or to a
not-for-profit corporation that has contracted to construct or
fund the construction of a structure or improvement upon the
real estate owned by the township and that has contracted with
the township to allow the township to use at least a portion of
the structure or improvement to be constructed upon the real
estate leased and not otherwise used by the township, for any
term not exceeding 50 years and for any consideration. In the
case of a not-for-profit corporation, the township shall hold a
public hearing on the proposed lease. The township clerk shall
give notice of the hearing by publication in a newspaper
published in the township, or in a newspaper published in the
county and having general circulation in the township if no
newspaper is published in the township, and by posting notices
in at least 5 public places at least 15 days before the public
hearing.
(b) If a new tax is to be levied or an existing tax rate is
to be increased above the statutory limits for the purchase of
the property, however, no action otherwise authorized in
subsection (a) shall be taken unless a petition signed by at
least 10% of the registered voters residing in the township is
presented to the township clerk. If a petition is presented to
the township clerk, the clerk shall order a referendum on the
proposition. The referendum shall be held at the next annual or
special township meeting or at an election in accordance with
the general election law. If the referendum is ordered to be
held at the township meeting, the township clerk shall give
notice that at the next annual or special township meeting the
proposition shall be voted upon. The notice shall set forth the
proposition and shall be given by publication in a newspaper
published in the township. If there is no newspaper published
in the township, the notice shall be published in a newspaper
published in the county and having general circulation in the
township. Notice also shall be given by posting notices in at
least 5 public places at least 15 days before the township
meeting. If the referendum is ordered to be held at an
election, the township clerk shall certify that proposition to
the proper election officials, who shall submit the proposition
at an election. The proposition shall be submitted in
accordance with the general election law.
(c) If the leased property is utilized in part for private
use and in part for public use, those portions of the
improvements devoted to private use are fully taxable. The land
is exempt from taxation to the extent that the uses on the land
are public and taxable to the extent that the uses are private.
(d) Before the township makes a lease or sale of township
or road district real property, the electors shall adopt a
resolution stating the intent to lease or sell the real
property, describing the property in full, and stating the
terms and conditions the electors deem necessary and desirable
for the lease or sale. A resolution stating the intent to sell
real property shall also contain pertinent information
concerning the size, use, and zoning of the property. The value
of real property shall be determined by a State licensed real
estate appraiser. The appraisal shall be available for public
inspection. The resolution may direct the sale to be conducted
by the staff of the township or by listing with local licensed
real estate agencies (in which case the terms of the agent's
compensation shall be included in the resolution).
Anytime during the year, the township or township road
district may lease or sell personal property by a vote of the
township board or request of the township highway commissioner.
The clerk shall thereafter publish the resolution or
personal property sale notice once in a newspaper published in
the township or, if no newspaper is published in the township,
in a newspaper generally circulated in the township. If no
newspaper is generally circulated in the township, the clerk
shall post the resolution or personal property sale notice in 5
of the most public places in the township. In addition to the
foregoing publication requirements, the clerk shall post the
resolution or personal property sale notice at the office of
the township (if township property is involved) or at the
office of the road district (if road district property is
involved). The following information shall be published or
posted with the resolution or personal property sale notice:
(i) the date by which all bids must be received by the township
or road district, which shall not be less than 30 days after
the date of publication or posting, and (ii) the place, time,
and date at which bids shall be opened, which shall be at a
regular meeting of the township board.
All bids shall be opened by the clerk (or someone duly
appointed to act for the clerk) at the regular meeting of the
township board described in the notice. With respect to
township personal property, the township board may accept the
high bid or any other bid determined to be in the best
interests of the township by a majority vote of the board. With
respect to township real property, the township board may
accept the high bid or any other bid determined to be in the
best interests of the township by a vote of three-fourths of
the township board then holding office, but in no event at a
price less than 80% of the appraised value. With respect to
road district property, the highway commissioner may accept the
high bid or any other bid determined to be in the best
interests of the road district. In each case, the township
board or commissioner may reject any and all bids. This notice
and competitive bidding procedure shall not be followed when
property is leased to another governmental body. The notice and
competitive bidding procedure shall not be followed when real
or personal property is declared surplus by the township board
or the highway commissioner and sold to another governmental
body.
The township board or the highway commissioner may
authorize the sale of personal property by public auction
conducted by an auctioneer licensed under the Auction License
Act or through an approved Internet auction service.
(e) A trade-in of machinery or equipment on new or
different machinery or equipment does not constitute the sale
of township or road district property.
(Source: P.A. 97-337, eff. 8-12-11; 98-549, eff. 8-26-13;
98-653, eff. 6-18-14; revised 6-24-14.)
Section 180. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by
changing Sections 10-1-7.1, 10-2.1-6.3, 11-12-5, and
11-74.4-3.5 as follows:
(65 ILCS 5/10-1-7.1)
Sec. 10-1-7.1. Original appointments; full-time fire
department.
(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the
provisions of Section 10-1-7.2, this Section shall apply to all
original appointments to an affected full-time fire
department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to
be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2
years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
97th General Assembly.
Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law
to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected
department to which this Section applies shall be administered
in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the
Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules
adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to
initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall
continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this
Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section
and any other law, this Section shall control.
A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not
administer its fire department process for original
appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this
Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of
Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the
concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and
functions exercised by the State.
A municipality that is operating under a court order or
consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time
fire department before the effective date of this amendatory
Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the
requirements of this Section for the duration of the court
order or consent decree.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection
(a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more
than 1,000,000 inhabitants.
(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made
to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of
eligibles established in accordance with the processes
established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed
the performance standards required by this Section shall be
placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to
an affected fire department.
Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire
a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a
firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position
or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the
granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other
cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position
the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility
list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that
the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards
for the position or if the appointing authority believes an
alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the
department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass
over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any
person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of
eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest
ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people
who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles
is less than 5 people.
Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without
losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any
candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list
by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not
prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future
examinations, including an examination held during the time a
candidate is already on the municipality's register of
eligibles.
The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment
shall be vested in the Civil Service Commission. All
certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member of
an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson and
secretary, respectively, of the commission upon appointment of
such officer or member to the affected department by the
commission. Each person who accepts a certificate of
appointment and successfully completes his or her probationary
period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular
member of the fire department.
For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any
person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date
of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed
to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by
a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform
firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that
the following persons are not included: part-time
firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters,
including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or
other civilian employees of a fire department or fire
protection district who are not routinely expected to perform
firefighter duties; and elected officials.
(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles.
The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to
identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental
aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of
members of the fire department in order to provide the highest
quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants
for original appointment to an affected fire department shall
be subject to examination and testing which shall be public,
competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality
shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the
municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is
located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing
procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall
be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall
comply with all applicable State state and federal laws.
Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical
service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation
in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any
municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the
application process.
Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual
enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more
restrictive for that individual during his or her period of
service for that municipality, or be made a condition of
promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and
for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that
of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the
Fire Department Promotion Act.
No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible
to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless
the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter
in the regularly constituted fire department of the
municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age
limitation does not apply to:
(1) any person previously employed as a full-time
firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of
(i) any municipality or fire protection district located in
Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose
obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21
of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a
municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire
protection district, or
(2) any person who has served a municipality as a
regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time
firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time
that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters
to provide all or part of its fire protection service.
No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible
for employment as a firefighter.
No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her
political or religious opinions or affiliations. The
examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the
municipality or their designees and agents.
No municipality shall require that any firefighter
appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment
period of longer than one year of actual active employment,
which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness
leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar
days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section,
the probationary employment period limitation may be extended
for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of
employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the
sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a
hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic
licensure.
In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible
for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final
eligibility register provided for in this Division 1 has not
been appointed to a firefighter position within one year after
the date of his or her physical ability examination, the
commission may cause a second examination to be made of that
applicant's physical ability prior to his or her appointment.
If, after the second examination, the physical ability of the
applicant shall be found to be less than the minimum standard
fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant shall not
be appointed. The applicant's name may be retained upon the
register of candidates eligible for appointment and when next
reached for certification and appointment that applicant may be
again examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical
ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum
standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant
shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be
removed from the register.
(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of
the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any
subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be
given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks
preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers
published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published
therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general
circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the
municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the
examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.
The examination and qualifying standards for employment of
firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical
ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental
aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall
determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the
final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a
subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by
the commission. Scores from the examination must be made
available to the public.
(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at
least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school
education shall be placed on a register of eligibles.
Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based
upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical
in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the
capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties
performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations
shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and
accuracy of the scores achieved.
(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to
undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the
essential functions included in the duties they may be called
upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the
purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are
functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be
called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The
frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire
department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor
in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected
for testing. These physical examinations shall be open,
competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test
each applicant's physical abilities in the following
dimensions:
(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions
that may be required in the performance of duties including
grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall
be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions
to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in
performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based
on standards developed, or approved, by the local
appointing authority.
(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights,
walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces,
and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.
(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive,
and complex problem solving during physical exertion in
stressful and hazardous environments. The testing
environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed
spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.
The tests utilized to measure each applicant's
capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on
industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests
approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office
of the State Fire Marshal.
Physical ability examinations administered under this
Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors
and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable
regulations of the commission.
(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing
authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A
person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her
passage of the written examination or the passage of the
written examination and the physical ability component.
Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum
score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by
the commission so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to
perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score
set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate
validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State
state and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct
the physical ability component and any subjective components
subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility
register.
The examination components for an initial eligibility
register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's
position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i)
the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person
successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii)
the person's results on any subjective component as described
in subsection (d).
In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility
register, an applicant's score on the written examination,
before any applicable preference points or subjective points
are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score set by the
commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the
score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility
register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum
score set by the commission.
The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons
whose total score is not less than the minimum score for
passage and who have passed the physical ability examination.
These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates
in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest
to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude,
subjective component, and preference components of the test
administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60
days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall
be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final
grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the
time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.
Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including
without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility
register is established and before it expires with the
candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of
examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an
initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission
showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to
priority of time of examination and subject to claim for
preference credit.
(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:
(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the
military service of the United States for a period of at
least one year of active duty and who were honorably
discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members
on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval
service, shall be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department of an affected
department.
(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have
successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques
or cadet training within a cadet program established under
the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee
(JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department
Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department.
(3) Educational preference. Persons who have
successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of
fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's
degree from an accredited college or university may be
preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire
department.
(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a
license as a paramedic may be preferred for appointment to
and employment with the fire department of an affected
department providing emergency medical services.
(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a
municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time
certified Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State
of Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or
paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be
awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant
may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete
year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from
outside the municipality who were employed as full-time
firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire
protection district or another municipality may be awarded
up to 5 experience preference points. However, the
applicant may not be awarded more than one point for each
complete year of full-time service.
Upon request by the commission, the governing body of
the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside
the municipality the governing body of any fire protection
district or any other municipality shall certify to the
commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of
years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time
service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full
amount of preference points under this subsection if the
amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a
veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate
receiving experience preference points is prevented from
receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to
pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list
below the veteran in rank order based on the totals
received if all points under this subsection were to be
awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined
by lot.
(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal
residence is located within the fire department's
jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department.
(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional
preference points may be awarded for unique categories
based on an applicant's experience or background as
identified by the commission.
(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give
preference for original appointment to persons designated
in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive
5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The
commission shall determine the number of preference points
for each category except (1). The number of preference
points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In
determining the number of preference points, the
commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the
maximum number of preference points in all categories, that
number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The
commission shall give preference for original appointment
to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding
the requisite number of points to the final grade for each
recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus
attained shall be applied by the commission in determining
the final eligibility list and appointment from the
eligibility list. The local appointing authority may
prescribe the total number of preference points awarded
under this Section, but the total number of preference
points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30
points.
No person entitled to any preference shall be required to
claim the credit before any examination held under the
provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given
after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility
list or register at the request of a person entitled to a
credit before any certification or appointments are made from
the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable
evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates
who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in
writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial
eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final
eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding
of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject
to the commission's initial hire background review including,
but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral
character, oral examination, and medical and psychological
examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and
psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only
be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been
extended.
Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the
age requirement before being appointed to a fire department
shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is
abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period
of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years
shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise
provided in this Section.
The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for
original appointment after the names have been on the list for
more than 2 years.
(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire
department unless he or she is a person of good character; not
a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been
convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude.
However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to
the fire department because of the person's record of
misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6,
11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6,
12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1,
31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections
1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without
conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department
may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection
and after a trial as hereinafter provided.
A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who
is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected
fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be
furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the
Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.
Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to
consider some aspect of criminal history record information for
the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and
responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in
conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the
State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois,
the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish,
pursuant to positive identification, the information contained
in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.
(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage
of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to
prevent material impairment of the fire department, the
commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force
only until regular appointments are made under the provisions
of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary
appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in
any calendar year.
(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test
questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise
knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section,
commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to
charges for official misconduct.
A person who is the knowing recipient of test information
in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the
examination or discharged from the position to which he or she
was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to
disciplinary actions.
(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12;
97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-760, eff. 7-16-14; 98-973, eff.
8-15-14; revised 10-2-14.)
(65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-6.3)
Sec. 10-2.1-6.3. Original appointments; full-time fire
department.
(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the
provisions of Section 10-2.1-6.4, this Section shall apply to
all original appointments to an affected full-time fire
department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to
be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2
years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
97th General Assembly.
Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law
to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected
department to which this Section applies shall be administered
in the manner provided for in this Section. Provisions of the
Illinois Municipal Code, municipal ordinances, and rules
adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to
initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall
continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this
Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section
and any other law, this Section shall control.
A home rule or non-home rule municipality may not
administer its fire department process for original
appointments in a manner that is less stringent than this
Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of
Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the
concurrent exercise by home rule units of the powers and
functions exercised by the State.
A municipality that is operating under a court order or
consent decree regarding original appointments to a full-time
fire department before the effective date of this amendatory
Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the
requirements of this Section for the duration of the court
order or consent decree.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection
(a), this Section does not apply to a municipality with more
than 1,000,000 inhabitants.
(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made
to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of
eligibles established in accordance with the processes
established by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed
the performance standards required by this Section shall be
placed on a register of eligibles for original appointment to
an affected fire department.
Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire
a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a
firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position
or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the
granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other
cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position
the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility
list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that
the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards
for the position or if the appointing authority believes an
alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the
department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass
over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any
person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of
eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest
ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people
who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles
is less than 5 people.
Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without
losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any
candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list
by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not
prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future
examinations, including an examination held during the time a
candidate is already on the municipality's register of
eligibles.
The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment
shall be vested in the board of fire and police commissioners.
All certificates of appointment issued to any officer or member
of an affected department shall be signed by the chairperson
and secretary, respectively, of the board upon appointment of
such officer or member to the affected department by action of
the board. Each person who accepts a certificate of appointment
and successfully completes his or her probationary period shall
be enrolled as a firefighter and as a regular member of the
fire department.
For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any
person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date
of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed
to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by
a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform
firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that
the following persons are not included: part-time
firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters,
including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or
other civilian employees of a fire department or fire
protection district who are not routinely expected to perform
firefighter duties; and elected officials.
(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles.
The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to
identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental
aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of
members of the fire department in order to provide the highest
quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants
for original appointment to an affected fire department shall
be subject to examination and testing which shall be public,
competitive, and open to all applicants unless the municipality
shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the
municipality, county or counties in which the municipality is
located, State, or nation. Any examination and testing
procedure utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall
be supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall
comply with all applicable State state and federal laws.
Municipalities may establish educational, emergency medical
service licensure, and other pre-requisites for participation
in an examination or for hire as a firefighter. Any
municipality may charge a fee to cover the costs of the
application process.
Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual
enters the fire service of a municipality cannot be made more
restrictive for that individual during his or her period of
service for that municipality, or be made a condition of
promotion, except for the rank or position of fire chief and
for no more than 2 positions that rank immediately below that
of the chief rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the
Fire Department Promotion Act.
No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible
to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless
the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter
in the regularly constituted fire department of the
municipality, except as provided in this Section. The age
limitation does not apply to:
(1) any person previously employed as a full-time
firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of
(i) any municipality or fire protection district located in
Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose
obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21
of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a
municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire
protection district, or
(2) any person who has served a municipality as a
regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time
firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time
that the municipality begins to use full-time firefighters
to provide all or part of its fire protection service.
No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible
for employment as a firefighter.
No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her
political or religious opinions or affiliations. The
examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the
municipality or their designees and agents.
No municipality shall require that any firefighter
appointed to the lowest rank serve a probationary employment
period of longer than one year of actual active employment,
which may exclude periods of training, or injury or illness
leaves, including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar
days. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section,
the probationary employment period limitation may be extended
for a firefighter who is required, as a condition of
employment, to be a licensed paramedic, during which time the
sole reason that a firefighter may be discharged without a
hearing is for failing to meet the requirements for paramedic
licensure.
In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible
for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final
eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been
appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the
date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission
may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's
physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the
second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall
be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the
rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed.
The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of
candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for
certification and appointment that applicant may be again
examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical
ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum
standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant
shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be
removed from the register.
(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of
the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any
subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be
given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks
preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers
published in the municipality, or if no newspaper is published
therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general
circulation within the municipality, or (ii) on the
municipality's Internet website. Additional notice of the
examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.
The examination and qualifying standards for employment of
firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical
ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental
aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall
determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the
final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a
subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by
the commission. Scores from the examination must be made
available to the public.
(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at
least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school
education shall be placed on a register of eligibles.
Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based
upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical
in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the
capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties
performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations
shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and
accuracy of the scores achieved.
(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to
undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the
essential functions included in the duties they may be called
upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the
purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are
functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be
called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The
frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire
department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor
in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected
for testing. These physical examinations shall be open,
competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test
each applicant's physical abilities in the following
dimensions:
(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions
that may be required in the performance of duties including
grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall
be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions
to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in
performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based
on standards developed, or approved, by the local
appointing authority.
(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights,
walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces,
and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.
(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive,
and complex problem solving during physical exertion in
stressful and hazardous environments. The testing
environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed
spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.
The tests utilized to measure each applicant's
capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on
industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests
approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office
of the State Fire Marshal.
Physical ability examinations administered under this
Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors
and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable
regulations of the commission.
(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing
authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A
person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her
passage of the written examination or the passage of the
written examination and the physical ability component.
Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum
score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by
the commission so as to demonstrate a candidate's ability to
perform the essential functions of the job. The minimum score
set by the commission shall be supported by appropriate
validation evidence and shall comply with all applicable State
state and federal laws. The appointing authority may conduct
the physical ability component and any subjective components
subsequent to the posting of the preliminary eligibility
register.
The examination components for an initial eligibility
register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's
position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i)
the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person
successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii)
the person's results on any subjective component as described
in subsection (d).
In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility
register, an applicant's score on the written examination,
before any applicable preference points or subjective points
are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score as set by
the commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe
the score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility
register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum
score set by the commission.
The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons
whose total score is not less than the minimum score for
passage and who have passed the physical ability examination.
These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates
in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest
to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude,
subjective component, and preference components of the test
administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60
days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall
be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final
grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the
time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.
Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including
without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility
register is established and before it expires with the
candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of
examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an
initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission
showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to
priority of time of examination and subject to claim for
preference credit.
(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:
(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the
military service of the United States for a period of at
least one year of active duty and who were honorably
discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members
on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval
service, shall be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department of an affected
department.
(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have
successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques
or cadet training within a cadet program established under
the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee
(JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department
Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department.
(3) Educational preference. Persons who have
successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of
fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's
degree from an accredited college or university may be
preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire
department.
(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a
license as a paramedic shall be preferred for appointment
to and employment with the fire department of an affected
department providing emergency medical services.
(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a
municipality who have been paid-on-call or part-time
certified Firefighter II, State of Illinois or nationally
licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or any combination of those
capacities shall be awarded 0.5 point for each year of
successful service in one or more of those capacities, up
to a maximum of 5 points. Certified Firefighter III and
State of Illinois or nationally licensed paramedics shall
be awarded one point per year up to a maximum of 5 points.
Applicants from outside the municipality who were employed
as full-time firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a
fire protection district or another municipality for at
least 2 years shall be awarded 5 experience preference
points. These additional points presuppose a rating scale
totaling 100 points available for the eligibility list. If
more or fewer points are used in the rating scale for the
eligibility list, the points awarded under this subsection
shall be increased or decreased by a factor equal to the
total possible points available for the examination
divided by 100.
Upon request by the commission, the governing body of
the municipality or in the case of applicants from outside
the municipality the governing body of any fire protection
district or any other municipality shall certify to the
commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of
years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time
service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full
amount of preference points under this subsection if the
amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a
veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate
receiving experience preference points is prevented from
receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to
pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list
below the veteran in rank order based on the totals
received if all points under this subsection were to be
awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined
by lot.
(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal
residence is located within the fire department's
jurisdiction shall be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department.
(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional
preference points may be awarded for unique categories
based on an applicant's experience or background as
identified by the commission.
(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give
preference for original appointment to persons designated
in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive
5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The
commission shall determine the number of preference points
for each category except (1). The number of preference
points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In
determining the number of preference points, the
commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the
maximum number of preference points in all categories, that
number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The
commission shall give preference for original appointment
to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding
the requisite number of points to the final grade for each
recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus
attained shall be applied by the commission in determining
the final eligibility list and appointment from the
eligibility list. The local appointing authority may
prescribe the total number of preference points awarded
under this Section, but the total number of preference
points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30
points.
No person entitled to any preference shall be required to
claim the credit before any examination held under the
provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given
after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility
list or register at the request of a person entitled to a
credit before any certification or appointments are made from
the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable
evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates
who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in
writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial
eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final
eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding
of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject
to the commission's initial hire background review including,
but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral
character, oral examination, and medical and psychological
examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and
psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only
be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been
extended.
Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the
age requirement before being appointed to a fire department
shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is
abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period
of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years
shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise
provided in this Section.
The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for
original appointment after the names have been on the list for
more than 2 years.
(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire
department unless he or she is a person of good character; not
a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been
convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude.
However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to
the fire department because of the person's record of
misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6,
11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6,
12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1,
31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections
1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without
conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department
may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection
and after a trial as hereinafter provided.
A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who
is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected
fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be
furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the
Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.
Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to
consider some aspect of criminal history record information for
the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and
responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in
conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the
State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois,
the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish,
pursuant to positive identification, the information contained
in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.
(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage
of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to
prevent material impairment of the fire department, the
commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force
only until regular appointments are made under the provisions
of this Division, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary
appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in
any calendar year.
(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test
questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise
knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section,
commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to
charges for official misconduct.
A person who is the knowing recipient of test information
in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the
examination or discharged from the position to which he or she
was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to
disciplinary actions.
(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12;
97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-760, eff. 7-16-14; 98-973, eff.
8-15-14, revised 10-2-14.)
(65 ILCS 5/11-12-5) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-12-5)
Sec. 11-12-5. Every plan commission and planning
department authorized by this Division 12 has the following
powers and whenever in this Division 12 the term plan
commission is used such term shall be deemed to include the
term planning department:
(1) To prepare and recommend to the corporate
authorities a comprehensive plan for the present and future
development or redevelopment of the municipality. Such
plan may be adopted in whole or in separate geographical or
functional parts, each of which, when adopted, shall be the
official comprehensive plan, or part thereof, of that
municipality. This plan may include reasonable
requirements with reference to streets, alleys, public
grounds, and other improvements hereinafter specified. The
plan, as recommended by the plan commission and as
thereafter adopted in any municipality in this state, may
be made applicable, by the terms thereof, to land situated
within the corporate limits and contiguous territory not
more than one and one-half miles beyond the corporate
limits and not included in any municipality. Such plan may
be implemented by ordinances (a) establishing reasonable
standards of design for subdivisions and for
resubdivisions of unimproved land and of areas subject to
redevelopment in respect to public improvements as herein
defined; (b) establishing reasonable requirements
governing the location, width, course, and surfacing of
public streets and highways, alleys, ways for public
service facilities, curbs, gutters, sidewalks, street
lights, parks, playgrounds, school grounds, size of lots to
be used for residential purposes, storm water drainage,
water supply and distribution, sanitary sewers, and sewage
collection and treatment; and (c) may designate land
suitable for annexation to the municipality and the
recommended zoning classification for such land upon
annexation.
(2) To recommend changes, from time to time, in the
official comprehensive plan.
(3) To prepare and recommend to the corporate
authorities, from time to time, plans for specific
improvements in pursuance of the official comprehensive
plan.
(4) To give aid to the municipal officials charged with
the direction of projects for improvements embraced within
the official plan, to further the making of these projects,
and, generally, to promote the realization of the official
comprehensive plan.
(5) To prepare and recommend to the corporate
authorities schemes for regulating or forbidding
structures or activities which may hinder access to solar
energy necessary for the proper functioning of solar energy
systems, as defined in Section 1.2 of The Comprehensive
Solar Energy Act of 1977, or to recommend changes in such
schemes.
(6) To exercise such other powers germane to the powers
granted by this article as may be conferred by the
corporate authorities.
(7) For purposes of implementing ordinances regarding
developer donations or impact fees, and specifically for
expenditures thereof, "school grounds" is defined as including
land or site improvements, which include school buildings or
other infrastructure, including technological infrastructure,
necessitated and specifically and uniquely attributed to the
development or subdivision in question. This amendatory Act of
the 93rd General Assembly applies to all impact fees or
developer donations paid into a school district or held in a
separate account or escrow fund by any school district or
municipality for a school district.
(Source: P.A. 98-741, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-1-14.)
(65 ILCS 5/11-74.4-3.5)
Sec. 11-74.4-3.5. Completion dates for redevelopment
projects.
(a) Unless otherwise stated in this Section, the estimated
dates of completion of the redevelopment project and retirement
of obligations issued to finance redevelopment project costs
(including refunding bonds under Section 11-74.4-7) may not be
later than December 31 of the year in which the payment to the
municipal treasurer, as provided in subsection (b) of Section
11-74.4-8 of this Act, is to be made with respect to ad valorem
taxes levied in the 23rd calendar year after the year in which
the ordinance approving the redevelopment project area was
adopted if the ordinance was adopted on or after January 15,
1981.
(b) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment
project and retirement of obligations issued to finance
redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under
Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the
year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as
provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is
to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 32nd
calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving
the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was
adopted on September 9, 1999 by the Village of Downs.
The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment
project and retirement of obligations issued to finance
redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under
Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the
year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as
provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is
to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 33rd
calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving
the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was
adopted on May 20, 1985 by the Village of Wheeling.
The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment
project and retirement of obligations issued to finance
redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under
Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the
year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as
provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is
to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 28th
calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving
the redevelopment project area was adopted if the ordinance was
adopted on October 12, 1989 by the City of Lawrenceville.
(c) The estimated dates of completion of the redevelopment
project and retirement of obligations issued to finance
redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under
Section 11-74.4-7) may not be later than December 31 of the
year in which the payment to the municipal treasurer as
provided in subsection (b) of Section 11-74.4-8 of this Act is
to be made with respect to ad valorem taxes levied in the 35th
calendar year after the year in which the ordinance approving
the redevelopment project area was adopted:
(1) If if the ordinance was adopted before January 15,
1981. ;
(2) If if the ordinance was adopted in December 1983,
April 1984, July 1985, or December 1989. ;
(3) If if the ordinance was adopted in December 1987
and the redevelopment project is located within one mile of
Midway Airport. ;
(4) If if the ordinance was adopted before January 1,
1987 by a municipality in Mason County. ;
(5) If if the municipality is subject to the Local
Government Financial Planning and Supervision Act or the
Financially Distressed City Law. ;
(6) If if the ordinance was adopted in December 1984 by
the Village of Rosemont. ;
(7) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31,
1986 by a municipality located in Clinton County for which
at least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on
June 17, 1997, or if the ordinance was adopted on December
31, 1986 by a municipality with a population in 1990 of
less than 3,600 that is located in a county with a
population in 1990 of less than 34,000 and for which at
least $250,000 of tax increment bonds were authorized on
June 17, 1997. ;
(8) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 5, 1982
by the City of Kankakee, or if the ordinance was adopted on
December 29, 1986 by East St. Louis. ;
(9) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 12,
1991 by the Village of Sauget. ;
(10) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 11,
1985 by the City of Rock Island. ;
(11) If if the ordinance was adopted before December
18, 1986 by the City of Moline. ;
(12) If if the ordinance was adopted in September 1988
by Sauk Village. ;
(13) If if the ordinance was adopted in October 1993 by
Sauk Village. ;
(14) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1986 by the City of Galva. ;
(15) If if the ordinance was adopted in March 1991 by
the City of Centreville. ;
(16) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 23,
1991 by the City of East St. Louis. ;
(17) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22,
1986 by the City of Aledo. ;
(18) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 5,
1990 by the City of Clinton. ;
(19) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 6,
1994 by the City of Freeport. ;
(20) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22,
1986 by the City of Tuscola. ;
(21) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23,
1986 by the City of Sparta. ;
(22) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23,
1986 by the City of Beardstown. ;
(23) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 27, 1981,
October 21, 1985, or December 30, 1986 by the City of
Belleville. ;
(24) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1986 by the City of Collinsville. ;
(25) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 14,
1994 by the City of Alton. ;
(26) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 11,
1996 by the City of Lexington. ;
(27) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 5,
1984 by the City of LeRoy. ;
(28) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1991
or June 3, 1992 by the City of Markham. ;
(29) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 11,
1986 by the City of Pekin. ;
(30) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 15,
1981 by the City of Champaign. ;
(31) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 15,
1986 by the City of Urbana. ;
(32) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 15,
1986 by the Village of Heyworth. ;
(33) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 24,
1992 by the Village of Heyworth. ;
(34) If if the ordinance was adopted on March 16, 1995
by the Village of Heyworth. ;
(35) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23,
1986 by the Town of Cicero. ;
(36) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 30,
1986 by the City of Effingham. ;
(37) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 9, 1991 by
the Village of Tilton. ;
(38) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 20,
1986 by the City of Elmhurst. ;
(39) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 19,
1988 by the City of Waukegan. ;
(40) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 21,
1998 by the City of Waukegan. ;
(41) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31,
1986 by the City of Sullivan. ;
(42) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23,
1991 by the City of Sullivan. ;
(43) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31,
1986 by the City of Oglesby. ;
(44) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 28, 1987
by the City of Marion. ;
(45) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 1990
by the City of Marion. ;
(46) If if the ordinance was adopted on August 20, 1985
by the Village of Mount Prospect. ;
(47) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 2,
1998 by the Village of Woodhull. ;
(48) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 20, 1993
by the Village of Princeville. ;
(49) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 1986 by
the City of Granite City. ;
(50) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 2,
1989 by the Village of Lombard. ;
(51) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1986 by the Village of Gardner. ;
(52) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1999
by the Village of Paw Paw. ;
(53) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 17,
1986 by the Village of Franklin Park. ;
(54) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 20,
1989 by the Village of South Holland. ;
(55) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 14, 1992
by the Village of Riverdale. ;
(56) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1986 by the City of Galesburg. ;
(57) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 1, 1985
by the City of Galesburg. ;
(58) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1990 by
the City of West Chicago. ;
(59) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16,
1986 by the City of Oak Forest. ;
(60) If if the ordinance was adopted in 1999 by the
City of Villa Grove. ;
(61) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 13,
1987 by the Village of Mt. Zion. ;
(62) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 30,
1986 by the Village of Manteno. ;
(63) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 3, 1989
by the City of Chicago Heights. ;
(64) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 6, 1999
by the Village of Rosemont. ;
(65) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 19,
2000 by the Village of Stone Park. ;
(66) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22,
1986 by the City of DeKalb. ;
(67) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 2,
1986 by the City of Aurora. ;
(68) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31,
1986 by the Village of Milan. ;
(69) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 8,
1994 by the City of West Frankfort. ;
(70) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 23,
1986 by the Village of Libertyville. ;
(71) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22,
1986 by the Village of Hoffman Estates. ;
(72) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 17,
1986 by the Village of Sherman. ;
(73) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16,
1986 by the City of Macomb. ;
(74) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002
by the City of East Peoria to create the West Washington
Street TIF. ;
(75) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 11, 2002
by the City of East Peoria to create the Camp Street TIF. ;
(76) If if the ordinance was adopted on August 7, 2000
by the City of Des Plaines. ;
(77) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 22,
1986 by the City of Washington to create the Washington
Square TIF #2. ;
(78) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1986 by the City of Morris. ;
(79) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998 by
the Village of Steeleville. ;
(80) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF I (the Main St
TIF). ;
(81) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1986 by the City of Pontiac to create TIF II (the
Interstate TIF). ;
(82) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 6,
2002 by the City of Chicago to create the Madden/Wells TIF
District. ;
(83) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 4,
1998 by the City of Chicago to create the Roosevelt/Racine
TIF District. ;
(84) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 10, 1998
by the City of Chicago to create the Stony Island
Commercial/Burnside Industrial Corridors TIF District. ;
(85) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 29,
1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Englewood Mall
TIF District. ;
(86) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 27,
1986 by the City of Mendota. ;
(87) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 31,
1986 by the Village of Cahokia. ;
(88) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 20,
1999 by the City of Belleville. ;
(89) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 30,
1986 by the Village of Bellevue to create the Bellevue TIF
District 1. ;
(90) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 13,
1993 by the Village of Crete. ;
(91) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 12,
2001 by the Village of Crete. ;
(92) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 23, 2001
by the Village of Crete. ;
(93) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16,
1986 by the City of Champaign. ;
(94) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 20,
1986 by the City of Charleston. ;
(95) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 6, 1989 by
the Village of Romeoville. ;
(96) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 14,
1993 and amended on August 2, 2010 by the City of Venice. ;
(97) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 1, 1994 by
the City of Markham. ;
(98) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 19, 1998 by
the Village of Bensenville. ;
(99) If if the ordinance was adopted on November 12,
1987 by the City of Dixon. ;
(100) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 20,
1988 by the Village of Lansing. ;
(101) If if the ordinance was adopted on October 27,
1998 by the City of Moline. ;
(102) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 21, 1991
by the Village of Glenwood. ;
(103) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 28,
1992 by the City of East Peoria. ;
(104) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 14,
1998 by the City of Carlyle. ;
(105) If if the ordinance was adopted on May 17, 2000,
as subsequently amended, by the City of Chicago to create
the Midwest Redevelopment TIF District. ;
(106) If if the ordinance was adopted on September 13,
1989 by the City of Chicago to create the Michigan/Cermak
Area TIF District. ;
(107) If if the ordinance was adopted on March 30, 1992
by the Village of Ohio. ;
(108) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 6, 1998
by the Village of Orangeville. ;
(109) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 16,
1997 by the Village of Germantown. ;
(110) If if the ordinance was adopted on April 28, 2003
by Gibson City. ;
(111) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 18,
1990 by the Village of Washington Park, but only after the
Village of Washington Park becomes compliant with the
reporting requirements under subsection (d) of Section
11-74.4-5, and after the State Comptroller's certification
of such compliance. ;
(112) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 28,
2000 by the City of Harvey. ; or
(113) If if the ordinance was adopted on January 11,
1991 by the City of Chicago to create the Read/Dunning TIF
District. ;
(114) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 24, 1991
by the City of Chicago to create the Sanitary and Ship
Canal TIF District. ;
(115) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 4,
2007 by the City of Naperville. ;
(116) If if the ordinance was adopted on July 1, 2002
by the Village of Arlington Heights. ;
(117) If if the ordinance was adopted on February 11,
1991 by the Village of Machesney Park. ;
(118) If if the ordinance was adopted on December 29,
1993 by the City of Ottawa. ; or
(119) If if the ordinance was adopted on June 4, 1991
by the Village of Lansing.
(120) If (119) if the ordinance was adopted on February
10, 2004 by the Village of Fox Lake. ;
(121) If (120) if the ordinance was adopted on December
22, 1992 by the City of Fairfield. ; or
(122) If (121) if the ordinance was adopted on February
10, 1992 by the City of Mt. Sterling.
(123) If (113) if the ordinance was adopted on March
15, 2004 by the City of Batavia.
(124) If (119) if the ordinance was adopted on March
18, 2002 by the Village of Lake Zurich.
(d) For redevelopment project areas for which bonds were
issued before July 29, 1991, or for which contracts were
entered into before June 1, 1988, in connection with a
redevelopment project in the area within the State Sales Tax
Boundary, the estimated dates of completion of the
redevelopment project and retirement of obligations to finance
redevelopment project costs (including refunding bonds under
Section 11-74.4-7) may be extended by municipal ordinance to
December 31, 2013. The termination procedures of subsection (b)
of Section 11-74.4-8 are not required for these redevelopment
project areas in 2009 but are required in 2013. The extension
allowed by Public Act 87-1272 shall not apply to real property
tax increment allocation financing under Section 11-74.4-8.
(e) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax
increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8
only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project
areas that were adopted on or after December 16, 1986 and for
which at least $8 million worth of municipal bonds were
authorized on or after December 19, 1989 but before January 1,
1990; provided that the municipality elects to extend the life
of the redevelopment project area to 35 years by the adoption
of an ordinance after at least 14 but not more than 30 days'
written notice to the taxing bodies, that would otherwise
constitute the joint review board for the redevelopment project
area, before the adoption of the ordinance.
(f) Those dates, for purposes of real property tax
increment allocation financing pursuant to Section 11-74.4-8
only, shall be not more than 35 years for redevelopment project
areas that were established on or after December 1, 1981 but
before January 1, 1982 and for which at least $1,500,000 worth
of tax increment revenue bonds were authorized on or after
September 30, 1990 but before July 1, 1991; provided that the
municipality elects to extend the life of the redevelopment
project area to 35 years by the adoption of an ordinance after
at least 14 but not more than 30 days' written notice to the
taxing bodies, that would otherwise constitute the joint review
board for the redevelopment project area, before the adoption
of the ordinance.
(g) In consolidating the material relating to completion
dates from Sections 11-74.4-3 and 11-74.4-7 into this Section,
it is not the intent of the General Assembly to make any
substantive change in the law, except for the extension of the
completion dates for the City of Aurora, the Village of Milan,
the City of West Frankfort, the Village of Libertyville, and
the Village of Hoffman Estates set forth under items (67),
(68), (69), (70), and (71) of subsection (c) of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-93, eff. 1-1-12; 97-372, eff. 8-15-11; 97-600,
eff. 8-26-11; 97-633, eff. 12-16-11; 97-635, eff. 12-16-11;
97-807, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1114, eff. 8-27-12; 98-109, eff.
7-25-13; 98-135, eff. 8-2-13; 98-230, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff.
8-16-13; 98-614, eff. 12-27-13; 98-667, eff. 6-25-14; 98-889,
eff. 8-15-14; 98-893, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1064, eff. 8-26-14;
98-1136, eff. 12-29-14; 98-1153, eff. 1-9-15; 98-1157, eff.
1-9-15; 98-1159, eff. 1-9-15; revised 2-2-15.)
Section 185. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by
changing Sections 11b and 16.06b as follows:
(70 ILCS 705/11b) (from Ch. 127 1/2, par. 31b)
Sec. 11b. In case any fire protection district organized
hereunder is coterminous with or includes within its corporate
limits in whole or in part any city, village or incorporated
town authorized to provide protection from fire and to regulate
the prevention and control of fire within such city, village or
incorporated town and to levy taxes for any such purposes, then
such city, village or incorporated town shall not exercise any
such powers as necessarily conflict with the powers to be
exercised by such district in respect to such fire protection
and regulation within the fire protection district from and
after the date that it receives written notice from the State
Fire Marshal to cease or refrain from the operation of any fire
protection facilities and the exercise of such powers, which
notice shall be given only after the State Fire Marshal has
ascertained that the Fire Protection District has placed its
fire protection facilities in operation. Such city, village or
incorporated town shall not thereafter own, operate, maintain,
manage, control or have an interest in any fire protection
facilities located within the corporate limits of the fire
protection district, except water mains and hydrants and except
as otherwise provided in this Act. Where any city, village, or
incorporated town with 500 or more mre residents is in fact
owning, operating, and maintaining a fire department or fire
departments located in whole or in part within or adjacent to
the corporate limits of a fire protection district organized
under this Act, such city, village, or incorporated town shall
not cease operating and maintaining the fire department or
departments unless such proposed cessation of services is first
submitted by referendum to voters, as provided by Section 15b
of this Act. In addition, where any city, village, or
incorporated town is in fact owning, operating, and maintaining
a fire department or fire departments located within the
corporate limits of a fire protection district organized under
this Act, such city, village, or incorporated town shall be
paid and reimbursed for its actual expenditures and for all
existing obligations incurred, including all pension and
annuity plans applicable to the maintenance of fire protection
facilities theretofore made in establishing such facilities
and in acquiring, constructing, improving or developing any
such existing facilities in the manner provided for by this
Act. The terms of payment shall provide for reimbursement in
full within not less than 20 years from the date of such
agreement.
(Source: P.A. 98-666, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-1-14.)
(70 ILCS 705/16.06b)
Sec. 16.06b. Original appointments; full-time fire
department.
(a) Applicability. Unless a commission elects to follow the
provisions of Section 16.06c, this Section shall apply to all
original appointments to an affected full-time fire
department. Existing registers of eligibles shall continue to
be valid until their expiration dates, or up to a maximum of 2
years after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
97th General Assembly.
Notwithstanding any statute, ordinance, rule, or other law
to the contrary, all original appointments to an affected
department to which this Section applies shall be administered
in a no less stringent manner than the manner provided for in
this Section. Provisions of the Illinois Municipal Code, Fire
Protection District Act, fire district ordinances, and rules
adopted pursuant to such authority and other laws relating to
initial hiring of firefighters in affected departments shall
continue to apply to the extent they are compatible with this
Section, but in the event of a conflict between this Section
and any other law, this Section shall control.
A fire protection district that is operating under a court
order or consent decree regarding original appointments to a
full-time fire department before the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly is exempt from the
requirements of this Section for the duration of the court
order or consent decree.
(b) Original appointments. All original appointments made
to an affected fire department shall be made from a register of
eligibles established in accordance with the processes
required by this Section. Only persons who meet or exceed the
performance standards required by the Section shall be placed
on a register of eligibles for original appointment to an
affected fire department.
Whenever an appointing authority authorizes action to hire
a person to perform the duties of a firefighter or to hire a
firefighter-paramedic to fill a position that is a new position
or vacancy due to resignation, discharge, promotion, death, the
granting of a disability or retirement pension, or any other
cause, the appointing authority shall appoint to that position
the person with the highest ranking on the final eligibility
list. If the appointing authority has reason to conclude that
the highest ranked person fails to meet the minimum standards
for the position or if the appointing authority believes an
alternate candidate would better serve the needs of the
department, then the appointing authority has the right to pass
over the highest ranked person and appoint either: (i) any
person who has a ranking in the top 5% of the register of
eligibles or (ii) any person who is among the top 5 highest
ranked persons on the list of eligibles if the number of people
who have a ranking in the top 5% of the register of eligibles
is less than 5 people.
Any candidate may pass on an appointment once without
losing his or her position on the register of eligibles. Any
candidate who passes a second time may be removed from the list
by the appointing authority provided that such action shall not
prejudice a person's opportunities to participate in future
examinations, including an examination held during the time a
candidate is already on the fire district's register of
eligibles.
The sole authority to issue certificates of appointment
shall be vested in the board of fire commissioners, or board of
trustees serving in the capacity of a board of fire
commissioners. All certificates of appointment issued to any
officer or member of an affected department shall be signed by
the chairperson and secretary, respectively, of the commission
upon appointment of such officer or member to the affected
department by action of the commission. Each person who accepts
a certificate of appointment and successfully completes his or
her probationary period shall be enrolled as a firefighter and
as a regular member of the fire department.
For the purposes of this Section, "firefighter" means any
person who has been prior to, on, or after the effective date
of this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly appointed
to a fire department or fire protection district or employed by
a State university and sworn or commissioned to perform
firefighter duties or paramedic duties, or both, except that
the following persons are not included: part-time
firefighters; auxiliary, reserve, or voluntary firefighters,
including paid-on-call firefighters; clerks and dispatchers or
other civilian employees of a fire department or fire
protection district who are not routinely expected to perform
firefighter duties; and elected officials.
(c) Qualification for placement on register of eligibles.
The purpose of establishing a register of eligibles is to
identify applicants who possess and demonstrate the mental
aptitude and physical ability to perform the duties required of
members of the fire department in order to provide the highest
quality of service to the public. To this end, all applicants
for original appointment to an affected fire department shall
be subject to examination and testing which shall be public,
competitive, and open to all applicants unless the district
shall by ordinance limit applicants to residents of the
district, county or counties in which the district is located,
State, or nation. Any examination and testing procedure
utilized under subsection (e) of this Section shall be
supported by appropriate validation evidence and shall comply
with all applicable State state and federal laws. Districts may
establish educational, emergency medical service licensure,
and other pre-requisites for participation in an examination or
for hire as a firefighter. Any fire protection district may
charge a fee to cover the costs of the application process.
Residency requirements in effect at the time an individual
enters the fire service of a district cannot be made more
restrictive for that individual during his or her period of
service for that district, or be made a condition of promotion,
except for the rank or position of fire chief and for no more
than 2 positions that rank immediately below that of the chief
rank which are appointed positions pursuant to the Fire
Department Promotion Act.
No person who is 35 years of age or older shall be eligible
to take an examination for a position as a firefighter unless
the person has had previous employment status as a firefighter
in the regularly constituted fire department of the district,
except as provided in this Section. The age limitation does not
apply to:
(1) any person previously employed as a full-time
firefighter in a regularly constituted fire department of
(i) any municipality or fire protection district located in
Illinois, (ii) a fire protection district whose
obligations were assumed by a municipality under Section 21
of the Fire Protection District Act, or (iii) a
municipality whose obligations were taken over by a fire
protection district; , or
(2) any person who has served a fire district as a
regularly enrolled volunteer, paid-on-call, or part-time
firefighter for the 5 years immediately preceding the time
that the district begins to use full-time firefighters to
provide all or part of its fire protection service; or
(3) any person who turned 35 while serving as a member
of the active or reserve components of any of the branches
of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National
Guard of any state, whose service was characterized as
honorable or under honorable, if separated from the
military, and is currently under the age of 40.
No person who is under 21 years of age shall be eligible
for employment as a firefighter.
No applicant shall be examined concerning his or her
political or religious opinions or affiliations. The
examinations shall be conducted by the commissioners of the
district or their designees and agents.
No district shall require that any firefighter appointed to
the lowest rank serve a probationary employment period of
longer than one year of actual active employment, which may
exclude periods of training, or injury or illness leaves,
including duty related leave, in excess of 30 calendar days.
Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this Section, the
probationary employment period limitation may be extended for a
firefighter who is required, as a condition of employment, to
be a licensed paramedic, during which time the sole reason that
a firefighter may be discharged without a hearing is for
failing to meet the requirements for paramedic licensure.
In the event that any applicant who has been found eligible
for appointment and whose name has been placed upon the final
eligibility register provided for in this Section has not been
appointed to a firefighter position within one year after the
date of his or her physical ability examination, the commission
may cause a second examination to be made of that applicant's
physical ability prior to his or her appointment. If, after the
second examination, the physical ability of the applicant shall
be found to be less than the minimum standard fixed by the
rules of the commission, the applicant shall not be appointed.
The applicant's name may be retained upon the register of
candidates eligible for appointment and when next reached for
certification and appointment that applicant may be again
examined as provided in this Section, and if the physical
ability of that applicant is found to be less than the minimum
standard fixed by the rules of the commission, the applicant
shall not be appointed, and the name of the applicant shall be
removed from the register.
(d) Notice, examination, and testing components. Notice of
the time, place, general scope, merit criteria for any
subjective component, and fee of every examination shall be
given by the commission, by a publication at least 2 weeks
preceding the examination: (i) in one or more newspapers
published in the district, or if no newspaper is published
therein, then in one or more newspapers with a general
circulation within the district, or (ii) on the fire protection
district's Internet website. Additional notice of the
examination may be given as the commission shall prescribe.
The examination and qualifying standards for employment of
firefighters shall be based on: mental aptitude, physical
ability, preferences, moral character, and health. The mental
aptitude, physical ability, and preference components shall
determine an applicant's qualification for and placement on the
final register of eligibles. The examination may also include a
subjective component based on merit criteria as determined by
the commission. Scores from the examination must be made
available to the public.
(e) Mental aptitude. No person who does not possess at
least a high school diploma or an equivalent high school
education shall be placed on a register of eligibles.
Examination of an applicant's mental aptitude shall be based
upon a written examination. The examination shall be practical
in character and relate to those matters that fairly test the
capacity of the persons examined to discharge the duties
performed by members of a fire department. Written examinations
shall be administered in a manner that ensures the security and
accuracy of the scores achieved.
(f) Physical ability. All candidates shall be required to
undergo an examination of their physical ability to perform the
essential functions included in the duties they may be called
upon to perform as a member of a fire department. For the
purposes of this Section, essential functions of the job are
functions associated with duties that a firefighter may be
called upon to perform in response to emergency calls. The
frequency of the occurrence of those duties as part of the fire
department's regular routine shall not be a controlling factor
in the design of examination criteria or evolutions selected
for testing. These physical examinations shall be open,
competitive, and based on industry standards designed to test
each applicant's physical abilities in the following
dimensions:
(1) Muscular strength to perform tasks and evolutions
that may be required in the performance of duties including
grip strength, leg strength, and arm strength. Tests shall
be conducted under anaerobic as well as aerobic conditions
to test both the candidate's speed and endurance in
performing tasks and evolutions. Tasks tested may be based
on standards developed, or approved, by the local
appointing authority.
(2) The ability to climb ladders, operate from heights,
walk or crawl in the dark along narrow and uneven surfaces,
and operate in proximity to hazardous environments.
(3) The ability to carry out critical, time-sensitive,
and complex problem solving during physical exertion in
stressful and hazardous environments. The testing
environment may be hot and dark with tightly enclosed
spaces, flashing lights, sirens, and other distractions.
The tests utilized to measure each applicant's
capabilities in each of these dimensions may be tests based on
industry standards currently in use or equivalent tests
approved by the Joint Labor-Management Committee of the Office
of the State Fire Marshal.
Physical ability examinations administered under this
Section shall be conducted with a reasonable number of proctors
and monitors, open to the public, and subject to reasonable
regulations of the commission.
(g) Scoring of examination components. Appointing
authorities may create a preliminary eligibility register. A
person shall be placed on the list based upon his or her
passage of the written examination or the passage of the
written examination and the physical ability component.
Passage of the written examination means attaining the minimum
score set by the commission. Minimum scores should be set by
the appointing authorities so as to demonstrate a candidate's
ability to perform the essential functions of the job. The
minimum score set by the commission shall be supported by
appropriate validation evidence and shall comply with all
applicable State state and federal laws. The appointing
authority may conduct the physical ability component and any
subjective components subsequent to the posting of the
preliminary eligibility register.
The examination components for an initial eligibility
register shall be graded on a 100-point scale. A person's
position on the list shall be determined by the following: (i)
the person's score on the written examination, (ii) the person
successfully passing the physical ability component, and (iii)
the person's results on any subjective component as described
in subsection (d).
In order to qualify for placement on the final eligibility
register, an applicant's score on the written examination,
before any applicable preference points or subjective points
are applied, shall be at or above the minimum score set by the
commission. The local appointing authority may prescribe the
score to qualify for placement on the final eligibility
register, but the score shall not be less than the minimum
score set by the commission.
The commission shall prepare and keep a register of persons
whose total score is not less than the minimum score for
passage and who have passed the physical ability examination.
These persons shall take rank upon the register as candidates
in the order of their relative excellence based on the highest
to the lowest total points scored on the mental aptitude,
subjective component, and preference components of the test
administered in accordance with this Section. No more than 60
days after each examination, an initial eligibility list shall
be posted by the commission. The list shall include the final
grades of the candidates without reference to priority of the
time of examination and subject to claim for preference credit.
Commissions may conduct additional examinations, including
without limitation a polygraph test, after a final eligibility
register is established and before it expires with the
candidates ranked by total score without regard to date of
examination. No more than 60 days after each examination, an
initial eligibility list shall be posted by the commission
showing the final grades of the candidates without reference to
priority of time of examination and subject to claim for
preference credit.
(h) Preferences. The following are preferences:
(1) Veteran preference. Persons who were engaged in the
military service of the United States for a period of at
least one year of active duty and who were honorably
discharged therefrom, or who are now or have been members
on inactive or reserve duty in such military or naval
service, shall be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department of an affected
department.
(2) Fire cadet preference. Persons who have
successfully completed 2 years of study in fire techniques
or cadet training within a cadet program established under
the rules of the Joint Labor and Management Committee
(JLMC), as defined in Section 50 of the Fire Department
Promotion Act, may be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department.
(3) Educational preference. Persons who have
successfully obtained an associate's degree in the field of
fire service or emergency medical services, or a bachelor's
degree from an accredited college or university may be
preferred for appointment to and employment with the fire
department.
(4) Paramedic preference. Persons who have obtained a
license as a paramedic may be preferred for appointment to
and employment with the fire department of an affected
department providing emergency medical services.
(5) Experience preference. All persons employed by a
district who have been paid-on-call or part-time certified
Firefighter II, certified Firefighter III, State of
Illinois or nationally licensed EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or
paramedic, or any combination of those capacities may be
awarded up to a maximum of 5 points. However, the applicant
may not be awarded more than 0.5 points for each complete
year of paid-on-call or part-time service. Applicants from
outside the district who were employed as full-time
firefighters or firefighter-paramedics by a fire
protection district or municipality for at least 2 years
may be awarded up to 5 experience preference points.
However, the applicant may not be awarded more than one
point for each complete year of full-time service.
Upon request by the commission, the governing body of
the district or in the case of applicants from outside the
district the governing body of any other fire protection
district or any municipality shall certify to the
commission, within 10 days after the request, the number of
years of successful paid-on-call, part-time, or full-time
service of any person. A candidate may not receive the full
amount of preference points under this subsection if the
amount of points awarded would place the candidate before a
veteran on the eligibility list. If more than one candidate
receiving experience preference points is prevented from
receiving all of their points due to not being allowed to
pass a veteran, the candidates shall be placed on the list
below the veteran in rank order based on the totals
received if all points under this subsection were to be
awarded. Any remaining ties on the list shall be determined
by lot.
(6) Residency preference. Applicants whose principal
residence is located within the fire department's
jurisdiction may be preferred for appointment to and
employment with the fire department.
(7) Additional preferences. Up to 5 additional
preference points may be awarded for unique categories
based on an applicant's experience or background as
identified by the commission.
(8) Scoring of preferences. The commission shall give
preference for original appointment to persons designated
in item (1) by adding to the final grade that they receive
5 points for the recognized preference achieved. The
commission shall determine the number of preference points
for each category except (1). The number of preference
points for each category shall range from 0 to 5. In
determining the number of preference points, the
commission shall prescribe that if a candidate earns the
maximum number of preference points in all categories, that
number may not be less than 10 nor more than 30. The
commission shall give preference for original appointment
to persons designated in items (2) through (7) by adding
the requisite number of points to the final grade for each
recognized preference achieved. The numerical result thus
attained shall be applied by the commission in determining
the final eligibility list and appointment from the
eligibility list. The local appointing authority may
prescribe the total number of preference points awarded
under this Section, but the total number of preference
points shall not be less than 10 points or more than 30
points.
No person entitled to any preference shall be required to
claim the credit before any examination held under the
provisions of this Section, but the preference shall be given
after the posting or publication of the initial eligibility
list or register at the request of a person entitled to a
credit before any certification or appointments are made from
the eligibility register, upon the furnishing of verifiable
evidence and proof of qualifying preference credit. Candidates
who are eligible for preference credit shall make a claim in
writing within 10 days after the posting of the initial
eligibility list, or the claim shall be deemed waived. Final
eligibility registers shall be established after the awarding
of verified preference points. All employment shall be subject
to the commission's initial hire background review including,
but not limited to, criminal history, employment history, moral
character, oral examination, and medical and psychological
examinations, all on a pass-fail basis. The medical and
psychological examinations must be conducted last, and may only
be performed after a conditional offer of employment has been
extended.
Any person placed on an eligibility list who exceeds the
age requirement before being appointed to a fire department
shall remain eligible for appointment until the list is
abolished, or his or her name has been on the list for a period
of 2 years. No person who has attained the age of 35 years
shall be inducted into a fire department, except as otherwise
provided in this Section.
The commission shall strike off the names of candidates for
original appointment after the names have been on the list for
more than 2 years.
(i) Moral character. No person shall be appointed to a fire
department unless he or she is a person of good character; not
a habitual drunkard, a gambler, or a person who has been
convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude.
However, no person shall be disqualified from appointment to
the fire department because of the person's record of
misdemeanor convictions except those under Sections 11-6,
11-7, 11-9, 11-14, 11-15, 11-17, 11-18, 11-19, 12-2, 12-6,
12-15, 14-4, 16-1, 21.1-3, 24-3.1, 24-5, 25-1, 28-3, 31-1,
31-4, 31-6, 31-7, 32-1, 32-2, 32-3, 32-4, 32-8, and subsections
1, 6, and 8 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, or arrest for any cause without
conviction thereon. Any such person who is in the department
may be removed on charges brought for violating this subsection
and after a trial as hereinafter provided.
A classifiable set of the fingerprints of every person who
is offered employment as a certificated member of an affected
fire department whether with or without compensation, shall be
furnished to the Illinois Department of State Police and to the
Federal Bureau of Investigation by the commission.
Whenever a commission is authorized or required by law to
consider some aspect of criminal history record information for
the purpose of carrying out its statutory powers and
responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of fees in
conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400 of the
State Police Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois,
the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish,
pursuant to positive identification, the information contained
in State files as is necessary to fulfill the request.
(j) Temporary appointments. In order to prevent a stoppage
of public business, to meet extraordinary exigencies, or to
prevent material impairment of the fire department, the
commission may make temporary appointments, to remain in force
only until regular appointments are made under the provisions
of this Section, but never to exceed 60 days. No temporary
appointment of any one person shall be made more than twice in
any calendar year.
(k) A person who knowingly divulges or receives test
questions or answers before a written examination, or otherwise
knowingly violates or subverts any requirement of this Section,
commits a violation of this Section and may be subject to
charges for official misconduct.
A person who is the knowing recipient of test information
in advance of the examination shall be disqualified from the
examination or discharged from the position to which he or she
was appointed, as applicable, and otherwise subjected to
disciplinary actions.
(Source: P.A. 97-251, eff. 8-4-11; 97-898, eff. 8-6-12;
97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-760, eff. 7-16-14; 98-973, eff.
8-15-14; 98-995, eff. 8-18-14; revised 10-2-14.)
Section 190. The School Code is amended by changing
Sections 2-3.25g, 3-15.12, 14-7.02, 19-1, 24-12, 27-23.7,
27A-4, 27A-5, 27A-6, 27A-7, 27A-11, 30-14.2, and 34-85 and by
setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section
2-3.160 as follows:
(105 ILCS 5/2-3.25g) (from Ch. 122, par. 2-3.25g)
Sec. 2-3.25g. Waiver or modification of mandates within the
School Code and administrative rules and regulations.
(a) In this Section:
"Board" means a school board or the governing board or
administrative district, as the case may be, for a joint
agreement.
"Eligible applicant" means a school district, joint
agreement made up of school districts, or regional
superintendent of schools on behalf of schools and programs
operated by the regional office of education.
"Implementation date" has the meaning set forth in
Section 24A-2.5 of this Code.
"State Board" means the State Board of Education.
(b) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this School
Code or any other law of this State to the contrary, eligible
applicants may petition the State Board of Education for the
waiver or modification of the mandates of this School Code or
of the administrative rules and regulations promulgated by the
State Board of Education. Waivers or modifications of
administrative rules and regulations and modifications of
mandates of this School Code may be requested when an eligible
applicant demonstrates that it can address the intent of the
rule or mandate in a more effective, efficient, or economical
manner or when necessary to stimulate innovation or improve
student performance. Waivers of mandates of the School Code may
be requested when the waivers are necessary to stimulate
innovation or improve student performance. Waivers may not be
requested from laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to
special education, teacher educator licensure, teacher tenure
and seniority, or Section 5-2.1 of this Code or from compliance
with the No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (Public Law 107-110).
Eligible applicants may not seek a waiver or seek a
modification of a mandate regarding the requirements for (i)
student performance data to be a significant factor in teacher
or principal evaluations or (ii) for teachers and principals to
be rated using the 4 categories of "excellent", "proficient",
"needs improvement", or "unsatisfactory". On September 1,
2014, any previously authorized waiver or modification from
such requirements shall terminate.
(c) Eligible applicants, as a matter of inherent managerial
policy, and any Independent Authority established under
Section 2-3.25f-5 of this Code may submit an application for a
waiver or modification authorized under this Section. Each
application must include a written request by the eligible
applicant or Independent Authority and must demonstrate that
the intent of the mandate can be addressed in a more effective,
efficient, or economical manner or be based upon a specific
plan for improved student performance and school improvement.
Any eligible applicant requesting a waiver or modification for
the reason that intent of the mandate can be addressed in a
more economical manner shall include in the application a
fiscal analysis showing current expenditures on the mandate and
projected savings resulting from the waiver or modification.
Applications and plans developed by eligible applicants must be
approved by the board or regional superintendent of schools
applying on behalf of schools or programs operated by the
regional office of education following a public hearing on the
application and plan and the opportunity for the board or
regional superintendent to hear testimony from staff directly
involved in its implementation, parents, and students. The time
period for such testimony shall be separate from the time
period established by the eligible applicant for public comment
on other matters. If the applicant is a school district or
joint agreement requesting a waiver or modification of Section
27-6 of this Code, the public hearing shall be held on a day
other than the day on which a regular meeting of the board is
held.
(c-5) If the applicant is a school district, then the
district shall post information that sets forth the time, date,
place, and general subject matter of the public hearing on its
Internet website at least 14 days prior to the hearing. If the
district is requesting to increase the fee charged for driver
education authorized pursuant to Section 27-24.2 of this Code,
the website information shall include the proposed amount of
the fee the district will request. All school districts must
publish a notice of the public hearing at least 7 days prior to
the hearing in a newspaper of general circulation within the
school district that sets forth the time, date, place, and
general subject matter of the hearing. Districts requesting to
increase the fee charged for driver education shall include in
the published notice the proposed amount of the fee the
district will request. If the applicant is a joint agreement or
regional superintendent, then the joint agreement or regional
superintendent shall post information that sets forth the time,
date, place, and general subject matter of the public hearing
on its Internet website at least 14 days prior to the hearing.
If the joint agreement or regional superintendent is requesting
to increase the fee charged for driver education authorized
pursuant to Section 27-24.2 of this Code, the website
information shall include the proposed amount of the fee the
applicant will request. All joint agreements and regional
superintendents must publish a notice of the public hearing at
least 7 days prior to the hearing in a newspaper of general
circulation in each school district that is a member of the
joint agreement or that is served by the educational service
region that sets forth the time, date, place, and general
subject matter of the hearing, provided that a notice appearing
in a newspaper generally circulated in more than one school
district shall be deemed to fulfill this requirement with
respect to all of the affected districts. Joint agreements or
regional superintendents requesting to increase the fee
charged for driver education shall include in the published
notice the proposed amount of the fee the applicant will
request. The eligible applicant must notify in writing the
affected exclusive collective bargaining agent and those State
legislators representing the eligible applicant's territory of
its intent to seek approval of a waiver or modification and of
the hearing to be held to take testimony from staff. The
affected exclusive collective bargaining agents shall be
notified of such public hearing at least 7 days prior to the
date of the hearing and shall be allowed to attend such public
hearing. The eligible applicant shall attest to compliance with
all of the notification and procedural requirements set forth
in this Section.
(d) A request for a waiver or modification of
administrative rules and regulations or for a modification of
mandates contained in this School Code shall be submitted to
the State Board of Education within 15 days after approval by
the board or regional superintendent of schools. The
application as submitted to the State Board of Education shall
include a description of the public hearing. Except with
respect to contracting for adaptive driver education, an
eligible applicant wishing to request a modification or waiver
of administrative rules of the State Board of Education
regarding contracting with a commercial driver training school
to provide the course of study authorized under Section 27-24.2
of this Code must provide evidence with its application that
the commercial driver training school with which it will
contract holds a license issued by the Secretary of State under
Article IV of Chapter 6 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and that
each instructor employed by the commercial driver training
school to provide instruction to students served by the school
district holds a valid teaching certificate or teaching
license, as applicable, issued under the requirements of this
Code and rules of the State Board of Education. Such evidence
must include, but need not be limited to, a list of each
instructor assigned to teach students served by the school
district, which list shall include the instructor's name,
personal identification number as required by the State Board
of Education, birth date, and driver's license number. If the
modification or waiver is granted, then the eligible applicant
shall notify the State Board of Education of any changes in the
personnel providing instruction within 15 calendar days after
an instructor leaves the program or a new instructor is hired.
Such notification shall include the instructor's name,
personal identification number as required by the State Board
of Education, birth date, and driver's license number. If a
school district maintains an Internet website, then the
district shall post a copy of the final contract between the
district and the commercial driver training school on the
district's Internet website. If no Internet website exists,
then the district shall make available the contract upon
request. A record of all materials in relation to the
application for contracting must be maintained by the school
district and made available to parents and guardians upon
request. The instructor's date of birth and driver's license
number and any other personally identifying information as
deemed by the federal Driver's Privacy Protection Act of 1994
must be redacted from any public materials. Following receipt
of the waiver or modification request, the State Board shall
have 45 days to review the application and request. If the
State Board fails to disapprove the application within that 45
day period, the waiver or modification shall be deemed granted.
The State Board may disapprove any request if it is not based
upon sound educational practices, endangers the health or
safety of students or staff, compromises equal opportunities
for learning, or fails to demonstrate that the intent of the
rule or mandate can be addressed in a more effective,
efficient, or economical manner or have improved student
performance as a primary goal. Any request disapproved by the
State Board may be appealed to the General Assembly by the
eligible applicant as outlined in this Section.
A request for a waiver from mandates contained in this
School Code shall be submitted to the State Board within 15
days after approval by the board or regional superintendent of
schools. The application as submitted to the State Board of
Education shall include a description of the public hearing.
The description shall include, but need not be limited to, the
means of notice, the number of people in attendance, the number
of people who spoke as proponents or opponents of the waiver, a
brief description of their comments, and whether there were any
written statements submitted. The State Board shall review the
applications and requests for completeness and shall compile
the requests in reports to be filed with the General Assembly.
The State Board shall file reports outlining the waivers
requested by eligible applicants and appeals by eligible
applicants of requests disapproved by the State Board with the
Senate and the House of Representatives before each March 1 and
October 1. The General Assembly may disapprove the report of
the State Board in whole or in part within 60 calendar days
after each house of the General Assembly next convenes after
the report is filed by adoption of a resolution by a record
vote of the majority of members elected in each house. If the
General Assembly fails to disapprove any waiver request or
appealed request within such 60 day period, the waiver or
modification shall be deemed granted. Any resolution adopted by
the General Assembly disapproving a report of the State Board
in whole or in part shall be binding on the State Board.
(e) An approved waiver or modification (except a waiver
from or modification to a physical education mandate) may
remain in effect for a period not to exceed 5 school years and
may be renewed upon application by the eligible applicant.
However, such waiver or modification may be changed within that
5-year period by a board or regional superintendent of schools
applying on behalf of schools or programs operated by the
regional office of education following the procedure as set
forth in this Section for the initial waiver or modification
request. If neither the State Board of Education nor the
General Assembly disapproves, the change is deemed granted.
An approved waiver from or modification to a physical
education mandate may remain in effect for a period not to
exceed 2 school years and may be renewed no more than 2 times
upon application by the eligible applicant. An approved waiver
from or modification to a physical education mandate may be
changed within the 2-year period by the board or regional
superintendent of schools, whichever is applicable, following
the procedure set forth in this Section for the initial waiver
or modification request. If neither the State Board of
Education nor the General Assembly disapproves, the change is
deemed granted.
(f) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 97-1025, eff. 1-1-13; 98-513, eff. 1-1-14;
98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1155, eff. 1-9-15; revised 2-1-15.)
(105 ILCS 5/2-3.160)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2015)
Sec. 2-3.160. School Security and Standards Task Force.
(a) The School Security and Standards Task Force is created
within the State Board of Education to study the security of
schools in this State, make recommendations, and draft minimum
standards for use by schools to make them more secure and to
provide a safer learning environment for the children of this
State. The Task Force shall consist of all of the following
members:
(1) One member of the public who is a parent and one
member of the Senate, appointed by the President of the
Senate.
(2) One member of the public who is a parent and one
member of the Senate, appointed by the Minority Leader of
the Senate.
(3) One member of the public who is a parent and one
member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the
Speaker of the House of Representatives.
(4) One member of the public who is a parent and one
member of the House of Representatives, appointed by the
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.
(5) A representative from the State Board of Education,
appointed by the Chairperson of the State Board of
Education.
(6) A representative from the Department of State
Police, appointed by the Director of State Police.
(7) A representative from an association representing
Illinois sheriffs, appointed by the Governor.
(8) A representative from an association representing
Illinois chiefs of police, appointed by the Governor.
(9) A representative from an association representing
Illinois firefighters, appointed by the Governor.
(10) A representative from an association representing
Illinois regional superintendents of schools, appointed by
the Governor.
(11) A representative from an association representing
Illinois principals, appointed by the Governor.
(12) A representative from an association representing
Illinois school boards, appointed by the Governor.
(13) A representative from the security consulting
profession, appointed by the Governor.
(14) An architect or engineer who specializes in
security issues, appointed by the Governor.
Members of the Task Force appointed by the Governor must be
individuals who have knowledge, experience, and expertise in
the field of security or who have worked within the school
system. The appointment of members by the Governor must reflect
the geographic diversity of this State.
Members of the Task Force shall serve without compensation
and shall not be reimbursed for their expenses.
(b) The Task Force shall meet initially at the call of the
State Superintendent of Education. At this initial meeting, the
Task Force shall elect a member as presiding officer of the
Task Force by a majority vote of the membership of the Task
Force. Thereafter, the Task Force shall meet at the call of the
presiding officer.
(c) The State Board of Education shall provide
administrative and other support to the Task Force.
(d) The Task Force shall make recommendations for minimum
standards for security for the schools in this State. In making
those recommendations, the Task Force shall do all of the
following:
(1) Gather information concerning security in schools
as it presently exists.
(2) Receive reports and testimony from individuals,
school district superintendents, principals, teachers,
security experts, architects, engineers, and the law
enforcement community.
(3) Create minimum standards for securing schools.
(4) Give consideration to securing the physical
structures, security staffing recommendations,
communications, security equipment, alarms, video and
audio monitoring, school policies, egress and ingress,
security plans, emergency exits and escape, and any other
areas of security that the Task Force deems appropriate for
securing schools.
(5) Create a model security plan policy.
(6) Suggest possible funding recommendations for
schools to access for use in implementing enhanced security
measures.
(7) On or before January 1, 2015, submit a report to
the General Assembly and the Governor on specific
recommendations for changes to the current law or other
legislative measures.
(8) On or before January 1, 2015, submit a report to
the State Board of Education on specific recommendations
for model security plan policies for schools to access and
use as a guideline. This report is exempt from inspection
and copying under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information
Act.
The Task Force's recommendations may include proposals for
specific statutory changes and methods to foster cooperation
among State agencies and between this State and local
government.
(e) The Task Force is abolished and this Section is
repealed on July 1, 2015.
(Source: P.A. 98-695, eff. 7-3-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/2-3.161)
Sec. 2-3.161 2-3.160. Definition of dyslexia in rules;
reading instruction advisory group.
(a) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules that
incorporate an international definition of dyslexia into Part
226 of Title 23 of the Illinois Administrative Code.
(b) Subject to specific State appropriation or the
availability of private donations, the State Board of Education
shall establish an advisory group to develop a training module
or training modules to provide education and professional
development to teachers, school administrators, and other
education professionals regarding multi-sensory, systematic,
and sequential instruction in reading. This advisory group
shall complete its work before July 31, 2015 and is abolished
on July 31, 2015.
(Source: P.A. 98-705, eff. 7-14-14; revised 10-14-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/2-3.162)
Sec. 2-3.162 2-3.160. Student discipline report; school
discipline improvement plan.
(a) On or before October 31, 2015 and on or before October
31 of each subsequent year, the State Board of Education,
through the State Superintendent of Education, shall prepare a
report on student discipline in all school districts in this
State, including State-authorized charter schools. This report
shall include data from all public schools within school
districts, including district-authorized charter schools. This
report must be posted on the Internet website of the State
Board of Education. The report shall include data on the
issuance of out-of-school suspensions, expulsions, and
removals to alternative settings in lieu of another
disciplinary action, disaggregated by race and ethnicity,
gender, age, grade level, limited English proficiency,
incident type, and discipline duration.
(b) The State Board of Education shall analyze the data
under subsection (a) of this Section on an annual basis and
determine the top 20% of school districts for the following
metrics:
(1) Total number of out-of-school suspensions divided
by the total district enrollment by the last school day in
September for the year in which the data was collected,
multiplied by 100.
(2) Total number of out-of-school expulsions divided
by the total district enrollment by the last school day in
September for the year in which the data was collected,
multiplied by 100.
(3) Racial disproportionality, defined as the
overrepresentation of students of color or white students
in comparison to the total number of students of color or
white students on October 1st of the school year in which
data are collected, with respect to the use of
out-of-school suspensions and expulsions, which must be
calculated using the same method as the U.S. Department of
Education's Office for Civil Rights uses.
The analysis must be based on data collected over 3
consecutive school years, beginning with the 2014-2015 school
year.
Beginning with the 2017-2018 school year, the State Board
of Education shall require each of the school districts that
are identified in the top 20% of any of the metrics described
in this subsection (b) for 3 consecutive years to submit a plan
identifying the strategies the school district will implement
to reduce the use of exclusionary disciplinary practices or
racial disproportionality or both, if applicable. School
districts that no longer meet the criteria described in any of
the metrics described in this subsection (b) for 3 consecutive
years shall no longer be required to submit a plan.
This plan may be combined with any other improvement plans
required under federal or State law.
The calculation of the top 20% of any of the metrics
described in this subsection (b) shall exclude all school
districts, State-authorized charter schools, and special
charter districts that issued fewer than a total of 10
out-of-school suspensions or expulsions, whichever is
applicable, during the school year. The calculation of the top
20% of metric described in subdivision (3) of this subsection
(b) shall exclude all school districts with an enrollment of
fewer than 50 white students or fewer than 50 students of
color.
The plan must be approved at a public school board meeting
and posted on the school district's Internet website. Within
one year after being identified, the school district shall
submit to the State Board of Education and post on the
district's Internet website a progress report describing the
implementation of the plan and the results achieved.
(Source: P.A. 98-1102, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-14-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/3-15.12) (from Ch. 122, par. 3-15.12)
Sec. 3-15.12. High school equivalency testing program. The
regional superintendent of schools shall make available for
qualified individuals residing within the region a High School
Equivalency Testing Program. For that purpose the regional
superintendent alone or with other regional superintendents
may establish and supervise a testing center or centers to
administer the secure forms for high school equivalency testing
to qualified persons. Such centers shall be under the
supervision of the regional superintendent in whose region such
centers are located, subject to the approval of the Executive
Director of the Illinois Community College Board.
An individual is eligible to apply to the regional
superintendent of schools for the region in which he or she
resides if he or she is: (a) a person who is 17 years of age or
older, has maintained residence in the State of Illinois, and
is not a high school graduate; (b) a person who is successfully
completing an alternative education program under Section
2-3.81, Article 13A, or Article 13B; or (c) a person who is
enrolled in a youth education program sponsored by the Illinois
National Guard. For purposes of this Section, residence is that
abode which the applicant considers his or her home. Applicants
may provide as sufficient proof of such residence and as an
acceptable form of identification a driver's license, valid
passport, military ID, or other form of government-issued
national or foreign identification that shows the applicant's
name, address, date of birth, signature, and photograph or
other acceptable identification as may be allowed by law or as
regulated by the Illinois Community College Board. Such
regional superintendent shall determine if the applicant meets
statutory and regulatory state standards. If qualified the
applicant shall at the time of such application pay a fee
established by the Illinois Community College Board, which fee
shall be paid into a special fund under the control and
supervision of the regional superintendent. Such moneys
received by the regional superintendent shall be used, first,
for the expenses incurred in administering and scoring the
examination, and next for other educational programs that are
developed and designed by the regional superintendent of
schools to assist those who successfully complete high school
equivalency testing in furthering their academic development
or their ability to secure and retain gainful employment,
including programs for the competitive award based on test
scores of college or adult education scholarship grants or
similar educational incentives. Any excess moneys shall be paid
into the institute fund.
Any applicant who has achieved the minimum passing
standards as established by the Illinois Community College
Board shall be notified in writing by the regional
superintendent and shall be issued a high school equivalency
certificate on the forms provided by the Illinois Community
College Board. The regional superintendent shall then certify
to the Illinois Community College Board the score of the
applicant and such other and additional information that may be
required by the Illinois Community College Board. The moneys
received therefrom shall be used in the same manner as provided
for in this Section.
Any applicant who has attained the age of 17 years and
maintained residence in the State of Illinois and is not a high
school graduate, any person who has enrolled in a youth
education program sponsored by the Illinois National Guard, or
any person who has successfully completed an alternative
education program under Section 2-3.81, Article 13A, or Article
13B is eligible to apply for a high school equivalency
certificate (if he or she meets the requirements prescribed by
the Illinois Community College Board) upon showing evidence
that he or she has completed, successfully, high school
equivalency testing, administered by the United States Armed
Forces Institute, official high school equivalency testing
centers established in other states, Veterans' Administration
Hospitals, or the office of the State Superintendent of
Education for the Illinois State Penitentiary System and the
Department of Corrections. Such applicant shall apply to the
regional superintendent of the region wherein he or she has
maintained residence, and, upon payment of a fee established by
the Illinois Community College Board, the regional
superintendent shall issue a high school equivalency
certificate and immediately thereafter certify to the Illinois
Community College Board the score of the applicant and such
other and additional information as may be required by the
Illinois Community College Board.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this Section, any
applicant who has been out of school for at least one year may
request the regional superintendent of schools to administer
restricted high school equivalency testing upon written
request of: the director of a program who certifies to the
Chief Examiner of an official high school equivalency testing
center that the applicant has completed a program of
instruction provided by such agencies as the Job Corps, the
Postal Service Academy, or an apprenticeship training program;
an employer or program director for purposes of entry into
apprenticeship programs; another state's department of
education in order to meet regulations established by that
department of education; or a post high school educational
institution for purposes of admission, the Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation for licensing purposes,
or the Armed Forces for induction purposes. The regional
superintendent shall administer such testing, and the
applicant shall be notified in writing that he or she is
eligible to receive a high school equivalency certificate upon
reaching age 17, provided he or she meets the standards
established by the Illinois Community College Board.
Any test administered under this Section to an applicant
who does not speak and understand English may at the discretion
of the administering agency be given and answered in any
language in which the test is printed. The regional
superintendent of schools may waive any fees required by this
Section in case of hardship.
In counties of over 3,000,000 population, a high school
equivalency certificate shall contain the signatures of the
Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board and ;
the superintendent, president, or other chief executive
officer of the institution where high school equivalency
testing instruction occurred,; and any other signatures
authorized by the Illinois Community College Board.
The regional superintendent of schools shall furnish the
Illinois Community College Board with any information that the
Illinois Community College Board requests with regard to
testing and certificates under this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-719, eff. 1-1-15; revised
10-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/14-7.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 14-7.02)
Sec. 14-7.02. Children attending private schools, public
out-of-state schools, public school residential facilities or
private special education facilities. The General Assembly
recognizes that non-public schools or special education
facilities provide an important service in the educational
system in Illinois.
If because of his or her disability the special education
program of a district is unable to meet the needs of a child
and the child attends a non-public school or special education
facility, a public out-of-state school or a special education
facility owned and operated by a county government unit that
provides special educational services required by the child and
is in compliance with the appropriate rules and regulations of
the State Superintendent of Education, the school district in
which the child is a resident shall pay the actual cost of
tuition for special education and related services provided
during the regular school term and during the summer school
term if the child's educational needs so require, excluding
room, board and transportation costs charged the child by that
non-public school or special education facility, public
out-of-state school or county special education facility, or
$4,500 per year, whichever is less, and shall provide him any
necessary transportation. "Nonpublic special education
facility" shall include a residential facility, within or
without the State of Illinois, which provides special education
and related services to meet the needs of the child by
utilizing private schools or public schools, whether located on
the site or off the site of the residential facility.
The State Board of Education shall promulgate rules and
regulations for determining when placement in a private special
education facility is appropriate. Such rules and regulations
shall take into account the various types of services needed by
a child and the availability of such services to the particular
child in the public school. In developing these rules and
regulations the State Board of Education shall consult with the
Advisory Council on Education of Children with Disabilities and
hold public hearings to secure recommendations from parents,
school personnel, and others concerned about this matter.
The State Board of Education shall also promulgate rules
and regulations for transportation to and from a residential
school. Transportation to and from home to a residential school
more than once each school term shall be subject to prior
approval by the State Superintendent in accordance with the
rules and regulations of the State Board.
A school district making tuition payments pursuant to this
Section is eligible for reimbursement from the State for the
amount of such payments actually made in excess of the district
per capita tuition charge for students not receiving special
education services. Such reimbursement shall be approved in
accordance with Section 14-12.01 and each district shall file
its claims, computed in accordance with rules prescribed by the
State Board of Education, on forms prescribed by the State
Superintendent of Education. Data used as a basis of
reimbursement claims shall be for the preceding regular school
term and summer school term. Each school district shall
transmit its claims to the State Board of Education on or
before August 15. The State Board of Education, before
approving any such claims, shall determine their accuracy and
whether they are based upon services and facilities provided
under approved programs. Upon approval the State Board shall
cause vouchers to be prepared showing the amount due for
payment of reimbursement claims to school districts, for
transmittal to the State Comptroller on the 30th day of
September, December, and March, respectively, and the final
voucher, no later than June 20. If the money appropriated by
the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is
insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the
claims approved.
No child shall be placed in a special education program
pursuant to this Section if the tuition cost for special
education and related services increases more than 10 percent
over the tuition cost for the previous school year or exceeds
$4,500 per year unless such costs have been approved by the
Illinois Purchased Care Review Board. The Illinois Purchased
Care Review Board shall consist of the following persons, or
their designees: the Directors of Children and Family Services,
Public Health, Public Aid, and the Governor's Office of
Management and Budget; the Secretary of Human Services; the
State Superintendent of Education; and such other persons as
the Governor may designate. The Review Board shall also consist
of one non-voting member who is an administrator of a private,
nonpublic, special education school. The Review Board shall
establish rules and regulations for its determination of
allowable costs and payments made by local school districts for
special education, room and board, and other related services
provided by non-public schools or special education facilities
and shall establish uniform standards and criteria which it
shall follow. The Review Board shall approve the usual and
customary rate or rates of a special education program that (i)
is offered by an out-of-state, non-public provider of
integrated autism specific educational and autism specific
residential services, (ii) offers 2 or more levels of
residential care, including at least one locked facility, and
(iii) serves 12 or fewer Illinois students.
The Review Board shall establish uniform definitions and
criteria for accounting separately by special education, room
and board and other related services costs. The Board shall
also establish guidelines for the coordination of services and
financial assistance provided by all State agencies to assure
that no otherwise qualified disabled child receiving services
under Article 14 shall be excluded from participation in, be
denied the benefits of or be subjected to discrimination under
any program or activity provided by any State agency.
The Review Board shall review the costs for special
education and related services provided by non-public schools
or special education facilities and shall approve or disapprove
such facilities in accordance with the rules and regulations
established by it with respect to allowable costs.
The State Board of Education shall provide administrative
and staff support for the Review Board as deemed reasonable by
the State Superintendent of Education. This support shall not
include travel expenses or other compensation for any Review
Board member other than the State Superintendent of Education.
The Review Board shall seek the advice of the Advisory
Council on Education of Children with Disabilities on the rules
and regulations to be promulgated by it relative to providing
special education services.
If a child has been placed in a program in which the actual
per pupil costs of tuition for special education and related
services based on program enrollment, excluding room, board and
transportation costs, exceed $4,500 and such costs have been
approved by the Review Board, the district shall pay such total
costs which exceed $4,500. A district making such tuition
payments in excess of $4,500 pursuant to this Section shall be
responsible for an amount in excess of $4,500 equal to the
district per capita tuition charge and shall be eligible for
reimbursement from the State for the amount of such payments
actually made in excess of the districts per capita tuition
charge for students not receiving special education services.
If a child has been placed in an approved individual
program and the tuition costs including room and board costs
have been approved by the Review Board, then such room and
board costs shall be paid by the appropriate State agency
subject to the provisions of Section 14-8.01 of this Act. Room
and board costs not provided by a State agency other than the
State Board of Education shall be provided by the State Board
of Education on a current basis. In no event, however, shall
the State's liability for funding of these tuition costs begin
until after the legal obligations of third party payors have
been subtracted from such costs. If the money appropriated by
the General Assembly for such purpose for any year is
insufficient, it shall be apportioned on the basis of the
claims approved. Each district shall submit estimated claims to
the State Superintendent of Education. Upon approval of such
claims, the State Superintendent of Education shall direct the
State Comptroller to make payments on a monthly basis. The
frequency for submitting estimated claims and the method of
determining payment shall be prescribed in rules and
regulations adopted by the State Board of Education. Such
current state reimbursement shall be reduced by an amount equal
to the proceeds which the child or child's parents are eligible
to receive under any public or private insurance or assistance
program. Nothing in this Section shall be construed as
relieving an insurer or similar third party from an otherwise
valid obligation to provide or to pay for services provided to
a disabled child.
If it otherwise qualifies, a school district is eligible
for the transportation reimbursement under Section 14-13.01
and for the reimbursement of tuition payments under this
Section whether the non-public school or special education
facility, public out-of-state school or county special
education facility, attended by a child who resides in that
district and requires special educational services, is within
or outside of the State of Illinois. However, a district is not
eligible to claim transportation reimbursement under this
Section unless the district certifies to the State
Superintendent of Education that the district is unable to
provide special educational services required by the child for
the current school year.
Nothing in this Section authorizes the reimbursement of a
school district for the amount paid for tuition of a child
attending a non-public school or special education facility,
public out-of-state school or county special education
facility unless the school district certifies to the State
Superintendent of Education that the special education program
of that district is unable to meet the needs of that child
because of his disability and the State Superintendent of
Education finds that the school district is in substantial
compliance with Section 14-4.01. However, if a child is
unilaterally placed by a State agency or any court in a
non-public school or special education facility, public
out-of-state school, or county special education facility, a
school district shall not be required to certify to the State
Superintendent of Education, for the purpose of tuition
reimbursement, that the special education program of that
district is unable to meet the needs of a child because of his
or her disability.
Any educational or related services provided, pursuant to
this Section in a non-public school or special education
facility or a special education facility owned and operated by
a county government unit shall be at no cost to the parent or
guardian of the child. However, current law and practices
relative to contributions by parents or guardians for costs
other than educational or related services are not affected by
this amendatory Act of 1978.
Reimbursement for children attending public school
residential facilities shall be made in accordance with the
provisions of this Section.
Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any school
district receiving a payment under this Section or under
Section 14-7.02b, 14-13.01, or 29-5 of this Code may classify
all or a portion of the funds that it receives in a particular
fiscal year or from general State aid pursuant to Section
18-8.05 of this Code as funds received in connection with any
funding program for which it is entitled to receive funds from
the State in that fiscal year (including, without limitation,
any funding program referenced in this Section), regardless of
the source or timing of the receipt. The district may not
classify more funds as funds received in connection with the
funding program than the district is entitled to receive in
that fiscal year for that program. Any classification by a
district must be made by a resolution of its board of
education. The resolution must identify the amount of any
payments or general State aid to be classified under this
paragraph and must specify the funding program to which the
funds are to be treated as received in connection therewith.
This resolution is controlling as to the classification of
funds referenced therein. A certified copy of the resolution
must be sent to the State Superintendent of Education. The
resolution shall still take effect even though a copy of the
resolution has not been sent to the State Superintendent of
Education in a timely manner. No classification under this
paragraph by a district shall affect the total amount or timing
of money the district is entitled to receive under this Code.
No classification under this paragraph by a district shall in
any way relieve the district from or affect any requirements
that otherwise would apply with respect to that funding
program, including any accounting of funds by source, reporting
expenditures by original source and purpose, reporting
requirements, or requirements of providing services.
(Source: P.A. 98-636, eff. 6-6-14; 98-1008, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 10-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/19-1)
Sec. 19-1. Debt limitations of school districts.
(a) School districts shall not be subject to the provisions
limiting their indebtedness prescribed in "An Act to limit the
indebtedness of counties having a population of less than
500,000 and townships, school districts and other municipal
corporations having a population of less than 300,000",
approved February 15, 1928, as amended.
No school districts maintaining grades K through 8 or 9
through 12 shall become indebted in any manner or for any
purpose to an amount, including existing indebtedness, in the
aggregate exceeding 6.9% on the value of the taxable property
therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and
county taxes or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum
that is produced by multiplying the school district's 1978
equalized assessed valuation by the debt limitation percentage
in effect on January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such
indebtedness.
No school districts maintaining grades K through 12 shall
become indebted in any manner or for any purpose to an amount,
including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding
13.8% on the value of the taxable property therein to be
ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes
or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced
by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed
valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on
January 1, 1979, previous to the incurring of such
indebtedness.
No partial elementary unit district, as defined in Article
11E of this Code, shall become indebted in any manner or for
any purpose in an amount, including existing indebtedness, in
the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of the taxable
property of the entire district, to be ascertained by the last
assessment for State and county taxes, plus an amount,
including existing indebtedness, in the aggregate exceeding
6.9% of the value of the taxable property of that portion of
the district included in the elementary and high school
classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for
State and county taxes. Moreover, no partial elementary unit
district, as defined in Article 11E of this Code, shall become
indebted on account of bonds issued by the district for high
school purposes in the aggregate exceeding 6.9% of the value of
the taxable property of the entire district, to be ascertained
by the last assessment for State and county taxes, nor shall
the district become indebted on account of bonds issued by the
district for elementary purposes in the aggregate exceeding
6.9% of the value of the taxable property for that portion of
the district included in the elementary and high school
classification, to be ascertained by the last assessment for
State and county taxes.
Notwithstanding the provisions of any other law to the
contrary, in any case in which the voters of a school district
have approved a proposition for the issuance of bonds of such
school district at an election held prior to January 1, 1979,
and all of the bonds approved at such election have not been
issued, the debt limitation applicable to such school district
during the calendar year 1979 shall be computed by multiplying
the value of taxable property therein, including personal
property, as ascertained by the last assessment for State and
county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness,
by the percentage limitation applicable to such school district
under the provisions of this subsection (a).
(b) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in
subsection (a) of this Section, additional indebtedness may be
incurred in an amount not to exceed the estimated cost of
acquiring or improving school sites or constructing and
equipping additional building facilities under the following
conditions:
(1) Whenever the enrollment of students for the next
school year is estimated by the board of education to
increase over the actual present enrollment by not less
than 35% or by not less than 200 students or the actual
present enrollment of students has increased over the
previous school year by not less than 35% or by not less
than 200 students and the board of education determines
that additional school sites or building facilities are
required as a result of such increase in enrollment; and
(2) When the Regional Superintendent of Schools having
jurisdiction over the school district and the State
Superintendent of Education concur in such enrollment
projection or increase and approve the need for such
additional school sites or building facilities and the
estimated cost thereof; and
(3) When the voters in the school district approve a
proposition for the issuance of bonds for the purpose of
acquiring or improving such needed school sites or
constructing and equipping such needed additional building
facilities at an election called and held for that purpose.
Notice of such an election shall state that the amount of
indebtedness proposed to be incurred would exceed the debt
limitation otherwise applicable to the school district.
The ballot for such proposition shall state what percentage
of the equalized assessed valuation will be outstanding in
bonds if the proposed issuance of bonds is approved by the
voters; or
(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1)
through (3) of this subsection (b), if the school board
determines that additional facilities are needed to
provide a quality educational program and not less than 2/3
of those voting in an election called by the school board
on the question approve the issuance of bonds for the
construction of such facilities, the school district may
issue bonds for this purpose; or
(5) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (1)
through (3) of this subsection (b), if (i) the school
district has previously availed itself of the provisions of
paragraph (4) of this subsection (b) to enable it to issue
bonds, (ii) the voters of the school district have not
defeated a proposition for the issuance of bonds since the
referendum described in paragraph (4) of this subsection
(b) was held, (iii) the school board determines that
additional facilities are needed to provide a quality
educational program, and (iv) a majority of those voting in
an election called by the school board on the question
approve the issuance of bonds for the construction of such
facilities, the school district may issue bonds for this
purpose.
In no event shall the indebtedness incurred pursuant to
this subsection (b) and the existing indebtedness of the school
district exceed 15% of the value of the taxable property
therein to be ascertained by the last assessment for State and
county taxes, previous to the incurring of such indebtedness
or, until January 1, 1983, if greater, the sum that is produced
by multiplying the school district's 1978 equalized assessed
valuation by the debt limitation percentage in effect on
January 1, 1979.
The indebtedness provided for by this subsection (b) shall
be in addition to and in excess of any other debt limitation.
(c) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in
subsection (a) of this Section, in any case in which a public
question for the issuance of bonds of a proposed school
district maintaining grades kindergarten through 12 received
at least 60% of the valid ballots cast on the question at an
election held on or prior to November 8, 1994, and in which the
bonds approved at such election have not been issued, the
school district pursuant to the requirements of Section 11A-10
(now repealed) may issue the total amount of bonds approved at
such election for the purpose stated in the question.
(d) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in
subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets
all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this
subsection (d) may incur an additional indebtedness in an
amount not to exceed $4,500,000, even though the amount of the
additional indebtedness authorized by this subsection (d),
when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of indebtedness
of the district existing immediately prior to the district
incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by this
subsection (d), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the
district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable to
that district under subsection (a):
(1) The additional indebtedness authorized by this
subsection (d) is incurred by the school district through
the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with Section
17-2.11a for the purpose of replacing a school building
which, because of mine subsidence damage, has been closed
as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection (d) or
through the issuance of bonds under and in accordance with
Section 19-3 for the purpose of increasing the size of, or
providing for additional functions in, such replacement
school buildings, or both such purposes.
(2) The bonds issued by the school district as provided
in paragraph (1) above are issued for the purposes of
construction by the school district of a new school
building pursuant to Section 17-2.11, to replace an
existing school building that, because of mine subsidence
damage, is closed as of the end of the 1992-93 school year
pursuant to action of the regional superintendent of
schools of the educational service region in which the
district is located under Section 3-14.22 or are issued for
the purpose of increasing the size of, or providing for
additional functions in, the new school building being
constructed to replace a school building closed as the
result of mine subsidence damage, or both such purposes.
(e) (Blank).
(f) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section or of any other law, bonds in not to exceed the
aggregate amount of $5,500,000 and issued by a school district
meeting the following criteria shall not be considered
indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation and may
be issued in an amount or amounts, including existing
indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter imposed
statutory limitation as to indebtedness:
(1) At the time of the sale of such bonds, the board of
education of the district shall have determined by
resolution that the enrollment of students in the district
is projected to increase by not less than 7% during each of
the next succeeding 2 school years.
(2) The board of education shall also determine by
resolution that the improvements to be financed with the
proceeds of the bonds are needed because of the projected
enrollment increases.
(3) The board of education shall also determine by
resolution that the projected increases in enrollment are
the result of improvements made or expected to be made to
passenger rail facilities located in the school district.
Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this
Section or of any other law, a school district that has availed
itself of the provisions of this subsection (f) prior to July
22, 2004 (the effective date of Public Act 93-799) may also
issue bonds approved by referendum up to an amount, including
existing indebtedness, not exceeding 25% of the equalized
assessed value of the taxable property in the district if all
of the conditions set forth in items (1), (2), and (3) of this
subsection (f) are met.
(g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section or any other law, bonds in not to exceed an
aggregate amount of 25% of the equalized assessed value of the
taxable property of a school district and issued by a school
district meeting the criteria in paragraphs (i) through (iv) of
this subsection shall not be considered indebtedness for
purposes of any statutory limitation and may be issued pursuant
to resolution of the school board in an amount or amounts,
including existing indebtedness, in excess of any statutory
limitation of indebtedness heretofore or hereafter imposed:
(i) The bonds are issued for the purpose of
constructing a new high school building to replace two
adjacent existing buildings which together house a single
high school, each of which is more than 65 years old, and
which together are located on more than 10 acres and less
than 11 acres of property.
(ii) At the time the resolution authorizing the
issuance of the bonds is adopted, the cost of constructing
a new school building to replace the existing school
building is less than 60% of the cost of repairing the
existing school building.
(iii) The sale of the bonds occurs before July 1, 1997.
(iv) The school district issuing the bonds is a unit
school district located in a county of less than 70,000 and
more than 50,000 inhabitants, which has an average daily
attendance of less than 1,500 and an equalized assessed
valuation of less than $29,000,000.
(h) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or
the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a
community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12
may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing
indebtedness, not exceeding 27.6% of the equalized assessed
value of the taxable property in the district, if all of the
following conditions are met:
(i) The school district has an equalized assessed
valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $24,000,000;
(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement,
renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing
school buildings of the district, all of which buildings
were originally constructed not less than 40 years ago;
(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after
March 19, 1996; and
(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of this Code.
(i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or
the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1998, a
community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12
may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing
indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value
of the taxable property in the district, if all of the
following conditions are met:
(i) The school district has an equalized assessed
valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $44,600,000;
(ii) The bonds are issued for the capital improvement,
renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of existing
school buildings of the district, all of which existing
buildings were originally constructed not less than 80
years ago;
(iii) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after
December 31, 1996; and
(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of this Code.
(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or
the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, a
community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12
may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing
indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the equalized assessed value
of the taxable property in the district if all of the following
conditions are met:
(i) The school district has an equalized assessed
valuation for calendar year 1995 of less than $140,000,000
and a best 3 months average daily attendance for the
1995-96 school year of at least 2,800;
(ii) The bonds are issued to purchase a site and build
and equip a new high school, and the school district's
existing high school was originally constructed not less
than 35 years prior to the sale of the bonds;
(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board
of education determines by resolution that a new high
school is needed because of projected enrollment
increases;
(iv) At least 60% of those voting in an election held
after December 31, 1996 approve a proposition for the
issuance of the bonds; and
(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of this Code.
(k) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in
subsection (a) of this Section, a school district that meets
all the criteria set forth in paragraphs (1) through (4) of
this subsection (k) may issue bonds to incur an additional
indebtedness in an amount not to exceed $4,000,000 even though
the amount of the additional indebtedness authorized by this
subsection (k), when incurred and added to the aggregate amount
of indebtedness of the school district existing immediately
prior to the school district incurring such additional
indebtedness, causes the aggregate indebtedness of the school
district to exceed or increases the amount by which the
aggregate indebtedness of the district already exceeds the debt
limitation otherwise applicable to that school district under
subsection (a):
(1) the school district is located in 2 counties, and a
referendum to authorize the additional indebtedness was
approved by a majority of the voters of the school district
voting on the proposition to authorize that indebtedness;
(2) the additional indebtedness is for the purpose of
financing a multi-purpose room addition to the existing
high school;
(3) the additional indebtedness, together with the
existing indebtedness of the school district, shall not
exceed 17.4% of the value of the taxable property in the
school district, to be ascertained by the last assessment
for State and county taxes; and
(4) the bonds evidencing the additional indebtedness
are issued, if at all, within 120 days of the effective
date of this amendatory Act of 1998.
(l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or
the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 2000, a
school district maintaining grades kindergarten through 8 may
issue bonds up to an amount, including existing indebtedness,
not exceeding 15% of the equalized assessed value of the
taxable property in the district if all of the following
conditions are met:
(i) the district has an equalized assessed valuation
for calendar year 1996 of less than $10,000,000;
(ii) the bonds are issued for capital improvement,
renovation, rehabilitation, or replacement of one or more
school buildings of the district, which buildings were
originally constructed not less than 70 years ago;
(iii) the voters of the district approve a proposition
for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held on or
after March 17, 1998; and
(iv) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of this Code.
(m) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or
the provisions of any other law, until January 1, 1999, an
elementary school district maintaining grades K through 8 may
issue bonds up to an amount, excluding existing indebtedness,
not exceeding 18% of the equalized assessed value of the
taxable property in the district, if all of the following
conditions are met:
(i) The school district has an equalized assessed
valuation for calendar year 1995 or less than $7,700,000;
(ii) The school district operates 2 elementary
attendance centers that until 1976 were operated as the
attendance centers of 2 separate and distinct school
districts;
(iii) The bonds are issued for the construction of a
new elementary school building to replace an existing
multi-level elementary school building of the school
district that is not handicapped accessible at all levels
and parts of which were constructed more than 75 years ago;
(iv) The voters of the school district approve a
proposition for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum
held after July 1, 1998; and
(v) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of this Code.
(n) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in
subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this
Section or of any other law, a school district that meets all
of the criteria set forth in paragraphs (i) through (vi) of
this subsection (n) may incur additional indebtedness by the
issuance of bonds in an amount not exceeding the amount
certified by the Capital Development Board to the school
district as provided in paragraph (iii) of this subsection (n),
even though the amount of the additional indebtedness so
authorized, when incurred and added to the aggregate amount of
indebtedness of the district existing immediately prior to the
district incurring the additional indebtedness authorized by
this subsection (n), causes the aggregate indebtedness of the
district to exceed the debt limitation otherwise applicable by
law to that district:
(i) The school district applies to the State Board of
Education for a school construction project grant and
submits a district facilities plan in support of its
application pursuant to Section 5-20 of the School
Construction Law.
(ii) The school district's application and facilities
plan are approved by, and the district receives a grant
entitlement for a school construction project issued by,
the State Board of Education under the School Construction
Law.
(iii) The school district has exhausted its bonding
capacity or the unused bonding capacity of the district is
less than the amount certified by the Capital Development
Board to the district under Section 5-15 of the School
Construction Law as the dollar amount of the school
construction project's cost that the district will be
required to finance with non-grant funds in order to
receive a school construction project grant under the
School Construction Law.
(iv) The bonds are issued for a "school construction
project", as that term is defined in Section 5-5 of the
School Construction Law, in an amount that does not exceed
the dollar amount certified, as provided in paragraph (iii)
of this subsection (n), by the Capital Development Board to
the school district under Section 5-15 of the School
Construction Law.
(v) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the issuance of the bonds at a referendum held after
the criteria specified in paragraphs (i) and (iii) of this
subsection (n) are met.
(vi) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of the School Code.
(o) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or
the provisions of any other law, until November 1, 2007, a
community unit school district maintaining grades K through 12
may issue bonds up to an amount, including existing
indebtedness, not exceeding 20% of the equalized assessed value
of the taxable property in the district if all of the following
conditions are met:
(i) the school district has an equalized assessed
valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $737,000,000
and an enrollment for the 2002-2003 school year of at least
8,500;
(ii) the bonds are issued to purchase school sites,
build and equip a new high school, build and equip a new
junior high school, build and equip 5 new elementary
schools, and make technology and other improvements and
additions to existing schools;
(iii) at the time of the sale of the bonds, the board
of education determines by resolution that the sites and
new or improved facilities are needed because of projected
enrollment increases;
(iv) at least 57% of those voting in a general election
held prior to January 1, 2003 approved a proposition for
the issuance of the bonds; and
(v) the bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of this Code.
(p) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section or
the provisions of any other law, a community unit school
district maintaining grades K through 12 may issue bonds up to
an amount, including indebtedness, not exceeding 27% of the
equalized assessed value of the taxable property in the
district if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The school district has an equalized assessed
valuation for calendar year 2001 of at least $295,741,187
and a best 3 months' average daily attendance for the
2002-2003 school year of at least 2,394.
(ii) The bonds are issued to build and equip 3
elementary school buildings; build and equip one middle
school building; and alter, repair, improve, and equip all
existing school buildings in the district.
(iii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the board
of education determines by resolution that the project is
needed because of expanding growth in the school district
and a projected enrollment increase.
(iv) The bonds are issued pursuant to Sections 19-2
through 19-7 of this Code.
(p-5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section
or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a community
unit school district maintaining grades K through 12 shall not
be considered indebtedness for purposes of any statutory
limitation and may be issued in an amount or amounts, including
existing indebtedness, in excess of any heretofore or hereafter
imposed statutory limitation as to indebtedness, if all of the
following conditions are met:
(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential
property comprises more than 80% of the equalized assessed
valuation of the district.
(ii) At least 2 school buildings that were constructed
40 or more years prior to the issuance of the bonds will be
demolished and will be replaced by new buildings or
additions to one or more existing buildings.
(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for
the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled
election.
(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines by resolution that the new buildings or
building additions are needed because of an increase in
enrollment projected by the school board.
(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including
existing indebtedness, does not exceed 25% of the equalized
assessed value of the taxable property in the district.
(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007,
pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.
(p-10) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this
Section or the provisions of any other law, bonds issued by a
community consolidated school district maintaining grades K
through 8 shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of
any statutory limitation and may be issued in an amount or
amounts, including existing indebtedness, in excess of any
heretofore or hereafter imposed statutory limitation as to
indebtedness, if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) For each of the 4 most recent years, residential
and farm property comprises more than 80% of the equalized
assessed valuation of the district.
(ii) The bond proceeds are to be used to acquire and
improve school sites and build and equip a school building.
(iii) Voters of the district approve a proposition for
the issuance of the bonds at a regularly scheduled
election.
(iv) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines by resolution that the school sites and
building additions are needed because of an increase in
enrollment projected by the school board.
(v) The principal amount of the bonds, including
existing indebtedness, does not exceed 20% of the equalized
assessed value of the taxable property in the district.
(vi) The bonds are issued prior to January 1, 2007,
pursuant to Sections 19-2 through 19-7 of this Code.
(p-15) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
the Oswego Community Unit School District Number 308 may issue
bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed
$450,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are
met:
(i) The voters of the district have approved a
proposition for the bond issue at the general election held
on November 7, 2006.
(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and
equipping of the new high school building, new junior high
school buildings, new elementary school buildings, early
childhood building, maintenance building, transportation
facility, and additions to existing school buildings, the
altering, repairing, equipping, and provision of
technology improvements to existing school buildings, and
the acquisition and improvement of school sites, as the
case may be, are required as a result of a projected
increase in the enrollment of students in the district; and
(B) the sale of bonds for these purposes is authorized by
legislation that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds
from the district's statutory debt limitation.
(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues,
on or before November 7, 2011, but the aggregate principal
amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not
exceed $450,000,000.
(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article 19.
(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to
accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the
general election held on November 7, 2006.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-15) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-20) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
the Lincoln-Way Community High School District Number 210 may
issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed
$225,000,000, but only if all of the following conditions are
met:
(i) The voters of the district have approved a
proposition for the bond issue at the general primary
election held on March 21, 2006.
(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and
equipping of the new high school buildings, the altering,
repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings, and
the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are
required as a result of a projected increase in the
enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of
bonds for these purposes is authorized by legislation that
exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's
statutory debt limitation.
(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues,
on or before March 21, 2011, but the aggregate principal
amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not
exceed $225,000,000.
(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article 19.
(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used only to
accomplish those projects approved by the voters at the
primary election held on March 21, 2006.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-20) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-25) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Rochester Community Unit School District 3A may issue bonds
with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $18,500,000,
but only if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at the general primary election held
in 2008.
(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that: (A) the building and
equipping of a new high school building; the addition of
classrooms and support facilities at the high school,
middle school, and elementary school; the altering,
repairing, and equipping of existing school buildings; and
the improvement of school sites, as the case may be, are
required as a result of a projected increase in the
enrollment of students in the district; and (B) the sale of
bonds for these purposes is authorized by a law that
exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's
statutory debt limitation.
(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond issues,
on or before December 31, 2012, but the aggregate principal
amount issued in all such bond issues combined must not
exceed $18,500,000.
(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article 19.
(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at the primary
election held in 2008.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-25) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-30) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Prairie Grove Consolidated School District 46 may issue bonds
with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $30,000,000,
but only if all of the following conditions are met:
(i) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held in 2008.
(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (A) the building and
equipping of a new school building and additions to
existing school buildings are required as a result of a
projected increase in the enrollment of students in the
district and (B) the altering, repairing, and equipping of
existing school buildings are required because of the age
of the existing school buildings.
(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond
issuances, on or before December 31, 2012; however, the
aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond
issuances combined must not exceed $30,000,000.
(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held in 2008.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-30) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-35) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Prairie Hill Community Consolidated School District 133 may
issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed
$13,900,000, but only if all of the following conditions are
met:
(i) The voters of the district approved a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held on April 17,
2007.
(ii) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (A) the improvement
of the site of and the building and equipping of a school
building are required as a result of a projected increase
in the enrollment of students in the district and (B) the
repairing and equipping of the Prairie Hill Elementary
School building is required because of the age of that
school building.
(iii) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond
issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the
aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond
issuances combined must not exceed $13,900,000.
(iv) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(v) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held on April 17, 2007.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-35) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-40) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Mascoutah Community Unit District 19 may issue bonds with an
aggregate principal amount not to exceed $55,000,000, but only
if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at a regular election held on or
after November 4, 2008.
(2) At the time of the sale of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and
equipping of a new high school building is required as a
result of a projected increase in the enrollment of
students in the district and the age and condition of the
existing high school building, (ii) the existing high
school building will be demolished, and (iii) the sale of
bonds is authorized by statute that exempts the debt
incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt
limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond
issuances, on or before December 31, 2011, but the
aggregate principal amount issued in all such bond
issuances combined must not exceed $55,000,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at a regular
election held on or after November 4, 2008.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-40) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-45) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to
Section 19-3.5 of this Code shall not be considered
indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the
bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing
indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 18.5% of
the value of the taxable property in the district to be
ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.
(p-50) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of
this Section or of any other law, bonds issued pursuant to
Section 19-3.10 of this Code shall not be considered
indebtedness for purposes of any statutory limitation if the
bonds are issued in an amount or amounts, including existing
indebtedness of the school district, not in excess of 43% of
the value of the taxable property in the district to be
ascertained by the last assessment for State and county taxes.
(p-55) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Belle Valley School District 119 may issue bonds with an
aggregate principal amount not to exceed $47,500,000, but only
if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April
7, 2009.
(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and
equipping of a new school building is required as a result
of mine subsidence in an existing school building and
because of the age and condition of another existing school
building and (ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by
statute that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from
the district's statutory debt limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond
issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate
principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined
must not exceed $47,500,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held on or after April 7, 2009.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-55) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection
(p-55) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their
date, notwithstanding any other law to the contrary.
(p-60) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Wilmington Community Unit School District Number 209-U may
issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed
$2,285,000, but only if all of the following conditions are
met:
(1) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at the general
primary election held on March 21, 2006.
(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (i) the projects
approved by the voters were and are required because of the
age and condition of the school district's prior and
existing school buildings and (ii) the issuance of the
bonds is authorized by legislation that exempts the debt
incurred on the bonds from the district's statutory debt
limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued in one or more bond issuances
on or before March 1, 2011, but the aggregate principal
amount issued in all those bond issuances combined must not
exceed $2,285,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-60) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-65) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
West Washington County Community Unit School District 10 may
issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed
$32,200,000 and maturing over a period not exceeding 25 years,
but only if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held on or after
February 2, 2010.
(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (A) all or a portion
of the existing Okawville Junior/Senior High School
Building will be demolished; (B) the building and equipping
of a new school building to be attached to and the
alteration, repair, and equipping of the remaining portion
of the Okawville Junior/Senior High School Building is
required because of the age and current condition of that
school building; and (C) the issuance of bonds is
authorized by a statute that exempts the debt incurred on
the bonds from the district's statutory debt limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond
issuances, on or before March 31, 2014, but the aggregate
principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined
must not exceed $32,200,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held on or after February 2, 2010.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-65) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-70) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Cahokia Community Unit School District 187 may issue bonds with
an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000, but
only if all the following conditions are met:
(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held on or after
November 2, 2010.
(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and
equipping of a new school building is required as a result
of the age and condition of an existing school building and
(ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that
exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's
statutory debt limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on
or before July 1, 2016, but the aggregate principal amount
issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed
$50,000,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held on or after November 2, 2010.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-70) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection
(p-70) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their
date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of
this Code, to the contrary.
(p-75) Notwithstanding the debt limitation prescribed in
subsection (a) of this Section or any other provisions of this
Section or of any other law, the execution of leases on or
after January 1, 2007 and before July 1, 2011 by the Board of
Education of Peoria School District 150 with a public building
commission for leases entered into pursuant to the Public
Building Commission Act shall not be considered indebtedness
for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.
This subsection (p-75) applies only if the State Board of
Education or the Capital Development Board makes one or more
grants to Peoria School District 150 pursuant to the School
Construction Law. The amount exempted from the debt limitation
as prescribed in this subsection (p-75) shall be no greater
than the amount of one or more grants awarded to Peoria School
District 150 by the State Board of Education or the Capital
Development Board.
(p-80) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Ridgeland School District 122 may issue bonds with an aggregate
principal amount not to exceed $50,000,000 for the purpose of
refunding or continuing to refund bonds originally issued
pursuant to voter approval at the general election held on
November 7, 2000, and the debt incurred on any bonds issued
under this subsection (p-80) shall not be considered
indebtedness for purposes of any statutory debt limitation.
Bonds issued under this subsection (p-80) may be issued in one
or more issuances and must mature within not to exceed 25 years
from their date, notwithstanding any other law, including
Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.
(p-85) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Hall High School District 502 may issue bonds with an aggregate
principal amount not to exceed $32,000,000, but only if all the
following conditions are met:
(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held on or after April
9, 2013.
(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and
equipping of a new school building is required as a result
of the age and condition of an existing school building,
(ii) the existing school building should be demolished in
its entirety or the existing school building should be
demolished except for the 1914 west wing of the building,
and (iii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute
that exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the
district's statutory debt limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, not
later than 5 years after the date of the referendum
approving the issuance of the bonds, but the aggregate
principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined
must not exceed $32,000,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held on or after April 9, 2013.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-85) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection
(p-85) must mature within not to exceed 30 years from their
date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of
this Code, to the contrary.
(p-90) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Lebanon Community Unit School District 9 may issue bonds with
an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $7,500,000, but
only if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The voters of the district approved a proposition
for the bond issuance at the general primary election on
February 2, 2010.
(2) At or prior to the time of the sale of the bonds,
the school board determines, by resolution, that (i) the
building and equipping of a new elementary school building
is required as a result of a projected increase in the
enrollment of students in the district and the age and
condition of the existing Lebanon Elementary School
building, (ii) a portion of the existing Lebanon Elementary
School building will be demolished and the remaining
portion will be altered, repaired, and equipped, and (iii)
the sale of bonds is authorized by a statute that exempts
the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's
statutory debt limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more bond
issuances, on or before April 1, 2014, but the aggregate
principal amount issued in all such bond issuances combined
must not exceed $7,500,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at the general
primary election held on February 2, 2010.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-90) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation.
(p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue bonds,
Monticello Community Unit School District 25 may issue bonds
with an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $35,000,000,
but only if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held on or after
November 4, 2014.
(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and
equipping of a new school building is required as a result
of the age and condition of an existing school building and
(ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that
exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's
statutory debt limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on
or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount
issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed
$35,000,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held on or after November 4, 2014.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for purposes of any
statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under this subsection
(p-95) must mature within not to exceed 25 years from their
date, notwithstanding any other law, including Section 19-3 of
this Code, to the contrary.
(p-100) (p-95) In addition to all other authority to issue
bonds, the community unit school district created in the
territory comprising Milford Community Consolidated School
District 280 and Milford Township High School District 233, as
approved at the general primary election held on March 18,
2014, may issue bonds with an aggregate principal amount not to
exceed $17,500,000, but only if all the following conditions
are met:
(1) The voters of the district approve a proposition
for the bond issuance at an election held on or after
November 4, 2014.
(2) Prior to the issuance of the bonds, the school
board determines, by resolution, that (i) the building and
equipping of a new school building is required as a result
of the age and condition of an existing school building and
(ii) the issuance of bonds is authorized by a statute that
exempts the debt incurred on the bonds from the district's
statutory debt limitation.
(3) The bonds are issued, in one or more issuances, on
or before July 1, 2020, but the aggregate principal amount
issued in all such bond issuances combined must not exceed
$17,500,000.
(4) The bonds are issued in accordance with this
Article.
(5) The proceeds of the bonds are used to accomplish
only those projects approved by the voters at an election
held on or after November 4, 2014.
The debt incurred on any bonds issued under this subsection
(p-100) (p-95) shall not be considered indebtedness for
purposes of any statutory debt limitation. Bonds issued under
this subsection (p-100) (p-95) must mature within not to exceed
25 years from their date, notwithstanding any other law,
including Section 19-3 of this Code, to the contrary.
(q) A school district must notify the State Board of
Education prior to issuing any form of long-term or short-term
debt that will result in outstanding debt that exceeds 75% of
the debt limit specified in this Section or any other provision
of law.
(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-834, eff. 7-20-12;
97-1146, eff. 1-18-13; 98-617, eff. 1-7-14; 98-912, eff.
8-15-14; 98-916, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/24-12) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-12)
Sec. 24-12. Removal or dismissal of teachers in contractual
continued service.
(a) This subsection (a) applies only to honorable
dismissals and recalls in which the notice of dismissal is
provided on or before the end of the 2010-2011 school term. If
a teacher in contractual continued service is removed or
dismissed as a result of a decision of the board to decrease
the number of teachers employed by the board or to discontinue
some particular type of teaching service, written notice shall
be mailed to the teacher and also given the teacher either by
certified mail, return receipt requested or personal delivery
with receipt at least 60 days before the end of the school
term, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the
reason therefor, and in all such cases the board shall first
remove or dismiss all teachers who have not entered upon
contractual continued service before removing or dismissing
any teacher who has entered upon contractual continued service
and who is legally qualified to hold a position currently held
by a teacher who has not entered upon contractual continued
service.
As between teachers who have entered upon contractual
continued service, the teacher or teachers with the shorter
length of continuing service with the district shall be
dismissed first unless an alternative method of determining the
sequence of dismissal is established in a collective bargaining
agreement or contract between the board and a professional
faculty members' organization and except that this provision
shall not impair the operation of any affirmative action
program in the district, regardless of whether it exists by
operation of law or is conducted on a voluntary basis by the
board. Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or
discontinuance shall be paid all earned compensation on or
before the third business day following the last day of pupil
attendance in the regular school term.
If the board has any vacancies for the following school
term or within one calendar year from the beginning of the
following school term, the positions thereby becoming
available shall be tendered to the teachers so removed or
dismissed so far as they are legally qualified to hold such
positions; provided, however, that if the number of honorable
dismissal notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of
the number of full time equivalent positions filled by
certified employees (excluding principals and administrative
personnel) during the preceding school year, then if the board
has any vacancies for the following school term or within 2
calendar years from the beginning of the following school term,
the positions so becoming available shall be tendered to the
teachers who were so notified and removed or dismissed whenever
they are legally qualified to hold such positions. Each board
shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee
representatives, each year establish a list, categorized by
positions, showing the length of continuing service of each
teacher who is qualified to hold any such positions, unless an
alternative method of determining a sequence of dismissal is
established as provided for in this Section, in which case a
list shall be made in accordance with the alternative method.
Copies of the list shall be distributed to the exclusive
employee representative on or before February 1 of each year.
Whenever the number of honorable dismissal notices based upon
economic necessity exceeds 5, or 150% of the average number of
teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years,
whichever is more, then the board also shall hold a public
hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the
hearing and board review the action to approve any such
reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.
(b) This subsection (b) applies only to honorable
dismissals and recalls in which the notice of dismissal is
provided during the 2011-2012 school term or a subsequent
school term. If any teacher, whether or not in contractual
continued service, is removed or dismissed as a result of a
decision of a school board to decrease the number of teachers
employed by the board, a decision of a school board to
discontinue some particular type of teaching service, or a
reduction in the number of programs or positions in a special
education joint agreement, then written notice must be mailed
to the teacher and also given to the teacher either by
certified mail, return receipt requested, or personal delivery
with receipt at least 45 days before the end of the school
term, together with a statement of honorable dismissal and the
reason therefor, and in all such cases the sequence of
dismissal shall occur in accordance with this subsection (b);
except that this subsection (b) shall not impair the operation
of any affirmative action program in the school district,
regardless of whether it exists by operation of law or is
conducted on a voluntary basis by the board.
Each teacher must be categorized into one or more positions
for which the teacher is qualified to hold, based upon legal
qualifications and any other qualifications established in a
district or joint agreement job description, on or before the
May 10 prior to the school year during which the sequence of
dismissal is determined. Within each position and subject to
agreements made by the joint committee on honorable dismissals
that are authorized by subsection (c) of this Section, the
school district or joint agreement must establish 4 groupings
of teachers qualified to hold the position as follows:
(1) Grouping one shall consist of each teacher who is
not in contractual continued service and who (i) has not
received a performance evaluation rating, (ii) is employed
for one school term or less to replace a teacher on leave,
or (iii) is employed on a part-time basis. "Part-time
basis" for the purposes of this subsection (b) means a
teacher who is employed to teach less than a full-day,
teacher workload or less than 5 days of the normal student
attendance week, unless otherwise provided for in a
collective bargaining agreement between the district and
the exclusive representative of the district's teachers.
For the purposes of this Section, a teacher (A) who is
employed as a full-time teacher but who actually teaches or
is otherwise present and participating in the district's
educational program for less than a school term or (B) who,
in the immediately previous school term, was employed on a
full-time basis and actually taught or was otherwise
present and participated in the district's educational
program for 120 days or more is not considered employed on
a part-time basis.
(2) Grouping 2 shall consist of each teacher with a
Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance evaluation
rating on either of the teacher's last 2 performance
evaluation ratings.
(3) Grouping 3 shall consist of each teacher with a
performance evaluation rating of at least Satisfactory or
Proficient on both of the teacher's last 2 performance
evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are available, or on the
teacher's last performance evaluation rating, if only one
rating is available, unless the teacher qualifies for
placement into grouping 4.
(4) Grouping 4 shall consist of each teacher whose last
2 performance evaluation ratings are Excellent and each
teacher with 2 Excellent performance evaluation ratings
out of the teacher's last 3 performance evaluation ratings
with a third rating of Satisfactory or Proficient.
Among teachers qualified to hold a position, teachers must
be dismissed in the order of their groupings, with teachers in
grouping one dismissed first and teachers in grouping 4
dismissed last.
Within grouping one, the sequence of dismissal must be at
the discretion of the school district or joint agreement.
Within grouping 2, the sequence of dismissal must be based upon
average performance evaluation ratings, with the teacher or
teachers with the lowest average performance evaluation rating
dismissed first. A teacher's average performance evaluation
rating must be calculated using the average of the teacher's
last 2 performance evaluation ratings, if 2 ratings are
available, or the teacher's last performance evaluation
rating, if only one rating is available, using the following
numerical values: 4 for Excellent; 3 for Proficient or
Satisfactory; 2 for Needs Improvement; and 1 for
Unsatisfactory. As between or among teachers in grouping 2 with
the same average performance evaluation rating and within each
of groupings 3 and 4, the teacher or teachers with the shorter
length of continuing service with the school district or joint
agreement must be dismissed first unless an alternative method
of determining the sequence of dismissal is established in a
collective bargaining agreement or contract between the board
and a professional faculty members' organization.
Each board, including the governing board of a joint
agreement, shall, in consultation with any exclusive employee
representatives, each year establish a sequence of honorable
dismissal list categorized by positions and the groupings
defined in this subsection (b). Copies of the list showing each
teacher by name and categorized by positions and the groupings
defined in this subsection (b) must be distributed to the
exclusive bargaining representative at least 75 days before the
end of the school term, provided that the school district or
joint agreement may, with notice to any exclusive employee
representatives, move teachers from grouping one into another
grouping during the period of time from 75 days until 45 days
before the end of the school term. Each year, each board shall
also establish, in consultation with any exclusive employee
representatives, a list showing the length of continuing
service of each teacher who is qualified to hold any such
positions, unless an alternative method of determining a
sequence of dismissal is established as provided for in this
Section, in which case a list must be made in accordance with
the alternative method. Copies of the list must be distributed
to the exclusive employee representative at least 75 days
before the end of the school term.
Any teacher dismissed as a result of such decrease or
discontinuance must be paid all earned compensation on or
before the third business day following the last day of pupil
attendance in the regular school term.
If the board or joint agreement has any vacancies for the
following school term or within one calendar year from the
beginning of the following school term, the positions thereby
becoming available must be tendered to the teachers so removed
or dismissed who were in groupings 3 or 4 of the sequence of
dismissal and are qualified to hold the positions, based upon
legal qualifications and any other qualifications established
in a district or joint agreement job description, on or before
the May 10 prior to the date of the positions becoming
available, provided that if the number of honorable dismissal
notices based on economic necessity exceeds 15% of the number
of full-time equivalent positions filled by certified
employees (excluding principals and administrative personnel)
during the preceding school year, then the recall period is for
the following school term or within 2 calendar years from the
beginning of the following school term. If the board or joint
agreement has any vacancies within the period from the
beginning of the following school term through February 1 of
the following school term (unless a date later than February 1,
but no later than 6 months from the beginning of the following
school term, is established in a collective bargaining
agreement), the positions thereby becoming available must be
tendered to the teachers so removed or dismissed who were in
grouping 2 of the sequence of dismissal due to one "needs
improvement" rating on either of the teacher's last 2
performance evaluation ratings, provided that, if 2 ratings are
available, the other performance evaluation rating used for
grouping purposes is "satisfactory", "proficient", or
"excellent", and are qualified to hold the positions, based
upon legal qualifications and any other qualifications
established in a district or joint agreement job description,
on or before the May 10 prior to the date of the positions
becoming available. On and after the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, the preceding
sentence shall apply to teachers removed or dismissed by
honorable dismissal, even if notice of honorable dismissal
occurred during the 2013-2014 school year. Among teachers
eligible for recall pursuant to the preceding sentence, the
order of recall must be in inverse order of dismissal, unless
an alternative order of recall is established in a collective
bargaining agreement or contract between the board and a
professional faculty members' organization. Whenever the
number of honorable dismissal notices based upon economic
necessity exceeds 5 notices or 150% of the average number of
teachers honorably dismissed in the preceding 3 years,
whichever is more, then the school board or governing board of
a joint agreement, as applicable, shall also hold a public
hearing on the question of the dismissals. Following the
hearing and board review, the action to approve any such
reduction shall require a majority vote of the board members.
For purposes of this subsection (b), subject to agreement
on an alternative definition reached by the joint committee
described in subsection (c) of this Section, a teacher's
performance evaluation rating means the overall performance
evaluation rating resulting from an annual or biennial
performance evaluation conducted pursuant to Article 24A of
this Code by the school district or joint agreement determining
the sequence of dismissal, not including any performance
evaluation conducted during or at the end of a remediation
period. No more than one evaluation rating each school term
shall be one of the evaluation ratings used for the purpose of
determining the sequence of dismissal. Except as otherwise
provided in this subsection for any performance evaluations
conducted during or at the end of a remediation period, if
multiple performance evaluations are conducted in a school
term, only the rating from the last evaluation conducted prior
to establishing the sequence of honorable dismissal list in
such school term shall be the one evaluation rating from that
school term used for the purpose of determining the sequence of
dismissal. Averaging ratings from multiple evaluations is not
permitted unless otherwise agreed to in a collective bargaining
agreement or contract between the board and a professional
faculty members' organization. The preceding 3 sentences are
not a legislative declaration that existing law does or does
not already require that only one performance evaluation each
school term shall be used for the purpose of determining the
sequence of dismissal. For performance evaluation ratings
determined prior to September 1, 2012, any school district or
joint agreement with a performance evaluation rating system
that does not use either of the rating category systems
specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code for
all teachers must establish a basis for assigning each teacher
a rating that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of
this Code for all of the performance evaluation ratings that
are to be used to determine the sequence of dismissal. A
teacher's grouping and ranking on a sequence of honorable
dismissal shall be deemed a part of the teacher's performance
evaluation, and that information shall be disclosed to the
exclusive bargaining representative as part of a sequence of
honorable dismissal list, notwithstanding any laws prohibiting
disclosure of such information. A performance evaluation
rating may be used to determine the sequence of dismissal,
notwithstanding the pendency of any grievance resolution or
arbitration procedures relating to the performance evaluation.
If a teacher has received at least one performance evaluation
rating conducted by the school district or joint agreement
determining the sequence of dismissal and a subsequent
performance evaluation is not conducted in any school year in
which such evaluation is required to be conducted under Section
24A-5 of this Code, the teacher's performance evaluation rating
for that school year for purposes of determining the sequence
of dismissal is deemed Proficient. If a performance evaluation
rating is nullified as the result of an arbitration,
administrative agency, or court determination, then the school
district or joint agreement is deemed to have conducted a
performance evaluation for that school year, but the
performance evaluation rating may not be used in determining
the sequence of dismissal.
Nothing in this subsection (b) shall be construed as
limiting the right of a school board or governing board of a
joint agreement to dismiss a teacher not in contractual
continued service in accordance with Section 24-11 of this
Code.
Any provisions regarding the sequence of honorable
dismissals and recall of honorably dismissed teachers in a
collective bargaining agreement entered into on or before
January 1, 2011 and in effect on the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that may conflict
with this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall
remain in effect through the expiration of such agreement or
June 30, 2013, whichever is earlier.
(c) Each school district and special education joint
agreement must use a joint committee composed of equal
representation selected by the school board and its teachers
or, if applicable, the exclusive bargaining representative of
its teachers, to address the matters described in paragraphs
(1) through (5) of this subsection (c) pertaining to honorable
dismissals under subsection (b) of this Section.
(1) The joint committee must consider and may agree to
criteria for excluding from grouping 2 and placing into
grouping 3 a teacher whose last 2 performance evaluations
include a Needs Improvement and either a Proficient or
Excellent.
(2) The joint committee must consider and may agree to
an alternative definition for grouping 4, which definition
must take into account prior performance evaluation
ratings and may take into account other factors that relate
to the school district's or program's educational
objectives. An alternative definition for grouping 4 may
not permit the inclusion of a teacher in the grouping with
a Needs Improvement or Unsatisfactory performance
evaluation rating on either of the teacher's last 2
performance evaluation ratings.
(3) The joint committee may agree to including within
the definition of a performance evaluation rating a
performance evaluation rating administered by a school
district or joint agreement other than the school district
or joint agreement determining the sequence of dismissal.
(4) For each school district or joint agreement that
administers performance evaluation ratings that are
inconsistent with either of the rating category systems
specified in subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this Code,
the school district or joint agreement must consult with
the joint committee on the basis for assigning a rating
that complies with subsection (d) of Section 24A-5 of this
Code to each performance evaluation rating that will be
used in a sequence of dismissal.
(5) Upon request by a joint committee member submitted
to the employing board by no later than 10 days after the
distribution of the sequence of honorable dismissal list, a
representative of the employing board shall, within 5 days
after the request, provide to members of the joint
committee a list showing the most recent and prior
performance evaluation ratings of each teacher identified
only by length of continuing service in the district or
joint agreement and not by name. If, after review of this
list, a member of the joint committee has a good faith
belief that a disproportionate number of teachers with
greater length of continuing service with the district or
joint agreement have received a recent performance
evaluation rating lower than the prior rating, the member
may request that the joint committee review the list to
assess whether such a trend may exist. Following the joint
committee's review, but by no later than the end of the
applicable school term, the joint committee or any member
or members of the joint committee may submit a report of
the review to the employing board and exclusive bargaining
representative, if any. Nothing in this paragraph (5) shall
impact the order of honorable dismissal or a school
district's or joint agreement's authority to carry out a
dismissal in accordance with subsection (b) of this
Section.
Agreement by the joint committee as to a matter requires
the majority vote of all committee members, and if the joint
committee does not reach agreement on a matter, then the
otherwise applicable requirements of subsection (b) of this
Section shall apply. Except as explicitly set forth in this
subsection (c), a joint committee has no authority to agree to
any further modifications to the requirements for honorable
dismissals set forth in subsection (b) of this Section. The
joint committee must be established, and the first meeting of
the joint committee each school year must occur on or before
December 1.
The joint committee must reach agreement on a matter on or
before February 1 of a school year in order for the agreement
of the joint committee to apply to the sequence of dismissal
determined during that school year. Subject to the February 1
deadline for agreements, the agreement of a joint committee on
a matter shall apply to the sequence of dismissal until the
agreement is amended or terminated by the joint committee.
(d) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this
subsection (d), the requirements and dismissal procedures of
Section 24-16.5 of this Code shall apply to any dismissal
sought under Section 24-16.5 of this Code.
(1) If a dismissal of a teacher in contractual
continued service is sought for any reason or cause other
than an honorable dismissal under subsections (a) or (b) of
this Section or a dismissal sought under Section 24-16.5 of
this Code, including those under Section 10-22.4, the board
must first approve a motion containing specific charges by
a majority vote of all its members. Written notice of such
charges, including a bill of particulars and the teacher's
right to request a hearing, must be mailed to the teacher
and also given to the teacher either by certified mail,
return receipt requested, or personal delivery with
receipt within 5 days of the adoption of the motion. Any
written notice sent on or after July 1, 2012 shall inform
the teacher of the right to request a hearing before a
mutually selected hearing officer, with the cost of the
hearing officer split equally between the teacher and the
board, or a hearing before a board-selected hearing
officer, with the cost of the hearing officer paid by the
board.
Before setting a hearing on charges stemming from
causes that are considered remediable, a board must give
the teacher reasonable warning in writing, stating
specifically the causes that, if not removed, may result in
charges; however, no such written warning is required if
the causes have been the subject of a remediation plan
pursuant to Article 24A of this Code.
If, in the opinion of the board, the interests of the
school require it, the board may suspend the teacher
without pay, pending the hearing, but if the board's
dismissal or removal is not sustained, the teacher shall
not suffer the loss of any salary or benefits by reason of
the suspension.
(2) No hearing upon the charges is required unless the
teacher within 17 days after receiving notice requests in
writing of the board that a hearing be scheduled before a
mutually selected hearing officer or a hearing officer
selected by the board. The secretary of the school board
shall forward a copy of the notice to the State Board of
Education.
(3) Within 5 business days after receiving a notice of
hearing in which either notice to the teacher was sent
before July 1, 2012 or, if the notice was sent on or after
July 1, 2012, the teacher has requested a hearing before a
mutually selected hearing officer, the State Board of
Education shall provide a list of 5 prospective, impartial
hearing officers from the master list of qualified,
impartial hearing officers maintained by the State Board of
Education. Each person on the master list must (i) be
accredited by a national arbitration organization and have
had a minimum of 5 years of experience directly related to
labor and employment relations matters between employers
and employees or their exclusive bargaining
representatives and (ii) beginning September 1, 2012, have
participated in training provided or approved by the State
Board of Education for teacher dismissal hearing officers
so that he or she is familiar with issues generally
involved in evaluative and non-evaluative dismissals.
If notice to the teacher was sent before July 1, 2012
or, if the notice was sent on or after July 1, 2012, the
teacher has requested a hearing before a mutually selected
hearing officer, the board and the teacher or their legal
representatives within 3 business days shall alternately
strike one name from the list provided by the State Board
of Education until only one name remains. Unless waived by
the teacher, the teacher shall have the right to proceed
first with the striking. Within 3 business days of receipt
of the list provided by the State Board of Education, the
board and the teacher or their legal representatives shall
each have the right to reject all prospective hearing
officers named on the list and notify the State Board of
Education of such rejection. Within 3 business days after
receiving this notification, the State Board of Education
shall appoint a qualified person from the master list who
did not appear on the list sent to the parties to serve as
the hearing officer, unless the parties notify it that they
have chosen to alternatively select a hearing officer under
paragraph (4) of this subsection (d).
If the teacher has requested a hearing before a hearing
officer selected by the board, the board shall select one
name from the master list of qualified impartial hearing
officers maintained by the State Board of Education within
3 business days after receipt and shall notify the State
Board of Education of its selection.
A hearing officer mutually selected by the parties,
selected by the board, or selected through an alternative
selection process under paragraph (4) of this subsection
(d) (A) must not be a resident of the school district, (B)
must be available to commence the hearing within 75 days
and conclude the hearing within 120 days after being
selected as the hearing officer, and (C) must issue a
decision as to whether the teacher must be dismissed and
give a copy of that decision to both the teacher and the
board within 30 days from the conclusion of the hearing or
closure of the record, whichever is later.
(4) In the alternative to selecting a hearing officer
from the list received from the State Board of Education or
accepting the appointment of a hearing officer by the State
Board of Education or if the State Board of Education
cannot provide a list or appoint a hearing officer that
meets the foregoing requirements, the board and the teacher
or their legal representatives may mutually agree to select
an impartial hearing officer who is not on the master list
either by direct appointment by the parties or by using
procedures for the appointment of an arbitrator
established by the Federal Mediation and Conciliation
Service or the American Arbitration Association. The
parties shall notify the State Board of Education of their
intent to select a hearing officer using an alternative
procedure within 3 business days of receipt of a list of
prospective hearing officers provided by the State Board of
Education, notice of appointment of a hearing officer by
the State Board of Education, or receipt of notice from the
State Board of Education that it cannot provide a list that
meets the foregoing requirements, whichever is later.
(5) If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher
before July 1, 2012, the fees and costs for the hearing
officer must be paid by the State Board of Education. If
the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher on or after
July 1, 2012, the hearing officer's fees and costs must be
paid as follows in this paragraph (5). The fees and
permissible costs for the hearing officer must be
determined by the State Board of Education. If the board
and the teacher or their legal representatives mutually
agree to select an impartial hearing officer who is not on
a list received from the State Board of Education, they may
agree to supplement the fees determined by the State Board
to the hearing officer, at a rate consistent with the
hearing officer's published professional fees. If the
hearing officer is mutually selected by the parties, then
the board and the teacher or their legal representatives
shall each pay 50% of the fees and costs and any
supplemental allowance to which they agree. If the hearing
officer is selected by the board, then the board shall pay
100% of the hearing officer's fees and costs. The fees and
costs must be paid to the hearing officer within 14 days
after the board and the teacher or their legal
representatives receive the hearing officer's decision set
forth in paragraph (7) of this subsection (d).
(6) The teacher is required to answer the bill of
particulars and aver affirmative matters in his or her
defense, and the time for initially doing so and the time
for updating such answer and defenses after pre-hearing
discovery must be set by the hearing officer. The State
Board of Education shall promulgate rules so that each
party has a fair opportunity to present its case and to
ensure that the dismissal process proceeds in a fair and
expeditious manner. These rules shall address, without
limitation, discovery and hearing scheduling conferences;
the teacher's initial answer and affirmative defenses to
the bill of particulars and the updating of that
information after pre-hearing discovery; provision for
written interrogatories and requests for production of
documents; the requirement that each party initially
disclose to the other party and then update the disclosure
no later than 10 calendar days prior to the commencement of
the hearing, the names and addresses of persons who may be
called as witnesses at the hearing, a summary of the facts
or opinions each witness will testify to, and all other
documents and materials, including information maintained
electronically, relevant to its own as well as the other
party's case (the hearing officer may exclude witnesses and
exhibits not identified and shared, except those offered in
rebuttal for which the party could not reasonably have
anticipated prior to the hearing); pre-hearing discovery
and preparation, including provision for written
interrogatories and requests for production of documents,
provided that discovery depositions are prohibited; the
conduct of the hearing; the right of each party to be
represented by counsel, the offer of evidence and witnesses
and the cross-examination of witnesses; the authority of
the hearing officer to issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces
tecum, provided that the hearing officer may limit the
number of witnesses to be subpoenaed on behalf of each
party to no more than 7; the length of post-hearing briefs;
and the form, length, and content of hearing officers'
decisions. The hearing officer shall hold a hearing and
render a final decision for dismissal pursuant to Article
24A of this Code or shall report to the school board
findings of fact and a recommendation as to whether or not
the teacher must be dismissed for conduct. The hearing
officer shall commence the hearing within 75 days and
conclude the hearing within 120 days after being selected
as the hearing officer, provided that the hearing officer
may modify these timelines upon the showing of good cause
or mutual agreement of the parties. Good cause for the
purpose of this subsection (d) shall mean the illness or
otherwise unavoidable emergency of the teacher, district
representative, their legal representatives, the hearing
officer, or an essential witness as indicated in each
party's pre-hearing submission. In a dismissal hearing
pursuant to Article 24A of this Code, the hearing officer
shall consider and give weight to all of the teacher's
evaluations written pursuant to Article 24A that are
relevant to the issues in the hearing.
Each party shall have no more than 3 days to present
its case, unless extended by the hearing officer to enable
a party to present adequate evidence and testimony,
including due to the other party's cross-examination of the
party's witnesses, for good cause or by mutual agreement of
the parties. The State Board of Education shall define in
rules the meaning of "day" for such purposes. All testimony
at the hearing shall be taken under oath administered by
the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall cause a
record of the proceedings to be kept and shall employ a
competent reporter to take stenographic or stenotype notes
of all the testimony. The costs of the reporter's
attendance and services at the hearing shall be paid by the
party or parties who are responsible for paying the fees
and costs of the hearing officer. Either party desiring a
transcript of the hearing shall pay for the cost thereof.
Any post-hearing briefs must be submitted by the parties by
no later than 21 days after a party's receipt of the
transcript of the hearing, unless extended by the hearing
officer for good cause or by mutual agreement of the
parties.
(7) The hearing officer shall, within 30 days from the
conclusion of the hearing or closure of the record,
whichever is later, make a decision as to whether or not
the teacher shall be dismissed pursuant to Article 24A of
this Code or report to the school board findings of fact
and a recommendation as to whether or not the teacher shall
be dismissed for cause and shall give a copy of the
decision or findings of fact and recommendation to both the
teacher and the school board. If a hearing officer fails
without good cause, specifically provided in writing to
both parties and the State Board of Education, to render a
decision or findings of fact and recommendation within 30
days after the hearing is concluded or the record is
closed, whichever is later, the parties may mutually agree
to select a hearing officer pursuant to the alternative
procedure, as provided in this Section, to rehear the
charges heard by the hearing officer who failed to render a
decision or findings of fact and recommendation or to
review the record and render a decision. If any hearing
officer fails without good cause, specifically provided in
writing to both parties and the State Board of Education,
to render a decision or findings of fact and recommendation
within 30 days after the hearing is concluded or the record
is closed, whichever is later, the hearing officer shall be
removed from the master list of hearing officers maintained
by the State Board of Education for not more than 24
months. The parties and the State Board of Education may
also take such other actions as it deems appropriate,
including recovering, reducing, or withholding any fees
paid or to be paid to the hearing officer. If any hearing
officer repeats such failure, he or she must be permanently
removed from the master list maintained by the State Board
of Education and may not be selected by parties through the
alternative selection process under this paragraph (7) or
paragraph (4) of this subsection (d). The board shall not
lose jurisdiction to discharge a teacher if the hearing
officer fails to render a decision or findings of fact and
recommendation within the time specified in this Section.
If the decision of the hearing officer for dismissal
pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board
for dismissal for cause is in favor of the teacher, then
the hearing officer or school board shall order
reinstatement to the same or substantially equivalent
position and shall determine the amount for which the
school board is liable, including, but not limited to, loss
of income and benefits.
(8) The school board, within 45 days after receipt of
the hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation
as to whether (i) the conduct at issue occurred, (ii) the
conduct that did occur was remediable, and (iii) the
proposed dismissal should be sustained, shall issue a
written order as to whether the teacher must be retained or
dismissed for cause from its employ. The school board's
written order shall incorporate the hearing officer's
findings of fact, except that the school board may modify
or supplement the findings of fact if, in its opinion, the
findings of fact are against the manifest weight of the
evidence.
If the school board dismisses the teacher
notwithstanding the hearing officer's findings of fact and
recommendation, the school board shall make a conclusion in
its written order, giving its reasons therefor, and such
conclusion and reasons must be included in its written
order. The failure of the school board to strictly adhere
to the timelines contained in this Section shall not render
it without jurisdiction to dismiss the teacher. The school
board shall not lose jurisdiction to discharge the teacher
for cause if the hearing officer fails to render a
recommendation within the time specified in this Section.
The decision of the school board is final, unless reviewed
as provided in paragraph (9) of this subsection (d).
If the school board retains the teacher, the school
board shall enter a written order stating the amount of
back pay and lost benefits, less mitigation, to be paid to
the teacher, within 45 days after its retention order.
Should the teacher object to the amount of the back pay and
lost benefits or amount mitigated, the teacher shall give
written objections to the amount within 21 days. If the
parties fail to reach resolution within 7 days, the dispute
shall be referred to the hearing officer, who shall
consider the school board's written order and teacher's
written objection and determine the amount to which the
school board is liable. The costs of the hearing officer's
review and determination must be paid by the board.
(9) The decision of the hearing officer pursuant to
Article 24A of this Code or of the school board's decision
to dismiss for cause is final unless reviewed as provided
in Section 24-16 of this Act. If the school board's
decision to dismiss for cause is contrary to the hearing
officer's recommendation, the court on review shall give
consideration to the school board's decision and its
supplemental findings of fact, if applicable, and the
hearing officer's findings of fact and recommendation in
making its decision. In the event such review is
instituted, the school board shall be responsible for
preparing and filing the record of proceedings, and such
costs associated therewith must be divided equally between
the parties.
(10) If a decision of the hearing officer for dismissal
pursuant to Article 24A of this Code or of the school board
for dismissal for cause is adjudicated upon review or
appeal in favor of the teacher, then the trial court shall
order reinstatement and shall remand the matter to the
school board with direction for entry of an order setting
the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and costs, less
mitigation. The teacher may challenge the school board's
order setting the amount of back pay, lost benefits, and
costs, less mitigation, through an expedited arbitration
procedure, with the costs of the arbitrator borne by the
school board.
Any teacher who is reinstated by any hearing or
adjudication brought under this Section shall be assigned
by the board to a position substantially similar to the one
which that teacher held prior to that teacher's suspension
or dismissal.
(11) Subject to any later effective date referenced in
this Section for a specific aspect of the dismissal
process, the changes made by Public Act 97-8 this
amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly shall apply to
dismissals instituted on or after September 1, 2011. Any
dismissal instituted prior to September 1, 2011 must be
carried out in accordance with the requirements of this
Section prior to amendment by Public Act 97-8 this
amendatory Act of 97th General Assembly.
(e) Nothing contained in this amendatory Act of the 98th
General Assembly repeals, supersedes, invalidates, or
nullifies final decisions in lawsuits pending on the effective
date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly in
Illinois courts involving the interpretation of Public Act
97-8.
(Source: P.A. 97-8, eff. 6-13-11; 98-513, eff. 1-1-14; 98-648,
eff. 7-1-14; revised 12-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/27-23.7)
Sec. 27-23.7. Bullying prevention.
(a) The General Assembly finds that a safe and civil school
environment is necessary for students to learn and achieve and
that bullying causes physical, psychological, and emotional
harm to students and interferes with students' ability to learn
and participate in school activities. The General Assembly
further finds that bullying has been linked to other forms of
antisocial behavior, such as vandalism, shoplifting, skipping
and dropping out of school, fighting, using drugs and alcohol,
sexual harassment, and sexual violence. Because of the negative
outcomes associated with bullying in schools, the General
Assembly finds that school districts, charter schools, and
non-public, non-sectarian elementary and secondary schools
should educate students, parents, and school district, charter
school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary
school personnel about what behaviors constitute prohibited
bullying.
Bullying on the basis of actual or perceived race, color,
religion, sex, national origin, ancestry, age, marital status,
physical or mental disability, military status, sexual
orientation, gender-related identity or expression,
unfavorable discharge from military service, association with
a person or group with one or more of the aforementioned actual
or perceived characteristics, or any other distinguishing
characteristic is prohibited in all school districts, charter
schools, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary and
secondary schools. No student shall be subjected to bullying:
(1) during any school-sponsored education program or
activity;
(2) while in school, on school property, on school
buses or other school vehicles, at designated school bus
stops waiting for the school bus, or at school-sponsored or
school-sanctioned events or activities;
(3) through the transmission of information from a
school computer, a school computer network, or other
similar electronic school equipment; or
(4) through the transmission of information from a
computer that is accessed at a nonschool-related location,
activity, function, or program or from the use of
technology or an electronic device that is not owned,
leased, or used by a school district or school if the
bullying causes a substantial disruption to the
educational process or orderly operation of a school. This
item (4) applies only in cases in which a school
administrator or teacher receives a report that bullying
through this means has occurred and does not require a
district or school to staff or monitor any
nonschool-related activity, function, or program.
(a-5) Nothing in this Section is intended to infringe upon
any right to exercise free expression or the free exercise of
religion or religiously based views protected under the First
Amendment to the United States Constitution or under Section 3
of Article I of the Illinois Constitution.
(b) In this Section:
"Bullying" includes "cyber-bullying" and means any severe
or pervasive physical or verbal act or conduct, including
communications made in writing or electronically, directed
toward a student or students that has or can be reasonably
predicted to have the effect of one or more of the following:
(1) placing the student or students in reasonable fear
of harm to the student's or students' person or property;
(2) causing a substantially detrimental effect on the
student's or students' physical or mental health;
(3) substantially interfering with the student's or
students' academic performance; or
(4) substantially interfering with the student's or
students' ability to participate in or benefit from the
services, activities, or privileges provided by a school.
Bullying, as defined in this subsection (b), may take
various forms, including without limitation one or more of the
following: harassment, threats, intimidation, stalking,
physical violence, sexual harassment, sexual violence, theft,
public humiliation, destruction of property, or retaliation
for asserting or alleging an act of bullying. This list is
meant to be illustrative and non-exhaustive.
"Cyber-bullying" means bullying through the use of
technology or any electronic communication, including without
limitation any transfer of signs, signals, writing, images,
sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in
whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic system,
photoelectronic system, or photooptical system, including
without limitation electronic mail, Internet communications,
instant messages, or facsimile communications.
"Cyber-bullying" includes the creation of a webpage or weblog
in which the creator assumes the identity of another person or
the knowing impersonation of another person as the author of
posted content or messages if the creation or impersonation
creates any of the effects enumerated in the definition of
bullying in this Section. "Cyber-bullying" also includes the
distribution by electronic means of a communication to more
than one person or the posting of material on an electronic
medium that may be accessed by one or more persons if the
distribution or posting creates any of the effects enumerated
in the definition of bullying in this Section.
"Policy on bullying" means a bullying prevention policy
that meets the following criteria:
(1) Includes the bullying definition provided in this
Section.
(2) Includes a statement that bullying is contrary to
State law and the policy of the school district, charter
school, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or
secondary school and is consistent with subsection (a-5) of
this Section.
(3) Includes procedures for promptly reporting
bullying, including, but not limited to, identifying and
providing the school e-mail address (if applicable) and
school telephone number for the staff person or persons
responsible for receiving such reports and a procedure for
anonymous reporting; however, this shall not be construed
to permit formal disciplinary action solely on the basis of
an anonymous report.
(4) Consistent with federal and State laws and rules
governing student privacy rights, includes procedures for
promptly informing parents or guardians of all students
involved in the alleged incident of bullying and
discussing, as appropriate, the availability of social
work services, counseling, school psychological services,
other interventions, and restorative measures.
(5) Contains procedures for promptly investigating and
addressing reports of bullying, including the following:
(A) Making all reasonable efforts to complete the
investigation within 10 school days after the date the
report of the incident of bullying was received and
taking into consideration additional relevant
information received during the course of the
investigation about the reported incident of bullying.
(B) Involving appropriate school support personnel
and other staff persons with knowledge, experience,
and training on bullying prevention, as deemed
appropriate, in the investigation process.
(C) Notifying the principal or school
administrator or his or her designee of the report of
the incident of bullying as soon as possible after the
report is received.
(D) Consistent with federal and State laws and
rules governing student privacy rights, providing
parents and guardians of the students who are parties
to the investigation information about the
investigation and an opportunity to meet with the
principal or school administrator or his or her
designee to discuss the investigation, the findings of
the investigation, and the actions taken to address the
reported incident of bullying.
(6) Includes the interventions that can be taken to
address bullying, which may include, but are not limited
to, school social work services, restorative measures,
social-emotional skill building, counseling, school
psychological services, and community-based services.
(7) Includes a statement prohibiting reprisal or
retaliation against any person who reports an act of
bullying and the consequences and appropriate remedial
actions for a person who engages in reprisal or
retaliation.
(8) Includes consequences and appropriate remedial
actions for a person found to have falsely accused another
of bullying as a means of retaliation or as a means of
bullying.
(9) Is based on the engagement of a range of school
stakeholders, including students and parents or guardians.
(10) Is posted on the school district's, charter
school's, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or
secondary school's existing Internet website and is
included in the student handbook, and, where applicable,
posted where other policies, rules, and standards of
conduct are currently posted in the school, and is
distributed annually to parents, guardians, students, and
school personnel, including new employees when hired.
(11) As part of the process of reviewing and
re-evaluating the policy under subsection (d) of this
Section, contains a policy evaluation process to assess the
outcomes and effectiveness of the policy that includes, but
is not limited to, factors such as the frequency of
victimization; student, staff, and family observations of
safety at a school; identification of areas of a school
where bullying occurs; the types of bullying utilized; and
bystander intervention or participation. The school
district, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian
elementary or secondary school may use relevant data and
information it already collects for other purposes in the
policy evaluation. The information developed as a result of
the policy evaluation must be made available on the
Internet website of the school district, charter school, or
non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary school.
If an Internet website is not available, the information
must be provided to school administrators, school board
members, school personnel, parents, guardians, and
students.
(12) Is consistent with the policies of the school
board, charter school, or non-public, non-sectarian
elementary or secondary school.
"Restorative measures" means a continuum of school-based
alternatives to exclusionary discipline, such as suspensions
and expulsions, that: (i) are adapted to the particular needs
of the school and community, (ii) contribute to maintaining
school safety, (iii) protect the integrity of a positive and
productive learning climate, (iv) teach students the personal
and interpersonal skills they will need to be successful in
school and society, (v) serve to build and restore
relationships among students, families, schools, and
communities, and (vi) reduce the likelihood of future
disruption by balancing accountability with an understanding
of students' behavioral health needs in order to keep students
in school.
"School personnel" means persons employed by, on contract
with, or who volunteer in a school district, charter school
schools, or non-public, non-sectarian elementary or secondary
school, including without limitation school and school
district administrators, teachers, school guidance counselors,
school social workers, school counselors, school
psychologists, school nurses, cafeteria workers, custodians,
bus drivers, school resource officers, and security guards.
(c) (Blank).
(d) Each school district, charter school, and non-public,
non-sectarian elementary or secondary school shall create,
maintain, and implement a policy on bullying, which policy must
be filed with the State Board of Education. The policy or
implementing procedure shall include a process to investigate
whether a reported act of bullying is within the permissible
scope of the district's or school's jurisdiction and shall
require that the district or school provide the victim with
information regarding services that are available within the
district and community, such as counseling, support services,
and other programs. Every 2 years, each school district,
charter school, and non-public, non-sectarian elementary or
secondary school shall conduct a review and re-evaluation of
its policy and make any necessary and appropriate revisions.
The policy must be filed with the State Board of Education
after being updated. The State Board of Education shall monitor
and provide technical support for the implementation of
policies created under this subsection (d).
(e) This Section shall not be interpreted to prevent a
victim from seeking redress under any other available civil or
criminal law.
(Source: P.A. 98-669, eff. 6-26-14; 98-801, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 10-2-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/27A-4)
Sec. 27A-4. General provisions Provisions.
(a) The General Assembly does not intend to alter or amend
the provisions of any court-ordered desegregation plan in
effect for any school district. A charter school shall be
subject to all federal and State laws and constitutional
provisions prohibiting discrimination on the basis of
disability, race, creed, color, gender, national origin,
religion, ancestry, marital status, or need for special
education services.
(b) The total number of charter schools operating under
this Article at any one time shall not exceed 120. Not more
than 70 charter schools shall operate at any one time in any
city having a population exceeding 500,000, with at least 5
charter schools devoted exclusively to students from
low-performing or overcrowded schools operating at any one time
in that city; and not more than 45 charter schools shall
operate at any one time in the remainder of the State, with not
more than one charter school that has been initiated by a board
of education, or by an intergovernmental agreement between or
among boards of education, operating at any one time in the
school district where the charter school is located. In
addition to these charter schools, up to but no more than 5
charter schools devoted exclusively to re-enrolled high school
dropouts and/or students 16 or 15 years old at risk of dropping
out may operate at any one time in any city having a population
exceeding 500,000. Notwithstanding any provision to the
contrary in subsection (b) of Section 27A-5 of this Code, each
such dropout charter may operate up to 15 campuses within the
city. Any of these dropout charters may have a maximum of 1,875
enrollment seats, any one of the campuses of the dropout
charter may have a maximum of 165 enrollment seats, and each
campus of the dropout charter must be operated, through a
contract or payroll, by the same legal entity as that for which
the charter is approved and certified.
For purposes of implementing this Section, the State Board
shall assign a number to each charter submission it receives
under Section 27A-6 for its review and certification, based on
the chronological order in which the submission is received by
it. The State Board shall promptly notify local school boards
when the maximum numbers of certified charter schools
authorized to operate have been reached.
(c) No charter shall be granted under this Article that
would convert any existing private, parochial, or non-public
school to a charter school.
(d) Enrollment in a charter school shall be open to any
pupil who resides within the geographic boundaries of the area
served by the local school board, provided that the board of
education in a city having a population exceeding 500,000 may
designate attendance boundaries for no more than one-third of
the charter schools permitted in the city if the board of
education determines that attendance boundaries are needed to
relieve overcrowding or to better serve low-income and at-risk
students. Students residing within an attendance boundary may
be given priority for enrollment, but must not be required to
attend the charter school.
(e) Nothing in this Article shall prevent 2 or more local
school boards from jointly issuing a charter to a single shared
charter school, provided that all of the provisions of this
Article are met as to those local school boards.
(f) No local school board shall require any employee of the
school district to be employed in a charter school.
(g) No local school board shall require any pupil residing
within the geographic boundary of its district to enroll in a
charter school.
(h) If there are more eligible applicants for enrollment in
a charter school than there are spaces available, successful
applicants shall be selected by lottery. However, priority
shall be given to siblings of pupils enrolled in the charter
school and to pupils who were enrolled in the charter school
the previous school year, unless expelled for cause, and
priority may be given to pupils residing within the charter
school's attendance boundary, if a boundary has been designated
by the board of education in a city having a population
exceeding 500,000.
Beginning with student enrollment for the 2015-2016 school
year, any lottery required under this subsection (h) must be
administered and videotaped by the charter school. The
authorizer or its designee must be allowed to be present or
view the lottery in real time. The charter school must maintain
a videotaped record of the lottery, including a time/date
stamp. The charter school shall transmit copies of the
videotape and all records relating to the lottery to the
authorizer on or before September 1 of each year.
Subject to the requirements for priority applicant groups
set forth in paragraph (1) of this subsection (h), any lottery
required under this subsection (h) must be administered in a
way that provides each student an equal chance at admission. If
an authorizer makes a determination that a charter school's
lottery is in violation of this subsection (h), it may
administer the lottery directly. After a lottery, each student
randomly selected for admission to the charter school must be
notified. Charter schools may not create an admissions process
subsequent to a lottery that may operate as a barrier to
registration or enrollment.
Charter schools may undertake additional intake
activities, including without limitation student essays,
school-parent compacts, or open houses, but in no event may a
charter school require participation in these activities as a
condition of enrollment. A charter school must submit an
updated waitlist to the authorizer on a quarterly basis. A
waitlist must be submitted to the authorizer at the same time
as quarterly financial statements, if quarterly financial
statements are required by the authorizer.
Dual enrollment at both a charter school and a public
school or non-public school shall not be allowed. A pupil who
is suspended or expelled from a charter school shall be deemed
to be suspended or expelled from the public schools of the
school district in which the pupil resides. Notwithstanding
anything to the contrary in this subsection (h):
(1) any charter school with a mission exclusive to
educating high school dropouts may grant priority
admission to students who are high school dropouts and/or
students 16 or 15 years old at risk of dropping out and any
charter school with a mission exclusive to educating
students from low-performing or overcrowded schools may
restrict admission to students who are from low-performing
or overcrowded schools; "priority admission" for charter
schools exclusively devoted to re-enrolled dropouts or
students at risk of dropping out means a minimum of 90% of
students enrolled shall be high school dropouts; and
(2) any charter school located in a school district
that contains all or part of a federal military base may
set aside up to 33% of its current charter enrollment to
students with parents assigned to the federal military
base, with the remaining 67% subject to the general
enrollment and lottery requirements of subsection (d) of
this Section and this subsection (h); if a student with a
parent assigned to the federal military base withdraws from
the charter school during the course of a school year for
reasons other than grade promotion, those students with
parents assigned to the federal military base shall have
preference in filling the vacancy.
(i) (Blank).
(j) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the
contrary, a school district in a city having a population
exceeding 500,000 shall not have a duty to collectively bargain
with an exclusive representative of its employees over
decisions to grant or deny a charter school proposal under
Section 27A-8 of this Code, decisions to renew or revoke a
charter under Section 27A-9 of this Code, and the impact of
these decisions, provided that nothing in this Section shall
have the effect of negating, abrogating, replacing, reducing,
diminishing, or limiting in any way employee rights,
guarantees, or privileges granted in Sections 2, 3, 7, 8, 10,
14, and 15 of the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act.
(k) In this Section:
"Low-performing school" means a public school in a school
district organized under Article 34 of this Code that enrolls
students in any of grades kindergarten through 8 and that is
ranked within the lowest 10% of schools in that district in
terms of the percentage of students meeting or exceeding
standards on the assessments required under Section 2-3.64a-5
of this Code.
"Overcrowded school" means a public school in a school
district organized under Article 34 of this Code that (i)
enrolls students in any of grades kindergarten through 8, (ii)
has a percentage of low-income students of 70% or more, as
identified in the most recently available School Report Card
published by the State Board of Education, and (iii) is
determined by the Chicago Board of Education to be in the most
severely overcrowded 5% of schools in the district. On or
before November 1 of each year, the Chicago Board of Education
shall file a report with the State Board of Education on which
schools in the district meet the definition of "overcrowded
school". "Students at risk of dropping out" means students 16
or 15 years old in a public school in a district organized
under Article 34 of this Code that enrolls students in any
grades 9-12 who have been absent at least 90 school attendance
days of the previous 180 school attendance days.
(l) For advertisements created after January 1, 2015 (the
effective date of Public Act 98-783) this amendatory Act of the
98th General Assembly, any advertisement, including a radio,
television, print, Internet, social media, or billboard
advertisement, purchased by a school district or public school,
including a charter school, with public funds must include a
disclaimer stating that the advertisement was paid for using
public funds.
This disclaimer requirement does not extend to materials
created by the charter school, including, but not limited to, a
school website, informational pamphlets or leaflets, or
clothing with affixed school logos.
(Source: P.A. 97-151, eff. 1-1-12; 97-624, eff. 11-28-11;
97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-474, eff. 8-16-13; 98-783, eff.
1-1-15; 98-972, eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/27A-5)
Sec. 27A-5. Charter school; legal entity; requirements.
(a) A charter school shall be a public, nonsectarian,
nonreligious, non-home based, and non-profit school. A charter
school shall be organized and operated as a nonprofit
corporation or other discrete, legal, nonprofit entity
authorized under the laws of the State of Illinois.
(b) A charter school may be established under this Article
by creating a new school or by converting an existing public
school or attendance center to charter school status. Beginning
on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd
General Assembly, in all new applications to establish a
charter school in a city having a population exceeding 500,000,
operation of the charter school shall be limited to one campus.
The changes made to this Section by this amendatory Act of the
93rd General Assembly do not apply to charter schools existing
or approved on or before the effective date of this amendatory
Act.
(b-5) In this subsection (b-5), "virtual-schooling" means
a cyber school where students engage in online curriculum and
instruction via the Internet and electronic communication with
their teachers at remote locations and with students
participating at different times.
From April 1, 2013 through December 31, 2016, there is a
moratorium on the establishment of charter schools with
virtual-schooling components in school districts other than a
school district organized under Article 34 of this Code. This
moratorium does not apply to a charter school with
virtual-schooling components existing or approved prior to
April 1, 2013 or to the renewal of the charter of a charter
school with virtual-schooling components already approved
prior to April 1, 2013.
On or before March 1, 2014, the Commission shall submit to
the General Assembly a report on the effect of
virtual-schooling, including without limitation the effect on
student performance, the costs associated with
virtual-schooling, and issues with oversight. The report shall
include policy recommendations for virtual-schooling.
(c) A charter school shall be administered and governed by
its board of directors or other governing body in the manner
provided in its charter. The governing body of a charter school
shall be subject to the Freedom of Information Act and the Open
Meetings Act.
(d) A charter school shall comply with all applicable
health and safety requirements applicable to public schools
under the laws of the State of Illinois.
(e) Except as otherwise provided in the School Code, a
charter school shall not charge tuition; provided that a
charter school may charge reasonable fees for textbooks,
instructional materials, and student activities.
(f) A charter school shall be responsible for the
management and operation of its fiscal affairs including, but
not limited to, the preparation of its budget. An audit of each
charter school's finances shall be conducted annually by an
outside, independent contractor retained by the charter
school. To ensure financial accountability for the use of
public funds, on or before December 1 of every year of
operation, each charter school shall submit to its authorizer
and the State Board a copy of its audit and a copy of the Form
990 the charter school filed that year with the federal
Internal Revenue Service. In addition, if deemed necessary for
proper financial oversight of the charter school, an authorizer
may require quarterly financial statements from each charter
school.
(g) A charter school shall comply with all provisions of
this Article; the Illinois Educational Labor Relations Act; all
federal and State laws and rules applicable to public schools
that pertain to special education and the instruction of
English language learners, referred to in this Code as
"children of limited English-speaking ability"; and its
charter. A charter school is exempt from all other State laws
and regulations in this Code governing public schools and local
school board policies, except the following:
(1) Sections 10-21.9 and 34-18.5 of this Code regarding
criminal history records checks and checks of the Statewide
Sex Offender Database and Statewide Murderer and Violent
Offender Against Youth Database of applicants for
employment;
(2) Sections 24-24 and 34-84A of this Code regarding
discipline of students;
(3) the Local Governmental and Governmental Employees
Tort Immunity Act;
(4) Section 108.75 of the General Not For Profit
Corporation Act of 1986 regarding indemnification of
officers, directors, employees, and agents;
(5) the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;
(6) the Illinois School Student Records Act;
(7) Section 10-17a of this Code regarding school report
cards;
(8) the P-20 Longitudinal Education Data System Act;
and
(9) Section 27-23.7 of this Code regarding bullying
prevention; and .
(10) (9) Section 2-3.162 2-3.160 of this the School
Code regarding student discipline reporting.
The change made by Public Act 96-104 to this subsection (g)
is declaratory of existing law.
(h) A charter school may negotiate and contract with a
school district, the governing body of a State college or
university or public community college, or any other public or
for-profit or nonprofit private entity for: (i) the use of a
school building and grounds or any other real property or
facilities that the charter school desires to use or convert
for use as a charter school site, (ii) the operation and
maintenance thereof, and (iii) the provision of any service,
activity, or undertaking that the charter school is required to
perform in order to carry out the terms of its charter.
However, a charter school that is established on or after the
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General
Assembly and that operates in a city having a population
exceeding 500,000 may not contract with a for-profit entity to
manage or operate the school during the period that commences
on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd
General Assembly and concludes at the end of the 2004-2005
school year. Except as provided in subsection (i) of this
Section, a school district may charge a charter school
reasonable rent for the use of the district's buildings,
grounds, and facilities. Any services for which a charter
school contracts with a school district shall be provided by
the district at cost. Any services for which a charter school
contracts with a local school board or with the governing body
of a State college or university or public community college
shall be provided by the public entity at cost.
(i) In no event shall a charter school that is established
by converting an existing school or attendance center to
charter school status be required to pay rent for space that is
deemed available, as negotiated and provided in the charter
agreement, in school district facilities. However, all other
costs for the operation and maintenance of school district
facilities that are used by the charter school shall be subject
to negotiation between the charter school and the local school
board and shall be set forth in the charter.
(j) A charter school may limit student enrollment by age or
grade level.
(k) If the charter school is approved by the Commission,
then the Commission charter school is its own local education
agency.
(Source: P.A. 97-152, eff. 7-20-11; 97-154, eff. 1-1-12;
97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-16, eff. 5-24-13; 98-639, eff. 6-9-14;
98-669, eff. 6-26-14; 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-783, eff.
1-1-15; 98-1059, eff. 8-26-14; 98-1102, eff. 8-26-14; revised
10-14-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/27A-6)
Sec. 27A-6. Contract contents; applicability of laws and
regulations.
(a) A certified charter shall constitute a binding contract
and agreement between the charter school and a local school
board under the terms of which the local school board
authorizes the governing body of the charter school to operate
the charter school on the terms specified in the contract.
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article,
the certified charter may not waive or release the charter
school from the State goals, standards, and assessments
established pursuant to Section 2-3.64a-5 of this Code.
Beginning with the 2003-2004 school year, the certified charter
for a charter school operating in a city having a population
exceeding 500,000 shall require the charter school to
administer any other nationally recognized standardized tests
to its students that the chartering entity administers to other
students, and the results on such tests shall be included in
the chartering entity's assessment reports.
(c) Subject to the provisions of subsection (e), a material
revision to a previously certified contract or a renewal shall
be made with the approval of both the local school board and
the governing body of the charter school.
(c-5) The proposed contract shall include a provision on
how both parties will address minor violations of the contract.
(d) The proposed contract between the governing body of a
proposed charter school and the local school board as described
in Section 27A-7 must be submitted to and certified by the
State Board before it can take effect. If the State Board
recommends that the proposed contract be modified for
consistency with this Article before it can be certified, the
modifications must be consented to by both the governing body
of the charter school and the local school board, and
resubmitted to the State Board for its certification. If the
proposed contract is resubmitted in a form that is not
consistent with this Article, the State Board may refuse to
certify the charter.
The State Board shall assign a number to each submission or
resubmission in chronological order of receipt, and shall
determine whether the proposed contract is consistent with the
provisions of this Article. If the proposed contract complies,
the State Board shall so certify.
(e) No renewal of a previously certified contract is
effective unless and until the State Board certifies that the
renewal is consistent with the provisions of this Article. A
material revision to a previously certified contract may go
into effect immediately upon approval of both the local school
board and the governing body of the charter school, unless
either party requests in writing that the State Board certify
that the material revision is consistent with the provisions of
this Article. If such a request is made, the proposed material
revision is not effective unless and until the State Board so
certifies.
(Source: P.A. 98-972, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1048, eff. 8-25-14;
revised 10-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/27A-7)
Sec. 27A-7. Charter submission.
(a) A proposal to establish a charter school shall be
submitted to the local school board and the State Board for
certification under Section 27A-6 of this Code in the form of a
proposed contract entered into between the local school board
and the governing body of a proposed charter school. The
charter school proposal shall include:
(1) The name of the proposed charter school, which must
include the words "Charter School".
(2) The age or grade range, areas of focus, minimum and
maximum numbers of pupils to be enrolled in the charter
school, and any other admission criteria that would be
legal if used by a school district.
(3) A description of and address for the physical plant
in which the charter school will be located; provided that
nothing in the Article shall be deemed to justify delaying
or withholding favorable action on or approval of a charter
school proposal because the building or buildings in which
the charter school is to be located have not been acquired
or rented at the time a charter school proposal is
submitted or approved or a charter school contract is
entered into or submitted for certification or certified,
so long as the proposal or submission identifies and names
at least 2 sites that are potentially available as a
charter school facility by the time the charter school is
to open.
(4) The mission statement of the charter school, which
must be consistent with the General Assembly's declared
purposes; provided that nothing in this Article shall be
construed to require that, in order to receive favorable
consideration and approval, a charter school proposal
demonstrate unequivocally that the charter school will be
able to meet each of those declared purposes, it being the
intention of the Charter Schools Law that those purposes be
recognized as goals that charter schools must aspire to
attain.
(5) The goals, objectives, and pupil performance
standards to be achieved by the charter school.
(6) In the case of a proposal to establish a charter
school by converting an existing public school or
attendance center to charter school status, evidence that
the proposed formation of the charter school has received
the approval of certified teachers, parents and guardians,
and, if applicable, a local school council as provided in
subsection (b) of Section 27A-8.
(7) A description of the charter school's educational
program, pupil performance standards, curriculum, school
year, school days, and hours of operation.
(8) A description of the charter school's plan for
evaluating pupil performance, the types of assessments
that will be used to measure pupil progress towards
achievement of the school's pupil performance standards,
the timeline for achievement of those standards, and the
procedures for taking corrective action in the event that
pupil performance at the charter school falls below those
standards.
(9) Evidence that the terms of the charter as proposed
are economically sound for both the charter school and the
school district, a proposed budget for the term of the
charter, a description of the manner in which an annual
audit of the financial and administrative operations of the
charter school, including any services provided by the
school district, are to be conducted, and a plan for the
displacement of pupils, teachers, and other employees who
will not attend or be employed in the charter school.
(10) A description of the governance and operation of
the charter school, including the nature and extent of
parental, professional educator, and community involvement
in the governance and operation of the charter school.
(11) An explanation of the relationship that will exist
between the charter school and its employees, including
evidence that the terms and conditions of employment have
been addressed with affected employees and their
recognized representative, if any. However, a bargaining
unit of charter school employees shall be separate and
distinct from any bargaining units formed from employees of
a school district in which the charter school is located.
(12) An agreement between the parties regarding their
respective legal liability and applicable insurance
coverage.
(13) A description of how the charter school plans to
meet the transportation needs of its pupils, and a plan for
addressing the transportation needs of low-income and
at-risk pupils.
(14) The proposed effective date and term of the
charter; provided that the first day of the first academic
year shall be no earlier than August 15 and no later than
September 15 of a calendar year, and the first day of the
fiscal year shall be July 1.
(15) Any other information reasonably required by the
State Board of Education.
(b) A proposal to establish a charter school may be
initiated by individuals or organizations that will have
majority representation on the board of directors or other
governing body of the corporation or other discrete legal
entity that is to be established to operate the proposed
charter school, by a board of education or an intergovernmental
agreement between or among boards of education, or by the board
of directors or other governing body of a discrete legal entity
already existing or established to operate the proposed charter
school. The individuals or organizations referred to in this
subsection may be school teachers, school administrators,
local school councils, colleges or universities or their
faculty members, public community colleges or their
instructors or other representatives, corporations, or other
entities or their representatives. The proposal shall be
submitted to the local school board for consideration and, if
appropriate, for development of a proposed contract to be
submitted to the State Board for certification under Section
27A-6.
(c) The local school board may not without the consent of
the governing body of the charter school condition its approval
of a charter school proposal on acceptance of an agreement to
operate under State laws and regulations and local school board
policies from which the charter school is otherwise exempted
under this Article.
(Source: P.A. 98-739, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1048, eff. 8-25-14;
revised 10-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/27A-11)
Sec. 27A-11. Local financing.
(a) For purposes of the School Code, pupils enrolled in a
charter school shall be included in the pupil enrollment of the
school district within which the pupil resides. Each charter
school (i) shall determine the school district in which each
pupil who is enrolled in the charter school resides, (ii) shall
report the aggregate number of pupils resident of a school
district who are enrolled in the charter school to the school
district in which those pupils reside, and (iii) shall maintain
accurate records of daily attendance that shall be deemed
sufficient to file claims under Section 18-8 notwithstanding
any other requirements of that Section regarding hours of
instruction and teacher certification.
(b) Except for a charter school established by referendum
under Section 27A-6.5, as part of a charter school contract,
the charter school and the local school board shall agree on
funding and any services to be provided by the school district
to the charter school. Agreed funding that a charter school is
to receive from the local school board for a school year shall
be paid in equal quarterly installments with the payment of the
installment for the first quarter being made not later than
July 1, unless the charter establishes a different payment
schedule. However, if a charter school dismisses a pupil from
the charter school after receiving a quarterly payment, the
charter school shall return to the school district, on a
quarterly basis, the prorated portion of public funding
provided for the education of that pupil for the time the
student is not enrolled at the charter school. Likewise, if a
pupil transfers to a charter school between quarterly payments,
the school district shall provide, on a quarterly basis, a
prorated portion of the public funding to the charter school to
provide for the education of that pupil.
All services centrally or otherwise provided by the school
district including, but not limited to, rent, food services,
custodial services, maintenance, curriculum, media services,
libraries, transportation, and warehousing shall be subject to
negotiation between a charter school and the local school board
and paid for out of the revenues negotiated pursuant to this
subsection (b); provided that the local school board shall not
attempt, by negotiation or otherwise, to obligate a charter
school to provide pupil transportation for pupils for whom a
district is not required to provide transportation under the
criteria set forth in subsection (a)(13) of Section 27A-7.
In no event shall the funding be less than 75% or more than
125% of the school district's per capita student tuition
multiplied by the number of students residing in the district
who are enrolled in the charter school.
It is the intent of the General Assembly that funding and
service agreements under this subsection (b) shall be neither a
financial incentive nor a financial disincentive to the
establishment of a charter school.
The charter school may set and collect reasonable fees.
Fees collected from students enrolled at a charter school shall
be retained by the charter school.
(c) Notwithstanding subsection (b) of this Section, the
proportionate share of State and federal resources generated by
students with disabilities or staff serving them shall be
directed to charter schools enrolling those students by their
school districts or administrative units. The proportionate
share of moneys generated under other federal or State
categorical aid programs shall be directed to charter schools
serving students eligible for that aid.
(d) The governing body of a charter school is authorized to
accept gifts, donations, or grants of any kind made to the
charter school and to expend or use gifts, donations, or grants
in accordance with the conditions prescribed by the donor;
however, a gift, donation, or grant may not be accepted by the
governing body if it is subject to any condition contrary to
applicable law or contrary to the terms of the contract between
the charter school and the local school board. Charter schools
shall be encouraged to solicit and utilize community volunteer
speakers and other instructional resources when providing
instruction on the Holocaust and other historical events.
(e) (Blank).
(f) The Commission shall provide technical assistance to
persons and groups preparing or revising charter applications.
(g) At the non-renewal or revocation of its charter, each
charter school shall refund to the local board of education all
unspent funds.
(h) A charter school is authorized to incur temporary,
short term debt to pay operating expenses in anticipation of
receipt of funds from the local school board.
(Source: P.A. 98-640, eff. 6-9-14; 98-739, eff. 7-16-14;
revised 10-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/30-14.2) (from Ch. 122, par. 30-14.2)
Sec. 30-14.2. MIA/POW scholarships.
(a) Any spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or
any step-child of an eligible veteran or serviceperson who
possesses all necessary entrance requirements shall, upon
application and proper proof, be awarded a MIA/POW Scholarship
consisting of the equivalent of 4 calendar years of full-time
enrollment including summer terms, to the state supported
Illinois institution of higher learning of his choice, subject
to the restrictions listed below.
"Eligible veteran or serviceperson" means any veteran or
serviceperson, including an Illinois National Guard member who
is on active duty or is active on a training assignment, who
has been declared by the U.S. Department of Defense or the U.S.
Department of Veterans' Affairs to be a prisoner of war, be
missing in action, have died as the result of a
service-connected disability or be permanently disabled from
service-connected causes with 100% disability and who (i) at
the time of entering service was an Illinois resident, (ii) was
an Illinois resident within 6 months after entering such
service, or (iii) until July 1, 2014, became an Illinois
resident within 6 months after leaving the service and can
establish at least 30 years of continuous residency in the
State of Illinois.
Full-time enrollment means 12 or more semester hours of
courses per semester, or 12 or more quarter hours of courses
per quarter, or the equivalent thereof per term. Scholarships
utilized by dependents enrolled in less than full-time study
shall be computed in the proportion which the number of hours
so carried bears to full-time enrollment.
Scholarships awarded under this Section may be used by a
spouse or child without regard to his or her age. The holder of
a Scholarship awarded under this Section shall be subject to
all examinations and academic standards, including the
maintenance of minimum grade levels, that are applicable
generally to other enrolled students at the Illinois
institution of higher learning where the Scholarship is being
used. If the surviving spouse remarries or if there is a
divorce between the veteran or serviceperson and his or her
spouse while the dependent is pursuing his or her course of
study, Scholarship benefits will be terminated at the end of
the term for which he or she is presently enrolled. Such
dependents shall also be entitled, upon proper proof and
application, to enroll in any extension course offered by a
State supported Illinois institution of higher learning
without payment of tuition and approved fees.
The holder of a MIA/POW Scholarship authorized under this
Section shall not be required to pay any matriculation or
application fees, tuition, activities fees, graduation fees or
other fees, except multipurpose building fees or similar fees
for supplies and materials.
Any dependent who has been or shall be awarded a MIA/POW
Scholarship shall be reimbursed by the appropriate institution
of higher learning for any fees which he or she has paid and
for which exemption is granted under this Section if
application for reimbursement is made within 2 months following
the end of the school term for which the fees were paid.
(b) In lieu of the benefit provided in subsection (a), any
spouse, natural child, legally adopted child, or step-child of
an eligible veteran or serviceperson, which spouse or child has
a physical, mental or developmental disability, shall be
entitled to receive, upon application and proper proof, a
benefit to be used for the purpose of defraying the cost of the
attendance or treatment of such spouse or child at one or more
appropriate therapeutic, rehabilitative or educational
facilities. The application and proof may be made by the parent
or legal guardian of the spouse or child on his or her behalf.
The total benefit provided to any beneficiary under this
subsection shall not exceed the cost equivalent of 4 calendar
years of full-time enrollment, including summer terms, at the
University of Illinois. Whenever practicable in the opinion of
the Department of Veterans' Affairs, payment of benefits under
this subsection shall be made directly to the facility, the
cost of attendance or treatment at which is being defrayed, as
such costs accrue.
(c) The benefits of this Section shall be administered by
and paid for out of funds made available to the Illinois
Department of Veterans' Affairs. The amounts that become due to
any state supported Illinois institution of higher learning
shall be payable by the Comptroller to such institution on
vouchers approved by the Illinois Department of Veterans'
Affairs. The amounts that become due under subsection (b) of
this Section shall be payable by warrant upon vouchers issued
by the Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs and approved by
the Comptroller. The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs
shall determine the eligibility of the persons who make
application for the benefits provided for in this Section.
(Source: P.A. 96-1415, eff. 7-30-10; revised 12-1-14.)
(105 ILCS 5/34-85) (from Ch. 122, par. 34-85)
Sec. 34-85. Removal for cause; Notice and hearing;
Suspension.
(a) No teacher employed by the board of education shall
(after serving the probationary period specified in Section
34-84) be removed except for cause. Teachers (who have
completed the probationary period specified in Section 34-84 of
this Code) shall be removed for cause in accordance with the
procedures set forth in this Section or, at the board's option,
the procedures set forth in Section 24-16.5 of this Code or
such other procedures established in an agreement entered into
between the board and the exclusive representative of the
district's teachers under Section 34-85c of this Code for
teachers (who have completed the probationary period specified
in Section 34-84 of this Code) assigned to schools identified
in that agreement. No principal employed by the board of
education shall be removed during the term of his or her
performance contract except for cause, which may include but is
not limited to the principal's repeated failure to implement
the school improvement plan or to comply with the provisions of
the Uniform Performance Contract, including additional
criteria established by the Council for inclusion in the
performance contract pursuant to Section 34-2.3.
Before service of notice of charges on account of causes
that may be deemed to be remediable, the teacher or principal
must be given reasonable warning in writing, stating
specifically the causes that, if not removed, may result in
charges; however, no such written warning is required if the
causes have been the subject of a remediation plan pursuant to
Article 24A of this Code or if the board and the exclusive
representative of the district's teachers have entered into an
agreement pursuant to Section 34-85c of this Code, pursuant to
an alternative system of remediation. No written warning shall
be required for conduct on the part of a teacher or principal
that is cruel, immoral, negligent, or criminal or that in any
way causes psychological or physical harm or injury to a
student, as that conduct is deemed to be irremediable. No
written warning shall be required for a material breach of the
uniform principal performance contract, as that conduct is
deemed to be irremediable; provided that not less than 30 days
before the vote of the local school council to seek the
dismissal of a principal for a material breach of a uniform
principal performance contract, the local school council shall
specify the nature of the alleged breach in writing and provide
a copy of it to the principal.
(1) To initiate dismissal proceedings against a
teacher or principal, the general superintendent must
first approve written charges and specifications against
the teacher or principal. A local school council may direct
the general superintendent to approve written charges
against its principal on behalf of the Council upon the
vote of 7 members of the Council. The general
superintendent must approve those charges within 45
calendar days or provide a written reason for not approving
those charges. A written notice of those charges, including
specifications, shall be served upon the teacher or
principal within 10 business days of the approval of the
charges. Any written notice sent on or after July 1, 2012
shall also inform the teacher or principal of the right to
request a hearing before a mutually selected hearing
officer, with the cost of the hearing officer split equally
between the teacher or principal and the board, or a
hearing before a qualified hearing officer chosen by the
general superintendent, with the cost of the hearing
officer paid by the board. If the teacher or principal
cannot be found upon diligent inquiry, such charges may be
served upon him by mailing a copy thereof in a sealed
envelope by prepaid certified mail, return receipt
requested, to the teacher's or principal's last known
address. A return receipt showing delivery to such address
within 20 calendar days after the date of the approval of
the charges shall constitute proof of service.
(2) No hearing upon the charges is required unless the
teacher or principal within 17 calendar days after
receiving notice requests in writing of the general
superintendent that a hearing be scheduled. Pending the
hearing of the charges, the general superintendent or his
or her designee may suspend the teacher or principal
charged without pay in accordance with rules prescribed by
the board, provided that if the teacher or principal
charged is not dismissed based on the charges, he or she
must be made whole for lost earnings, less setoffs for
mitigation.
(3) The board shall maintain a list of at least 9
qualified hearing officers who will conduct hearings on
charges and specifications. The list must be developed in
good faith consultation with the exclusive representative
of the board's teachers and professional associations that
represent the board's principals. The list may be revised
on July 1st of each year or earlier as needed. To be a
qualified hearing officer, the person must (i) be
accredited by a national arbitration organization and have
had a minimum of 5 years of experience as an arbitrator in
cases involving labor and employment relations matters
between employers and employees or their exclusive
bargaining representatives and (ii) beginning September 1,
2012, have participated in training provided or approved by
the State Board of Education for teacher dismissal hearing
officers so that he or she is familiar with issues
generally involved in evaluative and non-evaluative
dismissals.
(3) Within 5 business days after receiving the notice
of request for a hearing, the general superintendent and
the teacher or principal or their legal representatives
shall alternately strike one name from the list until only
one name remains. Unless waived by the teacher, the teacher
or principal shall have the right to proceed first with the
striking. If the teacher or principal fails to participate
in the striking process, the general superintendent shall
either select the hearing officer from the list developed
pursuant to this paragraph (3) or select another qualified
hearing officer from the master list maintained by the
State Board of Education pursuant to subsection (c) of
Section 24-12 of this Code.
(4) If the notice of dismissal was sent to the teacher
or principal before July 1, 2012, the fees and costs for
the hearing officer shall be paid by the State Board of
Education. If the notice of dismissal was sent to the
teacher or principal on or after July 1, 2012, the hearing
officer's fees and costs must be paid as follows in this
paragraph (4). The fees and permissible costs for the
hearing officer shall be determined by the State Board of
Education. If the hearing officer is mutually selected by
the parties through alternate striking in accordance with
paragraph (3) of this subsection (a), then the board and
the teacher or their legal representative shall each pay
50% of the fees and costs and any supplemental allowance to
which they agree. If the hearing officer is selected by the
general superintendent without the participation of the
teacher or principal, then the board shall pay 100% of the
hearing officer fees and costs. The hearing officer shall
submit for payment a billing statement to the parties that
itemizes the charges and expenses and divides them in
accordance with this Section.
(5) The teacher or the principal charged is required to
answer the charges and specifications and aver affirmative
matters in his or her defense, and the time for doing so
must be set by the hearing officer. The State Board of
Education shall adopt rules so that each party has a fair
opportunity to present its case and to ensure that the
dismissal proceeding is concluded in an expeditious
manner. The rules shall address, without limitation, the
teacher or principal's answer and affirmative defenses to
the charges and specifications; a requirement that each
party make mandatory disclosures without request to the
other party and then update the disclosure no later than 10
calendar days prior to the commencement of the hearing,
including a list of the names and addresses of persons who
may be called as witnesses at the hearing, a summary of the
facts or opinions each witness will testify to, and all
other documents and materials, including information
maintained electronically, relevant to its own as well as
the other party's case (the hearing officer may exclude
witnesses and exhibits not identified and shared, except
those offered in rebuttal for which the party could not
reasonably have anticipated prior to the hearing);
pre-hearing discovery and preparation, including provision
for written interrogatories and requests for production of
documents, provided that discovery depositions are
prohibited; the conduct of the hearing; the right of each
party to be represented by counsel, the offer of evidence
and witnesses and the cross-examination of witnesses; the
authority of the hearing officer to issue subpoenas and
subpoenas duces tecum, provided that the hearing officer
may limit the number of witnesses to be subpoenaed in
behalf of each party to no more than 7; the length of
post-hearing briefs; and the form, length, and content of
hearing officers' reports and recommendations to the
general superintendent.
The hearing officer shall commence the hearing within
75 calendar days and conclude the hearing within 120
calendar days after being selected by the parties as the
hearing officer, provided that these timelines may be
modified upon the showing of good cause or mutual agreement
of the parties. Good cause for the purposes of this
paragraph (5) shall mean the illness or otherwise
unavoidable emergency of the teacher, district
representative, their legal representatives, the hearing
officer, or an essential witness as indicated in each
party's pre-hearing submission. In a dismissal hearing,
the hearing officer shall consider and give weight to all
of the teacher's evaluations written pursuant to Article
24A that are relevant to the issues in the hearing. The
teacher or principal has the privilege of being present at
the hearing with counsel and of cross-examining witnesses
and may offer evidence and witnesses and present defenses
to the charges. Each party shall have no more than 3 days
to present its case, unless extended by the hearing officer
to enable a party to present adequate evidence and
testimony, including due to the other party's
cross-examination of the party's witnesses, for good cause
or by mutual agreement of the parties. The State Board of
Education shall define in rules the meaning of "day" for
such purposes. All testimony at the hearing shall be taken
under oath administered by the hearing officer. The hearing
officer shall cause a record of the proceedings to be kept
and shall employ a competent reporter to take stenographic
or stenotype notes of all the testimony. The costs of the
reporter's attendance and services at the hearing shall be
paid by the party or parties who are paying the fees and
costs of the hearing officer. Either party desiring a
transcript of the hearing shall pay for the cost thereof.
At the close of the hearing, the hearing officer shall
direct the parties to submit post-hearing briefs no later
than 21 calendar days after receipt of the transcript.
Either or both parties may waive submission of briefs.
(6) The hearing officer shall within 30 calendar days
from the conclusion of the hearing report to the general
superintendent findings of fact and a recommendation as to
whether or not the teacher or principal shall be dismissed
and shall give a copy of the report to both the teacher or
principal and the general superintendent. The State Board
of Education shall provide by rule the form of the hearing
officer's report and recommendation.
(7) The board, within 45 days of receipt of the hearing
officer's findings of fact and recommendation, shall make a
decision as to whether the teacher or principal shall be
dismissed from its employ. The failure of the board to
strictly adhere to the timeliness contained herein shall
not render it without jurisdiction to dismiss the teacher
or principal. In the event that the board declines to
dismiss the teacher or principal after review of a hearing
officer's recommendation, the board shall set the amount of
back pay and benefits to award the teacher or principal,
which shall include offsets for interim earnings and
failure to mitigate losses. The board shall establish
procedures for the teacher's or principal's submission of
evidence to it regarding lost earnings, lost benefits,
mitigation, and offsets. The decision of the board is final
unless reviewed in accordance with paragraph (8) of this
subsection (a).
(8) The teacher may seek judicial review of the board's
decision in accordance with the Administrative Review Law,
which is specifically incorporated in this Section, except
that the review must be initiated in the Illinois Appellate
Court for the First District. In the event judicial review
is instituted, any costs of preparing and filing the record
of proceedings shall be paid by the party instituting the
review. In the event the appellate court reverses a board
decision to dismiss a teacher or principal and directs the
board to pay the teacher or the principal back pay and
benefits, the appellate court shall remand the matter to
the board to issue an administrative decision as to the
amount of back pay and benefits, which shall include a
calculation of the lost earnings, lost benefits,
mitigation, and offsets based on evidence submitted to the
board in accordance with procedures established by the
board.
(b) Nothing in this Section affects the validity of removal
for cause hearings commenced prior to June 13, 2011 (the
effective date of Public Act 97-8) this amendatory Act of the
97th General Assembly.
The changes made by Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of
the 97th General Assembly shall apply to dismissals instituted
on or after September 1, 2011 or the effective date of Public
Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly,
whichever is later. Any dismissal instituted prior to the
effective date of these changes must be carried out in
accordance with the requirements of this Section prior to
amendment by Public Act 97-8 this amendatory Act of 97th
General Assembly.
(Source: P.A. 97-8, eff. 6-13-11; revised 12-1-14.)
Section 195. The Illinois School Student Records Act is
amended by changing Section 6 as follows:
(105 ILCS 10/6) (from Ch. 122, par. 50-6)
Sec. 6. (a) No school student records or information
contained therein may be released, transferred, disclosed or
otherwise disseminated, except as follows:
(1) to To a parent or student or person specifically
designated as a representative by a parent, as provided in
paragraph (a) of Section 5;
(2) to To an employee or official of the school or
school district or State Board with current demonstrable
educational or administrative interest in the student, in
furtherance of such interest;
(3) to To the official records custodian of another
school within Illinois or an official with similar
responsibilities of a school outside Illinois, in which the
student has enrolled, or intends to enroll, upon the
request of such official or student;
(4) to To any person for the purpose of research,
statistical reporting, or planning, provided that such
research, statistical reporting, or planning is
permissible under and undertaken in accordance with the
federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20
U.S.C. 1232g);
(5) pursuant Pursuant to a court order, provided that
the parent shall be given prompt written notice upon
receipt of such order of the terms of the order, the nature
and substance of the information proposed to be released in
compliance with such order and an opportunity to inspect
and copy the school student records and to challenge their
contents pursuant to Section 7;
(6) to To any person as specifically required by State
or federal law;
(6.5) to To juvenile authorities when necessary for the
discharge of their official duties who request information
prior to adjudication of the student and who certify in
writing that the information will not be disclosed to any
other party except as provided under law or order of court.
For purposes of this Section "juvenile authorities" means:
(i) a judge of the circuit court and members of the staff
of the court designated by the judge; (ii) parties to the
proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and their
attorneys; (iii) probation officers and court appointed
advocates for the juvenile authorized by the judge hearing
the case; (iv) any individual, public or private agency
having custody of the child pursuant to court order; (v)
any individual, public or private agency providing
education, medical or mental health service to the child
when the requested information is needed to determine the
appropriate service or treatment for the minor; (vi) any
potential placement provider when such release is
authorized by the court for the limited purpose of
determining the appropriateness of the potential
placement; (vii) law enforcement officers and prosecutors;
(viii) adult and juvenile prisoner review boards; (ix)
authorized military personnel; (x) individuals authorized
by court;
(7) subject Subject to regulations of the State Board,
in connection with an emergency, to appropriate persons if
the knowledge of such information is necessary to protect
the health or safety of the student or other persons;
(8) to To any person, with the prior specific dated
written consent of the parent designating the person to
whom the records may be released, provided that at the time
any such consent is requested or obtained, the parent shall
be advised in writing that he has the right to inspect and
copy such records in accordance with Section 5, to
challenge their contents in accordance with Section 7 and
to limit any such consent to designated records or
designated portions of the information contained therein;
(9) to To a governmental agency, or social service
agency contracted by a governmental agency, in furtherance
of an investigation of a student's school attendance
pursuant to the compulsory student attendance laws of this
State, provided that the records are released to the
employee or agent designated by the agency;
(10) to To those SHOCAP committee members who fall
within the meaning of "state and local officials and
authorities", as those terms are used within the meaning of
the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act, for
the purposes of identifying serious habitual juvenile
offenders and matching those offenders with community
resources pursuant to Section 5-145 of the Juvenile Court
Act of 1987, but only to the extent that the release,
transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is consistent with
the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act;
(11) to To the Department of Healthcare and Family
Services in furtherance of the requirements of Section
2-3.131, 3-14.29, 10-28, or 34-18.26 of the School Code or
Section 10 of the School Breakfast and Lunch Program Act;
or
(12) to To the State Board or another State government
agency or between or among State government agencies in
order to evaluate or audit federal and State programs or
perform research and planning, but only to the extent that
the release, transfer, disclosure, or dissemination is
consistent with the federal Family Educational Rights and
Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. 1232g).
(b) No information may be released pursuant to subparagraph
subparagraphs (3) or (6) of paragraph (a) of this Section 6
unless the parent receives prior written notice of the nature
and substance of the information proposed to be released, and
an opportunity to inspect and copy such records in accordance
with Section 5 and to challenge their contents in accordance
with Section 7. Provided, however, that such notice shall be
sufficient if published in a local newspaper of general
circulation or other publication directed generally to the
parents involved where the proposed release of information is
pursuant to subparagraph (6) 6 of paragraph (a) of in this
Section 6 and relates to more than 25 students.
(c) A record of any release of information pursuant to this
Section must be made and kept as a part of the school student
record and subject to the access granted by Section 5. Such
record of release shall be maintained for the life of the
school student records and shall be available only to the
parent and the official records custodian. Each record of
release shall also include:
(1) the The nature and substance of the information
released;
(2) the The name and signature of the official records
custodian releasing such information;
(3) the The name of the person requesting such
information, the capacity in which such a request has been
made, and the purpose of such request;
(4) the The date of the release; and
(5) a A copy of any consent to such release.
(d) Except for the student and his parents, no person to
whom information is released pursuant to this Section and no
person specifically designated as a representative by a parent
may permit any other person to have access to such information
without a prior consent of the parent obtained in accordance
with the requirements of subparagraph (8) of paragraph (a) of
this Section.
(e) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the
publication of student directories which list student names,
addresses and other identifying information and similar
publications which comply with regulations issued by the State
Board.
(Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-793, eff. 1-1-09;
96-107, eff. 7-30-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 200. The Critical Health Problems and
Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing
Section 2 as follows:
(105 ILCS 110/2) (from Ch. 122, par. 862)
Sec. 2. Definitions. The following term has terms shall
have the following meaning meanings respectively prescribed
for them, except as the context otherwise requires:
(a) "Comprehensive Health Education Program": a systematic
and extensive educational program designed to provide a variety
of learning experiences based upon scientific knowledge of the
human organism as it functions within its environment which
will favorably influence the knowledge, attitudes, values and
practices of Illinois school youth; and which will aid them in
making wise personal decisions in matters of health.
(Source: P.A. 77-1405; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 205. The School Safety Drill Act is amended by
changing Section 25 as follows:
(105 ILCS 128/25)
Sec. 25. Annual review.
(a) Each public school district, through its school board
or the board's designee, shall conduct a minimum of one annual
meeting at which it will review each school building's
emergency and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures
and each building's compliance with the school safety drill
programs. The purpose of this annual review shall be to review
and update the emergency and crisis response plans, protocols,
and procedures and the school safety drill programs of the
district and each of its school buildings. This review must be
at no cost to the school district. In updating a school
building's emergency and crisis response plans, consideration
may be given to making the emergency and crisis response plans
available to first responders, administrators, and teachers
for implementation and utilization through the use of
electronic applications on electronic devices, including, but
not limited to, smartphones, tablets, and laptop computers.
(b) Each school board or the board's designee is required
to participate in the annual review and to invite each of the
following parties to the annual review and provide each party
with a minimum of 30 days' 30-days' notice before the date of
the annual review:
(1) The principal of each school within the school
district or his or her official designee.
(2) Representatives from any other education-related
organization or association deemed appropriate by the
school district.
(3) Representatives from all local first responder
organizations to participate, advise, and consult in the
review process, including, but not limited to:
(A) the appropriate local fire department or
district;
(B) the appropriate local law enforcement agency;
(C) the appropriate local emergency medical
services agency if the agency is a separate, local
first responder unit; and
(D) any other member of the first responder or
emergency management community that has contacted the
district superintendent or his or her designee during
the past year to request involvement in a school's
emergency planning or drill process.
(4) The school board or its designee may also choose to
invite to the annual review any other persons whom it
believes will aid in the review process, including, but not
limited to, any members of any other education-related
organization or the first responder or emergency
management community.
(c) Upon the conclusion of the annual review, the school
board or the board's designee shall sign a one page report,
which may be in either a check-off format or a narrative
format, that does the following:
(1) summarizes the review's recommended changes to the
existing school safety plans and drill plans;
(2) lists the parties that participated in the annual
review, and includes the annual review's attendance
record;
(3) certifies that an effective review of the emergency
and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures and
the school safety drill programs of the district and each
of its school buildings has occurred;
(4) states that the school district will implement
those plans, protocols, procedures, and programs, during
the academic year; and
(5) includes the authorization of the school board or
the board's designee.
(d) The school board or its designee shall send a copy of
the report to each party that participates in the annual review
process and to the appropriate regional superintendent of
schools. If any of the participating parties have comments on
the certification document, those parties shall submit their
comments in writing to the appropriate regional
superintendent. The regional superintendent shall maintain a
record of these comments. The certification document may be in
a check-off format or narrative format, at the discretion of
the district superintendent.
(e) The review must occur at least once during the fiscal
year, at a specific time chosen at the school district
superintendent's discretion.
(f) A private school shall conduct a minimum of one annual
meeting at which the school must review each school building's
emergency and crisis response plans, protocols, and procedures
and each building's compliance with the school safety drill
programs of the school. The purpose of this annual review shall
be to review and update the emergency and crisis response
plans, protocols, and procedures and the school safety drill
programs of the school. This review must be at no cost to the
private school.
The private school shall invite representatives from all
local first responder organizations to participate, advise,
and consult in the review process, including, but not limited
to, the following:
(1) the appropriate local fire department or fire
protection district;
(2) the appropriate local law enforcement agency;
(3) the appropriate local emergency medical services
agency if the agency is a separate, local first responder
unit; and
(4) any other member of the first responder or
emergency management community that has contacted the
school's chief administrative officer or his or her
designee during the past year to request involvement in the
school's emergency planning or drill process.
(Source: P.A. 98-661, eff. 1-1-15; 98-663, eff. 6-23-14;
revised 7-15-14.)
Section 210. The Illinois Credit Union Act is amended by
changing Sections 46 and 57.1 as follows:
(205 ILCS 305/46) (from Ch. 17, par. 4447)
Sec. 46. Loans and interest rate.
(1) A credit union may make loans to its members for such
purpose and upon such security and terms, including rates of
interest, as the credit committee, credit manager, or loan
officer approves. Notwithstanding the provisions of any other
law in connection with extensions of credit, a credit union may
elect to contract for and receive interest and fees and other
charges for extensions of credit subject only to the provisions
of this Act and rules promulgated under this Act, except that
extensions of credit secured by residential real estate shall
be subject to the laws applicable thereto. The rates of
interest to be charged on loans to members shall be set by the
board of directors of each individual credit union in
accordance with Section 30 of this Act and such rates may be
less than, but may not exceed, the maximum rate set forth in
this Section. A borrower may repay his loan prior to maturity,
in whole or in part, without penalty. The credit contract may
provide for the payment by the member and receipt by the credit
union of all costs and disbursements, including reasonable
attorney's fees and collection agency charges, incurred by the
credit union to collect or enforce the debt in the event of a
delinquency by the member, or in the event of a breach of any
obligation of the member under the credit contract. A
contingency or hourly arrangement established under an
agreement entered into by a credit union with an attorney or
collection agency to collect a loan of a member in default
shall be presumed prima facie reasonable.
(2) Credit unions may make loans based upon the security of
any interest or equity in real estate, subject to rules and
regulations promulgated by the Secretary. In any contract or
loan which is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or
conveyance in the nature of a mortgage, on residential real
estate, the interest which is computed, calculated, charged, or
collected pursuant to such contract or loan, or pursuant to any
regulation or rule promulgated pursuant to this Act, may not be
computed, calculated, charged or collected for any period of
time occurring after the date on which the total indebtedness,
with the exception of late payment penalties, is paid in full.
For purposes of this subsection (2) of this Section 46, a
prepayment shall mean the payment of the total indebtedness,
with the exception of late payment penalties if incurred or
charged, on any date before the date specified in the contract
or loan agreement on which the total indebtedness shall be paid
in full, or before the date on which all payments, if timely
made, shall have been made. In the event of a prepayment of the
indebtedness which is made on a date after the date on which
interest on the indebtedness was last computed, calculated,
charged, or collected but before the next date on which
interest on the indebtedness was to be calculated, computed,
charged, or collected, the lender may calculate, charge and
collect interest on the indebtedness for the period which
elapsed between the date on which the prepayment is made and
the date on which interest on the indebtedness was last
computed, calculated, charged or collected at a rate equal to
1/360 of the annual rate for each day which so elapsed, which
rate shall be applied to the indebtedness outstanding as of the
date of prepayment. The lender shall refund to the borrower any
interest charged or collected which exceeds that which the
lender may charge or collect pursuant to the preceding
sentence. The provisions of this amendatory Act of 1985 shall
apply only to contracts or loans entered into on or after the
effective date of this amendatory Act.
(3) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, a
credit union authorized under this Act to make loans secured by
an interest or equity in real estate may engage in making
"reverse mortgage" loans to persons for the purpose of making
home improvements or repairs, paying insurance premiums or
paying real estate taxes on the homestead properties of such
persons. If made, such loans shall be made on such terms and
conditions as the credit union shall determine and as shall be
consistent with the provisions of this Section and such rules
and regulations as the Secretary shall promulgate hereunder.
For purposes of this Section, a "reverse mortgage" loan shall
be a loan extended on the basis of existing equity in homestead
property and secured by a mortgage on such property. Such loans
shall be repaid upon the sale of the property or upon the death
of the owner or, if the property is in joint tenancy, upon the
death of the last surviving joint tenant who had such an
interest in the property at the time the loan was initiated,
provided, however, that the credit union and its member may by
mutual agreement, establish other repayment terms. A credit
union, in making a "reverse mortgage" loan, may add deferred
interest to principal or otherwise provide for the charging of
interest or premiums on such deferred interest. "Homestead"
property, for purposes of this Section, means the domicile and
contiguous real estate owned and occupied by the mortgagor.
(4) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act, a
credit union authorized under this Act to make loans secured by
an interest or equity in real property may engage in making
revolving credit loans secured by mortgages or deeds of trust
on such real property or by security assignments of beneficial
interests in land trusts.
For purposes of this Section, "revolving credit" has the
meaning defined in Section 4.1 of the Interest Act.
Any mortgage or deed of trust given to secure a revolving
credit loan may, and when so expressed therein shall, secure
not only the existing indebtedness but also such future
advances, whether such advances are obligatory or to be made at
the option of the lender, or otherwise, as are made within
twenty years from the date thereof, to the same extent as if
such future advances were made on the date of the execution of
such mortgage or deed of trust, although there may be no
advance made at the time of execution of such mortgage or other
instrument, and although there may be no indebtedness
outstanding at the time any advance is made. The lien of such
mortgage or deed of trust, as to third persons without actual
notice thereof, shall be valid as to all such indebtedness and
future advances form the time said mortgage or deed of trust is
filed for record in the office of the recorder of deeds or the
registrar of titles of the county where the real property
described therein is located. The total amount of indebtedness
that may be so secured may increase or decrease from time to
time, but the total unpaid balance so secured at any one time
shall not exceed a maximum principal amount which must be
specified in such mortgage or deed of trust, plus interest
thereon, and any disbursements made for the payment of taxes,
special assessments, or insurance on said real property, with
interest on such disbursements.
Any such mortgage or deed of trust shall be valid and have
priority over all subsequent liens and encumbrances, including
statutory liens, except taxes and assessments levied on said
real property.
(4-5) For purposes of this Section, "real estate" and "real
property" include a manufactured home as defined in subdivision
(53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code which is
real property as defined in Section 5-35 of the Conveyance and
Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and
Severance Act.
(5) Compliance with federal or Illinois preemptive laws or
regulations governing loans made by a credit union chartered
under this Act shall constitute compliance with this Act.
(6) Credit unions may make residential real estate mortgage
loans on terms and conditions established by the United States
Department of Agriculture through its Rural Development
Housing and Community Facilities Program. The portion of any
loan in excess of the appraised value of the real estate shall
be allocable only to the guarantee fee required under the
program.
(7) For a renewal, refinancing, or restructuring of an
existing loan that is secured by an interest or equity in real
estate, a new appraisal of the collateral shall not be required
when the transaction involves an existing extension of credit
at the credit union, no new moneys are advanced other than
funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs, and there
has been no obvious or material change in market conditions or
physical aspects of the real estate that threatens the adequacy
of the credit union's real estate collateral protection after
the transaction.
(Source: P.A. 97-133, eff. 1-1-12; 98-749, eff. 7-16-14;
98-784, eff. 7-24-14; revised 10-2-14.)
(205 ILCS 305/57.1)
Sec. 57.1. Services to other credit unions.
(a) A credit union may act as a representative of and enter
into an agreement with credit unions or other organizations for
the purposes purpose of:
(1) sharing, utilizing, renting, leasing, purchasing,
selling, and joint ownership of fixed assets or engaging in
activities and services that relate to the daily operations
of credit unions; and
(2) providing correspondent services to other credit
unions that the service provider credit union is authorized
to perform for its own members or as part of its
operations, including, but not limited to, loan
processing, loan servicing, member check cashing services,
disbursing share withdrawals and loan proceeds, cashing
and selling money orders, ACH and wire transfer services,
coin and currency services, performing internal audits,
and automated teller machine deposit services.
(Source: P.A. 98-784, eff. 7-24-14; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 215. The Residential Mortgage License Act of 1987
is amended by changing Section 1-4 as follows:
(205 ILCS 635/1-4)
Sec. 1-4. Definitions. The following words and phrases have
the meanings given to them in this Section:
(a) "Residential real property" or "residential real
estate" shall mean any real property located in Illinois,
upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a
dwelling. Those terms include a manufactured home as
defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform
Commercial Code which is real property as defined in
Section 5-35 of the Conveyance and Encumbrance of
Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act.
(b) "Making a residential mortgage loan" or "funding a
residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or
gain, either directly or indirectly, advancing funds or
making a commitment to advance funds to a loan applicant
for a residential mortgage loan.
(c) "Soliciting, processing, placing, or negotiating a
residential mortgage loan" shall mean for compensation or
gain, either directly or indirectly, accepting or offering
to accept an application for a residential mortgage loan,
assisting or offering to assist in the processing of an
application for a residential mortgage loan on behalf of a
borrower, or negotiating or offering to negotiate the terms
or conditions of a residential mortgage loan with a lender
on behalf of a borrower including, but not limited to, the
submission of credit packages for the approval of lenders,
the preparation of residential mortgage loan closing
documents, including a closing in the name of a broker.
(d) "Exempt person or entity" shall mean the following:
(1) (i) Any banking organization or foreign
banking corporation licensed by the Illinois
Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the United
States Comptroller of the Currency to transact
business in this State; (ii) any national bank,
federally chartered savings and loan association,
federal savings bank, federal credit union; (iii)
(blank); (iv) any bank, savings and loan association,
savings bank, or credit union organized under the laws
of this or any other state; (v) any Illinois Consumer
Installment Loan Act licensee; (vi) any insurance
company authorized to transact business in this State;
(vii) any entity engaged solely in commercial mortgage
lending; (viii) any service corporation of a savings
and loan association or savings bank organized under
the laws of this State or the service corporation of a
federally chartered savings and loan association or
savings bank having its principal place of business in
this State, other than a service corporation licensed
or entitled to reciprocity under the Real Estate
License Act of 2000; or (ix) any first tier subsidiary
of a bank, the charter of which is issued under the
Illinois Banking Act by the Illinois Commissioner of
Banks and Real Estate, or the first tier subsidiary of
a bank chartered by the United States Comptroller of
the Currency and that has its principal place of
business in this State, provided that the first tier
subsidiary is regularly examined by the Illinois
Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate or the
Comptroller of the Currency, or a consumer compliance
examination is regularly conducted by the Federal
Reserve Board.
(1.5) Any employee of a person or entity mentioned
in item (1) of this subsection, when acting for such
person or entity, or any registered mortgage loan
originator when acting for an entity described in
subsection (tt) of this Section.
(1.8) Any person or entity that does not originate
mortgage loans in the ordinary course of business, but
makes or acquires residential mortgage loans with his
or her own funds for his or her or its own investment
without intent to make, acquire, or resell more than 3
residential mortgage loans in any one calendar year.
(2) (Blank).
(3) Any person employed by a licensee to assist in
the performance of the residential mortgage licensee's
activities regulated by this Act who is compensated in
any manner by only one licensee.
(4) (Blank).
(5) Any individual, corporation, partnership, or
other entity that originates, services, or brokers
residential mortgage loans, as these activities are
defined in this Act, and who or which receives no
compensation for those activities, subject to the
Commissioner's regulations and the federal Secure and
Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008 and
the rules promulgated under that Act with regard to the
nature and amount of compensation.
(6) (Blank).
(e) "Licensee" or "residential mortgage licensee"
shall mean a person, partnership, association,
corporation, or any other entity who or which is licensed
pursuant to this Act to engage in the activities regulated
by this Act.
(f) "Mortgage loan" "residential mortgage loan" or
"home mortgage loan" shall mean any loan primarily for
personal, family, or household use that is secured by a
mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual
security interest on a dwelling as defined in Section
103(v) of the federal Truth in Lending Act, or residential
real estate upon which is constructed or intended to be
constructed a dwelling.
(g) "Lender" shall mean any person, partnership,
association, corporation, or any other entity who either
lends or invests money in residential mortgage loans.
(h) "Ultimate equitable owner" shall mean a person who,
directly or indirectly, owns or controls an ownership
interest in a corporation, foreign corporation, alien
business organization, trust, or any other form of business
organization regardless of whether the person owns or
controls the ownership interest through one or more persons
or one or more proxies, powers of attorney, nominees,
corporations, associations, partnerships, trusts, joint
stock companies, or other entities or devices, or any
combination thereof.
(i) "Residential mortgage financing transaction" shall
mean the negotiation, acquisition, sale, or arrangement
for or the offer to negotiate, acquire, sell, or arrange
for, a residential mortgage loan or residential mortgage
loan commitment.
(j) "Personal residence address" shall mean a street
address and shall not include a post office box number.
(k) "Residential mortgage loan commitment" shall mean
a contract for residential mortgage loan financing.
(l) "Party to a residential mortgage financing
transaction" shall mean a borrower, lender, or loan broker
in a residential mortgage financing transaction.
(m) "Payments" shall mean payment of all or any of the
following: principal, interest and escrow reserves for
taxes, insurance and other related reserves, and
reimbursement for lender advances.
(n) "Commissioner" shall mean the Commissioner of
Banks and Real Estate, except that, beginning on April 6,
2009 (the effective date of Public Act 95-1047), all
references in this Act to the Commissioner of Banks and
Real Estate are deemed, in appropriate contexts, to be
references to the Secretary of Financial and Professional
Regulation, or his or her designee, including the Director
of the Division of Banking of the Department of Financial
and Professional Regulation.
(n-1) "Director" shall mean the Director of the
Division of Banking of the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation, except that, beginning on July
31, 2009 (the effective date of Public Act 96-112), all
references in this Act to the Director are deemed, in
appropriate contexts, to be the Secretary of Financial and
Professional Regulation, or his or her designee, including
the Director of the Division of Banking of the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation.
(o) "Loan brokering", "brokering", or "brokerage
service" shall mean the act of helping to obtain from
another entity, for a borrower, a loan secured by
residential real estate situated in Illinois or assisting a
borrower in obtaining a loan secured by residential real
estate situated in Illinois in return for consideration to
be paid by either the borrower or the lender including, but
not limited to, contracting for the delivery of residential
mortgage loans to a third party lender and soliciting,
processing, placing, or negotiating residential mortgage
loans.
(p) "Loan broker" or "broker" shall mean a person,
partnership, association, corporation, or limited
liability company, other than those persons, partnerships,
associations, corporations, or limited liability companies
exempted from licensing pursuant to Section 1-4,
subsection (d), of this Act, who performs the activities
described in subsections (c), (o), and (yy) of this
Section.
(q) "Servicing" shall mean the collection or
remittance for or the right or obligation to collect or
remit for any lender, noteowner, noteholder, or for a
licensee's own account, of payments, interests, principal,
and trust items such as hazard insurance and taxes on a
residential mortgage loan in accordance with the terms of
the residential mortgage loan; and includes loan payment
follow-up, delinquency loan follow-up, loan analysis and
any notifications to the borrower that are necessary to
enable the borrower to keep the loan current and in good
standing. "Servicing" includes management of third-party
entities acting on behalf of a residential mortgage
licensee for the collection of delinquent payments and the
use by such third-party entities of said licensee's
servicing records or information, including their use in
foreclosure.
(r) "Full service office" shall mean an office,
provided by the licensee and not subleased from the
licensee's employees, and staff in Illinois reasonably
adequate to handle efficiently communications, questions,
and other matters relating to any application for, or an
existing home mortgage secured by residential real estate
situated in Illinois with respect to which the licensee is
brokering, funding originating, purchasing, or servicing.
The management and operation of each full service office
must include observance of good business practices such as
proper signage; adequate, organized, and accurate books
and records; ample phone lines, hours of business, staff
training and supervision, and provision for a mechanism to
resolve consumer inquiries, complaints, and problems. The
Commissioner shall issue regulations with regard to these
requirements and shall include an evaluation of compliance
with this Section in his or her periodic examination of
each licensee.
(s) "Purchasing" shall mean the purchase of
conventional or government-insured mortgage loans secured
by residential real estate situated in Illinois from either
the lender or from the secondary market.
(t) "Borrower" shall mean the person or persons who
seek the services of a loan broker, originator, or lender.
(u) "Originating" shall mean the issuing of
commitments for and funding of residential mortgage loans.
(v) "Loan brokerage agreement" shall mean a written
agreement in which a broker or loan broker agrees to do
either of the following:
(1) obtain a residential mortgage loan for the
borrower or assist the borrower in obtaining a
residential mortgage loan; or
(2) consider making a residential mortgage loan to
the borrower.
(w) "Advertisement" shall mean the attempt by
publication, dissemination, or circulation to induce,
directly or indirectly, any person to enter into a
residential mortgage loan agreement or residential
mortgage loan brokerage agreement relative to a mortgage
secured by residential real estate situated in Illinois.
(x) "Residential Mortgage Board" shall mean the
Residential Mortgage Board created in Section 1-5 of this
Act.
(y) "Government-insured mortgage loan" shall mean any
mortgage loan made on the security of residential real
estate insured by the Department of Housing and Urban
Development or Farmers Home Loan Administration, or
guaranteed by the Veterans Administration.
(z) "Annual audit" shall mean a certified audit of the
licensee's books and records and systems of internal
control performed by a certified public accountant in
accordance with generally accepted accounting principles
and generally accepted auditing standards.
(aa) "Financial institution" shall mean a savings and
loan association, savings bank, credit union, or a bank
organized under the laws of Illinois or a savings and loan
association, savings bank, credit union or a bank organized
under the laws of the United States and headquartered in
Illinois.
(bb) "Escrow agent" shall mean a third party,
individual or entity charged with the fiduciary obligation
for holding escrow funds on a residential mortgage loan
pending final payout of those funds in accordance with the
terms of the residential mortgage loan.
(cc) "Net worth" shall have the meaning ascribed
thereto in Section 3-5 of this Act.
(dd) "Affiliate" shall mean:
(1) any entity that directly controls or is
controlled by the licensee and any other company that
is directly affecting activities regulated by this Act
that is controlled by the company that controls the
licensee;
(2) any entity:
(A) that is controlled, directly or
indirectly, by a trust or otherwise, by or for the
benefit of shareholders who beneficially or
otherwise control, directly or indirectly, by
trust or otherwise, the licensee or any company
that controls the licensee; or
(B) a majority of the directors or trustees of
which constitute a majority of the persons holding
any such office with the licensee or any company
that controls the licensee;
(3) any company, including a real estate
investment trust, that is sponsored and advised on a
contractual basis by the licensee or any subsidiary or
affiliate of the licensee.
The Commissioner may define by rule and regulation any
terms used in this Act for the efficient and clear
administration of this Act.
(ee) "First tier subsidiary" shall be defined by
regulation incorporating the comparable definitions used
by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency and the
Illinois Commissioner of Banks and Real Estate.
(ff) "Gross delinquency rate" means the quotient
determined by dividing (1) the sum of (i) the number of
government-insured residential mortgage loans funded or
purchased by a licensee in the preceding calendar year that
are delinquent and (ii) the number of conventional
residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the
licensee in the preceding calendar year that are delinquent
by (2) the sum of (i) the number of government-insured
residential mortgage loans funded or purchased by the
licensee in the preceding calendar year and (ii) the number
of conventional residential mortgage loans funded or
purchased by the licensee in the preceding calendar year.
(gg) "Delinquency rate factor" means the factor set by
rule of the Commissioner that is multiplied by the average
gross delinquency rate of licensees, determined annually
for the immediately preceding calendar year, for the
purpose of determining which licensees shall be examined by
the Commissioner pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 4-8
of this Act.
(hh) "Loan originator" means any natural person who,
for compensation or in the expectation of compensation,
either directly or indirectly makes, offers to make,
solicits, places, or negotiates a residential mortgage
loan. This definition applies only to Section 7-1 of this
Act.
(ii) "Confidential supervisory information" means any
report of examination, visitation, or investigation
prepared by the Commissioner under this Act, any report of
examination visitation, or investigation prepared by the
state regulatory authority of another state that examines a
licensee, any document or record prepared or obtained in
connection with or relating to any examination,
visitation, or investigation, and any record prepared or
obtained by the Commissioner to the extent that the record
summarizes or contains information derived from any
report, document, or record described in this subsection.
"Confidential supervisory information" does not include
any information or record routinely prepared by a licensee
and maintained in the ordinary course of business or any
information or record that is required to be made publicly
available pursuant to State or federal law or rule.
(jj) "Mortgage loan originator" means an individual
who for compensation or gain or in the expectation of
compensation or gain:
(i) takes a residential mortgage loan application;
or
(ii) offers or negotiates terms of a residential
mortgage loan.
"Mortgage loan originator" includes an individual
engaged in loan modification activities as defined in
subsection (yy) of this Section. A mortgage loan originator
engaged in loan modification activities shall report those
activities to the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation in the manner provided by the Department;
however, the Department shall not impose a fee for
reporting, nor require any additional qualifications to
engage in those activities beyond those provided pursuant
to this Act for mortgage loan originators.
"Mortgage loan originator" does not include an
individual engaged solely as a loan processor or
underwriter except as otherwise provided in subsection (d)
of Section 7-1A of this Act.
"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or
entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities
and is licensed in accordance with the Real Estate License
Act of 2000, unless the person or entity is compensated by
a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan
originator, or by any agent of that lender, mortgage
broker, or other mortgage loan originator.
"Mortgage loan originator" does not include a person or
entity solely involved in extensions of credit relating to
timeshare plans, as that term is defined in Section
101(53D) of Title 11, United States Code.
(kk) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as
in Section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and
includes any credit union.
(ll) "Dwelling" means a residential structure or
mobile home which contains one to 4 family housing units,
or individual units of condominiums or cooperatives.
(mm) "Immediate family member" means a spouse, child,
sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild, and includes
step-parents, step-children, step-siblings, or adoptive
relationships.
(nn) "Individual" means a natural person.
(oo) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an
individual who performs clerical or support duties as an
employee at the direction of and subject to the supervision
and instruction of a person licensed, or exempt from
licensing, under this Act. "Clerical or support duties"
includes subsequent to the receipt of an application:
(i) the receipt, collection, distribution, and
analysis of information common for the processing or
underwriting of a residential mortgage loan; and
(ii) communicating with a consumer to obtain the
information necessary for the processing or
underwriting of a loan, to the extent that the
communication does not include offering or negotiating
loan rates or terms, or counseling consumers about
residential mortgage loan rates or terms. An
individual engaging solely in loan processor or
underwriter activities shall not represent to the
public, through advertising or other means of
communicating or providing information, including the
use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs,
rate lists, or other promotional items, that the
individual can or will perform any of the activities of
a mortgage loan originator.
(pp) "Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and
Registry" means a mortgage licensing system developed and
maintained by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and
the American Association of Residential Mortgage
Regulators for the licensing and registration of licensed
mortgage loan originators.
(qq) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any
mortgage product other than a 30-year fixed rate mortgage.
(rr) "Person" means a natural person, corporation,
company, limited liability company, partnership, or
association.
(ss) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any
activity that involves offering or providing real estate
brokerage services to the public, including:
(1) acting as a real estate agent or real estate
broker for a buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real
property;
(2) bringing together parties interested in the
sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real
property;
(3) negotiating, on behalf of any party, any
portion of a contract relating to the sale, purchase,
lease, rental, or exchange of real property, other than
in connection with providing financing with respect to
any such transaction;
(4) engaging in any activity for which a person
engaged in the activity is required to be registered or
licensed as a real estate agent or real estate broker
under any applicable law; or
(5) offering to engage in any activity, or act in
any capacity, described in this subsection (ss).
(tt) "Registered mortgage loan originator" means any
individual that:
(1) meets the definition of mortgage loan
originator and is an employee of:
(A) a depository institution;
(B) a subsidiary that is:
(i) owned and controlled by a depository
institution; and
(ii) regulated by a federal banking
agency; or
(C) an institution regulated by the Farm
Credit Administration; and
(2) is registered with, and maintains a unique
identifier through, the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing
System and Registry.
(uu) "Unique identifier" means a number or other
identifier assigned by protocols established by the
Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry.
(vv) "Residential mortgage license" means a license
issued pursuant to Section 1-3, 2-2, or 2-6 of this Act.
(ww) "Mortgage loan originator license" means a
license issued pursuant to Section 7-1A, 7-3, or 7-6 of
this Act.
(xx) "Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation, or a person
authorized by the Secretary or by this Act to act in the
Secretary's stead.
(yy) "Loan modification" means, for compensation or
gain, either directly or indirectly offering or
negotiating on behalf of a borrower or homeowner to adjust
the terms of a residential mortgage loan in a manner not
provided for in the original or previously modified
mortgage loan.
(zz) "Short sale facilitation" means, for compensation
or gain, either directly or indirectly offering or
negotiating on behalf of a borrower or homeowner to
facilitate the sale of residential real estate subject to
one or more residential mortgage loans or debts
constituting liens on the property in which the proceeds
from selling the residential real estate will fall short of
the amount owed and the lien holders are contacted to agree
to release their lien on the residential real estate and
accept less than the full amount owed on the debt.
The Commissioner may define by rule and regulation any
terms used in this Act for the efficient and clear
administration of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-143, eff. 7-14-11; 97-891, eff. 8-3-12;
98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1081, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-6-14.)
Section 220. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is
amended by changing Section 30 as follows:
(210 ILCS 3/30)
Sec. 30. Demonstration program requirements. The
requirements set forth in this Section shall apply to
demonstration programs.
(a) (Blank).
(a-5) There shall be no more than the total number of
postsurgical recovery care centers with a certificate of need
for beds as of January 1, 2008.
(a-10) There shall be no more than a total of 9 children's
community-based health care center alternative health care
models in the demonstration program, which shall be located as
follows:
(1) Two in the City of Chicago.
(2) One in Cook County outside the City of Chicago.
(3) A total of 2 in the area comprised of DuPage, Kane,
Lake, McHenry, and Will counties.
(4) A total of 2 in municipalities with a population of
50,000 or more and not located in the areas described in
paragraphs (1), (2), or (3).
(5) A total of 2 in rural areas, as defined by the
Health Facilities and Services Review Board.
No more than one children's community-based health care
center owned and operated by a licensed skilled pediatric
facility shall be located in each of the areas designated in
this subsection (a-10).
(a-15) There shall be 5 authorized community-based
residential rehabilitation center alternative health care
models in the demonstration program.
(a-20) There shall be an authorized Alzheimer's disease
management center alternative health care model in the
demonstration program. The Alzheimer's disease management
center shall be located in Will County, owned by a
not-for-profit entity, and endorsed by a resolution approved by
the county board before the effective date of this amendatory
Act of the 91st General Assembly.
(a-25) There shall be no more than 10 birth center
alternative health care models in the demonstration program,
located as follows:
(1) Four in the area comprising Cook, DuPage, Kane,
Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, one of which shall be
owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be
owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.
(2) Three in municipalities with a population of 50,000
or more not located in the area described in paragraph (1)
of this subsection, one of which shall be owned or operated
by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated
by a federally qualified health center.
(3) Three in rural areas, one of which shall be owned
or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned
or operated by a federally qualified health center.
The first 3 birth centers authorized to operate by the
Department shall be located in or predominantly serve the
residents of a health professional shortage area as determined
by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
There shall be no more than 2 birth centers authorized to
operate in any single health planning area for obstetric
services as determined under the Illinois Health Facilities
Planning Act. If a birth center is located outside of a health
professional shortage area, (i) the birth center shall be
located in a health planning area with a demonstrated need for
obstetrical service beds, as determined by the Health
Facilities and Services Review Board or (ii) there must be a
reduction in the existing number of obstetrical service beds in
the planning area so that the establishment of the birth center
does not result in an increase in the total number of
obstetrical service beds in the health planning area.
(b) Alternative health care models, other than a model
authorized under subsection (a-10) or (a-20), shall obtain a
certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services
Review Board under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act
before receiving a license by the Department. If, after
obtaining its initial certificate of need, an alternative
health care delivery model that is a community based
residential rehabilitation center seeks to increase the bed
capacity of that center, it must obtain a certificate of need
from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board before
increasing the bed capacity. Alternative health care models in
medically underserved areas shall receive priority in
obtaining a certificate of need.
(c) An alternative health care model license shall be
issued for a period of one year and shall be annually renewed
if the facility or program is in substantial compliance with
the Department's rules adopted under this Act. A licensed
alternative health care model that continues to be in
substantial compliance after the conclusion of the
demonstration program shall be eligible for annual renewals
unless and until a different licensure program for that type of
health care model is established by legislation, except that a
postsurgical recovery care center meeting the following
requirements may apply within 3 years after August 25, 2009
(the effective date of Public Act 96-669) for a Certificate of
Need permit to operate as a hospital:
(1) The postsurgical recovery care center shall apply
to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board for a
Certificate of Need permit to discontinue the postsurgical
recovery care center and to establish a hospital.
(2) If the postsurgical recovery care center obtains a
Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital, it
shall apply for licensure as a hospital under the Hospital
Licensing Act and shall meet all statutory and regulatory
requirements of a hospital.
(3) After obtaining licensure as a hospital, any
license as an ambulatory surgical treatment center and any
license as a postsurgical recovery care center shall be
null and void.
(4) The former postsurgical recovery care center that
receives a hospital license must seek and use its best
efforts to maintain certification under Titles XVIII and
XIX of the federal Social Security Act.
The Department may issue a provisional license to any
alternative health care model that does not substantially
comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted
under this Act if (i) the Department finds that the alternative
health care model has undertaken changes and corrections which
upon completion will render the alternative health care model
in substantial compliance with this Act and rules and (ii) the
health and safety of the patients of the alternative health
care model will be protected during the period for which the
provisional license is issued. The Department shall advise the
licensee of the conditions under which the provisional license
is issued, including the manner in which the alternative health
care model fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and
rules, and the time within which the changes and corrections
necessary for the alternative health care model to
substantially comply with this Act and rules shall be
completed.
(d) Alternative health care models shall seek
certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social
Security Act. In addition, alternative health care models shall
provide charitable care consistent with that provided by
comparable health care providers in the geographic area.
(d-5) (Blank).
(e) Alternative health care models shall, to the extent
possible, link and integrate their services with nearby health
care facilities.
(f) Each alternative health care model shall implement a
quality assurance program with measurable benefits and at
reasonable cost.
(Source: P.A. 97-135, eff. 7-14-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11;
97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-629, eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff.
7-16-14; revised 10-3-14.)
Section 225. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by
changing Sections 1-125.1 and 3-206.01 as follows:
(210 ILCS 45/1-125.1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4151-125.1)
Sec. 1-125.1. "Student intern" means any person whose total
term of employment in any facility during any 12-month period
is equal to or less than 90 continuous days, and whose term of
employment: is either,
(1) is an academic credit requirement in a high school
or undergraduate or graduate institution;
(2) immediately succeeds a full quarter, semester, or
trimester of academic enrollment in either a high school or
undergraduate or graduate institution, provided that such
person is registered for another full quarter, semester, or
trimester of academic enrollment in either a high school or
undergraduate or graduate institution, which quarter,
semester, or trimester will commence immediately following
the term of employment; or
(3) immediately succeeds graduation from the high
school or undergraduate or graduate institution.
(Source: P.A. 98-121, eff. 7-30-13; revised 11-25-14.)
(210 ILCS 45/3-206.01) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-206.01)
Sec. 3-206.01. Health care worker registry.
(a) The Department shall establish and maintain a registry
of all individuals who (i) have satisfactorily completed the
training required by Section 3-206, (ii) have begun a current
course of training as set forth in Section 3-206, or (iii) are
otherwise acting as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide,
home health aide, psychiatric services rehabilitation aide, or
child care aide. The registry shall include the individual's
name, his or her current address, Social Security number, and
the date and location of the training course completed by the
individual, and whether the individual has any of the
disqualifying convictions listed in Section 25 of the Health
Care Worker Background Check Act from the date of the
individual's last criminal records check. Any individual
placed on the registry is required to inform the Department of
any change of address within 30 days. A facility shall not
employ an individual as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide,
home health aide, psychiatric services rehabilitation aide, or
child care aide, or newly hired as an individual who may have
access to a resident, a resident's living quarters, or a
resident's personal, financial, or medical records, unless the
facility has inquired of the Department's health care worker
registry as to information in the registry concerning the
individual. The facility shall not employ an individual as a
nursing assistant, habilitation aide, or child care aide if
that individual is not on the registry unless the individual is
enrolled in a training program under paragraph (5) of
subsection (a) of Section 3-206 of this Act.
If the Department finds that a nursing assistant,
habilitation aide, home health aide, psychiatric services
rehabilitation aide, or child care aide, or an unlicensed
individual, has abused or neglected a resident or an individual
under his or her care or misappropriated property of a resident
or an individual under his or her care, the Department shall
notify the individual of this finding by certified mail sent to
the address contained in the registry. The notice shall give
the individual an opportunity to contest the finding in a
hearing before the Department or to submit a written response
to the findings in lieu of requesting a hearing. If, after a
hearing or if the individual does not request a hearing, the
Department finds that the individual abused a resident,
neglected a resident, or misappropriated resident property in a
facility, the finding shall be included as part of the registry
as well as a clear and accurate summary from the individual, if
he or she chooses to make such a statement. The Department
shall make the following information in the registry available
to the public: an individual's full name; the date an
individual successfully completed a nurse aide training or
competency evaluation; and whether the Department has made a
finding that an individual has been guilty of abuse or neglect
of a resident or misappropriation of resident property. In the
case of inquiries to the registry concerning an individual
listed in the registry, any information disclosed concerning
such a finding shall also include disclosure of the
individual's statement in the registry relating to the finding
or a clear and accurate summary of the statement.
(b) The Department shall add to the health care worker
registry records of findings as reported by the Inspector
General or remove from the health care worker registry records
of findings as reported by the Department of Human Services,
under subsection (s) (g-5) of Section 1-17 of the Department of
Human Services Act.
(Source: P.A. 95-545, eff. 8-28-07; 96-1372, eff. 7-29-10;
revised 12-10-14.)
Section 230. The ID/DD Community Care Act is amended by
changing Section 3-206.01 as follows:
(210 ILCS 47/3-206.01)
Sec. 3-206.01. Health care worker registry.
(a) The Department shall establish and maintain a registry
of all individuals who (i) have satisfactorily completed the
training required by Section 3-206, (ii) have begun a current
course of training as set forth in Section 3-206, or (iii) are
otherwise acting as a nursing assistant, habilitation aide,
home health aide, or child care aide. The registry shall
include the individual's name, his or her current address,
Social Security number, and whether the individual has any of
the disqualifying convictions listed in Section 25 of the
Health Care Worker Background Check Act from the date and
location of the training course completed by the individual,
and the date of the individual's last criminal records check.
Any individual placed on the registry is required to inform the
Department of any change of address within 30 days. A facility
shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant,
habilitation aide, home health aide, or child care aide, or
newly hired as an individual who may have access to a resident,
a resident's living quarters, or a resident's personal,
financial, or medical records, unless the facility has inquired
of the Department's health care worker registry as to
information in the registry concerning the individual. The
facility shall not employ an individual as a nursing assistant,
habilitation aide, or child care aide if that individual is not
on the registry unless the individual is enrolled in a training
program under paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 3-206
of this Act.
If the Department finds that a nursing assistant,
habilitation aide, home health aide, child care aide, or an
unlicensed individual, has abused or neglected a resident or an
individual under his or her care, or misappropriated property
of a resident or an individual under his or her care in a
facility, the Department shall notify the individual of this
finding by certified mail sent to the address contained in the
registry. The notice shall give the individual an opportunity
to contest the finding in a hearing before the Department or to
submit a written response to the findings in lieu of requesting
a hearing. If, after a hearing or if the individual does not
request a hearing, the Department finds that the individual
abused a resident, neglected a resident, or misappropriated
resident property in a facility, the finding shall be included
as part of the registry as well as a clear and accurate summary
statement from the individual, if he or she chooses to make
such a statement. The Department shall make the following
information in the registry available to the public: an
individual's full name; the date an individual successfully
completed a nurse aide training or competency evaluation; and
whether the Department has made a finding that an individual
has been guilty of abuse or neglect of a resident or
misappropriation of resident's property. In the case of
inquiries to the registry concerning an individual listed in
the registry, any information disclosed concerning such a
finding shall also include disclosure of the individual's
statement in the registry relating to the finding or a clear
and accurate summary of the statement.
(b) The Department shall add to the health care worker
registry records of findings as reported by the Inspector
General or remove from the health care worker registry records
of findings as reported by the Department of Human Services,
under subsection (s) (g-5) of Section 1-17 of the Department of
Human Services Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; revised
12-10-14.)
Section 235. The Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation
Act of 2013 is amended by changing Section 1-101.6 as follows:
(210 ILCS 49/1-101.6)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2016)
Sec. 1-101.6. Mental health system planning. The General
Assembly finds the services contained in this Act are necessary
for the effective delivery of mental health services for the
citizens of the State of Illinois.
The General Assembly also finds that the mental health and
substance use system in the State requires further review to
develop additional needed services.
To ensure the adequacy of community-based services and to
offer choice to all individuals with serious mental illness and
substance use disorders or conditions who choose to live in the
community, and for whom the community is the appropriate
setting, but are at risk of institutional care, the Governor's
Office of Health Innovation and Transformation shall oversee a
process for (i) identifying needed services in the different
geographic regions in the State and (ii) identifying the
financing strategies for developing those needed services.
The process shall address or examine the need and financing
strategies for the following:
(1) Network adequacy in all 102 counties of the State
for: (i) health homes authorized under Section 2703 of the
federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act; (ii)
systems of care for children; (iii) care coordination; and
(iv) access to a full continuum of quality care, treatment,
services, and supports for persons with serious emotional
disturbance, serious mental illness, or substance use
disorder.
(2) Workforce development for the workforce of
community providers of care, treatment, services, and
supports for persons with mental health and substance use
disorders and conditions.
(3) Information technology to manage the delivery of
integrated services for persons with mental health and
substance use disorders and medical conditions.
(4) The needed continuum of statewide community health
care, treatment, services, and supports for persons with
mental health and substance use disorders and conditions.
(5) Reducing health care disparities in access to a
continuum of care, care coordination, and engagement in
networks.
The Governor's Office of Health Innovation and
Transformation shall include the Division of Alcoholism and
Substance Abuse and the Division of Mental Health in the
Department of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and
Family Services, the Department of Public Health, community
mental health and substance use providers, statewide
associations of mental health and substance use providers,
mental health and substance use advocacy groups, and any other
entity as deemed appropriate for participation in the process
of identifying needed services and financing strategies as
described in this Section.
The Office of Health Innovation and Transformation shall
report its findings and recommendations to the General Assembly
by July 1, 2015.
This Section is repealed on July 1, 2016.
Before September 1, 2014, the State shall develop and
implement a service authorization system available 24 hours a
day, 7 days a week for approval of services in the following 3
levels of care under this Act: crisis stabilization; recovery
and rehabilitation supports; and transitional living units.
(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14;
98-878, eff. 8-11-14; revised 10-2-14.)
Section 240. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems
Act is amended by changing Sections 3.87 and 3.210 as follows:
(210 ILCS 50/3.87)
Sec. 3.87. Ambulance service provider and vehicle service
provider upgrades; rural population.
(a) In this Section, "rural ambulance service provider"
means an ambulance service provider licensed under this Act
that serves a rural population of 7,500 or fewer inhabitants.
In this Section, "rural vehicle service provider" means an
entity that serves a rural population of 7,500 or fewer
inhabitants and is licensed by the Department to provide
emergency or non-emergency medical services in compliance with
this Act, the rules adopted by the Department pursuant to this
Act, and an operational plan approved by the entity's EMS
System, utilizing at least an ambulance, alternate response
vehicle as defined by the Department in rules, or specialized
emergency medical services vehicle.
(b) A rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle
service provider may submit a proposal to the EMS System
Medical Director requesting approval of either or both of the
following:
(1) Rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle
service provider in-field service level upgrade.
(A) An ambulance operated by a rural ambulance
service provider or a specialized emergency medical
services vehicle or alternate response vehicle
operated by a rural vehicle service provider may be
upgraded, as defined by the EMS System Medical Director
in a policy or procedure, as long as the EMS System
Medical Director and the Department have approved the
proposal, to the highest level of EMT license (advanced
life support/paramedic, intermediate life support, or
basic life support) or Pre-Hospital RN certification
held by any person staffing that ambulance,
specialized emergency medical services vehicle, or
alternate response vehicle. The ambulance service
provider's or rural vehicle service provider's
proposal for an upgrade must include all of the
following:
(i) The manner in which the provider will
secure and store advanced life support equipment,
supplies, and medications.
(ii) The type of quality assurance the
provider will perform.
(iii) An assurance that the provider will
advertise only the level of care that can be
provided 24 hours a day.
(iv) A statement that the provider will have
that vehicle inspected by the Department annually.
(B) If a rural ambulance service provider or rural
vehicle service provider is approved to provide an
in-field service level upgrade based on the licensed
personnel on the vehicle, all the advanced life support
medical supplies, durable medical equipment, and
medications must be environmentally controlled,
secured, and locked with access by only the personnel
who have been authorized by the EMS System Medical
Director to utilize those supplies.
(C) The EMS System shall routinely perform quality
assurance, in compliance with the EMS System's quality
assurance plan approved by the Department, on in-field
service level upgrades authorized under this Section
to ensure compliance with the EMS System plan.
(2) Rural ambulance service provider or rural vehicle
service provider in-field service level upgrade. The EMS
System Medical Director may define what constitutes an
in-field service level upgrade through an EMS System policy
or procedure. An in-field service level upgrade may
include, but need not be limited to, an upgrade to a
licensed ambulance, alternate response vehicle, or
specialized emergency medical services vehicle.
(c) If the EMS System Medical Director approves a proposal
for a rural in-field service level upgrade under this Section,
he or she shall submit the proposal to the Department along
with a statement of approval signed by him or her. Once the
Department has approved the proposal, the rural ambulance
service provider or rural vehicle service provider will be
authorized to function at the highest level of EMT license
(advanced life support/paramedic, intermediate life support,
or basic life support) or Pre-Hospital RN certification held by
any person staffing the vehicle.
(Source: P.A. 98-608, eff. 12-27-13; 98-880, eff. 1-1-15;
98-881, eff. 8-13-14; revised 10-1-14.)
(210 ILCS 50/3.210)
Sec. 3.210. EMS Medical Consultant. If the Chief of the
Department's Division of Emergency Medical Services and
Highway Safety is not a physician licensed to practice medicine
in all of its branches, with extensive emergency medical
services experience, and certified by the American Board of
Emergency Medicine or the Osteopathic American Osteopathic
Board of Emergency Medicine, then the Director shall appoint
such a physician to serve as EMS Medical Consultant to the
Division Chief.
(Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 245. The Health Maintenance Organization Act is
amended by changing Section 1-2 as follows:
(215 ILCS 125/1-2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1402)
Sec. 1-2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
context otherwise requires, the following terms shall have the
meanings ascribed to them:
(1) "Advertisement" means any printed or published
material, audiovisual material and descriptive literature of
the health care plan used in direct mail, newspapers,
magazines, radio scripts, television scripts, billboards and
similar displays; and any descriptive literature or sales aids
of all kinds disseminated by a representative of the health
care plan for presentation to the public including, but not
limited to, circulars, leaflets, booklets, depictions,
illustrations, form letters and prepared sales presentations.
(2) "Director" means the Director of Insurance.
(3) "Basic health care services" means emergency care, and
inpatient hospital and physician care, outpatient medical
services, mental health services and care for alcohol and drug
abuse, including any reasonable deductibles and co-payments,
all of which are subject to the limitations described in
Section 4-20 of this Act and as determined by the Director
pursuant to rule.
(4) "Enrollee" means an individual who has been enrolled in
a health care plan.
(5) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate,
agreement, or contract issued to an enrollee setting out the
coverage to which he is entitled in exchange for a per capita
prepaid sum.
(6) "Group contract" means a contract for health care
services which by its terms limits eligibility to members of a
specified group.
(7) "Health care plan" means any arrangement whereby any
organization undertakes to provide or arrange for and pay for
or reimburse the cost of basic health care services, excluding
any reasonable deductibles and copayments, from providers
selected by the Health Maintenance Organization and such
arrangement consists of arranging for or the provision of such
health care services, as distinguished from mere
indemnification against the cost of such services, except as
otherwise authorized by Section 2-3 of this Act, on a per
capita prepaid basis, through insurance or otherwise. A "health
care plan" also includes any arrangement whereby an
organization undertakes to provide or arrange for or pay for or
reimburse the cost of any health care service for persons who
are enrolled under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code or
under the Children's Health Insurance Program Act through
providers selected by the organization and the arrangement
consists of making provision for the delivery of health care
services, as distinguished from mere indemnification. A
"health care plan" also includes any arrangement pursuant to
Section 4-17. Nothing in this definition, however, affects the
total medical services available to persons eligible for
medical assistance under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
(8) "Health care services" means any services included in
the furnishing to any individual of medical or dental care, or
the hospitalization or incident to the furnishing of such care
or hospitalization as well as the furnishing to any person of
any and all other services for the purpose of preventing,
alleviating, curing or healing human illness or injury.
(9) "Health Maintenance Organization" means any
organization formed under the laws of this or another state to
provide or arrange for one or more health care plans under a
system which causes any part of the risk of health care
delivery to be borne by the organization or its providers.
(10) "Net worth" means admitted assets, as defined in
Section 1-3 of this Act, minus liabilities.
(11) "Organization" means any insurance company, a
nonprofit corporation authorized under the Dental Service Plan
Act or the Voluntary Health Services Plans Act, or a
corporation organized under the laws of this or another state
for the purpose of operating one or more health care plans and
doing no business other than that of a Health Maintenance
Organization or an insurance company. "Organization" shall
also mean the University of Illinois Hospital as defined in the
University of Illinois Hospital Act or a unit of local
government health system operating within a county with a
population of 3,000,000 or more.
(12) "Provider" means any physician, hospital facility,
facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, or facility
or long-term care facility as those terms are defined in the
Nursing Home Care Act or other person which is licensed or
otherwise authorized to furnish health care services and also
includes any other entity that arranges for the delivery or
furnishing of health care service.
(13) "Producer" means a person directly or indirectly
associated with a health care plan who engages in solicitation
or enrollment.
(14) "Per capita prepaid" means a basis of prepayment by
which a fixed amount of money is prepaid per individual or any
other enrollment unit to the Health Maintenance Organization or
for health care services which are provided during a definite
time period regardless of the frequency or extent of the
services rendered by the Health Maintenance Organization,
except for copayments and deductibles and except as provided in
subsection (f) of Section 5-3 of this Act.
(15) "Subscriber" means a person who has entered into a
contractual relationship with the Health Maintenance
Organization for the provision of or arrangement of at least
basic health care services to the beneficiaries of such
contract.
(Source: P.A. 97-1148, eff. 1-24-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14;
98-841, eff. 8-1-14; revised 10-24-14.)
Section 250. The Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act
is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
(215 ILCS 134/10)
Sec. 10. Definitions. :
"Adverse determination" means a determination by a health
care plan under Section 45 or by a utilization review program
under Section 85 that a health care service is not medically
necessary.
"Clinical peer" means a health care professional who is in
the same profession and the same or similar specialty as the
health care provider who typically manages the medical
condition, procedures, or treatment under review.
"Department" means the Department of Insurance.
"Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition
manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity
(including, but not limited to, severe pain) such that a
prudent layperson, who possesses an average knowledge of health
and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of immediate
medical attention to result in:
(1) placing the health of the individual (or, with
respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her
unborn child) in serious jeopardy;
(2) serious impairment to bodily functions; or
(3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.
"Emergency medical screening examination" means a medical
screening examination and evaluation by a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches, or to the extent
permitted by applicable laws, by other appropriately licensed
personnel under the supervision of or in collaboration with a
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches to
determine whether the need for emergency services exists.
"Emergency services" means, with respect to an enrollee of
a health care plan, transportation services, including but not
limited to ambulance services, and covered inpatient and
outpatient hospital services furnished by a provider qualified
to furnish those services that are needed to evaluate or
stabilize an emergency medical condition. "Emergency services"
does not refer to post-stabilization medical services.
"Enrollee" means any person and his or her dependents
enrolled in or covered by a health care plan.
"Health care plan" means a plan, including, but not limited
to, a health maintenance organization, a managed care community
network as defined in the Illinois Public Aid Code, or an
accountable care entity as defined in the Illinois Public Aid
Code that receives capitated payments to cover medical services
from the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, that
establishes, operates, or maintains a network of health care
providers that has entered into an agreement with the plan to
provide health care services to enrollees to whom the plan has
the ultimate obligation to arrange for the provision of or
payment for services through organizational arrangements for
ongoing quality assurance, utilization review programs, or
dispute resolution. Nothing in this definition shall be
construed to mean that an independent practice association or a
physician hospital organization that subcontracts with a
health care plan is, for purposes of that subcontract, a health
care plan.
For purposes of this definition, "health care plan" shall
not include the following:
(1) indemnity health insurance policies including
those using a contracted provider network;
(2) health care plans that offer only dental or only
vision coverage;
(3) preferred provider administrators, as defined in
Section 370g(g) of the Illinois Insurance Code;
(4) employee or employer self-insured health benefit
plans under the federal Employee Retirement Income
Security Act of 1974;
(5) health care provided pursuant to the Workers'
Compensation Act or the Workers' Occupational Diseases
Act; and
(6) not-for-profit voluntary health services plans
with health maintenance organization authority in
existence as of January 1, 1999 that are affiliated with a
union and that only extend coverage to union members and
their dependents.
"Health care professional" means a physician, a registered
professional nurse, or other individual appropriately licensed
or registered to provide health care services.
"Health care provider" means any physician, hospital
facility, facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act,
long-term care facility as defined in Section 1-113 of the
Nursing Home Care Act, or other person that is licensed or
otherwise authorized to deliver health care services. Nothing
in this Act shall be construed to define Independent Practice
Associations or Physician-Hospital Organizations as health
care providers.
"Health care services" means any services included in the
furnishing to any individual of medical care, or the
hospitalization incident to the furnishing of such care, as
well as the furnishing to any person of any and all other
services for the purpose of preventing, alleviating, curing, or
healing human illness or injury including home health and
pharmaceutical services and products.
"Medical director" means a physician licensed in any state
to practice medicine in all its branches appointed by a health
care plan.
"Person" means a corporation, association, partnership,
limited liability company, sole proprietorship, or any other
legal entity.
"Physician" means a person licensed under the Medical
Practice Act of 1987.
"Post-stabilization medical services" means health care
services provided to an enrollee that are furnished in a
licensed hospital by a provider that is qualified to furnish
such services, and determined to be medically necessary and
directly related to the emergency medical condition following
stabilization.
"Stabilization" means, with respect to an emergency
medical condition, to provide such medical treatment of the
condition as may be necessary to assure, within reasonable
medical probability, that no material deterioration of the
condition is likely to result.
"Utilization review" means the evaluation of the medical
necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of the use of health
care services, procedures, and facilities.
"Utilization review program" means a program established
by a person to perform utilization review.
(Source: P.A. 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-841, eff. 8-1-14;
revised 10-24-14.)
Section 255. The Service Contract Act is amended by
changing Section 45 as follows:
(215 ILCS 152/45)
Sec. 45. Record keeping requirements.
(a) The service contract provider shall keep accurate
accounts, books, and records concerning transactions regulated
under this Act.
(b) The service contract provider's accounts, books, and
records shall include the following:
(1) copies of each type of service contract sold;
(2) the name and address of each service contract
holder, to the extent extend that the name and address has
been furnished by the service contract holder;
(3) a list of the locations where service contracts are
marketed, sold, or offered for sale; and
(4) written claims files which shall contain at least
the date and description of claims related to the service
contracts.
(c) Except as provided in subsection (e) of this Section,
the service contract provider shall retain all records required
to be maintained by Section 45 for at least 3 years after the
specified period of coverage has expired.
(d) The records required under this Act may be, but are not
required to be, maintained on a computer disk or other record
keeping technology. If the records are maintained in other than
hard copy, the records shall be capable of duplication to
legible hard copy at the request of the Director.
(e) A service contract provider discontinuing business in
this State shall maintain its records until it furnishes the
Director satisfactory proof that it has discharged all
obligations to service contract holders in this State.
(Source: P.A. 90-711, eff. 8-7-98; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 260. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by
changing Sections 2.04 and 2.17 as follows:
(225 ILCS 10/2.04) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.04)
Sec. 2.04. "Related" means any of the following
relationships by blood, marriage, civil union, or adoption:
parent, grandparent, great-grandparent, great-uncle,
great-aunt, brother, sister, stepgrandparent, stepparent,
stepbrother, stepsister, uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, fictive
kin as defined in Section 7 of the Children and Family Services
Act, or first cousin or second cousin. A person is related to a
child as a first cousin or a second cousin if they are both
related to the same ancestor as either grandchild or
great-grandchild. A child whose parent has executed a consent,
a surrender, or a waiver pursuant to Section 10 of the Adoption
Act, whose parent has signed a denial of paternity pursuant to
Section 12 of the Vital Records Act or Section 12a of the
Adoption Act, or whose parent has had his or her parental
rights terminated is not a related child to that person, unless
(1) the consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to
subsection O of Section 10 of the Adoption Act; or (2) the
parent of the child executed a consent to adoption by a
specified person or persons pursuant to subsection A-1 of
Section 10 of the Adoption Act and a court finds that the
consent is void; or (3) the order terminating the parental
rights of the parent is vacated by a court of competent
jurisdiction.
(Source: P.A. 98-804, eff. 1-1-15; 98-846, eff. 1-1-15; revised
10-2-14.)
(225 ILCS 10/2.17) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212.17)
Sec. 2.17. "Foster family home" means a facility for child
care in residences of families who receive no more than 8
children unrelated to them, unless all the children are of
common parentage, or residences of relatives who receive no
more than 8 related children placed by the Department, unless
the children are of common parentage, for the purpose of
providing family care and training for the children on a
full-time basis, except the Director of Children and Family
Services, pursuant to Department regulations, may waive the
limit of 8 children unrelated to an adoptive family for good
cause and only to facilitate an adoptive placement. The
family's or relative's own children, under 18 years of age,
shall be included in determining the maximum number of children
served. For purposes of this Section, a "relative" includes any
person, 21 years of age or over, other than the parent, who (i)
is currently related to the child in any of the following ways
by blood or adoption: grandparent, sibling, great-grandparent,
uncle, aunt, nephew, niece, first cousin, great-uncle, or
great-aunt; or (ii) is the spouse of such a relative; or (iii)
is a child's step-father, step-mother, or adult step-brother or
step-sister; or (iv) is a fictive kin; "relative" also includes
a person related in any of the foregoing ways to a sibling of a
child, even though the person is not related to the child, when
the child and its sibling are placed together with that person.
For purposes of placement of children pursuant to Section 7 of
the Children and Family Services Act and for purposes of
licensing requirements set forth in Section 4 of this Act, for
children under the custody or guardianship of the Department
pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after a parent
signs a consent, surrender, or waiver or after a parent's
rights are otherwise terminated, and while the child remains in
the custody or guardianship of the Department, the child is
considered to be related to those to whom the child was related
under this Section prior to the signing of the consent,
surrender, or waiver or the order of termination of parental
rights. The term "foster family home" includes homes receiving
children from any State-operated institution for child care; or
from any agency established by a municipality or other
political subdivision of the State of Illinois authorized to
provide care for children outside their own homes. The term
"foster family home" does not include an "adoption-only home"
as defined in Section 2.23 of this Act. The types of foster
family homes are defined as follows:
(a) "Boarding home" means a foster family home which
receives payment for regular full-time care of a child or
children.
(b) "Free home" means a foster family home other than
an adoptive home which does not receive payments for the
care of a child or children.
(c) "Adoptive home" means a foster family home which
receives a child or children for the purpose of adopting
the child or children.
(d) "Work-wage home" means a foster family home which
receives a child or children who pay part or all of their
board by rendering some services to the family not
prohibited by the Child Labor Law or by standards or
regulations of the Department prescribed under this Act.
The child or children may receive a wage in connection with
the services rendered the foster family.
(e) "Agency-supervised home" means a foster family
home under the direct and regular supervision of a licensed
child welfare agency, of the Department of Children and
Family Services, of a circuit court, or of any other State
agency which has authority to place children in child care
facilities, and which receives no more than 8 children,
unless of common parentage, who are placed and are
regularly supervised by one of the specified agencies.
(f) "Independent home" means a foster family home,
other than an adoptive home, which receives no more than 4
children, unless of common parentage, directly from
parents, or other legally responsible persons, by
independent arrangement and which is not subject to direct
and regular supervision of a specified agency except as
such supervision pertains to licensing by the Department.
(Source: P.A. 98-804, eff. 1-1-15; 98-846, eff. 1-1-15; revised
10-2-14.)
Section 265. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is
amended by changing Section 70 as follows:
(225 ILCS 46/70)
Sec. 70. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS)
grant; Voluntary FBI Fingerprint Demonstration Project.
(a) The General Assembly authorizes the establishment of
the Voluntary FBI Fingerprint Demonstration Project
(Demonstration Project), which shall be consistent with the
provisions of the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
grant awarded to and distributed by the Department of Public
Health pursuant to Title VI, Subtitle B, Part III, Subtitle C,
Section 6201 of the Affordable Care Act of 2010. The
Demonstration Project is authorized to operate for the period
of January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014 and shall operate
until the conclusion of this grant period or until the
long-term care facility terminates its participation in the
Demonstration Project, whichever occurs sooner.
(b) The Long-Term Care Facility Advisory Board established
under the Nursing Home Care Act shall act in an advisory
capacity to the Demonstration Project.
(c) Long-term care facilities voluntarily participating in
the Demonstration Project shall, in addition to the provisions
of this Section, comply with all requirements set forth in this
Act. When conflict between the Act and the provisions of this
Section occurs, the provisions of this Section shall supersede
until the conclusion of the grant period or until the long-term
care facility terminates its participation in the
Demonstration Project, whichever occurs sooner.
(d) The Department of Public Health shall select at least
one facility in the State to participate in the Demonstration
Project.
(e) For the purposes of determining who shall be required
to undergo a State and an FBI fingerprint-based criminal
history records check under the Demonstration Project, "direct
access employee" means any individual who has access to a
patient or resident of a long-term care facility or provider
through employment or through a contract with a long-term care
facility or provider and has duties that involve or may involve
one-on-one contact with a resident of the facility or provider,
as determined by the State for purposes of the Demonstration
Project.
(f) All long-term care facilities licensed under the
Nursing Home Care Act are qualified to volunteer for the
Demonstration Project.
(g) The Department of Public Health shall notify qualified
long-term care facilities within 30 days after the effective
date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly of the
opportunity to volunteer for the Demonstration Project. The
notice shall include information concerning application
procedures and deadlines, termination rights, requirements for
participation, the selection process, and a
question-and-answer document addressing potential conflicts
between this Act and the provisions of this Section.
(h) Qualified long-term care facilities shall be given a
minimum of 30 days after the date of receiving the notice to
inform the Department of Public Health, in the form and manner
prescribed by the Department of Public Health, of their
interest in volunteering for the Demonstration Project.
Facilities selected for the Demonstration Project shall be
notified, within 30 days after the date of application, of the
effective date that their participation in the Demonstration
Project will begin, which may vary.
(i) The individual applicant shall be responsible for the
cost of each individual fingerprint inquiry, which may be
offset with grant funds, if available. Community-Integrated
(j) Each applicant seeking employment in a position
described in subsection (e) of this Section with a selected
health care employer shall, as a condition of employment, have
his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State
Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and
manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record
information by the Department of State Police and the Federal
Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now
and hereafter filed. The Department of State Police shall
forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation
for a national criminal history records check. The Department
of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal
history records check, which shall not exceed the actual cost
of the records check and shall be deposited into the State
Police Services Fund. The Department of State Police shall
furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of
Illinois convictions to the Department of Public Health.
(k) A fingerprint-based criminal history records check
submitted in accordance with subsection (j) of this Section
shall be submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and
manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.
(l) A long-term care facility may terminate its
participation in the Demonstration Project without prejudice
by providing the Department of Public Health with notice of its
intent to terminate at least 30 days prior to its voluntary
termination.
(m) This Section shall be inapplicable upon the conclusion
of the CMMS grant period.
(Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1041, eff. 8-25-14;
revised 10-2-14.)
Section 270. The Home Medical Equipment and Services
Provider License Act is amended by changing Section 35 as
follows:
(225 ILCS 51/35)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
Sec. 35. Qualifications for licensure.
(a) An entity is qualified to receive a license as a home
medical equipment and services provider if the entity meets
each of the following requirements:
(1) complies with all applicable federal and State
licensure and regulatory requirements;
(2) maintains a physical facility and medical
equipment inventory. There shall only be one license
permitted at each address;
(3) establishes proof of commercial general liability
insurance, including but not limited to coverage for
products liability and professional liability;
(4) establishes and provides records of annual
continuing education for personnel engaged in the
delivery, maintenance, repair, cleaning, inventory
control, and financial management of home medical
equipment and services;
(5) maintains records on all patients to whom it
provides home medical equipment and services;
(6) establishes equipment management and personnel
policies;
(7) makes life-sustaining life sustaining home medical
equipment and services available 24 hours per day and 7
days per week;
(8) complies with any additional qualifications for
licensure as determined by rule of the Department.
(b) The Department may request a personal interview of an
applicant before the Board to further evaluate the entity's
qualifications for licensure.
(Source: P.A. 90-532, eff. 11-14-97; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 275. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing
Section 80-40 as follows:
(225 ILCS 65/80-40)
Sec. 80-40. Licensure by examination. An applicant for
licensure by examination to practice as a licensed medication
aide must:
(1) submit a completed written application on forms
provided by the Department and fees as established by the
Department;
(2) be age 18 or older;
(3) have a high school diploma or a high school
equivalency certificate of general education development
(GED);
(4) demonstrate the ability able to speak, read, and
write the English language, as determined by rule;
(5) demonstrate competency in math, as determined by
rule;
(6) be currently certified in good standing as a
certified nursing assistant and provide proof of 2,000
hours of practice as a certified nursing assistant within 3
years before application for licensure;
(7) submit to the criminal history records check
required under Section 50-35 of this Act;
(8) have not engaged in conduct or behavior determined
to be grounds for discipline under this Act;
(9) be currently certified to perform cardiopulmonary
resuscitation by the American Heart Association or
American Red Cross;
(10) have successfully completed a course of study
approved by the Department as defined by rule; to be
approved, the program must include a minimum of 60 hours of
classroom-based medication aide education, a minimum of 10
hours of simulation laboratory study, and a minimum of 30
hours of registered nurse-supervised clinical practicum
with progressive responsibility of patient medication
assistance;
(11) have successfully completed the Medication Aide
Certification Examination or other examination authorized
by the Department; and
(12) submit proof of employment by a qualifying
facility.
(Source: P.A. 98-990, eff. 8-18-14; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 280. The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice
Act of 2004 is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:
(225 ILCS 115/25) (from Ch. 111, par. 7025)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
Sec. 25. Disciplinary actions.
1. The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed
$10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as
provided for in Section 25.3 of this Act, with regard to any
license or certificate for any one or combination of the
following:
A. Material misstatement in furnishing information to
the Department.
B. Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted
pursuant to this Act.
C. Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is
(i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of
which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the
practice of the profession.
D. Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or
procuring a license under this Act or in connection with
applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
E. Professional incompetence.
F. Malpractice.
G. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
provision of this Act or rules.
H. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
response to a written request made by the Department.
I. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
defraud, or harm the public.
J. Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined
in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other
substance that results in the inability to practice with
reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
K. Discipline by another state, unit of government,
government agency, District of Columbia, territory, or
foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the
discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those
set forth herein.
L. Charging for professional services not rendered,
including filing false statements for the collection of
fees for which services are not rendered.
M. A finding by the Board that the licensee or
certificate holder, after having his license or
certificate placed on probationary status, has violated
the terms of probation.
N. Willfully making or filing false records or reports
in his practice, including but not limited to false records
filed with State agencies or departments.
O. Physical illness, including but not limited to,
deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor
skill which results in the inability to practice under this
Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
P. Solicitation of professional services other than
permitted advertising.
Q. Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by
an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.
R. Conviction of or cash compromise of a charge or
violation of the Harrison Act or the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, regulating narcotics.
S. Fraud or dishonesty in applying, treating, or
reporting on tuberculin or other biological tests.
T. Failing to report, as required by law, or making
false report of any contagious or infectious diseases.
U. Fraudulent use or misuse of any health certificate,
shipping certificate, brand inspection certificate, or
other blank forms used in practice that might lead to the
dissemination of disease or the transportation of diseased
animals dead or alive; or dilatory methods, willful
neglect, or misrepresentation in the inspection of milk,
meat, poultry, and the by-products thereof.
V. Conviction on a charge of cruelty to animals.
W. Failure to keep one's premises and all equipment
therein in a clean and sanitary condition.
X. Failure to provide satisfactory proof of having
participated in approved continuing education programs.
Y. Mental illness or disability that results in the
inability to practice under this Act with reasonable
judgment, skill, or safety.
Z. Conviction by any court of competent jurisdiction,
either within or outside this State, of any violation of
any law governing the practice of veterinary medicine, if
the Department determines, after investigation, that the
person has not been sufficiently rehabilitated to warrant
the public trust.
AA. Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices,
appliances, or goods provided for a patient in any manner
to exploit the client for financial gain of the
veterinarian.
BB. Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for
professional services.
CC. Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
law, an assumed name.
DD. Violating state or federal laws or regulations
relating to controlled substances or legend drugs.
EE. Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing
examination administered under this Act.
FF. Using, prescribing, or selling a prescription drug
or the extra-label use of a prescription drug by any means
in the absence of a valid veterinarian-client-patient
relationship.
GG. Failing to report a case of suspected aggravated
cruelty, torture, or animal fighting pursuant to Section
3.07 or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals Act or Section
26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
Code of 2012.
All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within
60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine
or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing
the fine.
2. The determination by a circuit court that a licensee or
certificate holder is subject to involuntary admission or
judicial admission as provided in the Mental Health and
Developmental Disabilities Code operates as an automatic
suspension. The suspension will end only upon a finding by a
court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary
admission or judicial admission and issues an order so finding
and discharging the patient. In any case where a license is
suspended under this provision, the licensee shall file a
petition for restoration and shall include evidence acceptable
to the Department that the licensee can resume practice in
compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of his or
her their profession.
3. All proceedings to suspend, revoke, place on
probationary status, or take any other disciplinary action as
the Department may deem proper, with regard to a license or
certificate on any of the foregoing grounds, must be commenced
within 5 years after receipt by the Department of a complaint
alleging the commission of or notice of the conviction order
for any of the acts described in this Section. Except for
proceedings brought for violations of items (CC), (DD), or
(EE), no action shall be commenced more than 5 years after the
date of the incident or act alleged to have violated this
Section. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause
of action in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final
judgment of any civil action in favor of the plaintiff, the
claim, cause of action, or civil action being grounded on the
allegation that a person licensed or certified under this Act
was negligent in providing care, the Department shall have an
additional period of one year from the date of the settlement
or final judgment in which to investigate and begin formal
disciplinary proceedings under Section 25.2 of this Act, except
as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder
of the license or certificate was outside the State of Illinois
shall not be included within any period of time limiting the
commencement of disciplinary action by the Department.
4. The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend
without hearing, as provided for in the Illinois Code of Civil
Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a
return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the
requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance
with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
Administrative Code of Illinois.
5. In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a
showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who
is registered under this Act or any individual who has applied
for registration to submit to a mental or physical examination
or evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or
sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department.
The Department shall specifically designate the examining
physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches
or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in
providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation.
The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed
to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of
one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice
medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic
physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical
social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and
other professional and administrative staff. Any examining
physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require
any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation
pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional
supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any
examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited
to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or
neuropsychological testing.
The Department may order the examining physician or any
member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the
Department any and all records, including business records,
that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any
supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the
examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team
to present testimony concerning this examination and
evaluation of the registrant or applicant, including testimony
concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to
the examination and evaluation. No information, report,
record, or other documents in any way related to the
examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any
common law or statutory privilege relating to communication
between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician
or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization
is necessary from the registrant or applicant ordered to
undergo an evaluation and examination for the examining
physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to
provide information, reports, records, or other documents or to
provide any testimony regarding the examination and
evaluation. The individual to be examined may have, at his or
her own expense, another physician of his or her choice present
during all aspects of the examination.
Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical
examination or evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result
in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as
the individual submits to the examination. If the Department
finds a registrant unable to practice because of the reasons
set forth in this Section, the Department shall require such
registrant to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by
physicians approved or designated by the Department as a
condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed registration.
In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
registration under this Section, a hearing upon such person's
registration must be convened by the Department within 15 days
after such suspension and completed without appreciable delay.
The Department shall have the authority to review the
registrant's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal
statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
medical records.
Individuals registered under this Act who that are affected
under this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to
demonstrate to the Department that they can resume practice in
compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the
provisions of their registration.
6. The Department shall deny a license or renewal
authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
agency of this State in accordance with paragraph (5) of
subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative
Code of Illinois.
7. In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential
licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of
child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to
the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or
may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other
disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the
certification of delinquency made by the Department of
Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5)
of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil
Administrative Code of Illinois.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
98-339, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 285. The Professional Engineering Practice Act of
1989 is amended by changing Section 11 as follows:
(225 ILCS 325/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 5211)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
Sec. 11. Minimum standards for examination for enrollment
as engineer intern. Each of the following is considered a
minimum standard that an applicant must satisfy to qualify for
enrollment as an engineer intern: .
(a) A graduate of an approved engineering curriculum of
at least 4 years, who has passed an examination in the
fundamentals of engineering as defined by rule, shall be
enrolled as an engineer intern, if the applicant is
otherwise qualified; or
(b) An applicant in the last year of an approved
engineering curriculum who passes an examination in the
fundamentals of engineering as defined by rule and
furnishes proof that the applicant graduated within a 12
month period following the examination shall be enrolled as
an engineer intern, if the applicant is otherwise
qualified; or
(c) A graduate of a non-approved engineering
curriculum or a related science curriculum of at least 4
years and which meets the requirements as set forth by rule
by submitting an application to the Department for its
review and approval, who submits acceptable evidence to the
Board of an additional 4 years or more of progressive
experience in engineering work, and who has passed an
examination in the fundamentals of engineering as defined
by rule shall be enrolled as an engineer intern, if the
applicant is otherwise qualified.
(Source: P.A. 98-713, eff. 7-16-14; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 290. The Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair
Braiding, and Nail Technology Act of 1985 is amended by
changing Section 2-4 as follows:
(225 ILCS 410/2-4) (from Ch. 111, par. 1702-4)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
Sec. 2-4. Licensure as a barber teacher; qualifications. A
person is qualified to receive a license as a barber teacher if
that person files an application on forms provided by the
Department, pays the required fee, and:
a. Is at least 18 years of age;
b. Has graduated from high school or its equivalent;
c. Has a current license as a barber or cosmetologist;
d. Has graduated from a barber school or school of
cosmetology approved by the Department having:
(1) completed a total of 500 hours in barber
teacher training extending over a period of not less
than 3 months nor more than 2 years and has had 3 years
of practical experience as a licensed barber;
(2) completed a total of 1,000 hours of barber
teacher training extending over a period of not less
than 6 months nor more than 2 years; or
(3) completed the cosmetology teacher training as
specified in paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section
3-4 of this Act and completed a supplemental barbering
course as established by rule; and
e. Has passed an examination authorized by the
Department to determine fitness to receive a license as a
barber teacher or a cosmetology teacher; and
f. Has met any other requirements set forth in this
Act.
An applicant who is issued a license as a Barber Teacher is
not required to maintain a barber license in order to practice
barbering as defined in this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-777, eff. 7-13-12; 98-911, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 11-25-14.)
Section 295. The Cemetery Oversight Act is amended by
changing Section 5-25 as follows:
(225 ILCS 411/5-25)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)
Sec. 5-25. Powers of the Department. Subject to the
provisions of this Act, the Department may exercise the
following powers:
(1) Authorize certification programs to ascertain the
qualifications and fitness of applicants for licensing as a
licensed cemetery manager or as a customer service employee
to ascertain whether they possess the requisite level of
knowledge for such position.
(2) Examine a licensed cemetery authority's records
from any year or any other aspects of cemetery operation as
the Department deems appropriate.
(3) Investigate any and all cemetery operations.
(4) Conduct hearings on proceedings to refuse to issue
or renew licenses or to revoke, suspend, place on
probation, reprimand, or otherwise discipline a license
under this Act or take other non-disciplinary action.
(5) Adopt reasonable rules required for the
administration of this Act.
(6) Prescribe forms to be issued for the administration
and enforcement of this Act.
(7) Maintain rosters of the names and addresses of all
licensees and all persons whose licenses have been
suspended, revoked, denied renewal, or otherwise
disciplined within the previous calendar year. These
rosters shall be available upon written request and payment
of the required fee as established by rule.
(8) Work with the Office of the Comptroller and the
Department of Public Health, Division of Vital Records to
exchange information and request additional information
relating to a licensed cemetery authority. ;
(9) Investigate cemetery contracts, grounds, or
employee records.
If the Department exercises its authority to conduct
investigations under this Section, the Department shall
provide the cemetery authority with information sufficient to
challenge the allegation. If the complainant consents, then the
Department shall provide the cemetery authority with the
identity of and contact information for the complainant so as
to allow the cemetery authority and the complainant to resolve
the complaint directly. Except as otherwise provided in this
Act, any complaint received by the Department and any
information collected to investigate the complaint shall be
maintained by the Department for the confidential use of the
Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department may not
disclose the information to anyone other than law enforcement
officials or other regulatory agencies or persons that have an
appropriate regulatory interest, as determined by the
Secretary, or to a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the
Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal,
state, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be
disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or
person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the
Department or any order issued by the Department against a
licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as
otherwise prohibited by law.
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12; revised
11-25-14.)
Section 300. The Community Association Manager Licensing
and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 155 as
follows:
(225 ILCS 427/155)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
Sec. 155. Violations; penalties.
(a) A person who violates any of the following provisions
shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; a person who commits
a second or subsequent violation of these provisions is guilty
of a Class 4 felony:
(1) The practice of or attempted practice of or holding
out as available to practice as a community association
manager, or supervising community association manager
without a license.
(2) Operation of or attempt to operate a community
association management firm without a firm license or a
designated supervising community association manager.
(3) The obtaining of or the attempt to obtain any
license or authorization issued under this Act by
fraudulent misrepresentation.
(b) Whenever a licensee is convicted of a felony related to
the violations set forth in this Section, the clerk of the
court in any jurisdiction shall promptly report the conviction
to the Department and the Department shall immediately revoke
any license authorized under this Act held by that licensee.
The licensee shall not be eligible for licensure under this Act
until at least 10 years have elapsed since the time of full
discharge from any sentence imposed for a felony conviction. If
any person in making any oath or affidavit required by this Act
swears falsely, the person is guilty of perjury and may be
punished accordingly.
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 305. The Illinois Public Accounting Act is amended
by changing Sections 0.02, 0.03, and 14.4 as follows:
(225 ILCS 450/0.02) (from Ch. 111, par. 5500.02)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
Sec. 0.02. Declaration of public policy. It is the policy
of this State and the purpose of this Act:
(a) to To promote the dependability of information
which is used for guidance in financial transactions or for
accounting for or assessing the status or performance of
commercial and noncommercial enterprises, whether public,
private, or governmental; and
(b) to To protect the public interest by requiring that
persons engaged in the practice of public accounting be
qualified; that a public authority competent to prescribe
and assess the qualifications of public accountants be
established; and that
(c) that preparing Preparing, auditing, or examining
financial statements and issuing a report expressing or
disclaiming an opinion on such statements or expressing
assurance on such statements be reserved to persons who
demonstrate their ability and fitness to observe and apply
the standards of the accounting profession; and that the
use of accounting titles likely to confuse the public be
prohibited.
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-25-14.)
(225 ILCS 450/0.03) (from Ch. 111, par. 5500.03)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
Sec. 0.03. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
context otherwise requires:
"Accountancy activities" means the services as set forth in
Section 8.05 of the Act.
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded
by the Department in the applicant's, licensee's, or
registrant's application file or license file maintained by the
Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the
applicant, licensee, or registrant to inform the Department of
any change of address, and those changes must be made either
through the Department's website or by directly contacting the
Department.
"Certificate" means a certificate issued by the Board or
University or similar jurisdictions specifying an individual
has successfully passed all sections and requirements of the
Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination. A certificate
issued by the Board or University or similar jurisdiction does
not confer the ability to use the CPA title and is not
equivalent to a registration or license under this Act.
"Compilation" means providing a service to be performed in
accordance with Statements on Standards for Accounting and
Review Services that is presented in the form of financial
statements or information that is the representation of
management or owners without undertaking to express any
assurance on the statements.
"CPA" or "C.P.A." means a certified public accountant who
holds a license or registration issued by the Department or an
individual authorized to use the CPA title under Section 5.2 of
this Act.
"CPA firm" means a sole proprietorship, a corporation,
registered limited liability partnership, limited liability
company, partnership, professional service corporation, or any
other form of organization issued a license in accordance with
this Act.
"CPA (inactive)" means a licensed certified public
accountant who elects to have the Department place his or her
license on inactive status pursuant to Section 17.2 of this
Act.
"Financial statement" means a structured presentation of
historical financial information, including, but not limited
to, related notes intended to communicate an entity's economic
resources and obligations at a point in time or the changes
therein for a period of time in accordance with generally
accepted accounting principles (GAAP) or other comprehensive
basis of accounting (OCBOA).
"Other attestation engagements" means an engagement
performed in accordance with the Statements on Standards for
Attestation Engagements.
"Registered Certified Public Accountant" or "registered
CPA" means any person who has been issued a registration under
this Act as a Registered Certified Public Accountant.
"Report", when used with reference to financial
statements, means an opinion, report, or other form of language
that states or implies assurance as to the reliability of any
financial statements and that also includes or is accompanied
by any statement or implication that the person or firm issuing
it has special knowledge or competence in accounting or
auditing. Such a statement or implication of special knowledge
or competence may arise from use by the issuer of the report of
names or titles indicating that the person or firm is an
accountant or auditor, or from the language of the report
itself. "Report" includes any form of language that disclaims
an opinion when the form of language is conventionally
understood to imply any positive assurance as to the
reliability of the financial statements referred to or special
competence on the part of the person or firm issuing such
language; it includes any other form of language that is
conventionally understood to imply such assurance or such
special knowledge or competence.
"Licensed Certified Public Accountant" or "licensed CPA"
means any person licensed under this Act as a Licensed
Certified Public Accountant.
"Committee" means the Public Accountant Registration and
Licensure Committee appointed by the Secretary.
"Department" means the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation.
"License", "licensee", and "licensure" refer refers to the
authorization to practice under the provisions of this Act.
"Peer review" means a study, appraisal, or review of one or
more aspects of a CPA firm's or sole practitioner's compliance
with applicable accounting, auditing, and other attestation
standards adopted by generally recognized standard-setting
bodies.
"Principal place of business" means the office location
designated by the licensee from which the person directs,
controls, and coordinates his or her professional services.
"Review committee" means any person or persons conducting,
reviewing, administering, or supervising a peer review
program.
"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation.
"University" means the University of Illinois.
"Board" means the Board of Examiners established under
Section 2.
"Registration", "registrant", and "registered" refer to
the authorization to hold oneself out as or use the title
"Registered Certified Public Accountant" or "Certified Public
Accountant", unless the context otherwise requires.
"Peer Review Administrator" means an organization
designated by the Department that meets the requirements of
subsection (f) of Section 16 of this Act and other rules that
the Department may adopt.
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-25-14.)
(225 ILCS 450/14.4)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
Sec. 14.4. Qualifications for licensure as a CPA firm. The
Department may license as licensed CPA firms individuals or
entities meeting the following requirements:
(1) A majority of the ownership of the firm, in terms
of financial interests and voting rights of all partners,
officers, shareholders, or members, belongs to persons
licensed or registered in some state. All partners,
officers, shareholders, or members, whose principal place
of business is in this State and who have overall
responsibility for accountancy activities in this State,
as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section
8.05 of this Act, must hold a valid license as a licensed
CPA issued by this State. An individual exercising the
practice privilege afforded under Section 5.2 who performs
services for which a firm license is required under
subsection (d) of Section 5.2 shall not be required to
obtain an individual license under this Act.
(2) All owners of the CPA firm, whether licensed as a
licensed CPA or not, shall be active participants in the
CPA firm or its affiliated entities and shall comply with
the rules adopted under this Act.
(3) It shall be lawful for a nonprofit cooperative
association engaged in rendering an auditing and
accounting service to its members only to continue to
render that service provided that the rendering of an
auditing and accounting service by the cooperative
association shall at all times be under the control and
supervision of licensed CPAs.
(4) An individual who supervises services for which a
license is required under paragraph (1) of subsection (a)
of Section 8.05 of this Act, who signs or authorizes
another to sign any report for which a license is required
under paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 of
this Act, or who supervises services for which a CPA firm
license is required under subsection (d) of Section 5.2 of
this Act shall hold a valid, active licensed CPA license
from this State or another state considered to be
substantially equivalent under paragraph (1) of subsection
(a) of Section 5.2.
(5) The CPA firm shall designate to the Department in
writing an individual licensed as a licensed CPA under this
Act or, in the case of a firm that must have a CPA firm
license pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 13 of this
Act, a licensee of another state who meets the requirements
set out in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (a) of
Section 5.2 of this Act, who shall be responsible for the
proper licensure of the CPA firm.
(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; 98-730, eff. 1-1-15; revised
11-25-14.)
Section 310. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of
2002 is amended by changing Section 5-5 as follows:
(225 ILCS 458/5-5)
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
Sec. 5-5. Necessity of license; use of title; exemptions.
(a) It is unlawful for a person to (i) act, offer services,
or advertise services as a State certified general real estate
appraiser, State certified residential real estate appraiser,
or associate real estate trainee appraiser, (ii) develop a real
estate appraisal, (iii) practice as a real estate appraiser, or
(iv) advertise or hold himself or herself out to be a real
estate appraiser without a license issued under this Act. A
person who violates this subsection is guilty of a Class A
misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for any
subsequent offense.
(a-5) It is unlawful for a person, unless registered as an
appraisal management company, to solicit clients or enter into
an appraisal engagement with clients without either a certified
residential real estate appraiser license or a certified
general real estate appraiser license issued under this Act. A
person who violates this subsection is guilty of a Class A
misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for any
subsequent offense.
(b) It is unlawful for a person, other than a person who
holds a valid license issued pursuant to this Act as a State
certified general real estate appraiser, a State certified
residential real estate appraiser, or an associate real estate
trainee appraiser to use these titles or any other title,
designation, or abbreviation likely to create the impression
that the person is licensed as a real estate appraiser pursuant
to this Act. A person who violates this subsection is guilty of
a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony
for any subsequent offense.
(c) This Act does not apply to a person who holds a valid
license as a real estate broker or managing broker pursuant to
the Real Estate License Act of 2000 who prepares or provides a
broker price opinion or comparative market analysis in
compliance with Section 10-45 of the Real Estate License Act of
2000.
(d) Nothing in this Act shall preclude a State certified
general real estate appraiser, a State certified residential
real estate appraiser, or an associate real estate trainee
appraiser from rendering appraisals for or on behalf of a
partnership, association, corporation, firm, or group.
However, no State appraisal license or certification shall be
issued under this Act to a partnership, association,
corporation, firm, or group.
(e) This Act does not apply to a county assessor, township
assessor, multi-township assessor, county supervisor of
assessments, or any deputy or employee of any county assessor,
township assessor, multi-township assessor, or county
supervisor of assessments who is performing his or her
respective duties in accordance with the provisions of the
Property Tax Code.
(e-5) For the purposes of this Act, valuation waivers may
be prepared by a licensed appraiser notwithstanding any other
provision of this Act, and the following types of valuations
are not appraisals and may not be represented to be appraisals,
and a license is not required under this Act to perform such
valuations if the valuations are performed by (1) an employee
of the Illinois Department of Transportation who has completed
a minimum of 45 hours of course work in real estate appraisal,
including the principals of real estate appraisals, appraisal
of partial acquisitions, easement valuation, reviewing
appraisals in eminent domain, appraisal for federal aid highway
programs, and appraisal review for federal aid highway programs
and has at least 2 years' experience in a field closely related
to real estate; (2) a county engineer who is a registered
professional engineer under the Professional Engineering
Practice Act of 1989; (3) an employee of a municipality who has
(i) completed a minimum of 45 hours of coursework in real
estate appraisal, including the principals of real estate
appraisals, appraisal of partial acquisitions, easement
valuation, reviewing appraisals in eminent domain, appraisal
for federal aid highway programs, and appraisal review for
federal aid highway programs and (ii) has either 2 years'
experience in a field clearly related to real estate or has
completed 20 hours of additional coursework that is sufficient
for a person to complete waiver valuations as approved by the
Federal Highway Administration; or (4) a municipal engineer who
has completed coursework that is sufficient for his or her
waiver valuations to be approved by the Federal Highway
Administration and who is a registered professional engineer
under the Professional Engineering Act of 1989, under the
following circumstances:
(A) a valuation waiver in an amount not to exceed
$10,000 prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform
Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition
Policies Act of 1970, or prepared pursuant to the federal
Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property
Acquisition for Federal and Federally-Assisted Programs
regulations and which is performed by (1) an employee of
the Illinois Department of Transportation and co-signed,
with a license number affixed, by another employee of the
Illinois Department of Transportation who is a registered
professional engineer under the Professional Engineering
Practice Act of 1989 or (2) an employee of a municipality
and co-signed with a license number affixed by a county or
municipal engineer who is a registered professional
engineer under the Professional Engineering Practice Act
of 1989; and
(B) a valuation waiver in an amount not to exceed
$10,000 prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform
Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition
Policies Act of 1970, or prepared pursuant to the federal
Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property
Acquisition for Federal and Federally-Assisted Programs
regulations and which is performed by a county or municipal
engineer who is employed by a county or municipality and is
a registered professional engineer under the Professional
Engineering Practice Act of 1989. In addition to his or her
signature, the county or municipal engineer shall affix his
or her license number to the valuation.
Nothing in this subsection (e-5) shall be construed to
allow the State of Illinois, a political subdivision thereof,
or any public body to acquire real estate by eminent domain in
any manner other than provided for in the Eminent Domain Act.
(f) A State real estate appraisal certification or license
is not required under this Act for any of the following:
(1) A person, partnership, association, or corporation
that performs appraisals of property owned by that person,
partnership, association, or corporation for the sole use
of that person, partnership, association, or corporation.
(2) A court-appointed commissioner who conducts an
appraisal pursuant to a judicially ordered evaluation of
property.
However, any person who is certified or licensed under this Act
and who performs any of the activities set forth in this
subsection (f) must comply with the provisions of this Act. A
person who violates this subsection (f) is guilty of a Class A
misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony for any
subsequent offense.
(g) This Act does not apply to an employee, officer,
director, or member of a credit or loan committee of a
financial institution or any other person engaged by a
financial institution when performing an evaluation of real
property for the sole use of the financial institution in a
transaction for which the financial institution would not be
required to use the services of a State licensed or State
certified appraiser pursuant to federal regulations adopted
under Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform,
Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, nor does this Act apply
to the procurement of an automated valuation model.
"Automated valuation model" means an automated system that
is used to derive a property value through the use of publicly
available property records and various analytic methodologies
such as comparable sales prices, home characteristics, and
historical home price appreciations.
(Source: P.A. 97-602, eff. 8-26-11; 98-444, eff. 8-16-13;
98-933, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1109, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)
Section 315. The Illinois Oil and Gas Act is amended by
changing Section 1 as follows:
(225 ILCS 725/1) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 5401)
Sec. 1. Unless the context otherwise requires, the words
defined in this Section have the following meanings as used in
this Act.
"Person" means any natural person, corporation,
association, partnership, governmental agency or other legal
entity, receiver, trustee, guardian, executor, administrator,
fiduciary or representative of any kind.
"Oil" means natural crude oil or petroleum and other
hydrocarbons, regardless of gravity, which are produced at the
well in liquid form by ordinary production methods or by the
use of an oil and gas separator and which are not the result of
condensation of gas after it leaves the underground reservoir.
"Gas" means all natural gas, including casinghead gas, and
all other natural hydrocarbons not defined above as oil.
"Pool" means a natural, underground reservoir containing
in whole or in part, a natural accumulation of oil or gas, or
both. Each productive zone or stratum of a general structure,
which is completely separated from any other zone or stratum in
the structure, is deemed a separate "pool" as used herein.
"Field" means the same general surface area which is
underlaid or appears to be underlaid by one or more pools.
"Permit" means the Department's written authorization
allowing a well to be drilled, deepened, converted, or operated
by an owner.
"Permittee" means the owner holding or required to hold the
permit, and who is also responsible for paying assessments in
accordance with Section 19.7 of this Act and, where applicable,
executing and filing the bond associated with the well as
principal and who is responsible for compliance with all
statutory and regulatory requirements pertaining to the well.
When the right and responsibility for operating a well is
vested in a receiver or trustee appointed by a court of
competent jurisdiction, the permit shall be issued to the
receiver or trustee.
"Orphan Well" means a well for which: (1) no fee assessment
under Section 19.7 of this Act has been paid or no other bond
coverage has been provided for 2 consecutive years; (2) no oil
or gas has been produced from the well or from the lease or
unit on which the well is located for 2 consecutive years; and
(3) no permittee or owner can be identified or located by the
Department. Orphaned wells include wells that may have been
drilled for purposes other than those for which a permit is
required under this Act if the well is a conduit for oil or
salt water intrusions into fresh water zones or onto the
surface which may be caused by oil and gas operations.
"Owner" means the person who has the right to drill into
and produce from any pool, and to appropriate the production
either for the person or for the person and another, or others,
or solely for others, excluding the mineral owner's royalty if
the right to drill and produce has been granted under an oil
and gas lease. An owner may also be a person granted the right
to drill and operate an injection (Class II UIC) well
independent of the right to drill for and produce oil or gas.
When the right to drill, produce, and appropriate production is
held by more than one person, then all persons holding these
rights may designate the owner by a written operating agreement
or similar written agreement. In the absence of such an
agreement, and subject to the provisions of Sections 22.2 and
23.1 through 23.16 of this Act, the owner shall be the person
designated in writing by a majority in interest of the persons
holding these rights.
"Department" means the Department of Natural Resources.
"Director" means the Director of Natural Resources.
"Mining Board" means the State Mining Board in the
Department of Natural Resources, Office of Mines and Minerals.
"Mineral Owner's Royalty" means the share of oil and gas
production reserved in an oil and gas lease free of all costs
by an owner of the minerals whether denominated royalty or
overriding royalty.
"Waste" means "physical waste" as that term is generally
understood in the oil and gas industry, and further includes:
(1) the locating, drilling, and producing of any oil or
gas well or wells drilled contrary to the valid order,
rules and regulations adopted by the Department under the
provisions of this Act; .
(2) permitting the migration of oil, gas, or water from
the stratum in which it is found, into other strata,
thereby ultimately resulting in the loss of recoverable
oil, gas or both;
(3) the drowning with water of any stratum or part
thereof capable of producing oil or gas, except for
secondary recovery purposes;
(4) the unreasonable damage to underground, fresh or
mineral water supply, workable coal seams, or other mineral
deposits in the operations for the discovery, development,
production, or handling of oil and gas;
(5) the unnecessary or excessive surface loss or
destruction of oil or gas resulting from evaporation,
seepage, leakage or fire, especially such loss or
destruction incident to or resulting from the escape of gas
into the open air in excessive or unreasonable amounts,
provided, however, it shall not be unlawful for the
operator or owner of any well producing both oil and gas to
burn such gas in flares when such gas is, under the other
provisions of this Act, lawfully produced, and where there
is no market at the well for such escaping gas; and where
the same is used for the extraction of casinghead gas, it
shall not be unlawful for the operator of the plant after
the process of extraction is completed, to burn such
residue in flares when there is no market at such plant for
such residue gas;
(6) permitting unnecessary fire hazards;
(7) permitting unnecessary damage to or destruction of
the surface, soil, animal, fish or aquatic life or property
from oil or gas operations.
"Drilling Unit" means the surface area allocated by an
order or regulation of the Department to the drilling of a
single well for the production of oil or gas from an individual
pool.
"Enhanced Recovery Method" means any method used in an
effort to recover hydrocarbons from a pool by injection of
fluids, gases or other substances to maintain, restore or
augment natural reservoir energy, or by introducing immiscible
or miscible gases, chemicals, other substances or heat or by
in-situ combustion, or by any combination thereof.
"Well-Site Equipment" means any production-related
equipment or materials specific to the well, including motors,
pumps, pump jacks, tanks, tank batteries, separators,
compressors, casing, tubing, and rods.
(Source: P.A. 89-243, eff. 8-4-95; 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; revised
11-25-14.)
Section 320. The Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act is
amended by changing Sections 1-40, 1-96, 1-100, 1-101, and
1-110 as follows:
(225 ILCS 732/1-40)
Sec. 1-40. Public notice.
(a) Within 5 calendar days after the Department's receipt
of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
application, the Department shall post notice of its receipt
and a copy of the permit application on its website. The notice
shall include the dates of the public comment period and
directions for interested parties to submit comments.
(b) Within 5 calendar days after the Department's receipt
of the permit application and notice to the applicant that the
high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit application
was received, the Department shall provide the Agency, the
Office of the State Fire Marshal, the Illinois State Water
Survey, and the Illinois State Geological Survey with notice of
the application.
(c) The applicant shall provide the following public
notice:
(1) Applicants shall mail specific public notice by
U.S. Postal Service certified mail, return receipt
requested, within 3 calendar days after submittal of the
high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit
application to the Department, to all persons identified as
owners of real property within 1,500 feet of the proposed
well site, as disclosed by the records in the office of the
recorder of the county or counties, and to each
municipality and county in which the well site is proposed
to be located.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (2)
of subsection (c), applicants shall provide general public
notice by publication, once each week for 2 consecutive
weeks, beginning no later than 3 calendar days after
submittal of the high volume horizontal hydraulic
fracturing permit application to the Department, in a
newspaper of general circulation published in each county
where the well proposed for high volume hydraulic
fracturing operations is proposed to be located.
If a well is proposed for high volume hydraulic
fracturing operations in a county where there is no daily
newspaper of general circulation, the applicant shall
provide general public notice, by publication, once each
week for 2 consecutive weeks, in a weekly newspaper of
general circulation in that county beginning as soon as the
publication schedule of the weekly newspaper permits, but
in no case later than 10 days after submittal of the high
volume hydraulic fracturing permit application to the
Department.
(3) The specific and general public notices required
under this subsection shall contain the following
information:
(A) the name and address of the applicant;
(B) the date the application for a high volume
horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit was filed;
(C) the dates for the public comment period and a
statement that anyone may file written comments about
any portion of the applicant's submitted high volume
horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit application
with the Department during the public comment period;
(D) the proposed well name, reference number
assigned by the Department, and the address and legal
description of the well site and its unit area;
(E) a statement that the information filed by the
applicant in their application for a high volume
horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit is available
from the Department through its website;
(F) the Department's website and the address and
telephone number for the Department's Oil and Gas
Division;
(G) a statement that any person having an interest
that is or may be adversely affected, any government
agency that is or may be affected, or the county board
of a county to be affected under a proposed permit, may
file written objections to a permit application and may
request a public hearing.
(d) After providing the public notice as required under
paragraph (2) of subsection (c) of this Section, the applicant
shall supplement its permit application by providing the
Department with a certification and documentation that the
applicant fulfilled the public notice requirements of this
Section. The Department shall not issue a permit until the
applicant has provided the supplemental material required
under this subsection.
(e) If multiple applications are submitted at the same time
for wells located on the same well site, the applicant may use
one public notice for all applications provided the notice is
clear that it pertains to multiple applications and conforms to
the requirements of this Section. Notice shall not constitute
standing for purposes of requesting a public hearing or for
standing to appeal the decision of the Department in accordance
with the Administrative Review Law.
(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-25-14.)
(225 ILCS 732/1-96)
Sec. 1-96. Seismicity.
(a) For purposes of this Section, "induced seismicity"
means an earthquake event that is felt, recorded by the
national seismic network, and attributable to a Class II
injection well used for disposal of flowback flow-back and
produced fluid from hydraulic fracturing operations.
(b) The Department shall adopt rules, in consultation with
the Illinois State Geological Survey, establishing a protocol
for controlling operational activity of Class II injection
wells in an instance of induced seismicity.
(c) The rules adopted by the Department under this Section
shall employ a "traffic light" control system allowing for low
levels of seismicity while including additional monitoring and
mitigation requirements when seismic events are of sufficient
intensity to result in a concern for public health and safety.
(d) The additional mitigation requirements referenced in
subsection (c) of this Section shall provide for either the
scaling back of injection operations with monitoring for
establishment of a potentially safe operation level or the
immediate cessation of injection operations.
(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-25-14.)
(225 ILCS 732/1-100)
Sec. 1-100. Criminal offenses; penalties.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, it shall
be a Class A misdemeanor to knowingly violate this Act, its
rules, or any permit or term or condition thereof, or knowingly
to submit any false information under this Act or regulations
adopted thereunder, or under any permit or term or condition
thereof. A person convicted or sentenced under this subsection
(a) shall be subject to a fine of not to exceed $10,000 for
each day of violation.
(b) It is unlawful for a person knowingly to violate:
(1) subsection (c) of Section 1-25 of this Act;
(2) subsection (d) of Section 1-25 of this Act;
(3) subsection (a) of Section 1-30 of this Act;
(4) paragraph (9) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of
this Act; or
(5) subsection (a) of Section 1-87 of this Act.
A person convicted or sentenced for any knowing violation
of the requirements or prohibitions listed in this subsection
(b) commits a Class 4 felony, and in addition to any other
penalty prescribed by law is subject to a fine not to exceed
$25,000 for each day of violation. A person who commits a
second or subsequent knowing violation of the requirements or
prohibitions listed in this subsection (b) commits a Class 3
felony and, in addition to any other penalties provided by law,
is subject to a fine not to exceed $50,000 for each day of
violation.
(c) Any person who knowingly makes a false, fictitious, or
fraudulent material statement, orally or in writing, to the
Department or Agency as required by this Act, its rules, or any
permit, term, or condition of a permit, commits a Class 4
felony, and each false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or
writing shall be considered a separate violation. In addition
to any other penalty prescribed by law, a person persons in
violation of this subsection (c) is subject to a fine of not to
exceed $25,000 for each day of violation. A person who commits
a second or subsequent knowing violation of this subsection (c)
commits a Class 3 felony and, in addition to any other
penalties provided by law, is subject to a fine not to exceed
$50,000 for each day of violation.
(d) Any criminal action provided for under this Section
shall be brought by the State's Attorney of the county in which
the violation occurred or by the Attorney General and shall be
conducted in accordance with the applicable provision of the
Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963. For criminal conduct in
this Section, the period for commencing prosecution shall not
begin to run until the offense is discovered by or reported to
a State or local agency having authority to investigate
violations of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-26-14.)
(225 ILCS 732/1-101)
Sec. 1-101. Violations; civil penalties and injunctions.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any
person who violates any provision of this Act or any rule or
order adopted under this Act or any permit issued under this
Act shall be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $50,000
for the violation and an additional civil penalty not to exceed
$10,000 for each day during which the violation continues.
(b) Any person who violates any requirements or
prohibitions of provisions listed in this subsection (b) is
subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $100,000 for the
violation and an additional civil penalty not to exceed $20,000
for each day during which the violation continues. The
following are violations are subject to the penalties of this
subsection (b):
(1) subsection (c) of Section 1-25 of this Act;
(2) subsection (d) of Section 1-25 of this Act;
(3) subsection (a) of Section 1-30 of this Act;
(4) paragraph (9) of subsection (c) of Section 1-75 of
this Act; or
(5) subsection (a) of Section 1-87 of this Act.
(c) Any person who knowingly makes, submits, causes to be
made, or causes to be submitted a false report of pollution,
diminution, or water pollution attributable to high volume
horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations that results in an
investigation by the Department or Agency under this Act shall
be liable for a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 for the
violation.
(d) The penalty shall be recovered by a civil action before
the circuit court of the county in which the well site is
located or in the circuit court of Sangamon County. Venue shall
be considered proper in either court. These penalties may, upon
the order of a court of competent jurisdiction, be made payable
to the Environmental Protection Trust Fund, to be used in
accordance with the provisions of the Environmental Protection
Trust Fund Act.
(e) The State's Attorney of the county in which the
violation occurred, or the Attorney General, may, at the
request of the Department or on his or her own motion,
institute a civil action for the recovery of costs, an
injunction, prohibitory or mandatory, to restrain violations
of this Act, any rule adopted under this Act, the permit or
term or condition of the permit, or to require other actions as
may be necessary to address violations of this Act, any rule
adopted under this Act, or the permit or term or condition of
the permit.
(f) The State's Attorney of the county in which the
violation occurred, or the Attorney General, shall bring
actions under this Section in the name of the People of the
State of Illinois. Without limiting any other authority that
may exist for the awarding of attorney's fees and costs, a
court of competent jurisdiction may award costs and reasonable
attorney's fees, including the reasonable costs of expert
witnesses and consultants, to the State's Attorney or the
Attorney General in a case where he or she has prevailed
against a person who has committed a knowing or repeated
violation of this Act, any rule adopted under this Act, or the
permit or term or condition of the permit.
(g) All final orders imposing civil penalties under this
Section shall prescribe the time for payment of those
penalties. If any penalty is not paid within the time
prescribed, interest on the penalty at the rate set forth in
subsection (a) of Section 1003 of the Illinois Income Tax Act,
shall be paid for the period from the date payment is due until
the date payment is received. However, if the time for payment
is stayed during the pendency of an appeal, interest shall not
accrue during the stay.
(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-26-14.)
(225 ILCS 732/1-110)
Sec. 1-110. Public information; website.
(a) All information submitted to the Department under this
Act is deemed public information, except information deemed to
constitute a trade secret under Section 1-77 of this Act and
private information and personal information as defined in the
Freedom of Information Act.
(b) To provide the public and concerned citizens with a
centralized repository of information, the Department shall
create and maintain a comprehensive website dedicated to
providing information concerning high volume horizontal
hydraulic fracturing operations. The website shall contain,
assemble, and link the documents and information required by
this Act to be posted on the Department's or other agencies'
websites. The Department shall also create and maintain an
online searchable database that provides information related
to high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations on
wells that, at a minimum, includes include, for each well it
permits, the identity of its operators, its waste disposal, its
chemical disclosure information, and any complaints or
violations under this Act. The website created under this
Section shall allow users to search for completion reports by
well name and location, dates of fracturing and drilling
operations, operator, and by chemical additives.
(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 325. The Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 is
amended by changing Section 12.2 as follows:
(230 ILCS 5/12.2)
Sec. 12.2. Business enterprise program.
(a) For the purposes of this Section, the terms "minority",
"minority owned business", "female", "female owned business",
"person with a disability", and "business owned by a person
with a disability" have the meanings meaning ascribed to them
in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons
with Disabilities Act.
(b) The Board shall, by rule, establish goals for the award
of contracts by each organization licensee or inter-track
wagering licensee to businesses owned by minorities, females,
and persons with disabilities, expressed as percentages of an
organization licensee's or inter-track wagering licensee's
total dollar amount of contracts awarded during each calendar
year. Each organization licensee or inter-track wagering
licensee must make every effort to meet the goals established
by the Board pursuant to this Section. When setting the goals
for the award of contracts, the Board shall not include
contracts where: (1) licensees are purchasing goods or services
from vendors or suppliers or in markets where there are no or a
limited number of minority owned businesses, women owned
businesses, or businesses owned by persons with disabilities
that would be sufficient to satisfy the goal; (2) there are no
or a limited number of suppliers licensed by the Board; (3) the
licensee or its parent company owns a company that provides the
goods or services; or (4) the goods or services are provided to
the licensee by a publicly traded company.
(c) Each organization licensee or inter-track wagering
licensee shall file with the Board an annual report of its
utilization of minority owned businesses, female owned
businesses, and businesses owned by persons with disabilities
during the preceding calendar year. The reports shall include a
self-evaluation of the efforts of the organization licensee or
inter-track wagering licensee to meet its goals under this
Section.
(d) The organization licensee or inter-track wagering
licensee shall have the right to request a waiver from the
requirements of this Section. The Board shall grant the waiver
where the organization licensee or inter-track wagering
licensee demonstrates that there has been made a good faith
effort to comply with the goals for participation by minority
owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses
owned by persons with disabilities.
(e) If the Board determines that its goals and policies are
not being met by any organization licensee or inter-track
wagering licensee, then the Board may:
(1) adopt remedies for such violations; and
(2) recommend that the organization licensee or
inter-track wagering licensee provide additional
opportunities for participation by minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned
by persons with disabilities; such recommendations may
include, but shall not be limited to:
(A) assurances of stronger and better focused
solicitation efforts to obtain more minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses
owned by persons with disabilities as potential
sources of supply;
(B) division of job or project requirements, when
economically feasible, into tasks or quantities to
permit participation of minority owned businesses,
female owned businesses, and businesses owned by
persons with disabilities;
(C) elimination of extended experience or
capitalization requirements, when programmatically
feasible, to permit participation of minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses
owned by persons with disabilities;
(D) identification of specific proposed contracts
as particularly attractive or appropriate for
participation by minority owned businesses, female
owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with
disabilities, such identification to result from and
be coupled with the efforts of items (A) through (C);
and
(E) implementation of regulations established for
the use of the sheltered market process.
(f) The Board shall file, no later than March 1 of each
year, an annual report that shall detail the level of
achievement toward the goals specified in this Section over the
3 most recent fiscal years. The annual report shall include,
but need not be limited to:
(1) a summary detailing expenditures subject to the
goals, the actual goals specified, and the goals attained
by each organization licensee or inter-track wagering
licensee;
(2) a summary of the number of contracts awarded and
the average contract amount by each organization licensee
or inter-track wagering licensee;
(3) an analysis of the level of overall goal
achievement concerning purchases from minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned
by persons with disabilities;
(4) an analysis of the number of minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned
by persons with disabilities that are certified under the
program as well as the number of those businesses that
received State procurement contracts; and
(5) a summary of the number of contracts awarded to
businesses with annual gross sales of less than $1,000,000;
of $1,000,000 or more, but less than $5,000,000; of
$5,000,000 or more, but less than $10,000,000; and of
$10,000,000 or more.
(Source: P.A. 98-490, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 330. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by
changing Section 7.6 as follows:
(230 ILCS 10/7.6)
Sec. 7.6. Business enterprise program.
(a) For the purposes of this Section, the terms "minority",
"minority owned business", "female", "female owned business",
"person with a disability", and "business owned by a person
with a disability" have the meanings meaning ascribed to them
in the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and Persons
with Disabilities Act.
(b) The Board shall, by rule, establish goals for the award
of contracts by each owners licensee to businesses owned by
minorities, females, and persons with disabilities, expressed
as percentages of an owners licensee's total dollar amount of
contracts awarded during each calendar year. Each owners
licensee must make every effort to meet the goals established
by the Board pursuant to this Section. When setting the goals
for the award of contracts, the Board shall not include
contracts where: (1) any purchasing mandates would be dependent
upon the availability of minority owned businesses, female
owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with
disabilities ready, willing, and able with capacity to provide
quality goods and services to a gaming operation at reasonable
prices; (2) there are no or a limited number of licensed
suppliers as defined by this Act for the goods or services
provided to the licensee; (3) the licensee or its parent
company owns a company that provides the goods or services; or
(4) the goods or services are provided to the licensee by a
publicly traded company.
(c) Each owners licensee shall file with the Board an
annual report of its utilization of minority owned businesses,
female owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with
disabilities during the preceding calendar year. The reports
shall include a self-evaluation of the efforts of the owners
licensee to meet its goals under this Section.
(d) The owners licensee shall have the right to request a
waiver from the requirements of this Section. The Board shall
grant the waiver where the owners licensee demonstrates that
there has been made a good faith effort to comply with the
goals for participation by minority owned businesses, female
owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with
disabilities.
(e) If the Board determines that its goals and policies are
not being met by any owners licensee, then the Board may:
(1) adopt remedies for such violations; and
(2) recommend that the owners licensee provide
additional opportunities for participation by minority
owned businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses
owned by persons with disabilities; such recommendations
may include, but shall not be limited to:
(A) assurances of stronger and better focused
solicitation efforts to obtain more minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses
owned by persons with disabilities as potential
sources of supply;
(B) division of job or project requirements, when
economically feasible, into tasks or quantities to
permit participation of minority owned businesses,
female owned businesses, and businesses owned by
persons with disabilities;
(C) elimination of extended experience or
capitalization requirements, when programmatically
feasible, to permit participation of minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses
owned by persons with disabilities;
(D) identification of specific proposed contracts
as particularly attractive or appropriate for
participation by minority owned businesses, female
owned businesses, and businesses owned by persons with
disabilities, such identification to result from and
be coupled with the efforts of items (A) through (C);
and
(E) implementation of regulations established for
the use of the sheltered market process.
(f) The Board shall file, no later than March 1 of each
year, an annual report that shall detail the level of
achievement toward the goals specified in this Section over the
3 most recent fiscal years. The annual report shall include,
but need not be limited to:
(1) a summary detailing expenditures subject to the
goals, the actual goals specified, and the goals attained
by each owners licensee; and
(2) an analysis of the level of overall goal
achievement concerning purchases from minority owned
businesses, female owned businesses, and businesses owned
by persons with disabilities.
(Source: P.A. 98-490, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 335. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by
changing Sections 3-12, 6-15, and 6-36 as follows:
(235 ILCS 5/3-12)
(Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-939)
Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.
(a) The State commission shall have the following powers,
functions, and duties:
(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to
manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors,
distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption
retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event
retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction
liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers,
non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and
lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes,
boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in
accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend
or revoke such licenses upon the State commission's
determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee
has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or
regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30
days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an
action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5,
or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or
revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license
for the specific premises where the violation occurred.
In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the
commission may impose a fine, upon the State commission's
determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has
violated any provision of this Act or any rule or
regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30
days prior to such violation.
For the purpose of this paragraph (1), when determining
multiple violations for the sale of alcohol to a person
under the age of 21, a second or subsequent violation for
the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 shall
only be considered if it was committed within 5 years after
the date when a prior violation for the sale of alcohol to
a person under the age of 21 was committed.
The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed
$500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which
gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate
violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any
licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed
$20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a
licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a
foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic
liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction
of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles
so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh
bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle
thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a
foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be
imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of
alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.
(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with
the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to
carry on its functions and duties to the end that the
health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of
Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the
consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and
promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and
regulations to all licensees affected thereby.
(3) To call upon other administrative departments of
the State, county and municipal governments, county and
city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for
such information and assistance as it deems necessary in
the performance of its duties.
(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and
regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the
distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the
State.
(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises
in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured,
distributed, warehoused, or sold. Nothing in this Act
authorizes an agent of the Commission to inspect private
areas within the premises without reasonable suspicion or a
warrant during an inspection. "Private areas" include, but
are not limited to, safes, personal property, and closed
desks.
(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having
knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a
manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or
retailer without a license or valid license, to notify the
local liquor authority, file a complaint with the State's
Attorney's Office of the county where the incident
occurred, or initiate an investigation with the
appropriate law enforcement officials.
(5.2) To issue a cease and desist notice to persons
shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point
outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of
this Act.
(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local
officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and
persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating
any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations
issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in
writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the
complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in
relation to the alleged violation. If the Commission has
reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint
substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and
regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct
an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation,
the Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did
occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against
the licensee as provided in this Act.
(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a
local commission in accordance with the provisions of this
Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this
subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at
whichever location is the more convenient for the majority
of persons who are parties to the hearing.
(7) The commission shall establish uniform systems of
accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more
than 4 employees, and for this purpose the commission may
classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees
and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class
and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be
kept. The commission may also prescribe the forms of
accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more
than 4 employees, including but not limited to accounts of
earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or
other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other
forms, records and memoranda which in the judgment of the
commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any
of the provisions of this Act, including but not limited to
such forms, records and memoranda as will readily and
accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership
of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms,
records and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable
times for inspection by authorized representatives of the
State commission or by any local liquor control
commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The
commission, may, from time to time, alter, amend or repeal,
in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the
form and manner of keeping accounts.
(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held
by the commission, to appoint, at the commission's
discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving
complex issues or issues that will require a protracted
period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be
examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause
to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to
hear testimony and take proof material for its information
in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or
cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to
issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of
witnesses and the production of books, which shall be
effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to
implement its powers under this paragraph (8).
Any Circuit Court may by order duly entered, require
the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant
books subpoenaed by the State commission and the court may
compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.
(9) To investigate the administration of laws in
relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and
any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time
to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature
of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it
may think desirable and as will serve to further the
general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.
(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent
with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary
for the control, sale or disposition of alcoholic liquor
damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire or
other similar occurrence.
(11) To develop industry educational programs related
to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the
areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage
purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.
(11.1) To license persons providing education and
training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers under the
Beverage Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and
Training (BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a
public awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate
the illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage
products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a
license shall be made on forms provided by the State
Commission.
(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license
and regulatory information.
(13) On or before January 15, 1994, the Commission
shall issue a written report to the Governor and General
Assembly that is to be based on a comprehensive study of
the impact on and implications for the State of Illinois of
Section 1926 of the Federal ADAMHA Reorganization Act of
1992 (Public Law 102-321). This study shall address the
extent to which Illinois currently complies with the
provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the rules promulgated
pursuant thereto.
As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the
following essential information:
(i) the number of retail distributors of tobacco
products, by type and geographic area, in the State;
(ii) the number of reported citations and
successful convictions, categorized by type and
location of retail distributor, for violation of the
Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and
Distribution of Tobacco Products Act and the Smokeless
Tobacco Limitation Act;
(iii) the extent and nature of organized
educational and governmental activities that are
intended to promote, encourage or otherwise secure
compliance with any Illinois laws that prohibit the
sale or distribution of tobacco products to minors; and
(iv) the level of access and availability of
tobacco products to individuals under the age of 18.
To obtain the data necessary to comply with the
provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the requirements of this
report, the Commission shall conduct random, unannounced
inspections of a geographically and scientifically
representative sample of the State's retail tobacco
distributors.
The Commission shall consult with the Department of
Public Health, the Department of Human Services, the
Illinois State Police and any other executive branch
agency, and private organizations that may have
information relevant to this report.
The Commission may contract with the Food and Drug
Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human
Services to conduct unannounced investigations of Illinois
tobacco vendors to determine compliance with federal laws
relating to the illegal sale of cigarettes and smokeless
tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.
(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years
thereafter, the Commission shall present a written report
to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be
based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of
the 95th General Assembly on the business of soliciting,
selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this
State directly to residents of this State. As part of its
report, the Commission shall provide all of the following
information:
(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax
revenues generated.
(B) The amount of licensing fees received.
(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside
and outside of this State directly to residents of this
State.
(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations
conducted.
(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses
issued.
(F) The number of each of the following: reported
violations; cease and desist notices issued by the
Commission; notices of violations issued by the
Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and
notices and complaints of violations to law
enforcement officials, including, without limitation,
the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department
of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.
(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of
alcoholic liquors, the Commission shall conduct alcohol
compliance operations to investigate whether businesses
that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside
or outside of this State directly to residents of this
State are licensed by this State or are selling or
attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in
violation of this Act.
(16) The Commission shall, in addition to notifying any
appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of
complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by
persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under
this amendatory Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to
the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax
and Trade Bureau.
(17) (A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws
of another state who has a winery shipper's license under
this amendatory Act and annually produces less than 25,000
gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or
second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or
second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine
manufacturer's license under this Act and annually
produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make
application to the Commission for a self-distribution
exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons
of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per
year.
(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under
penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the
date it was established; (2) its volume of production
and sales for each year since its establishment; (3)
its efforts to establish distributor relationships;
(4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to
facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it
will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the
United States, this State, and any other state where it
is licensed.
(C) The Commission shall approve the application
for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1)
is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws;
(2) is not a member of any affiliated group that
produces more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum or
produces any other alcoholic liquor; (3) will not
annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of
wine; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000
gallons of its wine to retail licensees.
(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall
annually certify to the Commission its production of
wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated
production and sales for the next 12 months. The
Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a
self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it
finds that the exemption holder has made a material
misrepresentation in its application, violated a
revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production
of 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or
become part of an affiliated group producing more than
25,000 gallons of wine or any other alcoholic liquor.
(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act
or amendatory Act or a bona fide investigation by duly
sworn law enforcement officials, the Commission, or
its agents, the Commission shall maintain the
production and sales information of a
self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and
shall not release such information to any person.
(F) The Commission shall issue regulations
governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with
this Section and this Act.
(G) Nothing in this subsection (17) shall prohibit
a self-distribution exemption holder from entering
into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement
with a licensed Illinois distributor.
(H) It is the intent of this subsection (17) to
promote and continue orderly markets. The General
Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois'
regulatory distribution system it is necessary to
create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their
wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes,
vintages, and taste to find and create market niches
sometimes too small for distributor or importing
distributor business strategies. Limited
self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller
makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to
develop a customer base without impairing the
integrity of the 3-tier system.
(18) (A) A craft brewer licensee, who must also be
either a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer
and annually manufacture less than 930,000 gallons of beer,
may make application to the Commission for a
self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more
than 232,500 gallons of the exemption holder's beer to
retail licensees per year.
(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under
penalty of perjury, the craft brewer licensee shall
state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume
of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its
establishment; (3) its efforts to establish
distributor relationships; (4) that a
self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate
the marketing of its beer; and (5) that it will comply
with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the
United States, this State, and any other state where it
is licensed.
(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on
the Commission's website at least 45 days prior to
action by the Commission. The Commission shall approve
the application for a self-distribution exemption if
the craft brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with
the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is
not a member of any affiliated group that manufacturers
more than 930,000 gallons of beer per annum or produces
any other alcoholic beverages; (3) shall not annually
manufacture for sale more than 930,000 gallons of beer;
and (4) shall not annually sell more than 232,500
gallons of its beer to retail licensees.
(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall
annually certify to the Commission its manufacture of
beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated
manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months.
The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a
self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it
finds that the exemption holder has made a material
misrepresentation in its application, violated a
revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois,
exceeded the manufacture of 930,000 gallons of beer in
any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group
manufacturing more than 930,000 gallons of beer or any
other alcoholic beverage.
(E) The Commission shall issue rules and
regulations governing self-distribution exemptions
consistent with this Act.
(F) Nothing in this paragraph (18) shall prohibit a
self-distribution exemption holder from entering into
or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with
a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a
distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder
enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned
distribution rights to an importing distributor or
distributor, then the self-distribution exemption
holder's distribution rights in the assigned
territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to
exceed 60 days.
(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (18) to
promote and continue orderly markets. The General
Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois'
regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to
create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order
to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer
access to the marketplace in order to develop a
customer base without impairing the integrity of the
3-tier system.
(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall
present a written report to the Governor and the General
Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this
amendatory Act of 1998 on the business of soliciting, selling,
and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State
directly to residents of this State.
As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the
following information:
(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues
generated as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;
(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result
of this amendatory Act of 1998;
(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of
cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the
number of notices of violations issued to the Department of
Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of
violations to law enforcement officials.
(Source: P.A. 97-5, eff. 6-1-11; 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; 98-941,
eff. 1-1-15.)
(Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-939)
Sec. 3-12. Powers and duties of State Commission.
(a) The State commission shall have the following powers,
functions, and duties:
(1) To receive applications and to issue licenses to
manufacturers, foreign importers, importing distributors,
distributors, non-resident dealers, on premise consumption
retailers, off premise sale retailers, special event
retailer licensees, special use permit licenses, auction
liquor licenses, brew pubs, caterer retailers,
non-beverage users, railroads, including owners and
lessees of sleeping, dining and cafe cars, airplanes,
boats, brokers, and wine maker's premises licensees in
accordance with the provisions of this Act, and to suspend
or revoke such licenses upon the State commission's
determination, upon notice after hearing, that a licensee
has violated any provision of this Act or any rule or
regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30
days prior to such violation. Except in the case of an
action taken pursuant to a violation of Section 6-3, 6-5,
or 6-9, any action by the State Commission to suspend or
revoke a licensee's license may be limited to the license
for the specific premises where the violation occurred.
In lieu of suspending or revoking a license, the
commission may impose a fine, upon the State commission's
determination and notice after hearing, that a licensee has
violated any provision of this Act or any rule or
regulation issued pursuant thereto and in effect for 30
days prior to such violation.
For the purpose of this paragraph (1), when determining
multiple violations for the sale of alcohol to a person
under the age of 21, a second or subsequent violation for
the sale of alcohol to a person under the age of 21 shall
only be considered if it was committed within 5 years after
the date when a prior violation for the sale of alcohol to
a person under the age of 21 was committed.
The fine imposed under this paragraph may not exceed
$500 for each violation. Each day that the activity, which
gave rise to the original fine, continues is a separate
violation. The maximum fine that may be levied against any
licensee, for the period of the license, shall not exceed
$20,000. The maximum penalty that may be imposed on a
licensee for selling a bottle of alcoholic liquor with a
foreign object in it or serving from a bottle of alcoholic
liquor with a foreign object in it shall be the destruction
of that bottle of alcoholic liquor for the first 10 bottles
so sold or served from by the licensee. For the eleventh
bottle of alcoholic liquor and for each third bottle
thereafter sold or served from by the licensee with a
foreign object in it, the maximum penalty that may be
imposed on the licensee is the destruction of the bottle of
alcoholic liquor and a fine of up to $50.
(2) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent with
the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary to
carry on its functions and duties to the end that the
health, safety and welfare of the People of the State of
Illinois shall be protected and temperance in the
consumption of alcoholic liquors shall be fostered and
promoted and to distribute copies of such rules and
regulations to all licensees affected thereby.
(3) To call upon other administrative departments of
the State, county and municipal governments, county and
city police departments and upon prosecuting officers for
such information and assistance as it deems necessary in
the performance of its duties.
(4) To recommend to local commissioners rules and
regulations, not inconsistent with the law, for the
distribution and sale of alcoholic liquors throughout the
State.
(5) To inspect, or cause to be inspected, any premises
in this State where alcoholic liquors are manufactured,
distributed, warehoused, or sold. Nothing in this Act
authorizes an agent of the Commission to inspect private
areas within the premises without reasonable suspicion or a
warrant during an inspection. "Private areas" include, but
are not limited to, safes, personal property, and closed
desks.
(5.1) Upon receipt of a complaint or upon having
knowledge that any person is engaged in business as a
manufacturer, importing distributor, distributor, or
retailer without a license or valid license, to notify the
local liquor authority, file a complaint with the State's
Attorney's Office of the county where the incident
occurred, or initiate an investigation with the
appropriate law enforcement officials.
(5.2) To issue a cease and desist notice to persons
shipping alcoholic liquor into this State from a point
outside of this State if the shipment is in violation of
this Act.
(5.3) To receive complaints from licensees, local
officials, law enforcement agencies, organizations, and
persons stating that any licensee has been or is violating
any provision of this Act or the rules and regulations
issued pursuant to this Act. Such complaints shall be in
writing, signed and sworn to by the person making the
complaint, and shall state with specificity the facts in
relation to the alleged violation. If the Commission has
reasonable grounds to believe that the complaint
substantially alleges a violation of this Act or rules and
regulations adopted pursuant to this Act, it shall conduct
an investigation. If, after conducting an investigation,
the Commission is satisfied that the alleged violation did
occur, it shall proceed with disciplinary action against
the licensee as provided in this Act.
(6) To hear and determine appeals from orders of a
local commission in accordance with the provisions of this
Act, as hereinafter set forth. Hearings under this
subsection shall be held in Springfield or Chicago, at
whichever location is the more convenient for the majority
of persons who are parties to the hearing.
(7) The commission shall establish uniform systems of
accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more
than 4 employees, and for this purpose the commission may
classify all retail licensees having more than 4 employees
and establish a uniform system of accounts for each class
and prescribe the manner in which such accounts shall be
kept. The commission may also prescribe the forms of
accounts to be kept by all retail licensees having more
than 4 employees, including but not limited to accounts of
earnings and expenses and any distribution, payment, or
other distribution of earnings or assets, and any other
forms, records and memoranda which in the judgment of the
commission may be necessary or appropriate to carry out any
of the provisions of this Act, including but not limited to
such forms, records and memoranda as will readily and
accurately disclose at all times the beneficial ownership
of such retail licensed business. The accounts, forms,
records and memoranda shall be available at all reasonable
times for inspection by authorized representatives of the
State commission or by any local liquor control
commissioner or his or her authorized representative. The
commission, may, from time to time, alter, amend or repeal,
in whole or in part, any uniform system of accounts, or the
form and manner of keeping accounts.
(8) In the conduct of any hearing authorized to be held
by the commission, to appoint, at the commission's
discretion, hearing officers to conduct hearings involving
complex issues or issues that will require a protracted
period of time to resolve, to examine, or cause to be
examined, under oath, any licensee, and to examine or cause
to be examined the books and records of such licensee; to
hear testimony and take proof material for its information
in the discharge of its duties hereunder; to administer or
cause to be administered oaths; for any such purpose to
issue subpoena or subpoenas to require the attendance of
witnesses and the production of books, which shall be
effective in any part of this State, and to adopt rules to
implement its powers under this paragraph (8).
Any Circuit Court may by order duly entered, require
the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant
books subpoenaed by the State commission and the court may
compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt.
(9) To investigate the administration of laws in
relation to alcoholic liquors in this and other states and
any foreign countries, and to recommend from time to time
to the Governor and through him or her to the legislature
of this State, such amendments to this Act, if any, as it
may think desirable and as will serve to further the
general broad purposes contained in Section 1-2 hereof.
(10) To adopt such rules and regulations consistent
with the provisions of this Act which shall be necessary
for the control, sale or disposition of alcoholic liquor
damaged as a result of an accident, wreck, flood, fire or
other similar occurrence.
(11) To develop industry educational programs related
to responsible serving and selling, particularly in the
areas of overserving consumers and illegal underage
purchasing and consumption of alcoholic beverages.
(11.1) To license persons providing education and
training to alcohol beverage sellers and servers for
mandatory and non-mandatory training under the Beverage
Alcohol Sellers and Servers Education and Training
(BASSET) programs and to develop and administer a public
awareness program in Illinois to reduce or eliminate the
illegal purchase and consumption of alcoholic beverage
products by persons under the age of 21. Application for a
license shall be made on forms provided by the State
Commission.
(12) To develop and maintain a repository of license
and regulatory information.
(13) On or before January 15, 1994, the Commission
shall issue a written report to the Governor and General
Assembly that is to be based on a comprehensive study of
the impact on and implications for the State of Illinois of
Section 1926 of the Federal ADAMHA Reorganization Act of
1992 (Public Law 102-321). This study shall address the
extent to which Illinois currently complies with the
provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the rules promulgated
pursuant thereto.
As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the
following essential information:
(i) the number of retail distributors of tobacco
products, by type and geographic area, in the State;
(ii) the number of reported citations and
successful convictions, categorized by type and
location of retail distributor, for violation of the
Prevention of Tobacco Use by Minors and Sale and
Distribution of Tobacco Products Act and the Smokeless
Tobacco Limitation Act;
(iii) the extent and nature of organized
educational and governmental activities that are
intended to promote, encourage or otherwise secure
compliance with any Illinois laws that prohibit the
sale or distribution of tobacco products to minors; and
(iv) the level of access and availability of
tobacco products to individuals under the age of 18.
To obtain the data necessary to comply with the
provisions of P.L. 102-321 and the requirements of this
report, the Commission shall conduct random, unannounced
inspections of a geographically and scientifically
representative sample of the State's retail tobacco
distributors.
The Commission shall consult with the Department of
Public Health, the Department of Human Services, the
Illinois State Police and any other executive branch
agency, and private organizations that may have
information relevant to this report.
The Commission may contract with the Food and Drug
Administration of the U.S. Department of Health and Human
Services to conduct unannounced investigations of Illinois
tobacco vendors to determine compliance with federal laws
relating to the illegal sale of cigarettes and smokeless
tobacco products to persons under the age of 18.
(14) On or before April 30, 2008 and every 2 years
thereafter, the Commission shall present a written report
to the Governor and the General Assembly that shall be
based on a study of the impact of this amendatory Act of
the 95th General Assembly on the business of soliciting,
selling, and shipping wine from inside and outside of this
State directly to residents of this State. As part of its
report, the Commission shall provide all of the following
information:
(A) The amount of State excise and sales tax
revenues generated.
(B) The amount of licensing fees received.
(C) The number of cases of wine shipped from inside
and outside of this State directly to residents of this
State.
(D) The number of alcohol compliance operations
conducted.
(E) The number of winery shipper's licenses
issued.
(F) The number of each of the following: reported
violations; cease and desist notices issued by the
Commission; notices of violations issued by the
Commission and to the Department of Revenue; and
notices and complaints of violations to law
enforcement officials, including, without limitation,
the Illinois Attorney General and the U.S. Department
of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau.
(15) As a means to reduce the underage consumption of
alcoholic liquors, the Commission shall conduct alcohol
compliance operations to investigate whether businesses
that are soliciting, selling, and shipping wine from inside
or outside of this State directly to residents of this
State are licensed by this State or are selling or
attempting to sell wine to persons under 21 years of age in
violation of this Act.
(16) The Commission shall, in addition to notifying any
appropriate law enforcement agency, submit notices of
complaints or violations of Sections 6-29 and 6-29.1 by
persons who do not hold a winery shipper's license under
this amendatory Act to the Illinois Attorney General and to
the U.S. Department of Treasury's Alcohol and Tobacco Tax
and Trade Bureau.
(17) (A) A person licensed to make wine under the laws
of another state who has a winery shipper's license under
this amendatory Act and annually produces less than 25,000
gallons of wine or a person who has a first-class or
second-class wine manufacturer's license, a first-class or
second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited wine
manufacturer's license under this Act and annually
produces less than 25,000 gallons of wine may make
application to the Commission for a self-distribution
exemption to allow the sale of not more than 5,000 gallons
of the exemption holder's wine to retail licensees per
year.
(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under
penalty of perjury, such person shall state (1) the
date it was established; (2) its volume of production
and sales for each year since its establishment; (3)
its efforts to establish distributor relationships;
(4) that a self-distribution exemption is necessary to
facilitate the marketing of its wine; and (5) that it
will comply with the liquor and revenue laws of the
United States, this State, and any other state where it
is licensed.
(C) The Commission shall approve the application
for a self-distribution exemption if such person: (1)
is in compliance with State revenue and liquor laws;
(2) is not a member of any affiliated group that
produces more than 25,000 gallons of wine per annum or
produces any other alcoholic liquor; (3) will not
annually produce for sale more than 25,000 gallons of
wine; and (4) will not annually sell more than 5,000
gallons of its wine to retail licensees.
(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall
annually certify to the Commission its production of
wine in the previous 12 months and its anticipated
production and sales for the next 12 months. The
Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a
self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it
finds that the exemption holder has made a material
misrepresentation in its application, violated a
revenue or liquor law of Illinois, exceeded production
of 25,000 gallons of wine in any calendar year, or
become part of an affiliated group producing more than
25,000 gallons of wine or any other alcoholic liquor.
(E) Except in hearings for violations of this Act
or amendatory Act or a bona fide investigation by duly
sworn law enforcement officials, the Commission, or
its agents, the Commission shall maintain the
production and sales information of a
self-distribution exemption holder as confidential and
shall not release such information to any person.
(F) The Commission shall issue regulations
governing self-distribution exemptions consistent with
this Section and this Act.
(G) Nothing in this subsection (17) shall prohibit
a self-distribution exemption holder from entering
into or simultaneously having a distribution agreement
with a licensed Illinois distributor.
(H) It is the intent of this subsection (17) to
promote and continue orderly markets. The General
Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois'
regulatory distribution system it is necessary to
create an exception for smaller makers of wine as their
wines are frequently adjusted in varietals, mixes,
vintages, and taste to find and create market niches
sometimes too small for distributor or importing
distributor business strategies. Limited
self-distribution rights will afford and allow smaller
makers of wine access to the marketplace in order to
develop a customer base without impairing the
integrity of the 3-tier system.
(18) (A) A craft brewer licensee, who must also be
either a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer
and annually manufacture less than 930,000 gallons of beer,
may make application to the Commission for a
self-distribution exemption to allow the sale of not more
than 232,500 gallons of the exemption holder's beer to
retail licensees per year.
(B) In the application, which shall be sworn under
penalty of perjury, the craft brewer licensee shall
state (1) the date it was established; (2) its volume
of beer manufactured and sold for each year since its
establishment; (3) its efforts to establish
distributor relationships; (4) that a
self-distribution exemption is necessary to facilitate
the marketing of its beer; and (5) that it will comply
with the alcoholic beverage and revenue laws of the
United States, this State, and any other state where it
is licensed.
(C) Any application submitted shall be posted on
the Commission's website at least 45 days prior to
action by the Commission. The Commission shall approve
the application for a self-distribution exemption if
the craft brewer licensee: (1) is in compliance with
the State, revenue, and alcoholic beverage laws; (2) is
not a member of any affiliated group that manufacturers
more than 930,000 gallons of beer per annum or produces
any other alcoholic beverages; (3) shall not annually
manufacture for sale more than 930,000 gallons of beer;
and (4) shall not annually sell more than 232,500
gallons of its beer to retail licensees.
(D) A self-distribution exemption holder shall
annually certify to the Commission its manufacture of
beer during the previous 12 months and its anticipated
manufacture and sales of beer for the next 12 months.
The Commission may fine, suspend, or revoke a
self-distribution exemption after a hearing if it
finds that the exemption holder has made a material
misrepresentation in its application, violated a
revenue or alcoholic beverage law of Illinois,
exceeded the manufacture of 930,000 gallons of beer in
any calendar year or became part of an affiliated group
manufacturing more than 930,000 gallons of beer or any
other alcoholic beverage.
(E) The Commission shall issue rules and
regulations governing self-distribution exemptions
consistent with this Act.
(F) Nothing in this paragraph (18) shall prohibit a
self-distribution exemption holder from entering into
or simultaneously having a distribution agreement with
a licensed Illinois importing distributor or a
distributor. If a self-distribution exemption holder
enters into a distribution agreement and has assigned
distribution rights to an importing distributor or
distributor, then the self-distribution exemption
holder's distribution rights in the assigned
territories shall cease in a reasonable time not to
exceed 60 days.
(G) It is the intent of this paragraph (18) to
promote and continue orderly markets. The General
Assembly finds that in order to preserve Illinois'
regulatory distribution system, it is necessary to
create an exception for smaller manufacturers in order
to afford and allow such smaller manufacturers of beer
access to the marketplace in order to develop a
customer base without impairing the integrity of the
3-tier system.
(b) On or before April 30, 1999, the Commission shall
present a written report to the Governor and the General
Assembly that shall be based on a study of the impact of this
amendatory Act of 1998 on the business of soliciting, selling,
and shipping alcoholic liquor from outside of this State
directly to residents of this State.
As part of its report, the Commission shall provide the
following information:
(i) the amount of State excise and sales tax revenues
generated as a result of this amendatory Act of 1998;
(ii) the amount of licensing fees received as a result
of this amendatory Act of 1998;
(iii) the number of reported violations, the number of
cease and desist notices issued by the Commission, the
number of notices of violations issued to the Department of
Revenue, and the number of notices and complaints of
violations to law enforcement officials.
(Source: P.A. 97-5, eff. 6-1-11; 98-401, eff. 8-16-13; 98-939,
eff. 7-1-15; 98-941, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-6-14.)
(235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)
Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered
in any building belonging to or under the control of the State
or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this
Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village,
incorporated town, township, or county may provide by
ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or
delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to
or under the control of the municipality, township, or county,
or in any building located on land under the control of the
municipality, township, or county; provided that such township
or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any
incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor
may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special
use permit on any property owned by a conservation district
organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that
(i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by
the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the
issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local
liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the
property is located, and (iii) the special use permit
authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport
belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more
than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf
course owned by a park district organized under the Park
District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board
of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned
by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate
Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the
governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500
feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district
organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act
during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500
feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject
to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a
building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under
the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of
the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park,
or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located
adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises
of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center
owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River
Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the
operation of an established food serving facility during times
when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at
the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art
Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago
Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of
Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American
History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at
Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in
connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago
Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land
owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any
land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned
by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the
control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners
and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability
insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold
the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and
harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago
Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners,
or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational
purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District
if approved by the District's governing board, or at any
airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which
conference and convention type activities take place belonging
to or under control of any State university or public community
college district, provided that with respect to a facility for
conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors
shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference
participants or participants in cultural, political or
educational activities held in such facilities, and provided
further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a
public community college district, or members of an
organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State
university or a public community college district are active
participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial
Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at
Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears
professional football team is playing in that stadium during
the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half
hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the
third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the
campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in
which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in
that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the
start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of
the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the
University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the
WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that
facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start
of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half
of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented
facilities from a board of trustees of a public community
college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a
commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building
that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana,
Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the
University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board,
on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater
Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years.
Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of
alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in
premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the
University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by
a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates
the University's acquisition of the premises; but the
University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer,
or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic
liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to
all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by
Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in
Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at
retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at
the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long
as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future
leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the
sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to
and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street,
Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and
subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of
alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop
liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save
harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport,
golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and
convention type activities take place, park district, Forest
Preserve District, public community college district,
aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss,
damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in
buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois
State University in connection with the operation of an
established food serving facility during times when food is
dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors
may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by
a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection
District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved
by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further
that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events
and to a maximum of 6 events per year. However, the limitation
to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year
does not apply to the delivery, sale, or manufacture of
alcoholic liquors at the building located at 59 Main Street in
Oswego, Illinois, owned by the Oswego Fire Protection District
if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed as approved by the
Oswego Fire Protection District and the property is no longer
being utilized for fire protection purposes.
Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of
Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public
events and not related student activities. The Board of
Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of the
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General
Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible
for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue
revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems
necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the
Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers
relevant and important, give consideration to the following:
(i) whether the event is a student activity or student related
activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is
conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii)
the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or
serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the
participants are in accordance with State law and University
policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the
event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of
21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue
operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic
liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the
event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages
from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits
participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the
venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of
Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require
that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in
buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall
require the prior written approval of the Office of the
Chancellor for the University campus where the event is
located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any
subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the
Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event,
or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall
apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.
Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois
University for events that the Board may determine are public
events and not student-related activities. The Board of
Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after
June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45)
concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an
exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised,
updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and
appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of
Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers
relevant and important, give consideration to the following:
(i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related
activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is
conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii)
the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or
serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the
participants are in accordance with State law and University
policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the
relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to
individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue
operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic
liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the
event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages
from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits
participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the
venue.
Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
the control of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State
University for events that the Board may determine are public
events and not student-related activities. The Board of
Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after
August 2, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-132)
concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an
exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised,
updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and
appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of
Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers
relevant and important, give consideration to the following:
(i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related
activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is
conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii)
the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or
serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the
participants are in accordance with State law and University
policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the
relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to
individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue
operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic
liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the
event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages
from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits
participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the
venue.
Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
the control of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State
University for events that the Board may determine are public
events and not student-related activities. The Board of
Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after the
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General
Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible
for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue
revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems
necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the
Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it
considers relevant and important, give consideration to the
following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or
student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of
the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and
distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure
that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor
of the participants are in accordance with State law and
University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the
event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age
of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the
venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic
liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the
event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages
from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits
participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the
venue.
Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in
the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of
Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in
connection with organized functions for which the planned
attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility
selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram
shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold
harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial
loss, damage and harm.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in
any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:
(i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the
issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such
building is filed with the Commission;
(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in
connection with organized functions held on special
occasions;
(iii) the organized function is one for which the
planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and
(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic
liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in
maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the
State from all financial loss, damage or harm.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in
the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:
(i) the written consent of the Public Building
Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is
filed with the Commission;
(ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in
connection with organized functions held on special
occasions;
(iii) the organized function is one for which the
planned attendance is 25 or more persons;
(iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic
liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in
maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the
City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss,
damage or harm; and
(v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building
belonging to or under the control of any city, village or
incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical
properties of the building is used for commercial or
recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier
extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream
or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance
with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be
sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under
the control of the Department of Natural Resources during
events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days
upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources
acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of
Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval,
including but not limited to requirements for insurance and
hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this
Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of
Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire
who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption
only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.
Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park
District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written
consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in
such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by
the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in
buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written
consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in
such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department
of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop
liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save
the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm.
Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned
or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition
Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.
Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional
sporting events and at professional concerts and other
entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest
Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the
District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that
dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage
limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial
loss, damage and harm.
Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery
of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or
delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful
manner.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in
State parks under the control of the Department of Natural
Resources, provided:
a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with
some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight
lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve
complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,
b. (blank), and
c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park
lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours
from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic
liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire
is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on
properties under the control of the Historic Sites and
Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or
the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:
a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with
some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight
lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve
complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,
b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell
alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the
commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division
of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln
Presidential Library and Museum, and
c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or
restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11
o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.
The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does
not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities
commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and
the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in
State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts
with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or
park districts.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield
Administration Building of the Department of Transportation
and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that
the controlling government authority may consent to such sales
only if
a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;
b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the
departments involved;
c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop
liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees
to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of
Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;
d. no such sale shall be made during normal working
hours of the State of Illinois; and
e. the consent is in writing.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in
recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the
control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts.
Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as
provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may
prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors
on Sundays or Holidays.
Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care
facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or
5-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility
operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the
Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the
facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic
liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in
State housing assigned to employees of the Department of
Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished
any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail,
reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a
physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the
Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in
Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an
agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or
executive, provided that such agency first obtains written
permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the
controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit
organization, provided that such organization:
a. Obtains written consent from the controlling
government authority;
b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
that does not impair normal operations of State offices
located in the building;
c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
connection with an official activity in the building;
d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and
indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors.
Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit
organization or agency of the State from employing the services
of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.
The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice
Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department
of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois
State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois
State Museum. The controlling government authority for the
State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or
dispensed at any facility, property or building under the
jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of
the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln
Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or
dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether
legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency
first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic
liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an
individual or organization provided that such individual or
organization:
a. Obtains written consent from the controlling
government authority;
b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
that does not impair normal workings of State offices or
operations located at the facility, property or building;
c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
connection with an official activity of the individual or
organization in the facility, property or building;
d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and
indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors.
The controlling government authority for the Historic
Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation
Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and
Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the
Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the
Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and
Museum.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or
dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at
160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal
business hours of any day care or child care facility located
in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant
conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant
to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management
Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant
or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses
alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop
liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the
carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the
State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm
arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic
liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative,
judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains
written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense
alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management
Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided
that such organization:
a. obtains written consent from the Department of
Central Management Services;
b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the
alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal
operations of State offices located in the building;
c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic
liquors only in connection with an official activity in the
building; and
d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram
shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and
indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors.
Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit
organization or agency of the State from employing the services
of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of
Central Management Services.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the
James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions
of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South
College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial
tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a
lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the
Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS
405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells
or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram
shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless
the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm
arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or
by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or
executive, provided that such agency first obtains written
permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the
Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a
not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:
a. Obtains written consent from the Department of
Central Management Services;
b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
that does not impair normal operations of State offices
located in the building;
c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
connection with an official activity in the building;
d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and
indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors.
Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit
organization or agency of the State from employing the services
of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of
Central Management Services.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility
owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that
dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a
form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority
reasonably determines is necessary.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the
Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State,
whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such
agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense
alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management
Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided
that such organization:
a. Obtains written consent from the Department of
Central Management Services;
b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
that does not impair normal operations of State offices
located in the building;
c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
connection with an official activity in the building;
d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and
indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors.
Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit
organization or agency of the State from employing the services
of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of
Central Management Services.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building
that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the
county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean
County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved
by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the
municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit
that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of
this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of
alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County,
situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean
County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an
exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and
limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the
Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality
to regulate that sale and delivery.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building
situated on land held in trust for any school district
organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building
is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is
approved by the board of education.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in
any building owned by the Six Mile Regional Library District,
provided that the delivery and sale is approved by the board of
trustees of the Six Mile Regional Library District and the
delivery and sale is limited to a maximum of 6 library district
events per year. The Six Mile Regional Library District shall
provide dram shop liability in maximum insurance coverage
limits so as to save harmless the library district from all
financial loss, damage, or harm.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings
owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone
County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or
dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop
liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the
Committee reasonably determines are necessary.
Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building
located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and
occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education
District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis
Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214
N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts
Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt
Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior
College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton
College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the
College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the
building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River,
Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District,
and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the
alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with
organized functions approved by the Apple River Community
Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more
persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the
alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in
maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire
Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple
River Community Association from all financial loss, damage,
and harm.
Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia
Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West
63rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great
Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy
King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago,
owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago,
Illinois Community College District No. 508.
(Source: P.A. 97-33, eff. 6-28-11; 97-45, eff. 6-28-11; 97-51,
eff. 6-28-11; 97-167, eff. 7-22-11; 97-250, eff. 8-4-11;
97-395, eff. 8-16-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1166, eff.
3-1-13; 98-132, eff. 8-2-13; 98-201, eff. 8-9-13; 98-692, eff.
7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1092, eff. 8-26-14; revised
10-3-14.)
(235 ILCS 5/6-36)
Sec. 6-36. Homemade brewed beverages.
(a) No license or permit is required under this Act for the
making of homemade brewed beverages or for the possession,
transportation, or storage of homemade brewed beverages by any
person 21 years of age or older, if all of the following apply:
(1) the person who makes the homemade brewed beverages
receives no compensation;
(2) the homemade brewed beverages are is not sold or
offered for sale; and
(3) the total quantity of homemade brewed beverages
made, in a calendar year, by the person does not exceed 100
gallons if the household has only one person 21 years of
age or older or 200 gallons if the household has 2 or more
persons 21 years of age or older.
(b) A person who makes, possesses, transports, or stores
homemade brewed beverages in compliance with the limitations
specified in subsection (a) is not a brewer, craft brewer,
wholesaler, retailer, or a manufacturer of beer for the
purposes of this Act.
(c) Homemade brewed beverages made in compliance with the
limitations specified in subsection (a) may be consumed by the
person who made it and his or her family, neighbors, and
friends at any private residence or other private location
where the possession and consumption of alcohol are is
permissible under this Act, local ordinances, and other
applicable law, provided that the homemade brewed beverages are
not made available for consumption by the general public.
(d) Homemade brewed beverages made in compliance with the
limitations specified in subsection (a) may be used for
purposes of a public exhibition, demonstration, tasting, or
sampling with sampling sizes as authorized by Section 6-31, if
the event is held at a private residence or at a location other
than a retail licensed premises. If the public event is not
held at a private residence, the event organizer shall obtain a
homebrewer special event permit for each location, and is
subject to the provisions in subsection (a) of Section 6-21.
Homemade brewed beverages used for purposes described in this
subsection (d), including the submission or consumption of the
homemade brewed beverages, are not considered sold or offered
for sale under this Act. A public exhibition, demonstration,
tasting, or sampling with sampling sizes as authorized by
Section 6-31 held by a licensee on a location other than a
retail licensed premises may require an admission charge to the
event, but no separate or additional fee may be charged for the
consumption of a person's homemade brewed beverages at the
public exhibition, demonstration, tasting, or sampling with
sampling sizes as authorized by Section 6-31. Event admission
charges that are collected may be partially used to provide
prizes to makers of homemade brewed beverages, but the
admission charges may not be divided in any fashion among the
makers of the homemade brewed beverages who participate in the
event. Homemade brewed beverages used for purposes described in
this subsection (d) are not considered sold or offered for sale
under this Act if a maker of homemade brewed beverages receives
free event admission or discounted event admission in return
for the maker's donation of the homemade brewed beverages to an
event specified in this subsection (d) that collects event
admission charges; free admission or discounted admission to
the event is not considered compensation under this Act. No
admission fee and no charge for the consumption of a person's
homemade brewed beverage may be collected if the public
exhibition, demonstration, tasting, or sampling with sampling
sizes as authorized by Section 6-31 is held at a private
residence.
(e) A person who is not a licensee under this Act may at a
private residence, and a person who is a licensee under this
Act may on the licensed premises, conduct, sponsor, or host a
contest, competition, or other event for the exhibition,
demonstration, judging, tasting, or sampling of homemade
brewed beverages made in compliance with the limitations
specified in subsection (a), if the person does not sell the
homemade brewed beverages and, unless the person is the brewer
of the homemade brewed beverages, does not acquire any
ownership interest in the homemade brewed beverages. If the
contest, competition, exhibition, demonstration, or judging is
not held at a private residence, the consumption of the
homemade brewed beverages is limited to qualified judges and
stewards as defined by a national or international beer judging
program, who are identified by the event organizer in advance
of the contest, competition, exhibition, demonstration, or
judging. Homemade brewed beverages used for the purposes
described in this subsection (e), including the submission or
consumption of the homemade brewed beverages, are not
considered sold or offered for sale under this Act and any
prize awarded at a contest or competition or as a result of an
exhibition, demonstration, or judging is not considered
compensation under this Act. An exhibition, demonstration,
judging, contest, or competition held by a licensee on a
licensed premises may require an admission charge to the event,
but no separate or additional fee may be charged for the
consumption of a person's homemade brewed beverage at the
exhibition, demonstration, judging, contest, or competition. A
portion of event admission charges that are collected may be
used to provide prizes to makers of homemade brewed beverages,
but the admission charges may not be divided in any fashion
among the makers of the homemade brewed beverages who
participate in the event. Homemade brewed beverages used for
purposes described in this subsection (e) are not considered
sold or offered for sale under this Act if a maker of homemade
brewed beverages receives free event admission or discounted
event admission in return for the maker's donation of the
homemade brewed beverages to an event specified in this
subsection (e) that collects event admission charges; free
admission or discounted admission to the event is not
considered compensation under this Act. No admission fee and no
charge for the consumption of a person's homemade brewed
beverage may be charged if the exhibition, demonstration,
judging, contest, or competition is held at a private
residence. The fact that a person is acting in a manner
authorized by this Section is not, by itself, sufficient to
constitute a public nuisance under Section 10-7 of this Act. If
the contest, competition, or other event is held on licensed
premises, the licensee may allow the homemade brewed beverages
to be stored on the premises if the homemade brewed beverages
are clearly identified and , kept separate from any alcohol
beverages owned by the licensee. If the contest, competition,
or other event is held on licensed premises, other provisions
of this Act not inconsistent with this Section apply.
(f) A commercial enterprise engaged primarily in selling
supplies and equipment to the public for use by homebrewers may
manufacture homemade brewed beverages for the purpose of
tasting the homemade brewed beverages at the location of the
commercial enterprise, provided that the homemade brewed
beverages are not sold or offered for sale. Homemade brewed
beverages provided at a commercial enterprise for tasting under
this subsection (f) shall be in compliance with Sections 6-16,
6-21, and 6-31 of this Act. A commercial enterprise engaged
solely in selling supplies and equipment for use by homebrewers
shall not be required to secure a license under this Act,
however, such commercial enterprise shall secure liquor
liability insurance coverage in an amount at least equal to the
maximum liability amounts set forth in subsection (a) of
Section 6-21 of this Act.
(g) Homemade brewed beverages are not subject to Section
8-1 of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-55, eff. 7-5-13; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 340. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by
changing Sections 5-5, 5-5.2, 5A-5, and 5A-8 and by setting
forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.47 as
follows:
(305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)
Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by
rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate
of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment
will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided,
which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient
hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other
laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home
services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the
office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home,
or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial
care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care
services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic
services; (10) dental services, including prevention and
treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for
pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice
dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10),
"dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective
procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in
the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy
and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and
prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician
skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist,
whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic,
screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including
to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or
treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or
co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is
determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and
evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and
adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening,
assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that
includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a
referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular
instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14)
transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary;
(15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined
in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency
Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual
assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to
discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings
arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and
treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical
care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the
laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced
miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a
physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation
of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an
induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child
and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or
her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall
prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to
anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician
has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a
wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at
the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any
other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and
nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by
spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a
comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes
purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices
approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered
under the medical assistance program under this Article for
persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this
Article.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the
Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment
for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a
physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory
test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose
other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order
documentation.
Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the
Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department
shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a
vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals
enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure
that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the
medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid
managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a
school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under
this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only
individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims
for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients
of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code,
the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL
KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the
Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for
payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the
MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.
On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and
Family Services may provide the following services to persons
eligible for assistance under this Article who are
participating in education, training or employment programs
operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to
the Department of Public Aid:
(1) dental services provided by or under the
supervision of a dentist; and
(2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the
diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the
person may select.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and
subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to
allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no
cost to render dental services through an enrolled
not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally
enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance
program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public
health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other
enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through
which dental services covered under this Section are performed.
The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims
for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under
this provision.
The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and
classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance
with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.
The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must
provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based
elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the
diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii)
short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued
a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental
formula is medically necessary.
The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of,
and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose
mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women
35 years of age or older who are eligible for medical
assistance under this Article, as follows:
(A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of
age.
(B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or
older.
(C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered
medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for
women under 40 years of age and having a family history of
breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer,
positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.
(D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire
breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates
heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically
necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all of its branches.
All screenings shall include a physical breast exam,
instruction on self-examination and information regarding the
frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative
tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography"
means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment
dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray
tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an
average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per
breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also
includes digital mammography.
On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a
quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be
reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same
rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased
reimbursement for digital mammography.
The Department shall convene an expert panel including
representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography
facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish
quality standards.
Subject to federal approval, the Department shall
establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally
qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics.
These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other
hospital-based mammography facilities.
The Department shall establish a methodology to remind
women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but
who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18
months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.
The Department shall establish a performance goal for
primary care providers with respect to their female patients
over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance
goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the
form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers
who meet that goal.
The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or
patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast
cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program
in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality
related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall
be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall
be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the
pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes
and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared
to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot
program.
Any medical or health care provider shall immediately
recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal
services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as
defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency
Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider
licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed
hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services.
The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure
coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or
addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the
Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of
Human Services.
All medical providers providing medical assistance to
pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from
the Department on the availability of services under the Drug
Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing
case management services for addicted women, including
information on appropriate referrals for other social services
that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment
for addiction.
The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the
Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department
of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a
public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning
treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal
health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing
the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of
medical assistance.
Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services
nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the
recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.
The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations
governing the dispensing of health services under this Article
as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the
advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by
the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of
providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters,
information dissemination and educational activities for
medical and health care providers, and consistency in
procedures to the Illinois Department.
The Illinois Department may develop and contract with
Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services
for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code.
Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects
in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be
represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule,
shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships.
Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the
sponsor organization be a medical organization.
The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with
medical providers for physician services, inpatient and
outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for
alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined
necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by
Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and
obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse
medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients
in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the
Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:
(1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and
providing certain services, which shall be determined by
the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the
Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such
services.
(2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate
financial incentives to encourage the development of
Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.
(3) Persons receiving medical services through
Partnerships may receive medical and case management
services above the level usually offered through the
medical assistance program.
Medical providers shall be required to meet certain
qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the
delivery of high quality medical services. These
qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois
Department and may be higher than qualifications for
participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership
sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications
for participation by medical providers, only with the prior
written approval of the Illinois Department.
Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of
practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical
services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of
choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate
all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided
services may be accessed from therapeutically certified
optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric
Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service
providers.
The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United
States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the
implementation of Partnerships under this Section.
The Illinois Department shall require health care
providers to maintain records that document the medical care
and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under
this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not
less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by
applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that
if an audit is initiated within the required retention period
then the records must be retained until the audit is completed
and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall
require health care providers to make available, when
authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a
timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating
or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this
Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required
to maintain and retain business and professional records
sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope,
details and receipt of the health care provided to persons
eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance
with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The
rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt
of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and
eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany
each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such
medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be
approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such
proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put
into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment
audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed
adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs,
dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment
is being made are actually being received by eligible
recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this
amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish
a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices
and any other items recognized as medical equipment and
supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such
list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of
all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than
every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.
The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall
require that a written statement including the required opinion
of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for
abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This
statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing
such medical services.
Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois
Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013, (the
effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to
permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home
Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement
purposes. Following development of these procedures, the
Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the
viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary
operational or structural changes to its information
technology platforms are implemented.
Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois
Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the
effective date of Public Act 98-963) this amendatory Act of the
98th General Assembly, establish procedures to permit ID/DD
facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act to
submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes.
Following development of these procedures, the Department
shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the
new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or
structural changes to its information technology platforms are
implemented.
The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of
medical services, other than an individual practitioner or
group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical
Assistance program established under this Article to disclose
all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other
interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships,
associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies,
institutions or other legal entities providing any form of
health care services in this State under this Article.
The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of
medical services desiring to participate in the medical
assistance program established under this Article disclose,
under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may
by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys
regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which
inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens
for the Illinois Department.
Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional
period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period
of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the
vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the
vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause.
Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or
disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing
process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without
penalty.
The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional
enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of
the vendor.
Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment
period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be
subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on
the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the
category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall
establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review,
which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and
financial background checks; fingerprinting; license,
certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or
unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit
reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other
screening as required by federal or State law.
The Department shall define or specify the following: (i)
by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for
each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of
screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under
federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice,
the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for
each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the
hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category
of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during
the conditional enrollment period.
To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's
payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a
resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received
by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no
later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which
medical goods or services were provided, with the following
exceptions:
(1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in
process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period
shall not begin until the date on the written notice from
the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is
complete.
(2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois
Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries
which result in an inability to receive, process, or
adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin
until the provider has been notified of the error.
(3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois
Department initiates the monthly billing process.
(4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of
local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000
when local government funds finance federal participation
for claims payments.
For claims for services rendered during a period for which
a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be
filed within 180 days after the Department determines the
applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois
Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted
to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final
adjudication by the primary payer.
In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of
receipt by the facility of required prescreening information,
data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical
Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient
Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and
within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required
prescreening information, admission documents shall be
submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to
the Department of Human Services using required admission
forms. Effective September 1, 2014, admission documents,
including all prescreening information, must be submitted
through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an
accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify
timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been
completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection
are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the
admission transaction has been completed.
Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance
with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for
payment under the medical assistance program, and the State
shall have no liability for payment of those claims.
To the extent consistent with applicable information and
privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal
agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department
access to confidential and other information and data necessary
to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other
Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not
limited to: information pertaining to licensure;
certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage
reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income;
employment; supplemental security income; social security
numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the
National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency
exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency;
corporate information; and death records.
The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with
State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into
agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which
such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for
medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight.
The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with
other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with
applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and
effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the
extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois
Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and
departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with
federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to:
the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the
Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services;
and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department
shall set forth a request for information to identify the
benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit
claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing
and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or
rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent
adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider
data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii)
clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or
post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case
management system with link analysis. Such a request for
information shall not be considered as a request for proposal
or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to
take any action or acquire any products or services.
The Illinois Department shall establish policies,
procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition,
repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and
durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be
limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or
replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental,
lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment
in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the
recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's
needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such
equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a
recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or
substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or
replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized
for such recipient by the Department.
The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home
prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the
Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to
effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common
eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving
non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and
development of non-institutional services in areas of the State
where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and
(iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to
federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the
determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants
for institutional and home and community-based long term care;
if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department
may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement
utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to
effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and
(iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care
eligibility criteria for institutional and home and
community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October
1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care
providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an
admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the
long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level
of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a
workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and
stakeholders representing the institutional and home and
community-based long term care interests. This Section shall
not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of
care eligibility criteria for community-based services in
circumstances where federal approval has been granted.
The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in
cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in
compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations,
appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and
programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services
and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical
assistance under this Code.
The Illinois Department shall report annually to the
General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of
1979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:
(a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of
medical services by public aid recipients;
(b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of
the various medical services by medical vendors;
(c) current rate structures and proposed changes in
those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and
(d) efforts at utilization review and control by the
Illinois Department.
The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years
ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall
include suggested legislation for consideration by the General
Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the
Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with
the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the
President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with
the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative
Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State
Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly
as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State
Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this
Section.
Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if
any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance
with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure
Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on
Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for
whatever reason, is unauthorized.
On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any
rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter
any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of
reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with
Section 5-5e.
Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost
effective alternative to renal dialysis when medically
necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of
this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall
cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage
renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical
benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of
this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial
requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under
Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney
transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal
dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under
this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the
Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services
under this Section shall be limited to services associated with
kidney transplantation.
(Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689,
eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; 98-104, Article 9, Section
9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff.
7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651,
eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14;
revised 10-2-14.)
(305 ILCS 5/5-5.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.2)
Sec. 5-5.2. Payment.
(a) All nursing facilities that are grouped pursuant to
Section 5-5.1 of this Act shall receive the same rate of
payment for similar services.
(b) It shall be a matter of State policy that the Illinois
Department shall utilize a uniform billing cycle throughout the
State for the long-term care providers.
(c) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code, the
methodologies for reimbursement of nursing services as
provided under this Article shall no longer be applicable for
bills payable for nursing services rendered on or after a new
reimbursement system based on the Resource Utilization Groups
(RUGs) has been fully operationalized, which shall take effect
for services provided on or after January 1, 2014.
(d) The new nursing services reimbursement methodology
utilizing RUG-IV 48 grouper model, which shall be referred to
as the RUGs reimbursement system, taking effect January 1,
2014, shall be based on the following:
(1) The methodology shall be resident-driven,
facility-specific, and cost-based.
(2) Costs shall be annually rebased and case mix index
quarterly updated. The nursing services methodology will
be assigned to the Medicaid enrolled residents on record as
of 30 days prior to the beginning of the rate period in the
Department's Medicaid Management Information System (MMIS)
as present on the last day of the second quarter preceding
the rate period based upon the Assessment Reference Date of
the Minimum Data Set (MDS).
(3) Regional wage adjustors based on the Health Service
Areas (HSA) groupings and adjusters in effect on April 30,
2012 shall be included.
(4) Case mix index shall be assigned to each resident
class based on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services staff time measurement study in effect on July 1,
2013, utilizing an index maximization approach.
(5) The pool of funds available for distribution by
case mix and the base facility rate shall be determined
using the formula contained in subsection (d-1).
(d-1) Calculation of base year Statewide RUG-IV nursing
base per diem rate.
(1) Base rate spending pool shall be:
(A) The base year resident days which are
calculated by multiplying the number of Medicaid
residents in each nursing home as indicated in the MDS
data defined in paragraph (4) by 365.
(B) Each facility's nursing component per diem in
effect on July 1, 2012 shall be multiplied by
subsection (A).
(C) Thirteen million is added to the product of
subparagraph (A) and subparagraph (B) to adjust for the
exclusion of nursing homes defined in paragraph (5).
(2) For each nursing home with Medicaid residents as
indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4),
weighted days adjusted for case mix and regional wage
adjustment shall be calculated. For each home this
calculation is the product of:
(A) Base year resident days as calculated in
subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).
(B) The nursing home's regional wage adjustor
based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and
adjustors in effect on April 30, 2012.
(C) Facility weighted case mix which is the number
of Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data
defined in paragraph (4) multiplied by the associated
case weight for the RUG-IV 48 grouper model using
standard RUG-IV procedures for index maximization.
(D) The sum of the products calculated for each
nursing home in subparagraphs (A) through (C) above
shall be the base year case mix, rate adjusted weighted
days.
(3) The Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate:
(A) on January 1, 2014 shall be the quotient of the
paragraph (1) divided by the sum calculated under
subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2); and
(B) on and after July 1, 2014, shall be the amount
calculated under subparagraph (A) of this paragraph
(3) plus $1.76.
(4) Minimum Data Set (MDS) comprehensive assessments
for Medicaid residents on the last day of the quarter used
to establish the base rate.
(5) Nursing facilities designated as of July 1, 2012 by
the Department as "Institutions for Mental Disease" shall
be excluded from all calculations under this subsection.
The data from these facilities shall not be used in the
computations described in paragraphs (1) through (4) above
to establish the base rate.
(e) Beginning July 1, 2014, the Department shall allocate
funding in the amount up to $10,000,000 for per diem add-ons to
the RUGS methodology for dates of service on and after July 1,
2014:
(1) $0.63 for each resident who scores in I4200
Alzheimer's Disease or I4800 non-Alzheimer's Dementia.
(2) $2.67 for each resident who scores either a "1" or
"2" in any items S1200A through S1200I and also scores in
RUG groups PA1, PA2, BA1, or BA2.
(e-1) (Blank).
(e-2) For dates of services beginning January 1, 2014, the
RUG-IV nursing component per diem for a nursing home shall be
the product of the statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate,
the facility average case mix index, and the regional wage
adjustor. Transition rates for services provided between
January 1, 2014 and December 31, 2014 shall be as follows:
(1) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for
nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection
(e-2) is greater than the nursing component rate in effect
July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:
(A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1,
2012; plus
(B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component
per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the
nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012
multiplied by 0.88.
(2) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for
nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection
(e-2) is less than the nursing component rate in effect
July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:
(A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1,
2012; plus
(B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component
per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the
nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012
multiplied by 0.13.
(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on
and after July 1, 2012, reimbursement rates associated with the
nursing or support components of the current nursing facility
rate methodology shall not increase beyond the level effective
May 1, 2011 until a new reimbursement system based on the RUGs
IV 48 grouper model has been fully operationalized.
(g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on
and after July 1, 2012, for facilities not designated by the
Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions
for Mental Disease", rates effective May 1, 2011 shall be
adjusted as follows:
(1) Individual nursing rates for residents classified
in RUG IV groups PA1, PA2, BA1, and BA2 during the quarter
ending March 31, 2012 shall be reduced by 10%;
(2) Individual nursing rates for residents classified
in all other RUG IV groups shall be reduced by 1.0%;
(3) Facility rates for the capital and support
components shall be reduced by 1.7%.
(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on
and after July 1, 2012, nursing facilities designated by the
Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions
for Mental Disease" and "Institutions for Mental Disease" that
are facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health
Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall have the nursing,
socio-developmental, capital, and support components of their
reimbursement rate effective May 1, 2011 reduced in total by
2.7%.
(i) On and after July 1, 2014, the reimbursement rates for
the support component of the nursing facility rate for
facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled
or intermediate care facilities shall be the rate in effect on
June 30, 2014 increased by 8.17%.
(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, Article 6, Section
6-240, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 11, Section 11-35, eff.
7-22-13; 98-651, eff. 6-16-14; 98-727, eff. 7-16-14; 98-756,
eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-2-14.)
(305 ILCS 5/5A-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-5)
Sec. 5A-5. Notice; penalty; maintenance of records.
(a) The Illinois Department shall send a notice of
assessment to every hospital provider subject to assessment
under this Article. The notice of assessment shall notify the
hospital of its assessment and shall be sent after receipt by
the Department of notification from the Centers for Medicare
and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and
Human Services that the payment methodologies required under
this Article and, if necessary, the waiver granted under 42 CFR
433.68 have been approved. The notice shall be on a form
prepared by the Illinois Department and shall state the
following:
(1) The name of the hospital provider.
(2) The address of the hospital provider's principal
place of business from which the provider engages in the
occupation of hospital provider in this State, and the name
and address of each hospital operated, conducted, or
maintained by the provider in this State.
(3) The occupied bed days, occupied bed days less
Medicare days, adjusted gross hospital revenue, or
outpatient gross revenue of the hospital provider
(whichever is applicable), the amount of assessment
imposed under Section 5A-2 for the State fiscal year for
which the notice is sent, and the amount of each
installment to be paid during the State fiscal year.
(4) (Blank).
(5) Other reasonable information as determined by the
Illinois Department.
(b) If a hospital provider conducts, operates, or maintains
more than one hospital licensed by the Illinois Department of
Public Health, the provider shall pay the assessment for each
hospital separately.
(c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, in
the case of a person who ceases to conduct, operate, or
maintain a hospital in respect of which the person is subject
to assessment under this Article as a hospital provider, the
assessment for the State fiscal year in which the cessation
occurs shall be adjusted by multiplying the assessment computed
under Section 5A-2 by a fraction, the numerator of which is the
number of days in the year during which the provider conducts,
operates, or maintains the hospital and the denominator of
which is 365. Immediately upon ceasing to conduct, operate, or
maintain a hospital, the person shall pay the assessment for
the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid).
(d) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, a
provider who commences conducting, operating, or maintaining a
hospital, upon notice by the Illinois Department, shall pay the
assessment computed under Section 5A-2 and subsection (e) in
installments on the due dates stated in the notice and on the
regular installment due dates for the State fiscal year
occurring after the due dates of the initial notice.
(e) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article,
for State fiscal years 2009 through 2018 2015, in the case of a
hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a
hospital in 2005, the assessment for that State fiscal year
shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical occupied bed
days for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois
Department. Notwithstanding any other provision in this
Article, for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning
June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012, and for State fiscal years
2013 through 2018, in the case of a hospital provider that did
not conduct, operate, or maintain a hospital in 2009, the
assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 for that
State fiscal year shall be computed on the basis of
hypothetical gross outpatient revenue for the full calendar
year as determined by the Illinois Department.
(f) Every hospital provider subject to assessment under
this Article shall keep sufficient records to permit the
determination of adjusted gross hospital revenue for the
hospital's fiscal year. All such records shall be kept in the
English language and shall, at all times during regular
business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the
Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and
employees.
(g) The Illinois Department may, by rule, provide a
hospital provider a reasonable opportunity to request a
clarification or correction of any clerical or computational
errors contained in the calculation of its assessment, but such
corrections shall not extend to updating the cost report
information used to calculate the assessment.
(h) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12;
98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff.
6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-2-14.)
(305 ILCS 5/5A-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-8)
Sec. 5A-8. Hospital Provider Fund.
(a) There is created in the State Treasury the Hospital
Provider Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to
the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys
appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.
(b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving moneys
in accordance with Section 5A-6 and disbursing moneys only for
the following purposes, notwithstanding any other provision of
law:
(1) For making payments to hospitals as required under
this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program
Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and
under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement
Transfer Program Act.
(2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the
Illinois Department from hospitals or hospital providers
through error or mistake in performing the activities
authorized under this Code.
(3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by
the Illinois Department or its agent in performing
activities under this Code, under the Children's Health
Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health
Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital
Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.
(4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable
to the federal government for payments from this Fund which
are required to be paid by State warrant.
(5) For making transfers, as those transfers are
authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the
Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this
paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt
issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of
moneys to be deposited into the Fund.
(6) For making transfers to any other fund in the State
treasury, but transfers made under this paragraph (6) shall
not exceed the amount transferred previously from that
other fund into the Hospital Provider Fund plus any
interest that would have been earned by that fund on the
monies that had been transferred.
(6.5) For making transfers to the Healthcare Provider
Relief Fund, except that transfers made under this
paragraph (6.5) shall not exceed $60,000,000 in the
aggregate.
(7) For making transfers not exceeding the following
amounts, related to State fiscal years 2013 through 2018 in
each State fiscal year during which an assessment is
imposed pursuant to Section 5A-2, to the following
designated funds:
Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust
Fund..............................$20,000,000
Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$30,000,000
General Revenue Fund.................$80,000,000.
Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days
after the payments have been received pursuant to the
schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section
5A-4.
(7.1) (Blank).
(7.5) (Blank).
(7.8) (Blank).
(7.9) (Blank).
(7.10) For State fiscal year 2014, for making transfers
of the moneys resulting from the assessment under
subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital
providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the
Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated
funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State
fiscal year:
Health Care Provider Relief Fund.....$100,000,000
Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7
days after the payments have been received pursuant to the
schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section
5A-4.
The additional amount of transfers in this paragraph
(7.10), authorized by Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act
of the 98th General Assembly, shall be made within 10 State
business days after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of
Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General
Assembly. That authority shall remain in effect even if
Public Act 98-651 this amendatory Act of the 98th General
Assembly does not become law until State fiscal year 2015.
(7.10a) For State fiscal years 2015 through 2018, for
making transfers of the moneys resulting from the
assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and
received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 and
transferred into the Hospital Provider Fund under Section
5A-6 to the designated funds not exceeding the following
amounts related to each State fiscal year:
Health Care Provider Relief Fund ....$50,000,000
Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7
days after the payments have been received pursuant to the
schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section
5A-4.
(7.11) (Blank).
(7.12) For State fiscal year 2013, for increasing by
21/365ths the transfer of the moneys resulting from the
assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and
received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 for the
portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012
through June 30, 2012 and transferred into the Hospital
Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds
not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal
year:
Health Care Provider Relief Fund......$2,870,000
Since the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services approval of the assessment authorized under
subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2, received from hospital
providers under Section 5A-4 and the payment methodologies
to hospitals required under Section 5A-12.4 was not
received by the Department until State fiscal year 2014 and
since the Department made retroactive payments during
State fiscal year 2014 related to the referenced period of
June 2012, the transfer authority granted in this paragraph
(7.12) is extended through the date that is 10 State
business days after June 16, 2014 (the effective date of
Public Act 98-651) this amendatory Act of the 98th General
Assembly.
(8) For making refunds to hospital providers pursuant
to Section 5A-10.
(9) For making payment to capitated managed care
organizations as described in subsections (s) and (t) of
Section 5A-12.2 of this Code.
Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers
authorized under paragraphs (5) and (6) of this subsection,
shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon
receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois
Department.
(c) The Fund shall consist of the following:
(1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois
Department from the hospital provider assessment imposed
by this Article.
(2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois
Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois
Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the
Fund.
(3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with
the administration of this Article.
(3.5) As applicable, proceeds from surety bond
payments payable to the Department as referenced in
subsection (s) of Section 5A-12.2 of this Code.
(4) Moneys transferred from another fund in the State
treasury.
(5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any
other source, including interest earned thereon.
(d) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12;
98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651, eff.
6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; revised 10-2-14.)
(305 ILCS 5/12-4.47)
Sec. 12-4.47. Continued eligibility for developmental
disability services for dependents of military service
members.
(a) As used in this Section:
"Dependent" means a spouse, birth child, adopted child, or
stepchild of a military service member.
"Legal resident" means a person who maintains Illinois as
his or her principal establishment, home of record, or
permanent home and to where, whenever absent due to military
obligation, he or she intends to return.
"Military service" means service in the armed forces or
armed forces reserves of the United States, or membership in
the Illinois National Guard.
"Military service member" means a person who is currently
in military service or who has separated from military service
in the previous 18 months through either retirement or military
separation.
(b) A dependent, who is a legal resident of the State,
having previously been determined to be eligible for
developmental disability services provided by the Department
of Human Services, including waiver services provided under the
home and community based services programs authorized under
Section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act, shall retain
eligibility for those developmental disability services as
long as he or she remains a legal resident of the State,
regardless of having left the State due to the military service
member's military assignment outside the State, and as long as
he or she is otherwise eligible for such services.
(c) The Department of Human Services shall permit a
dependent who resides out-of-state to be placed on the waiting
list for developmental disabilities services if the dependent
left the State due to the military service member's military
assignment outside the State, is otherwise eligible for those
services, and furnishes the following:
(1) a copy of the military service member's DD-214 or
other equivalent discharge paperwork; and
(2) proof of the military service member's legal
residence in the State, as prescribed by the Department.
(d) For dependents who received developmental disability
services and who left the State due to the military service
member's military assignment outside the State, upon the
dependent's return to the State and when a request for services
is made, the Department shall:
(1) determine the dependent's eligibility for
services, which may include a request for waiver services
provided under the home and community based services
programs authorized under Section 1915(c) of the Social
Security Act;
(2) provide to the dependent notification of the
determination of eligibility for services, which includes
notification of a denial of services if applicable;
(3) provide the dependent an opportunity to contest the
Department's determination through the appeals processes
established by the Department; and
(4) resume services if the individual remains
eligible.
(e) As a condition of continued eligibility for services
under subsection (b) of this Section, a dependent must inform
the Department of his or her current address and provide
updates as requested by the Department.
(f) No payment pursuant to this Section shall be made for
developmental disability services authorized under the
Illinois Title XIX State Plan and provided outside the State
unless those services satisfy the conditions specified in 42
CFR 431.52. No payment pursuant to this Section shall be made
for home and community based services provided outside the
State of Illinois.
(g) The Department shall request a waiver from the
appropriate federal agency if a waiver is necessary to
implement the provisions of this Section.
(h) The Department may adopt rules necessary to implement
the provisions of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-1000, eff. 8-18-14.)
(305 ILCS 5/12-4.48)
Sec. 12-4.48 12-4.47. Long-Term Services and Supports
Disparities Task Force.
(a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall
establish a Long-Term Services and Supports Disparities Task
Force.
(b) Members of the Task Force shall be appointed by the
Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services
and shall include representatives of the following agencies,
organizations, or groups:
(1) The Governor's office.
(2) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services.
(3) The Department of Human Services.
(4) The Department on Aging.
(5) The Department of Human Rights.
(6) Area Agencies on Aging.
(7) The Department of Public Health.
(8) Managed Care Plans.
(9) The for-profit urban nursing home or assisted
living industry.
(10) The for-profit rural nursing home or assisted
living industry.
(11) The not-for-profit nursing home or assisted
living industry.
(12) The home care association or home care industry.
(13) The adult day care association or adult day care
industry.
(14) An association representing workers who provide
long-term services and supports.
(15) A representative of providers that serve the
predominantly ethnic minority populations.
(16) Case Management Organizations.
(17) Three consumer representatives which may include
a consumer of long-term services and supports or an
individual who advocates for such consumers. For purposes
of this provision, "consumer representative" means a
person who is not an elected official and who has no
financial interest in a health or long-term care delivery
system.
(c) The Task Force shall not meet unless all consumer
representative positions are filled. The Task Force shall
reflect diversity in race, ethnicity, and gender.
(d) The Chair of the Task Force shall be appointed by the
Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family Services.
(e) The Director of the Department of Healthcare and Family
Services shall assign appropriate staff and resources to
support the efforts of the Task Force. The Task Force shall
meet as often as necessary but not less than 4 times per
calendar year.
(f) The Task Force shall promote and facilitate
communication, coordination, and collaboration among relevant
State agencies and communities of color, limited
English-speaking communities, and the private and public
entities providing services to those communities.
(g) The Task Force shall do all of the following:
(1) Document the number and types of Long-Term Services
and Supports (LTSS) providers in the State and the number
of clients served in each setting.
(2) Document the number and racial profiles of
residents using LTSS, including, but not limited to,
residential nursing facilities, assisted living
facilities, adult day care, home health services, and other
home and community based long-term care services.
(3) Document the number and profiles of family or
informal caregivers who provide care for minority elders.
(4) Compare data over multiple years to identify trends
in the delivery of LTSS for each racial or ethnic category
including: Alaskan Native or American Indian, Asian or
Pacific Islander, black or African American, Hispanic, or
white.
(5) Identify any racial disparities in the provision of
care in various LTSS settings and determine factors that
might influence the disparities found.
(6) Identify any disparities uniquely experienced in
metropolitan or rural areas and make recommendations to
address these areas.
(7) Assess whether the LTSS industry, including
managed care plans and independent providers, is equipped
to offer culturally sensitive, competent, and
linguistically appropriate care to meet the needs of a
diverse aging population and their informal and formal
caregivers.
(8) Consider whether to recommend that the State
require all home and community based services as a
condition of licensure to report data similar to that
gathered under the Minimum Data Set and required when a new
resident is admitted to a nursing home.
(9) Identify and prioritize recommendations for
actions to be taken by the State to address disparity
issues identified in the course of these studies.
(10) Monitor the progress of the State in eliminating
racial disparities in the delivery of LTSS.
(h) The Task Force shall conduct public hearings,
inquiries, studies, and other forms of information gathering to
identify how the actions of State government contribute to or
reduce racial disparities in long-term care settings.
(i) The Task Force shall report its findings and
recommendations to the Governor and the General Assembly no
later than one year after the effective date of this amendatory
Act of the 98th General Assembly. Annual reports shall be
issued every year thereafter and shall include documentation of
progress made to eliminate disparities in long-term care
service settings.
(Source: P.A. 98-825, eff. 8-1-14; revised 10-14-14.)
Section 345. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended
by changing Sections 7.5 and 15 as follows:
(320 ILCS 20/7.5)
Sec. 7.5. Registry.
(a) To protect individuals receiving in-home and
community-based services, the Department on Aging shall
establish an Adult Protective Service Registry that will be
hosted by the Department of Public Health on its website
effective January 1, 2015, and, if practicable, shall propose
rules for the Registry by January 1, 2015.
(a-5) The Registry shall identify caregivers against whom a
verified and substantiated finding was made under this Act of
abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.
The information in the Registry shall be confidential
except as specifically authorized in this Act and shall not be
deemed a public record.
(a-10) Reporting to the Registry. The Department on Aging
shall report to the Registry the identity of the caregiver when
a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or
financial exploitation of an eligible adult under this Act is
made against a caregiver, and all appeals, challenges, and
reviews, if any, have been completed and a finding for
placement on the Registry has been sustained or upheld.
A finding against a caregiver that is placed in the
Registry shall preclude that caregiver from providing direct
care, as defined in this Section, in a position with or that is
regulated by or paid with public funds from the Department on
Aging, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the
Department of Human Services, or the Department of Public
Health or with an entity or provider licensed, certified, or
regulated by or paid with public funds from any of these State
agencies.
(b) Definitions. As used in this Section:
"Direct care" includes, but is not limited to, direct
access to a person aged 60 or older or to an adult with
disabilities aged 18 through 59, his or her living quarters, or
his or her personal, financial, or medical records for the
purpose of providing nursing care or assistance with feeding,
dressing, movement, bathing, toileting, other personal needs
and activities of daily living or instrumental activities of
daily living, or assistance with financial transactions.
"Participant" means an individual who uses the services of
an in-home care program funded through the Department on Aging,
the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the
Department of Human Services, or the Department of Public
Health.
(c) Access to and use of the Registry. Access to the
Registry shall be limited to the Department on Aging, the
Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of
Human Services, and the Department of Public Health and
providers of direct care as described in subsection (a-10) of
this Section. These State agencies and providers shall not
hire, compensate either directly or on behalf of a participant,
or utilize the services of any person seeking to provide direct
care without first conducting an online check of whether the
person has been placed on the Registry. These State agencies
and providers shall maintain a copy of the results of the
online check to demonstrate compliance with this requirement.
These State agencies and providers are prohibited from
retaining, hiring, compensating either directly or on behalf of
a participant, or utilizing the services of a person to provide
direct care if the online check of the person reveals a
verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or
financial exploitation that has been placed on the Registry or
when the State agencies or providers otherwise gain knowledge
of such placement on the Registry. Failure to comply with this
requirement may subject such a provider to corrective action by
the appropriate regulatory agency or other lawful remedies
provided under the applicable licensure, certification, or
regulatory laws and rules.
(d) Notice to caregiver. The Department on Aging shall
establish rules concerning notice to the caregiver in cases of
a verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or
financial exploitation against him or her that may make him or
her eligible for placement on the Registry.
(e) Notification to eligible adults, guardians, or agents.
As part of its investigation, the Department on Aging shall
notify an eligible adult, or an eligible adult's guardian or
agent, that his or her caregiver's name may be placed on the
Registry based on a finding as described in subsection (a-10)
(a) of this Section.
(f) Notification to employer. The Department on Aging shall
notify the appropriate State agency or provider of direct care,
as described in subsection (a-10), when there is a verified and
substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or financial
exploitation in a case under this Act that is reported on the
Registry and that involves one of its caregivers. That State
agency or provider is prohibited from retaining or compensating
that individual in a position that involves direct care, and if
there is an imminent risk of danger to the victim or an
imminent risk of misuse of personal, medical, or financial
information, that caregiver shall immediately be barred from
providing direct care to the victim pending the outcome of any
challenge, appeal, criminal prosecution, or other type of
collateral action.
(g) Challenges and appeals. The Department on Aging shall
establish, by rule, procedures concerning challenges and
appeals to placement on the Registry pursuant to legislative
intent. The Department shall not make any report to the
Registry pending challenges or appeals.
(h) Caregiver's rights to collateral action. The
Department on Aging shall not make any report to the Registry
if a caregiver notifies the Department in writing that he or
she is formally challenging an adverse employment action
resulting from a verified and substantiated finding of abuse,
neglect, or financial exploitation by complaint filed with the
Illinois Civil Service Commission, or by another means which
seeks to enforce the caregiver's rights pursuant to any
applicable collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken
by an employer against a caregiver as a result of such a
finding is overturned through an action filed with the Illinois
Civil Service Commission or under any applicable collective
bargaining agreement after that caregiver's name has already
been sent to the Registry, the caregiver's name shall be
removed from the Registry.
(i) Removal from Registry. At any time after a report to
the Registry, but no more than once in each successive 3-year
period thereafter, for a maximum of 3 such requests, a
caregiver may request removal of his or her name from the
Registry in relationship to a single incident. The caregiver
shall bear the burden of establishing, by a preponderance of
the evidence, that removal of his or her name from the Registry
is in the public interest. Upon receiving such a request, the
Department on Aging shall conduct an investigation and consider
any evidentiary material provided. The Department shall issue a
decision either granting or denying removal to the caregiver
and report it to the Registry. The Department shall, by rule,
establish standards and a process for requesting the removal of
a name from the Registry.
(j) Referral of Registry reports to health care facilities.
In the event an eligible adult receiving services from a
provider agency changes his or her residence from a domestic
living situation to that of a health care or long term care
facility, the provider agency shall use reasonable efforts to
promptly inform the facility and the appropriate Regional Long
Term Care Ombudsman about any Registry reports relating to the
eligible adult. For purposes of this Section, a health care or
long term care facility includes, but is not limited to, any
residential facility licensed, certified, or regulated by the
Department of Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or
Human Services.
(k) The Department on Aging and its employees and agents
shall have immunity, except for intentional willful and wanton
misconduct, from any liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise,
for reporting information to and maintaining the Registry.
(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14;
98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised 10-2-14.)
(320 ILCS 20/15)
Sec. 15. Fatality Review Teams.
(a) State policy.
(1) Both the State and the community maintain a
commitment to preventing the abuse, neglect, and financial
exploitation of at-risk adults. This includes a charge to
bring perpetrators of crimes against at-risk adults to
justice and prevent untimely deaths in the community.
(2) When an at-risk adult dies, the response to the
death by the community, law enforcement, and the State must
include an accurate and complete determination of the cause
of death, and the development and implementation of
measures to prevent future deaths from similar causes.
(3) Multidisciplinary and multi-agency reviews of
deaths can assist the State and counties in developing a
greater understanding of the incidence and causes of
premature deaths and the methods for preventing those
deaths, improving methods for investigating deaths, and
identifying gaps in services to at-risk adults.
(4) Access to information regarding the deceased
person and his or her family by multidisciplinary and
multi-agency fatality review teams is necessary in order to
fulfill their purposes and duties.
(a-5) Definitions. As used in this Section:
"Advisory Council" means the Illinois Fatality Review
Team Advisory Council.
"Review Team" means a regional interagency fatality
review team.
(b) The Director, in consultation with the Advisory
Council, law enforcement, and other professionals who work in
the fields of investigating, treating, or preventing abuse or
neglect of at-risk adults, shall appoint members to a minimum
of one review team in each of the Department's planning and
service areas. Each member of a review team shall be appointed
for a 2-year term and shall be eligible for reappointment upon
the expiration of the term. A review team's purpose in
conducting review of at-risk adult deaths is: (i) to assist
local agencies in identifying and reviewing suspicious deaths
of adult victims of alleged, suspected, or substantiated abuse
or neglect in domestic living situations; (ii) to facilitate
communications between officials responsible for autopsies and
inquests and persons involved in reporting or investigating
alleged or suspected cases of abuse, neglect, or financial
exploitation of at-risk adults and persons involved in
providing services to at-risk adults; (iii) to evaluate means
by which the death might have been prevented; and (iv) to
report its findings to the appropriate agencies and the
Advisory Council and make recommendations that may help to
reduce the number of at-risk adult deaths caused by abuse and
neglect and that may help to improve the investigations of
deaths of at-risk adults and increase prosecutions, if
appropriate.
(b-5) Each such team shall be composed of representatives
of entities and individuals including, but not limited to:
(1) the Department on Aging;
(2) coroners or medical examiners (or both);
(3) State's Attorneys;
(4) local police departments;
(5) forensic units;
(6) local health departments;
(7) a social service or health care agency that
provides services to persons with mental illness, in a
program whose accreditation to provide such services is
recognized by the Division of Mental Health within the
Department of Human Services;
(8) a social service or health care agency that
provides services to persons with developmental
disabilities, in a program whose accreditation to provide
such services is recognized by the Division of
Developmental Disabilities within the Department of Human
Services;
(9) a local hospital, trauma center, or provider of
emergency medicine;
(10) providers of services for eligible adults in
domestic living situations; and
(11) a physician, psychiatrist, or other health care
provider knowledgeable about abuse and neglect of at-risk
adults.
(c) A review team shall review cases of deaths of at-risk
adults occurring in its planning and service area (i) involving
blunt force trauma or an undetermined manner or suspicious
cause of death; , (ii) if requested by the deceased's attending
physician or an emergency room physician; , (iii) upon referral
by a health care provider; , (iv) upon referral by a coroner or
medical examiner; , (v) constituting an open or closed case from
an adult protective services agency, law enforcement agency,
State's Attorney's office, or the Department of Human Services'
Office of the Inspector General that involves alleged or
suspected abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation; or (vi)
upon referral by a law enforcement agency or State's Attorney's
office. If such a death occurs in a planning and service area
where a review team has not yet been established, the Director
shall request that the Advisory Council or another review team
review that death. A team may also review deaths of at-risk
adults if the alleged abuse or neglect occurred while the
person was residing in a domestic living situation.
A review team shall meet not less than 6 times a year to
discuss cases for its possible review. Each review team, with
the advice and consent of the Department, shall establish
criteria to be used in discussing cases of alleged, suspected,
or substantiated abuse or neglect for review and shall conduct
its activities in accordance with any applicable policies and
procedures established by the Department.
(c-5) The Illinois Fatality Review Team Advisory Council,
consisting of one member from each review team in Illinois,
shall be the coordinating and oversight body for review teams
and activities in Illinois. The Director may appoint to the
Advisory Council any ex-officio members deemed necessary.
Persons with expertise needed by the Advisory Council may be
invited to meetings. The Advisory Council must select from its
members a chairperson and a vice-chairperson, each to serve a
2-year term. The chairperson or vice-chairperson may be
selected to serve additional, subsequent terms. The Advisory
Council must meet at least 4 times during each calendar year.
The Department may provide or arrange for the staff support
necessary for the Advisory Council to carry out its duties. The
Director, in cooperation and consultation with the Advisory
Council, shall appoint, reappoint, and remove review team
members.
The Advisory Council has, but is not limited to, the
following duties:
(1) To serve as the voice of review teams in Illinois.
(2) To oversee the review teams in order to ensure that
the review teams' work is coordinated and in compliance
with State statutes and the operating protocol.
(3) To ensure that the data, results, findings, and
recommendations of the review teams are adequately used in
a timely manner to make any necessary changes to the
policies, procedures, and State statutes in order to
protect at-risk adults.
(4) To collaborate with the Department in order to
develop any legislation needed to prevent unnecessary
deaths of at-risk adults.
(5) To ensure that the review teams' review processes
are standardized in order to convey data, findings, and
recommendations in a usable format.
(6) To serve as a link with review teams throughout the
country and to participate in national review team
activities.
(7) To provide the review teams with the most current
information and practices concerning at-risk adult death
review and related topics.
(8) To perform any other functions necessary to enhance
the capability of the review teams to reduce and prevent
at-risk adult fatalities.
The Advisory Council may prepare an annual report, in
consultation with the Department, using aggregate data
gathered by review teams and using the review teams'
recommendations to develop education, prevention, prosecution,
or other strategies designed to improve the coordination of
services for at-risk adults and their families.
In any instance where a review team does not operate in
accordance with established protocol, the Director, in
consultation and cooperation with the Advisory Council, must
take any necessary actions to bring the review team into
compliance with the protocol.
(d) Any document or oral or written communication shared
within or produced by the review team relating to a case
discussed or reviewed by the review team is confidential and is
not admissible as evidence in any civil or criminal proceeding,
except for use by a State's Attorney's office in prosecuting a
criminal case against a caregiver. Those records and
information are, however, subject to discovery or subpoena, and
are admissible as evidence, to the extent they are otherwise
available to the public.
Any document or oral or written communication provided to a
review team by an individual or entity, and created by that
individual or entity solely for the use of the review team, is
confidential, is not subject to disclosure to or discoverable
by another party, and is not admissible as evidence in any
civil or criminal proceeding, except for use by a State's
Attorney's office in prosecuting a criminal case against a
caregiver. Those records and information are, however, subject
to discovery or subpoena, and are admissible as evidence, to
the extent they are otherwise available to the public.
Each entity or individual represented on the fatality
review team may share with other members of the team
information in the entity's or individual's possession
concerning the decedent who is the subject of the review or
concerning any person who was in contact with the decedent, as
well as any other information deemed by the entity or
individual to be pertinent to the review. Any such information
shared by an entity or individual with other members of the
review team is confidential. The intent of this paragraph is to
permit the disclosure to members of the review team of any
information deemed confidential or privileged or prohibited
from disclosure by any other provision of law. Release of
confidential communication between domestic violence advocates
and a domestic violence victim shall follow subsection (d) of
Section 227 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 which
allows for the waiver of privilege afforded to guardians,
executors, or administrators of the estate of the domestic
violence victim. This provision relating to the release of
confidential communication between domestic violence advocates
and a domestic violence victim shall exclude adult protective
service providers.
A coroner's or medical examiner's office may share with the
review team medical records that have been made available to
the coroner's or medical examiner's office in connection with
that office's investigation of a death.
Members of a review team and the Advisory Council are not
subject to examination, in any civil or criminal proceeding,
concerning information presented to members of the review team
or the Advisory Council or opinions formed by members of the
review team or the Advisory Council based on that information.
A person may, however, be examined concerning information
provided to a review team or the Advisory Council.
(d-5) Meetings of the review teams and the Advisory Council
may be closed to the public under the Open Meetings Act.
Records and information provided to a review team and the
Advisory Council, and records maintained by a team or the
Advisory Council, are exempt from release under the Freedom of
Information Act.
(e) A review team's recommendation in relation to a case
discussed or reviewed by the review team, including, but not
limited to, a recommendation concerning an investigation or
prosecution, may be disclosed by the review team upon the
completion of its review and at the discretion of a majority of
its members who reviewed the case.
(e-5) The State shall indemnify and hold harmless members
of a review team and the Advisory Council for all their acts,
omissions, decisions, or other conduct arising out of the scope
of their service on the review team or Advisory Council, except
those involving willful or wanton misconduct. The method of
providing indemnification shall be as provided in the State
Employee Indemnification Act.
(f) The Department, in consultation with coroners, medical
examiners, and law enforcement agencies, shall use aggregate
data gathered by and recommendations from the Advisory Council
and the review teams to create an annual report and may use
those data and recommendations to develop education,
prevention, prosecution, or other strategies designed to
improve the coordination of services for at-risk adults and
their families. The Department or other State or county agency,
in consultation with coroners, medical examiners, and law
enforcement agencies, also may use aggregate data gathered by
the review teams to create a database of at-risk individuals.
(g) The Department shall adopt such rules and regulations
as it deems necessary to implement this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14;
revised 11-26-14.)
Section 350. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act
is amended by changing Sections 7.8 and 7.14 as follows:
(325 ILCS 5/7.8) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.8)
Sec. 7.8. Upon receiving an oral or written report of
suspected child abuse or neglect, the Department shall
immediately notify, either orally or electronically, the Child
Protective Service Unit of a previous report concerning a
subject of the present report or other pertinent information.
In addition, upon satisfactory identification procedures, to
be established by Department regulation, any person authorized
to have access to records under Section 11.1 relating to child
abuse and neglect may request and shall be immediately provided
the information requested in accordance with this Act. However,
no information shall be released unless it prominently states
the report is "indicated", and only information from
"indicated" reports shall be released, except that information
concerning pending reports may be released pursuant to Sections
7.14 and 7.22 of this Act to the attorney or guardian ad litem
appointed under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987
and to any person authorized under paragraphs (1), (2), (3) and
(11) of Section 11.1. In addition, State's Attorneys are
authorized to receive unfounded reports for prosecution
purposes related to the transmission of false reports of child
abuse or neglect in violation of subsection (a), paragraph (7)
of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 and attorneys and
guardians ad litem appointed under Article II of the Juvenile
Court Act of 1987 shall receive the reports set forth in
Section 7.14 of this Act in conformance with paragraph (19) of
Section 11.1 and Section 7.14 of this Act. The names and other
identifying data and the dates and the circumstances of any
persons requesting or receiving information from the central
register shall be entered in the register record.
(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-807, eff. 8-1-14;
revised 11-25-14.)
(325 ILCS 5/7.14) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.14)
Sec. 7.14. All reports in the central register shall be
classified in one of three categories: "indicated",
"unfounded" or "undetermined", as the case may be. Prior to
classifying the report, the person making the classification
shall determine whether the child named in the report is the
subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act
of 1987. If the child is the subject of an action under Article
II of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department intends
to classify the report as indicated, the Department shall,
within 45 days of classification of the report, transmit a copy
of the report to the attorney or guardian ad litem appointed
for the child under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of
1987. If the child is the subject of an action under Article II
of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the Department intends to
classify the report as unfounded, the Department shall, within
45 days of deciding its intent to classify the report as
unfounded, transmit a copy of the report and written notice of
the Department's intent to the attorney or guardian ad litem
appointed for the child under Section 2-17 of the Juvenile
Court Act of 1987. All information identifying the subjects of
an unfounded report shall be expunged from the register
forthwith, except as provided in Section 7.7. Unfounded reports
may only be made available to the Child Protective Service Unit
when investigating a subsequent report of suspected abuse or
maltreatment involving a child named in the unfounded report;
and to the subject of the report, provided the Department has
not expunged the file in accordance with Section 7.7. The Child
Protective Service Unit shall not indicate the subsequent
report solely based upon the existence of the prior unfounded
report or reports. Notwithstanding any other provision of law
to the contrary, an unfounded report shall not be admissible in
any judicial or administrative proceeding or action.
Identifying information on all other records shall be removed
from the register no later than 5 years after the report is
indicated. However, if another report is received involving the
same child, his sibling or offspring, or a child in the care of
the persons responsible for the child's welfare, or involving
the same alleged offender, the identifying information may be
maintained in the register until 5 years after the subsequent
case or report is closed.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section,
identifying information in indicated reports involving serious
physical injury to a child as defined by the Department in
rules, may be retained longer than 5 years after the report is
indicated or after the subsequent case or report is closed, and
may not be removed from the register except as provided by the
Department in rules. Identifying information in indicated
reports involving sexual penetration of a child, sexual
molestation of a child, sexual exploitation of a child, torture
of a child, or the death of a child, as defined by the
Department in rules, shall be retained for a period of not less
than 50 years after the report is indicated or after the
subsequent case or report is closed.
For purposes of this Section "child" includes an adult
resident as defined in this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-453, eff. 8-16-13;
98-807, eff. 8-1-14; revised 11-25-14.)
Section 355. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended
by changing Sections 4, 5, 6.2, 7.2, 9.4, and 10 as follows:
(410 ILCS 45/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1304)
Sec. 4. Sale of items containing lead-bearing substance. No
person shall sell, have, offer for sale, or transfer toys,
furniture, clothing, accessories, jewelry, decorative objects,
edible items, candy, food, dietary supplements, or other
articles used by or intended to be chewable by children that
contain contains a lead-bearing substance.
(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
(410 ILCS 45/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1305)
Sec. 5. Sale of objects containing lead-bearing substance.
No person shall sell or transfer or offer for sale or transfer
any fixtures or other objects intended to be used, installed,
or located in or upon any surface of a regulated facility, that
contain contains a lead-bearing substance and that, in the
ordinary course of use, are accessible to or chewable by
children.
(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
(410 ILCS 45/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)
Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.
(a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6
years of age or younger shall test those children for lead
poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high
risk by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as
low risk by the Department shall be evaluated for risk by the
Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed by the Department
and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in
accordance with rules adopted by the Department.
(b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care
facility serving children 6 years of age or younger, including,
but not limited to, health departments, hospitals, clinics, and
health maintenance organizations approved, registered, or
licensed by the Department, shall take the appropriate steps to
ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for
risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.
(c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may
also be tested by physicians or health care providers, in
accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and
health care providers shall also evaluate children for lead
poisoning in conjunction with the school health examination, as
required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgement
of the physician, advanced practice nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that
authorizes the advance practice nurse to perform health
examinations, or physician assistant who has been delegated to
perform health examinations by the supervising physician, the
child is potentially at high risk of lead poisoning.
(d) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
(410 ILCS 45/7.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1307.2)
Sec. 7.2. Fees; reimbursement; Lead Poisoning Screening,
Prevention, and Abatement Fund.
(a) The Department may establish fees according to a
reasonable fee structure to cover the cost of providing a
testing service for laboratory analysis of blood lead tests and
any necessary follow-up. Fees collected from the Department's
testing service shall be placed in a special fund in the State
treasury known as the Lead Poisoning Screening, Prevention, and
Abatement Fund. Other State and federal funds for expenses
related to lead poisoning screening, follow-up, treatment, and
abatement programs may also be placed in the Fund. Moneys shall
be appropriated from the Fund to the Department for the
implementation and enforcement of this Act.
(b) The Department shall certify, as required by the
Department of Healthcare and Family Services, any
non-reimbursed public expenditures for all approved lead
testing and evaluation activities for Medicaid-eligible
children expended by the Department from the non-federal
portion of funds, including, but not limited to, assessment of
home, physical, and family environments; comprehensive
environmental lead investigation; and laboratory services for
Medicaid-eligible children. The Department of Healthcare and
Family Services shall provide appropriate Current Procedural
Terminology (CPT) Codes for all billable services and claim
federal financial participation for the properly certified
public expenditures submitted to it by the Department. Any
federal financial participation revenue received pursuant to
this Act shall be deposited in the Lead Poisoning Screening,
Prevention, and Abatement Fund.
(c) Any delegate agency may establish fees, according to a
reasonable fee structure, to cover the costs of drawing blood
for blood lead testing and evaluation and any necessary
follow-up.
(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
(410 ILCS 45/9.4)
Sec. 9.4. Owner's obligation to post notice. The owner of a
regulated facility who has received a mitigation notice under
Section 9 of this Act shall post notices at all entrances to
the regulated facility specifying the identified lead hazards.
The posted notices, drafted by the Department and sent to the
property owner with the notification of lead hazards, shall
indicate the following:
(1) that a unit or units in the building have been
found to have lead hazards;
(2) that other units in the building may have lead
hazards;
(3) that the Department recommends that children 6
years of age or younger receive a blood lead testing;
(4) where to seek further information; and
(5) whether 2 or more mitigation notices have been
issued for the regulated facility within a 5-year period of
time.
Once the owner has complied with a mitigation notice or
mitigation order issued by the Department, the owner may remove
the notices posted pursuant to this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
(410 ILCS 45/10) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1310)
Sec. 10. The Department, or representative of a unit of
local government or health department approved by the
Department for this purpose, shall report any violation of this
Act to the State's Attorney of the county in which the
regulated facility is located. The State's Attorney has the
authority to charge the owner with a Class A misdemeanor, and
who shall take additional measures to ensure that rent is
withheld from the owner by the occupants of the dwelling units
affected, until the mitigation requirements under Section 9 of
this Act are complied with.
No tenant shall be evicted because rent is withheld under
the provisions of this Act, or because of any action required
of the owner of the regulated facility as a result of
enforcement of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 360. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by
changing Sections 9 and 9.7 as follows:
(410 ILCS 305/9) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7309)
Sec. 9. (1) No person may disclose or be compelled to
disclose HIV-related information, except to the following
persons:
(a) The subject of an HIV test or the subject's legally
authorized representative. A physician may notify the
spouse of the test subject, if the test result is positive
and has been confirmed pursuant to rules adopted by the
Department, provided that the physician has first sought
unsuccessfully to persuade the patient to notify the spouse
or that, a reasonable time after the patient has agreed to
make the notification, the physician has reason to believe
that the patient has not provided the notification. This
paragraph shall not create a duty or obligation under which
a physician must notify the spouse of the test results, nor
shall such duty or obligation be implied. No civil
liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall be
imposed for any disclosure or non-disclosure of a test
result to a spouse by a physician acting in good faith
under this paragraph. For the purpose of any proceedings,
civil or criminal, the good faith of any physician acting
under this paragraph shall be presumed.
(b) Any person designated in a legally effective
authorization for release of the HIV-related information
executed by the subject of the HIV-related information or
the subject's legally authorized representative.
(c) An authorized agent or employee of a health
facility or health care provider if the health facility or
health care provider itself is authorized to obtain the
test results, the agent or employee provides patient care
or handles or processes specimens of body fluids or
tissues, and the agent or employee has a need to know such
information.
(d) The Department and local health authorities
serving a population of over 1,000,000 residents or other
local health authorities as designated by the Department,
in accordance with rules for reporting, preventing, and
controlling the spread of disease and the conduct of public
health surveillance, public health investigations, and
public health interventions, as otherwise provided by
State law. The Department, local health authorities, and
authorized representatives shall not disclose HIV test
results and HIV-related information, publicly or in any
action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal,
board, or agency. HIV test results and HIV-related
information shall be protected from disclosure in
accordance with the provisions of Sections 8-2101 through
8-2105 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
(e) A health facility, health care provider, or health
care professional which procures, processes, distributes
or uses: (i) a human body part from a deceased person with
respect to medical information regarding that person; or
(ii) semen provided prior to the effective date of this Act
for the purpose of artificial insemination.
(f) Health facility staff committees for the purposes
of conducting program monitoring, program evaluation or
service reviews.
(f-5) A court in accordance with the provisions of
Section 12-5.01 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
(g) (Blank).
(h) Any health care provider, health care
professional, or employee of a health facility, and any
firefighter or EMR, EMT, A-EMT, paramedic, PHRN, or EMT-I,
involved in an accidental direct skin or mucous membrane
contact with the blood or bodily fluids of an individual
which is of a nature that may transmit HIV, as determined
by a physician in his medical judgment.
(i) Any law enforcement officer, as defined in
subsection (c) of Section 7, involved in the line of duty
in a direct skin or mucous membrane contact with the blood
or bodily fluids of an individual which is of a nature that
may transmit HIV, as determined by a physician in his
medical judgment.
(j) A temporary caretaker of a child taken into
temporary protective custody by the Department of Children
and Family Services pursuant to Section 5 of the Abused and
Neglected Child Reporting Act, as now or hereafter amended.
(k) In the case of a minor under 18 years of age whose
test result is positive and has been confirmed pursuant to
rules adopted by the Department, the health care
professional who ordered the test shall make a reasonable
effort to notify the minor's parent or legal guardian if,
in the professional judgment of the health care
professional, notification would be in the best interest of
the child and the health care professional has first sought
unsuccessfully to persuade the minor to notify the parent
or legal guardian or a reasonable time after the minor has
agreed to notify the parent or legal guardian, the health
care professional has reason to believe that the minor has
not made the notification. This subsection shall not create
a duty or obligation under which a health care professional
must notify the minor's parent or legal guardian of the
test results, nor shall a duty or obligation be implied. No
civil liability or criminal sanction under this Act shall
be imposed for any notification or non-notification of a
minor's test result by a health care professional acting in
good faith under this subsection. For the purpose of any
proceeding, civil or criminal, the good faith of any health
care professional acting under this subsection shall be
presumed.
(2) All information and records held by a State agency,
local health authority, or health oversight agency pertaining
to HIV-related information shall be strictly confidential and
exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of
Information Act. The information and records shall not be
released or made public by the State agency, local health
authority, or health oversight agency, shall not be admissible
as evidence nor discoverable in any action of any kind in any
court or before any tribunal, board, agency, or person, and
shall be treated in the same manner as the information and
those records subject to the provisions of Part 21 of Article
VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except under the following
circumstances:
(A) when made with the written consent of all persons
to whom the information pertains; or
(B) when authorized by Section 5-4-3 of the Unified
Code of Corrections.
Disclosure shall be limited to those who have a need to
know the information, and no additional disclosures may be
made.
(Source: P.A. 97-1046, eff. 8-21-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
(410 ILCS 305/9.7)
Sec. 9.7. Record locator service to support HIE. Section
9.9 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities and
Confidentiality Act is herein incorporated by reference.
(Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 365. The Health Care Professional Credentials Data
Collection Act is amended by changing Section 51 as follows:
(410 ILCS 517/51)
Sec. 51. Licensure records. Licensure records designated
confidential and considered expunged for reporting purposes by
the licensee under Section 2105-207 of the Civil Administrative
Code of Illinois are not reportable under this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-816, eff. 8-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 370. The Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act is
amended by changing Section 3.21 as follows:
(410 ILCS 620/3.21) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 503.21)
Sec. 3.21. Except as authorized by this Act, the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, the
Dental Practice Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the
Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of 2004, the
Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987, or Section 22-30 of the
School Code, to sell or dispense a prescription drug without a
prescription.
(Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; revised 11-26-14.)
Section 375. The Food Handling Regulation Enforcement Act
is amended by changing Section 3.06 and setting forth and
renumbering multiple versions of Section 3.4 as follows:
(410 ILCS 625/3.06)
Sec. 3.06. Food handler training; restaurants.
(a) For the purpose of this Section, "restaurant" means any
business that is primarily engaged in the sale of ready-to-eat
food for immediate consumption. "Primarily engaged" means
having sales of ready-to-eat food for immediate consumption
comprising at least 51% of the total sales, excluding the sale
of liquor.
(b) Unless otherwise provided, all food handlers employed
by a restaurant, other than someone holding a food service
sanitation manager certificate, must receive or obtain
American National Standards Institute-accredited training in
basic safe food handling principles within 30 days after
employment and every 3 years thereafter. Notwithstanding the
provisions of Section 3.05 of this Act, food handlers employed
in nursing homes, licensed day care homes and facilities,
hospitals, schools, and long-term care facilities must renew
their training every 3 years. There is no limit to how many
times an employee may take the training. The training indicated
in subsections (e) and (f) of this Section is transferable
between employers, but not individuals. The training indicated
in subsections (c) and (d) of this Section is not transferable
between individuals or employers. Proof that a food handler has
been trained must be available upon reasonable request by a
State or local health department inspector and may be provided
electronically.
(c) If a business with an internal training program is
approved in another state prior to the effective date of this
amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly, then the
business's training program and assessment shall be
automatically approved by the Department upon the business
providing proof that the program is approved in said state.
(d) The Department shall approve the training program of
any multi-state business with a plan that follows the
guidelines in subsection (b) of Section 3.05 of this Act and is
on file with the Department by May 15, 2013.
(e) If an entity uses an American National Standards
Institute food handler training accredited program, that
training program shall be automatically approved by the
Department.
(f) Certified local health departments in counties serving
jurisdictions with a population of 100,000 or less, as reported
by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population, may
have a training program. The training program must meet the
requirements of Section 3.05(b) and be approved by the
Department. This Section notwithstanding, certified local
health departments in the following counties may have a
training program:
(1) a county with a population of 677,560 as reported
by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;
(2) a county with a population of 308,760 as reported
by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;
(3) a county with a population of 515,269 as reported
by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;
(4) a county with a population of 114,736 as reported
by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;
(5) a county with a population of 110,768 as reported
by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population;
(6) a county with a population of 135,394 as reported
by the U.S. Census Bureau in the 2010 Census of Population.
The certified local health departments in paragraphs (1)
through (6) of this subsection (f) must have their training
programs program on file with the Department no later than 90
days after the effective date of this Act. Any modules that
meet the requirements of subsection (b) of Section 3.05 of this
Act and are not approved within 180 days after the Department's
receipt of the application of the entity seeking to conduct the
training shall automatically be considered approved by the
Department.
(g) Any and all documents, materials, or information
related to a restaurant or business food handler training
module submitted to the Department is confidential and shall
not be open to public inspection or dissemination and is exempt
from disclosure under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information
Act. Training may be conducted by any means available,
including, but not limited to, on-line, computer, classroom,
live trainers, remote trainers, and certified food service
sanitation managers. There must be at least one commercially
available, approved food handler training module at a cost of
no more than $15 per employee; if an approved food handler
training module is not available at that cost, then the
provisions of this Section 3.06 shall not apply.
(h) The regulation of food handler training is considered
to be an exclusive function of the State, and local regulation
is prohibited. This subsection (h) is a denial and limitation
of home rule powers and functions under subsection (h) of
Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
(i) The provisions of this Section apply beginning July 1,
2014. From July 1, 2014 through December 31, 2014, enforcement
of the provisions of this Section shall be limited to education
and notification of requirements to encourage compliance.
(Source: P.A. 98-566, eff. 8-27-13; revised 12-10-14.)
(410 ILCS 625/3.4)
Sec. 3.4. Product samples.
(a) For the purpose of this Section, "food product
sampling" means food product samples distributed free of charge
for promotional or educational purposes only.
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, except as
provided in subsection (c) of this Section, a vendor who
engages in food product sampling at a farmers' market may do so
without obtaining a State or local permit to provide those food
product samples, provided the vendor complies with the State
and local permit requirements to sell the food product to be
sampled and with the food preparation, food handling, food
storage, and food sampling requirements specified in the
administrative rules adopted by the Department to implement
Section 3.3 and Section 3.4 of this Act.
The Department of Public Health is instructed to work with
the Farmers' Market Task Force as created in Section 3.3 of
this Act to establish a food sampling at farmers' market
training and certification program to fulfill this
requirement. The Department shall adopt rules for the food
sampling training and certification program and product
sampling requirements at farmers' markets in accordance with
subsection (j) of Section 3.3. The Department may charge a
reasonable fee for the training and certification program. The
Department may delegate or contract authority to administer the
food sampling training to other qualified public and private
entities.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (b) of
this Section, the Department of Public Health, the Department
of Agriculture, a local municipal health department, or a
certified local health department may inspect a vendor at a
farmers' market to ensure compliance with the provisions in
this Section. If an imminent health hazard exists or a vendor's
product has been found to be misbranded, adulterated, or not in
compliance with the permit exemption for vendors pursuant to
this Section, then the regulatory authority may invoke
cessation of sales until it deems that the situation has been
addressed.
(Source: P.A. 98-660, eff. 6-23-14.)
(410 ILCS 625/3.6)
Sec. 3.6 3.4. Home kitchen operation.
(a) For the purpose of this Section, "home kitchen
operation" means a person who produces or packages
non-potentially hazardous food in a kitchen of that person's
primary domestic residence for direct sale by the owner or a
family member, or for sale by a religious, charitable, or
nonprofit organization, stored in the residence where the food
is made. The following conditions must be met in order to
qualify as a home kitchen operation:
(1) Monthly gross sales do not exceed $1,000.
(2) The food is not a potentially hazardous baked food,
as defined in Section 4 of this Act.
(3) A notice is provided to the purchaser that the
product was produced in a home kitchen.
(b) The Department of Public Health or the health
department of a unit of local government may inspect a home
kitchen operation in the event of a complaint or disease
outbreak.
(c) This Section applies only to a home kitchen operation
located in a municipality, township, or county where the local
governing body has adopted an ordinance authorizing the direct
sale of baked goods as described in Section 4 of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-643, eff. 6-10-14; revised 10-20-14.)
Section 380. The Public Water Supply Operations Act is
amended by changing Sections 1 and 13 as follows:
(415 ILCS 45/1) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 501)
Sec. 1. (1) In order to safeguard the health and well-being
of the populace, every community water supply in Illinois,
other than an exempt community water supply as specified in
Section 9.1, shall have on its operational staff, and shall
designate to the Agency in writing, either (i) one Responsible
Operator in Charge who directly supervises both the treatment
and distribution facilities of the community water supply or
(ii) one Responsible Operator in Charge who directly supervises
the treatment facilities of the community water supply and one
Responsible Operator in Charge who directly supervises the
distribution facilities of the community water supply.
Except for exempt community water supplies as specified in
Section 9.1 of this Act, all portions of a community water
supply system shall be under the direct supervision of a
Responsible Operator in Charge.
(2) The following class requirements apply:
(a) Each Class A community water supply shall have in
its employ at least one individual certified as competent
as a Class A community water supply operator.
(b) Each Class B community water supply shall have in
its employ at least one individual certified as competent
as a Class B or Class A community water supply operator.
(c) Each Class C community water supply shall have in
its employ at least one individual certified as competent
as a Class C, Class B, or Class A community water supply
operator.
(d) Each Class D community water supply shall have in
its employ at least one individual certified as competent
as a Class D, Class C, Class B, or Class A community water
supply operator.
(2.5) The Agency may adopt rules that classify or
reclassify community water supplies as Class A, Class B, Class
C, or Class D community water supplies. A community water
supply that cannot be clearly classified under Section 5.1 or
Agency rules shall be considered individually and designated,
in writing, by the Agency, as a Class A, Class B, Class C, or
Class D community water supply. Classifications made under this
subsection (2.5) shall be based on the nature of the community
water supply and on the education and experience necessary to
operate it.
(3) A community water supply may satisfy the requirements
of this Section by contracting the services of an individual
who is a properly qualified certified operator of the required
class or higher, and will directly supervise the operation of
the community water supply. That individual shall serve as the
Responsible Operator in Charge of the community water supply. A
written agreement to this effect must be on file with the
Agency certifying that such an agreement exists, and delegating
responsibility and authority to the contracted party. This
written agreement shall be signed by both the certified
operator to be contracted and the responsible community water
supply owner or official custodian and must be approved in
writing by the Agency.
(Source: P.A. 98-822, eff. 8-1-14; 98-856, eff. 8-4-14; revised
10-1-14.)
(415 ILCS 45/13) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 513)
Sec. 13. Community Water Supply Operators shall be
certified in accordance with the following classifications:
(a) A "Class A" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall
be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this
Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and
judgment that are necessary to operate a Class A community
water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable
water for human consumption, as well as the skills,
knowledge, ability, and judgment necessary to operate
Class B, Class C, and Class D community water supplies in a
manner that will provide safe, potable water for human
consumption.
(b) A "Class B" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall
be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this
Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and
judgment that are necessary to operate a Class B community
water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable
water for human consumption, as well as the skills,
knowledge, ability, and judgment necessary to operate
Class C and Class D community water supplies in a manner
that will provide safe, potable water for human
consumption.
(c) A "Class C" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall
be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this
Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and
judgment that are necessary to operate a Class C community
water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable
water for human consumption, as well as the skills,
knowledge, ability, and judgment necessary to operate a
Class D community water supply in a manner that will
provide safe, potable water for human consumption.
(d) A "Class D" Water Supply Operator Certificate shall
be issued to those individuals who, in accordance with this
Act, demonstrate the skills, knowledge, ability, and
judgment that are necessary to operate a Class D community
water supply in a manner that will provide safe, potable
water for human consumption.
(Source: P.A. 98-822, eff. 8-1-14; 98-856, eff. 8-4-14; revised
10-2-14.)
Section 385. The Illinois Pesticide Act is amended by
changing Section 19.3 as follows:
(415 ILCS 60/19.3)
Sec. 19.3. Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program.
(a) It is the policy of the State of Illinois that an
Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program be implemented
to reduce potential agrichemical pollution and minimize
environmental degradation risk potential at these sites. In
this Section, "agrichemical facility" means a site where
agrichemicals are stored or handled, or both, in preparation
for end use. "Agrichemical facility" does not include basic
manufacturing or central distribution sites utilized only for
wholesale purposes. As used in this Section, "agrichemical"
means pesticides or commercial fertilizers at an agrichemical
facility.
The program shall provide guidance for assessing the threat
of soil agrichemical contaminants to groundwater and
recommending which sites need to establish a voluntary
corrective action program.
The program shall establish appropriate site-specific soil
cleanup objectives, which shall be based on the potential for
the agrichemical contaminants to move from the soil to
groundwater and the potential of the specific soil agrichemical
contaminants to cause an exceedence of a Class I or Class III
groundwater quality standard or a health advisory level. The
Department shall use the information found and procedures
developed in the Agrichemical Facility Site Contamination
Study or other appropriate physical evidence to establish the
soil agrichemical contaminant levels of concern to groundwater
in the various hydrological settings to establish
site-specific cleanup objectives.
No remediation of a site may be recommended unless (i) the
agrichemical contamination level in the soil exceeds the
site-specific cleanup objectives or (ii) the agrichemical
contaminant level in the soil exceeds levels where physical
evidence and risk evaluation indicates probability of the site
causing an exceedence of a groundwater quality standard.
When a remediation plan must be carried out over a number
of years due to limited financial resources of the owner or
operator of the agrichemical facility, those soil agrichemical
contaminated areas that have the greatest potential to
adversely impact vulnerable Class I groundwater aquifers and
adjacent potable water wells shall receive the highest priority
rating and be remediated first.
(b) (Blank).
(c) (Blank).
(d) The Director has the authority to do the following:
(1) When requested by the owner or operator of an
agrichemical facility, may investigate the agrichemical
facility site contamination.
(2) After completion of the investigation under item
(1) of this subsection, recommend to the owner or operator
of an agrichemical facility that a voluntary assessment be
made of the soil agrichemical contaminant when there is
evidence that the evaluation of risk indicates that
groundwater could be adversely impacted.
(3) Review and make recommendations on any corrective
action plan submitted by the owner or operator of an
agrichemical facility.
(4) On approval by the Director, issue an order to the
owner or operator of an agrichemical facility that has
filed a voluntary corrective action plan that the owner or
operator may proceed with that plan.
(5) Provide remedial project oversight and monitor
remedial work progress.
(6) Provide staff to support program activities.
(7) (Blank).
(8) Incorporate the following into a handbook or
manual: the procedures for site assessment; pesticide
constituents of concern and associated parameters;
guidance on remediation techniques, land application, and
corrective action plans; and other information or
instructions that the Department may find necessary.
(9) Coordinate preventive response actions at
agrichemical facilities pursuant to the Groundwater
Quality Standards adopted pursuant to Section 8 of the
Illinois Groundwater Protection Act to mitigate resource
groundwater impairment.
Upon completion of the corrective action plan, the
Department shall issue a notice of closure stating that
site-specific cleanup objectives have been met and no further
remedial action is required to remedy the past agrichemical
contamination.
When a soil agrichemical contaminant assessment confirms
that remedial action is not required in accordance with the
Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program, a notice of
closure shall be issued by the Department stating that no
further remedial action is required to remedy the past
agrichemical contamination.
(e) Upon receipt of notification of an agrichemical
contaminant in groundwater pursuant to the Groundwater Quality
Standards, the Department shall evaluate the severity of the
agrichemical contamination and shall submit to the
Environmental Protection Agency an informational notice
characterizing it as follows:
(1) An agrichemical contaminant in Class I or Class III
groundwater has exceeded the levels of a standard adopted
pursuant to the Illinois Groundwater Protection Act or a
health advisory established by the Illinois Environmental
Protection Agency or the United States Environmental
Protection Agency; or
(2) An agrichemical has been detected at a level that
requires preventive notification pursuant to a standard
adopted pursuant to the Illinois Groundwater Protection
Act.
(f) When agrichemical contamination is characterized as in
subsection (e)(1) of this Section, a facility may elect to
participate in the Agrichemical Facility Response Action
Program. In these instances, the scope of the corrective action
plans developed, approved, and completed under this program
shall be limited to the soil agrichemical contamination present
at the site unless implementation of the plan is coordinated
with the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency as follows:
(1) Upon receipt of notice of intent to include
groundwater in an action by a facility, the Department
shall also notify the Illinois Environmental Protection
Agency.
(2) Upon receipt of the corrective action plan, the
Department shall coordinate a joint review of the plan with
the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency.
(3) The Illinois Environmental Protection Agency may
provide a written endorsement of the corrective action
plan.
(4) The Illinois Environmental Protection Agency may
approve a groundwater management zone for a period of 5
years after the implementation of the corrective action
plan to allow for groundwater impairment mitigation
results.
(5) (Blank).
(6) The Department, in cooperation with the Illinois
Environmental Protection Agency, shall provide remedial
project oversight and , monitor remedial work progress.
(7) The Department shall, upon completion of the
corrective action plan, issue a notice of closure stating
that no further remedial action is required to remedy the
past agrichemical contamination.
(g) When an owner or operator of an agrichemical facility
initiates a soil contamination assessment on the owner's or
operator's own volition and independent of any requirement
under this Section 19.3, information contained in that
assessment may be held as confidential information by the owner
or operator of the facility.
(h) Except as otherwise provided by Department rule, on and
after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th
General Assembly, any Agrichemical Facility Response Action
Program requirement that may be satisfied by an industrial
hygienist licensed pursuant to the Industrial Hygienists
Licensure Act repealed in this amendatory Act may be satisfied
by a Certified Industrial Hygienist certified by the American
Board of Industrial Hygiene.
(Source: P.A. 98-78, eff. 7-15-13; 98-692, eff. 7-1-14; revised
12-10-14.)
Section 390. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
(430 ILCS 65/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-10)
Sec. 10. Appeal to director; hearing; relief from firearm
prohibitions.
(a) Whenever an application for a Firearm Owner's
Identification Card is denied, whenever the Department fails to
act on an application within 30 days of its receipt, or
whenever such a Card is revoked or seized as provided for in
Section 8 of this Act, the aggrieved party may appeal to the
Director of State Police for a hearing upon such denial,
revocation or seizure, unless the denial, revocation, or
seizure was based upon a forcible felony, stalking, aggravated
stalking, domestic battery, any violation of the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and
Community Protection Act, or the Cannabis Control Act that is
classified as a Class 2 or greater felony, any felony violation
of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
of 2012, or any adjudication as a delinquent minor for the
commission of an offense that if committed by an adult would be
a felony, in which case the aggrieved party may petition the
circuit court in writing in the county of his or her residence
for a hearing upon such denial, revocation, or seizure.
(b) At least 30 days before any hearing in the circuit
court, the petitioner shall serve the relevant State's Attorney
with a copy of the petition. The State's Attorney may object to
the petition and present evidence. At the hearing the court
shall determine whether substantial justice has been done.
Should the court determine that substantial justice has not
been done, the court shall issue an order directing the
Department of State Police to issue a Card. However, the court
shall not issue the order if the petitioner is otherwise
prohibited from obtaining, possessing, or using a firearm under
federal law.
(c) Any person prohibited from possessing a firearm under
Sections 24-1.1 or 24-3.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012 or
acquiring a Firearm Owner's Identification Card under Section 8
of this Act may apply to the Director of State Police or
petition the circuit court in the county where the petitioner
resides, whichever is applicable in accordance with subsection
(a) of this Section, requesting relief from such prohibition
and the Director or court may grant such relief if it is
established by the applicant to the court's or Director's
satisfaction that:
(0.05) when in the circuit court, the State's Attorney
has been served with a written copy of the petition at
least 30 days before any such hearing in the circuit court
and at the hearing the State's Attorney was afforded an
opportunity to present evidence and object to the petition;
(1) the applicant has not been convicted of a forcible
felony under the laws of this State or any other
jurisdiction within 20 years of the applicant's
application for a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or
at least 20 years have passed since the end of any period
of imprisonment imposed in relation to that conviction;
(2) the circumstances regarding a criminal conviction,
where applicable, the applicant's criminal history and his
reputation are such that the applicant will not be likely
to act in a manner dangerous to public safety;
(3) granting relief would not be contrary to the public
interest; and
(4) granting relief would not be contrary to federal
law.
(c-5) (1) An active law enforcement officer employed by a
unit of government, who is denied, revoked, or has his or her
Firearm Owner's Identification Card seized under subsection
(e) of Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Director of State
Police requesting relief if the officer did not act in a manner
threatening to the officer, another person, or the public as
determined by the treating clinical psychologist or physician,
and as a result of his or her work is referred by the employer
for or voluntarily seeks mental health evaluation or treatment
by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or
qualified examiner, and:
(A) the officer has not received treatment
involuntarily at a mental health facility, regardless of
the length of admission; or has not been voluntarily
admitted to a mental health facility for more than 30 days
and not for more than one incident within the past 5 years;
and
(B) the officer has not left the mental institution
against medical advice.
(2) The Director of State Police shall grant expedited
relief to active law enforcement officers described in
paragraph (1) of this subsection (c-5) upon a determination by
the Director that the officer's possession of a firearm does
not present a threat to themselves, others, or public safety.
The Director shall act on the request for relief within 30
business days of receipt of:
(A) a notarized statement from the officer in the form
prescribed by the Director detailing the circumstances
that led to the hospitalization;
(B) all documentation regarding the admission,
evaluation, treatment and discharge from the treating
licensed clinical psychologist or psychiatrist of the
officer;
(C) a psychological fitness for duty evaluation of the
person completed after the time of discharge; and
(D) written confirmation in the form prescribed by the
Director from the treating licensed clinical psychologist
or psychiatrist that the provisions set forth in paragraph
(1) of this subsection (c-5) have been met, the person
successfully completed treatment, and their professional
opinion regarding the person's ability to possess
firearms.
(3) Officers eligible for the expedited relief in paragraph
(2) of this subsection (c-5) have the burden of proof on
eligibility and must provide all information required. The
Director may not consider granting expedited relief until the
proof and information is received.
(4) "Clinical psychologist", "psychiatrist", and
"qualified examiner" shall have the same meaning as provided in
Chapter I 1 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
Code.
(d) When a minor is adjudicated delinquent for an offense
which if committed by an adult would be a felony, the court
shall notify the Department of State Police.
(e) The court shall review the denial of an application or
the revocation of a Firearm Owner's Identification Card of a
person who has been adjudicated delinquent for an offense that
if committed by an adult would be a felony if an application
for relief has been filed at least 10 years after the
adjudication of delinquency and the court determines that the
applicant should be granted relief from disability to obtain a
Firearm Owner's Identification Card. If the court grants
relief, the court shall notify the Department of State Police
that the disability has been removed and that the applicant is
eligible to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
(f) Any person who is subject to the disabilities of 18
U.S.C. 922(d)(4) and 922(g)(4) of the federal Gun Control Act
of 1968 because of an adjudication or commitment that occurred
under the laws of this State or who was determined to be
subject to the provisions of subsections (e), (f), or (g) of
Section 8 of this Act may apply to the Department of State
Police requesting relief from that prohibition. The Director
shall grant the relief if it is established by a preponderance
of the evidence that the person will not be likely to act in a
manner dangerous to public safety and that granting relief
would not be contrary to the public interest. In making this
determination, the Director shall receive evidence concerning
(i) the circumstances regarding the firearms disabilities from
which relief is sought; (ii) the petitioner's mental health and
criminal history records, if any; (iii) the petitioner's
reputation, developed at a minimum through character witness
statements, testimony, or other character evidence; and (iv)
changes in the petitioner's condition or circumstances since
the disqualifying events relevant to the relief sought. If
relief is granted under this subsection or by order of a court
under this Section, the Director shall as soon as practicable
but in no case later than 15 business days, update, correct,
modify, or remove the person's record in any database that the
Department of State Police makes available to the National
Instant Criminal Background Check System and notify the United
States Attorney General that the basis for the record being
made available no longer applies. The Department of State
Police shall adopt rules for the administration of this
Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
97-1167, eff. 6-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 395. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by
changing Section 40 as follows:
(430 ILCS 66/40)
Sec. 40. Non-resident license applications.
(a) For the purposes of this Section, "non-resident" means
a person who has not resided within this State for more than 30
days and resides in another state or territory.
(b) The Department shall by rule allow for non-resident
license applications from any state or territory of the United
States with laws related to firearm ownership, possession, and
carrying, that are substantially similar to the requirements to
obtain a license under this Act.
(c) A resident of a state or territory approved by the
Department under subsection (b) of this Section may apply for a
non-resident license. The applicant shall apply to the
Department and must meet all of the qualifications established
in Section 25 of this Act, except for the Illinois residency
requirement in item (xiv) of paragraph (2) of subsection (a) of
Section 4 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The
applicant shall submit:
(1) the application and documentation required under
Section 30 of this Act and the applicable fee;
(2) a notarized document stating that the applicant:
(A) is eligible under federal law and the laws of
his or her state or territory of residence to own or
possess a firearm;
(B) if applicable, has a license or permit to carry
a firearm or concealed firearm issued by his or her
state or territory of residence and attach a copy of
the license or permit to the application;
(C) understands Illinois laws pertaining to the
possession and transport of firearms; , and
(D) acknowledges that the applicant is subject to
the jurisdiction of the Department and Illinois courts
for any violation of this Act; and
(3) a photocopy of any certificates or other evidence
of compliance with the training requirements under Section
75 of this Act; and
(4) a head and shoulder color photograph in a size
specified by the Department taken within the 30 days
preceding the date of the application.
(d) In lieu of an Illinois driver's license or Illinois
identification card, a non-resident applicant shall provide
similar documentation from his or her state or territory of
residence. In lieu of a valid Firearm Owner's Identification
Card, the applicant shall submit documentation and information
required by the Department to obtain a Firearm Owner's
Identification Card, including an affidavit that the
non-resident meets the mental health standards to obtain a
firearm under Illinois law, and the Department shall ensure
that the applicant would meet the eligibility criteria to
obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification card if he or she was a
resident of this State.
(e) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a non-resident from
transporting a concealed firearm within his or her vehicle in
Illinois, if the concealed firearm remains within his or her
vehicle and the non-resident:
(1) is not prohibited from owning or possessing a
firearm under federal law;
(2) is eligible to carry a firearm in public under the
laws of his or her state or territory of residence, as
evidenced by the possession of a concealed carry license or
permit issued by his or her state of residence, if
applicable; and
(3) is not in possession of a license under this Act.
If the non-resident leaves his or her vehicle unattended,
he or she shall store the firearm within a locked vehicle or
locked container within the vehicle in accordance with
subsection (b) of Section 65 of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-600, eff. 12-6-13; revised
12-10-14.)
Section 400. The Amusement Ride and Attraction Safety Act
is amended by changing Section 2-12 as follows:
(430 ILCS 85/2-12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4062)
Sec. 2-12. Order for cessation of operation of amusement
ride or attraction.
(a) The Department of Labor may order, in writing, a
temporary and immediate cessation of operation of any amusement
ride or amusement attraction if it:
(1) it has been determined after inspection to be
hazardous or unsafe;
(2) it is in operation before the Director has issued a
permit to operate such equipment; or
(3) the owner or operator is not in compliance with the
insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this
Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder.
(b) Operation of the amusement ride or amusement attraction
shall not resume until:
(1) the unsafe or hazardous condition is corrected to
the satisfaction of the Director or such inspector;
(2) the Director has issued a permit to operate such
equipment; or
(3) the owner or operator is in compliance with the
insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this
Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder,
respectively.
(c) The Department shall notify the owner or operator in
writing of the grounds for the cessation of operation of the
amusement ride or attraction and of the conditions in need of
correction at the time the order for cessation is issued.
(d) The owner or operator may appeal an order of cessation
by filing a request for a hearing. The Department shall afford
the owner or operator 10 working days after the date of the
notice to request a hearing. Upon written request for hearing,
the Department shall schedule a formal administrative hearing
in compliance with Article 10 of the Illinois Administrative
Procedure Act and pursuant to the provisions of the
Department's rules of procedure in administrative hearings,
except that formal discovery, such as production requests,
interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions will not be
allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness lists
prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to be
issued.
(e) The final determination by the Department of Labor
shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of
the hearing.
(f) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall
apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of
a final determination under this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14;
revised 12-10-14.)
Section 405. The Illinois Modular Dwelling and Mobile
Structure Safety Act is amended by changing Section 2 as
follows:
(430 ILCS 115/2) (from Ch. 67 1/2, par. 502)
Sec. 2. Unless clearly indicated otherwise by the context,
the following words and terms when used in this Act, for the
purpose of this Act, shall have the following meanings:
(a) (Blank) a manufactured home as defined in subdivision
(53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform Commercial Code. "Mobile
home" means a factory-assembled, completely integrated
structure, constructed on or before June 30, 1976, designed for
permanent habitation, with a permanent chassis, and so
constructed as to permit its transport, on wheels temporarily
or permanently attached to its frame, that is a movable or
portable unit that is constructed to be towed on its own
chassis (comprised of frame and wheels) from the place of its
construction to the location, or subsequent locations, at which
it is connected to utilities for year-round occupancy for use
as a permanent habitation, and designed and situated so as to
permit its occupancy as a dwelling place for one or more
persons. terms "manufactured home" and "mobile home" otherwise
meeting their respective definitions terms "mobile home" and
"manufactured home" exclude.
(b) "Person" means any individual, group of individuals,
association, trust, partnership, limited liability company,
corporation, person doing business under an assumed name,
county, municipality, the State of Illinois, or any political
subdivision or department thereof, or any other entity.
(c) "Manufacturer" means any person who manufactures
mobile structures or modular dwellings at the place or places,
either on or away from the building site, at which machinery,
equipment, and other capital goods are assembled and operated
for the purpose of making, fabricating, forming, or assembling
mobile structures or modular dwellings.
(d) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
(e) "Director" means the Director of the Department of
Public Health.
(f) (Blank).
(g) "Codes" means the safety codes for modular dwellings
and mobile structures adopted by the Department and is
synonymous with "rules". The Codes shall contain the standards
and requirements for modular dwellings and mobile structures so
that adequate performance for the intended use is made the test
of acceptability. The Code of Standards shall permit the use of
new technology, techniques, methods and materials, for both
modular dwellings and mobile structures, consistent with
recognized and accepted codes and standards developed by the
International Code Council (ICC) or by the organizations that
formed the ICC in 1994, the National Fire Protection
Association, the International Association of Plumbing and
Mechanical Officials, the American National Standards
Institute, and the Illinois State Plumbing Code.
(h) "Seal" means a device or insignia issued by the
Department to be displayed on the exterior of the mobile
structure or the interior of a modular dwelling unit to
evidence compliance with the applicable safety code.
(i) "Modular dwelling" means a building assembly or system
of building sub-assemblies, designed for habitation as a
dwelling for one or more persons, including the necessary
electrical, plumbing, heating, ventilating and other service
systems, which is of closed construction and which is made or
assembled by a manufacturer, on or off the building site, for
installation, or assembly and installation, on the building
site, installed and set up according to the manufacturer's
instructions on an approved foundation and support system. The
construction of modular dwelling units located in Illinois is
regulated by the Illinois Department of Public Health.
(j) "Closed construction" is any building, component,
assembly or system manufactured in such a manner that all
portions cannot readily be inspected at the installation site
without disassembly, damage to, or destruction thereof.
(k) (Blank).
(l) "Approved foundation and support system" means, for a
modular dwelling unit, a closed perimeter formation consisting
of materials such as concrete, mortared concrete block,
mortared brick, steel, or treated lumber extending into the
ground below the frost line which shall include, but not
necessarily be limited to, cellars, basements, or crawl spaces,
and does include the use of piers supporting the marriage wall
of the home that extend below the frost line.
(m) "Code compliance certificate" means the certificate
provided by the manufacturer to the Department that warrants
that the modular dwelling unit or mobile structure complies
with the applicable code.
(n) "Mobile structure" means a movable or portable unit,
which, when assembled, is 8 feet or more in width and is 32
body feet in length, constructed to be towed on its own chassis
(comprised of frame and wheels), and designed for occupancy
with or without a permanent foundation. "Mobile structure"
includes units designed to be used for multi-family
residential, commercial, educational, or industrial purposes,
excluding, however, recreational vehicles and single family
residences.
(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-959, eff. 8-15-14;
revised 10-2-14.)
Section 410. The Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961 is amended
by changing Sections 4 and 20 as follows:
(505 ILCS 80/4) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.4)
Sec. 4. License and product registration.
(a) Each brand and grade of fertilizer shall be registered
by the entity whose name appears upon the label before being
distributed in this State. The application for registration
shall be submitted with a label or facsimile of same to the
Director on forms furnished by the Director, and shall be
accompanied by a fee of $20 per grade within a brand. Upon
approval by the Director a copy of the registration shall be
furnished to the applicant. All registrations expire on
December 31 of each year.
The application shall include the following information:
(1) The net weight.
(2) The brand and grade.
(3) The guaranteed analysis.
(4) The name and address of the registrant.
(a-5) No entity whose name appears on the label shall
distribute a fertilizer in the State unless the entity has
secured a license under this Act on forms provided by the
Director. The license application shall be accompanied by a fee
of $100. Entities that store anhydrous ammonia as a fertilizer,
store bulk fertilizer, or custom blend a fertilizer at more
than one site under the same entity's name shall list any and
all additional sites with a complete address for each site and
remit a license fee of $50 for each site identified. Entities
performing lawn care applications for hire are exempt from
obtaining a license under this Act. All licenses expire on
December 31 of each year.
(b) A distributor shall not be required to register any
brand of fertilizer or a custom blend which is already
registered under this Act by another entity.
(c) The plant nutrient content of each and every fertilizer
must remain uniform for the period of registration and, in no
case, shall the percentage of any guaranteed plant nutrient
element be changed in such a manner that the crop-producing
quality of the fertilizer is lowered.
(d) (Blank).
(e) A custom blend, as defined in Section 3, prepared for
one consumer or end user shall not be co-mingled with the
custom blended fertilizer prepared for another consumer or end
user.
(f) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be
paid to the Fertilizer Control Fund for activities related to
the administration and enforcement of this Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14;
revised 12-10-14.)
(505 ILCS 80/20) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.20)
Sec. 20. Administrative hearings; notice. Any entity so
notified of violating this Act or its rules, shall be given the
opportunity to be heard as may be prescribed by the Director.
When an administrative hearing is held, the hearing officer,
upon determination of a violation of this Act, shall levy and
the Department shall collect administrative penalties in
addition to any initial penalty levied by this Act as follows:
(1) A penalty of $1,000 shall be imposed for:
(A) neglect or refusal by any entity, after notice
in writing, to comply with provisions of this Act or
its rules or any lawful order of the Director;
(B) every sale, disposal, or distribution of a
fertilizer that is under a stop-sale order; or
(C) concealing facts or conditions, impeding,
obstructing, hindering, or otherwise preventing or
attempting to prevent the Director, or his or her duly
authorized agent, in the performance of his or her duty
in connection with the provisions of this Act.
(2) A penalty of $500 shall be imposed for the
following violations:
(A) distribution of a fertilizer that is
misbranded or adulterated;
(B) distribution of a fertilizer that does not have
an accompanying label attached or displayed;
(C) failure to comply with any provisions of this
Act or its rules other than described under this
Section.
The Department, over the signature of the Director, is
authorized to issue subpoenas and bring before the Department
any entity in this State to take testimony orally, by
deposition, or by exhibit, in the same manner prescribed by law
in judicial proceedings or civil cases in the circuit courts of
this State. The Director is authorized to issue subpoenas duces
tecum for records relating to a fertilizer distributor's or
registrant's business.
When a fertilizer-soil amendment combination labeled in
accordance with 8 Ill. Adm. Code 211.40 Subpart (b) is subject
to penalties, the larger penalty shall be assessed.
All penalties collected by the Department under this
Section shall be deposited into the Fertilizer Control Fund.
Any penalty not paid within 60 days after receiving the notice
from the Department shall be submitted to the Attorney
General's office for collection.
(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 415. The Illinois Seed Law is amended by changing
Section 4.1 as follows:
(505 ILCS 110/4.1) (from Ch. 5, par. 404.1)
Sec. 4.1. All seeds named and treated as defined in this
Act (for which a separate label may be used) must be labeled
with:
(1) A word or statement indicating that the seed has
been treated.
(2) The commonly accepted, coined, chemical or
abbreviated chemical (generic) name of the applied
substance or description of the process used.
(3) If the substance in the amount present with the
seed is harmful to human or other vertebrate animals, a
caution statement such as "Do not use for food, feed, oil
purposes" or otherwise as required by the Uniform Hazardous
Substances Substance Act of Illinois. The caution for toxic
substances shall be a poison statement or symbol.
(4) If the seed is treated with an inoculant, the date
beyond which the inoculant is not to be considered
effective (date of expiration).
(5) Require symbol statement and the appropriate
Environmental Protection Agency signal word -- DANGER,
CAUTION OR WARNING.
(6) All treated seeds are required to be stained so
that they are easily distinguished by the ordinary observer
when examined regardless of the proportion of treated to
untreated seeds. The color used on treated seed shall
persist as long as seed bear pesticide residue.
(Source: P.A. 85-717; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 420. The Illinois Bovine Brucellosis Eradication
Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
(510 ILCS 30/1) (from Ch. 8, par. 134)
Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise
requires, words and phrases have the meanings ascribed to them
in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 2
Sections 1.1 to 1.12, inclusive.
(Source: P.A. 78-818; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 425. The Herptiles-Herps Act is amended by changing
Section 105-95 as follows:
(510 ILCS 68/105-95)
Sec. 105-95. Financial value of herptiles.
(a) For purposes of this Section, the financial value of
all reptiles and amphibians described under this Act taken,
possessed, or used in violation of this Act, whether in whole
or in part, is as follows:
(1) for processed turtle parts, $8 for each pound or
fraction of a pound; for each non-processed turtle, $15 per
whole turtle or fair market value, whichever is greater;
(2) for frogs, toads, salamanders, lizards, and
snakes, $5 per herptile or fair market value, whichever is
greater, in whole or in part, unless specified as a special
use herptile;
(3) for any special use herptile, the value shall be no
less than $250 per special use herptile or fair market
value, whichever is greater;
(4) for any endangered or threatened herptile, the
value shall be no less than $150 per endangered or
threatened threatend herptile or fair market value,
whichever is greater; and
(5) any person who, for profit or commercial purposes,
knowingly captures or kills, possesses, offers for sale,
sells, offers to barter, barters, offers to purchase,
purchases, delivers for shipment, ships, exports, imports,
causes to be shipped, exported, or imported, delivers for
transportation, transports, or causes to be transported,
carries or causes to be carried, or receives for shipment,
transportation, carriage, or export any reptile or
amphibian life, in part or in whole, of any of the reptiles
and amphibians protected by this Act, and that reptile or
amphibian life, in whole or in part, is valued at or in
excess of a total of $300 or fair market value, whichever
is greater, as per value specified in paragraphs (1), (2),
(3), and (4) of this subsection commits a Class 3 felony.
(b) The trier of fact may infer that a person "knowingly
possesses" a reptile or amphibian, in whole or in part,
captured or killed in violation of this Act, valued at or in
excess of $600, as per value specified in paragraphs (1), (2),
(3), and (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-752, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 430. The Humane Care for Animals Act is amended by
changing Section 2 as follows:
(510 ILCS 70/2) (from Ch. 8, par. 702)
Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise
requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this
Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.07 have
the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.
(Source: P.A. 78-905; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 435. The Illinois Swine Brucellosis Eradication
Act is amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
(510 ILCS 95/1) (from Ch. 8, par. 148f)
Sec. 1. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise
requires, words and phrases have the meanings ascribed to them
in the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 2
Sections 1.1 to 1.7, inclusive.
(Source: Laws 1959, p. 2259; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 440. The Fish and Aquatic Life Code is amended by
changing Sections 1-20, 15-155, and 20-55 as follows:
(515 ILCS 5/1-20) (from Ch. 56, par. 1-20)
Sec. 1-20. Aquatic life. "Aquatic life" means all fish,
mollusks, crustaceans, algae, aquatic plants, aquatic
invertebrates, and any other aquatic animals or plants that the
Department identifies in rules adopted after consultation with
biologists, zoologists, or other wildlife experts. "Aquatic
life" does not mean any herptiles that are found in the
Herptiles-Herps Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-752, eff. 1-1-15; 98-771, eff. 1-1-15; revised
10-2-14.)
(515 ILCS 5/15-155)
Sec. 15-155. Watercraft used as a primary collection device
for commercial fishes. Any person licensed as a commercial
fisherman who wishes to use his or her their watercraft as a
primary collection device for commercial fishes must first
obtain a commercial watercraft device tag. All watercraft used
as a primary collection device must be legally licensed by the
State and be in compliance with all Coast Guard boating
regulations. This Section does not apply to any person taking
Asian Carp by the aid of a boat for non-commercial purposes.
(Source: P.A. 98-336, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)
(515 ILCS 5/20-55) (from Ch. 56, par. 20-55)
Sec. 20-55. License fees for non-residents. Fees for
licenses for non-residents of the State of Illinois are as
follows:
(a) For sport fishing devices as defined by Section 10-95,
or spearing devices as defined in Section 10-110, non-residents
age 16 or older shall be charged $31 for a fishing license to
fish. For sport fishing devices as defined by Section 10-95, or
spearing devices as defined in Section 10-110, for a period not
to exceed 3 consecutive days fishing in the State of Illinois
the fee is $15.00.
For sport fishing devices as defined in Section 10-95, or
spearing devices as defined in Section 10-110, for 24 hours of
fishing the fee is $10. This license does not exempt the
licensee from the salmon or inland trout stamp requirement.
(b) All non-residents before using any commercial fishing
device shall obtain a non-resident commercial fishing license,
the fee for which shall be $300, and a non-resident fishing
license licensing. Each and every commercial device shall be
licensed by a non-resident commercial fisherman as follows:
(1) For each 100 lineal yards, or fraction thereof, of
seine (excluding minnow seines) the fee is $36.
(2) For each device to fish with a 100 hook trot line
device, basket trap, hoop net, or dip net the fee is $6.
(3) For each 100 lineal yards, or fraction thereof, of
trammel net the fee is $36.
(4) For each 100 lineal yards, or fraction thereof, of
gill net the fee is $36.
All persons required to have and failing to have the
license provided for in subsection (a) of this Section shall be
fined under Section 20-35 of this Code. Each person required to
have and failing to have the licenses required under subsection
(b) of this Section shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor.
All licenses provided for in this Section shall expire on
March 31 of each year; except that the 24-hour license for
sport fishing devices or spearing devices shall expire 24 hours
after the effective date and time listed on the face of the
license and licenses for sport fishing devices or spearing
devices for a period not to exceed 3 consecutive days fishing
in the State of Illinois as provided in subsection (a) of this
Section shall expire at midnight on the tenth day after issued,
not counting the day issued.
(Source: P.A. 96-831, eff. 1-1-10; 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13;
revised 12-10-14.)
Section 445. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing
Sections 2.2b, 2.5, and 3.1-9 as follows:
(520 ILCS 5/2.2b)
Sec. 2.2b. Imminent threat; nuisance permits.
(a) It shall not be illegal for an owner or tenant of land,
or his or her their designated agent, to immediately take on
his or her property a gray wolf, Canis lupus; American black
bear, Ursus americanus; or cougar, Puma concolor if, at any
time, the gray wolf, American black bear, or cougar is stalking
or , causing an imminent threat, or there is a reasonable
expectation that it causes an imminent threat of physical harm
or death to a human, livestock, or domestic animals or harm to
structures or other property on the owner's or tenant's land.
(b) The Department may grant a nuisance permit to the owner
or tenant of land, or his or her their designated agent, for
the taking of a gray wolf, American black bear, or cougar that
is causing a threat to an owner or tenant of land or his or her
property that is not an immediate threat under subsection (a)
of this Section.
(c) The Department shall adopt rules to implement this
Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-1033, eff. 1-1-15; revised 11-26-14.)
(520 ILCS 5/2.5)
Sec. 2.5. Crossbow conditions. A person may use a crossbow
if one or more of the following conditions are met:
(1) the user is a person age 62 and older;
(2) the user is a handicapped person to whom the
Director has issued a permit to use a crossbow, as provided
by administrative rule; or
(3) the date of using the crossbow is during the period
of the second Monday following the Thanksgiving holiday
through the last day of the archery deer hunting season
(both inclusive) set annually by the Director.
As used in this Section, "handicapped person" means a
person who has a physical impairment due to injury or disease,
congenital or acquired, which renders the person them so
severely disabled as to be unable to use a longbow, recurve
bow, or compound bow. Permits must be issued only after the
receipt of a physician's statement confirming the applicant is
handicapped as defined above.
(Source: P.A. 97-907, eff. 8-7-12; revised 12-10-14.)
(520 ILCS 5/3.1-9)
Sec. 3.1-9. Youth Hunting License. Any resident youth age
16 and under may apply to the Department for a Youth Hunting
License, which extends limited hunting privileges. The Youth
Hunting License shall be a renewable license that shall expire
on the March 31 following the date of issuance.
For youth age 16 and under, the Youth Hunting License shall
entitle the licensee to hunt while supervised by a parent,
grandparent, or guardian who is 21 years of age or older and
has a valid Illinois hunting license. Possession of a Youth
Hunting License shall serve in lieu of a valid hunting license,
but does not exempt the licensee from compliance with the
requirements of this Code and any rules adopted under this
Code.
A youth licensed under this Section shall not hunt or carry
a hunting device, including, but not limited to, a firearm, bow
and arrow, or crossbow unless the youth is accompanied by and
under the close personal supervision of a parent, grandparent,
or guardian who is 21 years of age or older and has a valid
Illinois hunting license.
At age 17 years or when the youth chooses to hunt by
himself or herself, he or she is themselves, they are required
to successfully complete a hunter safety course approved by the
Department prior to being able to obtain a full hunting license
and subsequently hunt by himself or herself themselves.
In order to be approved for the Youth Hunting License, the
applicant must request a Youth Hunting License from the
Department and submit a $7 fee, which shall be separate from
and additional to any other stamp, permit, tag, or license fee
that may be required for hunting under this Code. The
Department shall adopt rules for the administration of the
program, but shall not require any certificate of competency or
other hunting education as a condition of the Youth Hunting
License.
(Source: P.A. 98-620, eff. 1-7-14; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 450. The Railroad Police Act is amended by changing
Section 2 as follows:
(610 ILCS 80/2) (from Ch. 114, par. 98)
Sec. 2. Conductors of all railroad trains, and the captain
or master of any boat carrying passengers within the
jurisdiction of this State state, are is vested with police
powers while on duty on their respective trains and boats, and
may wear an appropriate badge indicative of this authority.
In the policing of its properties any registered rail
carrier, as defined in Section 18c-7201 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code, may provide for the appointment and maintenance of a
police force to aid and supplement the police forces of any
municipality in the protection of its property and the
protection of the persons and property of its passengers and
employees, or in furtherance of the purposes for which the
railroad was organized. While engaged in the conduct of their
employment, the members of the railroad police force have and
may exercise the same police powers conferred upon any peace
officer employed by a law enforcement agency of this State,
including the authority to issue administrative citations in
accordance with the provisions of county or municipal
ordinances.
Any registered rail carrier that appoints and maintains a
police force shall comply with the following requirements:
(1) Establish an internal policy that includes
procedures to ensure objective oversight in addressing
allegations of abuse of authority or other misconduct on
the part of its police officers.
(2) Adopt appropriate policies and guidelines for
employee investigations by police officers. These policies
and guidelines shall provide for initiating employee
investigations only under the following conditions:
(A) There is reason to believe criminal misconduct
has occurred.
(B) In response to an employee accident.
(C) There is reason to believe that the interview
of an employee could result in workplace violence.
(D) There is a legitimate concern for the personal
safety of one or more employees.
These policies and guidelines shall provide for the
right of an employee to request a representative to be
present during any interview concerning a non-criminal
matter.
(3) File copies of the policies and guidelines adopted
under paragraphs (1) and (2) with the Illinois Law
Enforcement Training Standards Board, which shall make
them available for public inspection. The Board shall
review the policies and guidelines, and approve them if
they comply with the Act.
(4) Appeal of a rail carrier's decision. A person
adversely affected or aggrieved by a decision of a rail
carrier's internal investigation under this Act may appeal
the decision to the Illinois State Police. The appeal shall
be filed no later than 90 days after the issuance of the
decision. The State Police shall review the depth,
completeness, and objectivity of the rail carrier's
investigation, and may conduct its own investigation of the
complaint. The State Police may uphold, overturn, or modify
the rail carrier's decision by filing a report of its
findings and recommendations with the Illinois Commerce
Commission. Consistent with authority under Chapter 18C of
the Illinois Vehicle Code and the Commission rules of
practice, the Commission shall have the power to conduct
evidentiary hearings, make findings, and issue and enforce
orders, including sanctions under Section 18c-1704 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code.
Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of
the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules
being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois
Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of
the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule
not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized.
(Source: P.A. 98-791, eff. 7-25-14; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 455. The Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act is amended
by changing Section 18j as follows:
(615 ILCS 5/18j)
Sec. 18j. ESDA critical facility evacuation plans. Any
critical facility that gives shelter to a person who would be
unable to evacuate without assistance during a flooding event,
and that is located in an area deemed by operation of law not
to be within the 100-year floodplain because the area in which
the critical facility is located lies within an area protected
by a federal levee and is located in a flood prevention
district established in accordance with the Flood Prevention
District Act shall develop an evacuation plan and certify to
the Emergency Services and Disaster Agency (ESDA), as defined
by Section 4 of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act,
on a form provided by the ESDA, that it has developed an
evacuation plan which the critical facility has or will
implement prior to or concurrent with occupancy of the facility
to evacuate persons who need assistance evacuating the facility
and the flooded area.
(Source: P.A. 96-1395, eff. 7-29-10; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 460. The Public-Private Agreements for the South
Suburban Airport Act is amended by changing Section 2-15 as
follows:
(620 ILCS 75/2-15)
Sec. 2-15. General airport powers.
(a) The Department has the power to plan, develop, secure
permits, licenses, and approvals for, acquire, develop,
construct, equip, own, and operate the South Suburban Airport.
The Department also has the power to own, operate, acquire
facilities for, construct, improve, repair, maintain,
renovate, and expand the South Suburban Airport, including any
facilities located on the site of the South Suburban Airport
for use by any individual or entity other than the Department.
The development of the South Suburban Airport shall also
include all land, highways, waterways, mass transit
facilities, and other infrastructure that, in the
determination of the Department, are necessary or appropriate
in connection with the development or operation of the South
Suburban Airport. The development of the South Suburban Airport
also includes acquisition and development of any land or
facilities for (i) relocation of persons, including providing
replacement housing or facilities for persons and entities
displaced by that development, (ii) protecting or reclaiming
the environment with respect to the South Suburban Airport,
(iii) providing substitute or replacement property or
facilities, including, without limitation, for areas of
recreation, conservation, open space, and wetlands, (iv)
providing navigational aids, or (v) utilities to serve the
airport, whether or not located on the site of the South
Suburban Airport.
(b) The Department shall have the authority to undertake
and complete all ongoing projects related to the South Suburban
Airport, including the South Suburban Airport Master Plan, and
assisting the Federal Aviation Administration in preparing and
approving the Environmental Impact Statement and Record of
Decision.
(c) The Department has the power to enter into all
contracts useful for carrying out its purposes and powers,
including, without limitation, public-private agreements
pursuant to the provisions of this Act, ; leases of any of its
property or facilities, use agreements with airlines or other
airport users relating to the South Suburban Airport,
agreements with South Suburban Airport concessionaires, and
franchise agreements for use of or access to South Suburban
Airport facilities.
(d) The Department has the power to apply to the proper
authorities of the United States, the State of Illinois, and
other governmental entities, as permitted or authorized by
applicable law, to obtain any licenses, approvals, or permits
reasonably necessary to achieve the purposes of this Act. All
applications to the Federal Aviation Administration, or any
successor agency, shall be made by the Department.
(e) The Department may take all steps consistent with
applicable laws to maximize funding for the costs of the South
Suburban Airport from grants by the Federal Aviation
Administration or any successor agency, or any other federal
governmental agency.
(f) The Department has the power to apply to the proper
authorities of the United States pursuant to appropriate law
for permission to establish, operate, maintain, and lease
foreign trade zones and sub-zones within the areas of the South
Suburban Airport and to establish, operate, maintain, and lease
foreign trade zones and sub-zones.
(g) The Department may publicize, advertise, and promote
the activities of the South Suburban Airport, including, to
make known the advantages, facilities, resources, products,
attractions, and attributes of the South Suburban Airport.
(h) The Department may, at any time, acquire any land, any
interests in land, other property, and interests in property
needed for the South Suburban Airport or necessary to carry out
the Department's powers and functions under this Act, including
by exercise of the power of eminent domain pursuant to Section
2-100 of this Act. The Department shall also have the power to
dispose of any such lands, interests, and property upon terms
it deems appropriate.
(i) The Department may adopt any reasonable rules for the
administration of this Act in accordance with the Illinois
Administrative Procedure Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 465. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by
changing Sections 3-102, 3-109, 3-400, 3-413, 3-701, 5-101,
5-102, 6-113, 7-311, 11-601, 11-709.2, 12-215, and 15-111 and
the heading of Chapter 11 of Article V as follows:
(625 ILCS 5/3-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-102)
Sec. 3-102. Exclusions. No certificate of title need be
obtained for:
1. a A vehicle owned by the State of Illinois; or a
vehicle owned by the United States unless it is registered
in this State;
2. a A vehicle owned by a manufacturer or dealer and
held for sale, even though incidentally moved on the
highway or used for purposes of testing or demonstration,
provided a dealer reassignment area is still available on
the manufacturer's certificate of origin or the Illinois
title; or a vehicle used by a manufacturer solely for
testing;
3. a A vehicle owned by a non-resident of this State
and not required by law to be registered in this State;
4. a A motor vehicle regularly engaged in the
interstate transportation of persons or property for which
a currently effective certificate of title has been issued
in another State;
5. a A vehicle moved solely by animal power;
6. an An implement of husbandry;
7. special Special mobile equipment;
8. an An apportionable trailer or an apportionable
semitrailer registered in the State prior to April 1,
1998; .
9. a A manufactured home for which an affidavit of
affixation has been recorded pursuant to the Conveyance and
Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real Property and
Severance Act unless with respect to the same manufactured
home there has been recorded an affidavit of severance
pursuant to that Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/3-109) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-109)
Sec. 3-109. Registration without certificate of title;
bond. If the Secretary of State is not satisfied as to the
ownership of the vehicle, including, but not limited to, in the
case of a manufactured home, a circumstance in which the
manufactured home is covered by a Manufacturer's Statement of
Origin that the owner of the manufactured home, after diligent
search and inquiry, is unable to produce, or that there are no
undisclosed security interests in it, the Secretary of State
may register the vehicle but shall:
(a) Withhold issuance of a certificate of title until
the applicant presents documents reasonably sufficient to
satisfy the Secretary of State as to the applicant's
ownership of the vehicle and that there are no undisclosed
security interests in it;
(b) As a condition of issuing a certificate of title,
require the applicant to file with the Secretary of State a
bond in the form prescribed by the Secretary of State and
executed by the applicant, and either accompanied by the
deposit of cash with the Secretary of State or also
executed by a person authorized to conduct a surety
business in this State. The bond shall be in an amount
equal to one and one-half times the value of the vehicle as
determined by the Secretary of State and conditioned to
indemnify any prior owner and lienholder and any subsequent
purchaser of the vehicle or person acquiring any security
interest in it, and their respective successors in
interest, against any expense, loss or damage, including
reasonable attorney's fees, by reason of the issuance of
the certificate of title of the vehicle or on account of
any defect in or undisclosed security interest upon the
right, title and interest of the applicant in and to the
vehicle. Any such interested person has a right of action
to recover on the bond for any breach of its conditions,
but the aggregate liability of the surety to all persons
shall not exceed the amount of the bond. The bond, and any
deposit accompanying it, shall be returned at the end of 3
three (3) years or prior thereto if (i) the vehicle is no
longer registered in this State and the currently valid
certificate of title is surrendered to the Secretary of
State or (ii), in the case of a certificate of title to a
manufactured home, the currently valid certificate of
title is surrendered to the Secretary of State in
accordance with Section 3-116.2; , unless the Secretary of
State has been notified of the pendency of an action to
recover on the bond; or
(b-5) Require the applicant to file with the Secretary
of State an application for a provisional title in the form
prescribed by the Secretary and executed by the applicant,
and accompanied by a $50 fee to be deposited in the
CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund. The Secretary shall
designate by rule the documentation acceptable for an
individual to apply for a provisional title. A provisional
title shall be valid for 3 years and is nontransferable for
the 3-year period. A provisional title shall be clearly
marked and otherwise distinguished from a certificate of
title. Three years after the issuance of a provisional
title, the provisional title holder shall apply for the
appropriate transferrable title in the applicant's name.
If a claim of ownership for the vehicle is brought against
a holder of a provisional title, then the provisional title
holder shall apply for a bond under subsection (b) of this
Section for the amount of time remaining on the provisional
title. A provisional title holder or an individual who
asserts a claim to the motor vehicle may petition a circuit
court of competent jurisdiction for an order to determine
the ownership of the vehicle. A provisional title shall not
be available to individuals or entities that rebuild,
repair, store, or tow vehicles or have a claim against the
vehicle under the Labor and Storage Lien Act or the Labor
and Storage Lien (Small Amount) Act.
Security deposited as a bond hereunder shall be placed
by the Secretary of State in the custody of the State
Treasurer.
(c) During July, annually, the Secretary shall compile a
list of all bonds on deposit, pursuant to this Section, for
more than 3 years and concerning which he has received no
notice as to the pendency of any judicial proceeding that could
affect the disposition thereof. Thereupon, he shall promptly
send a notice by certified mail to the last known address of
each depositor advising him that his bond will be subject to
escheat to the State of Illinois if not claimed within 30 days
after the mailing date of such notice. At the expiration of
such time, the Secretary of State shall file with the State
Treasurer an order directing the transfer of such deposit to
the Road Fund in the State Treasury. Upon receipt of such
order, the State Treasurer shall make such transfer, after
converting to cash any other type of security. Thereafter any
person having a legal claim against such deposit may enforce it
by appropriate proceedings in the Court of Claims subject to
the limitations prescribed for such Court. At the expiration of
such limitation period such deposit shall escheat to the State
of Illinois.
(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-777, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 10-2-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/3-400) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-400)
Sec. 3-400. Definitions. Notwithstanding the definitions
definition set forth in Chapter 1 of this Act, for the purposes
of this Article, the following words shall have the meaning
ascribed to them as follows:
"Apportionable Fee" means any periodic recurring fee
required for licensing or registering vehicles, such as, but
not limited to, registration fees, license or weight fees.
"Apportionable Vehicle" means any vehicle, except
recreational vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates,
city pickup and delivery vehicles, buses used in transportation
of chartered parties, and government owned vehicles that are
used or intended for use in 2 or more member jurisdictions that
allocate or proportionally register vehicles, in a fleet which
is used for the transportation of persons for hire or the
transportation of property and which has a gross vehicle weight
in excess of 26,000 pounds; or has three or more axles
regardless of weight; or is used in combination when the weight
of such combination exceeds 26,000 pounds gross vehicle weight.
Vehicles, or combinations having a gross vehicle weight of
26,000 pounds or less and two-axle vehicles may be
proportionally registered at the option of such owner.
"Base Jurisdiction" means, for purposes of fleet
registration, the jurisdiction where the registrant has an
established place of business, where operational records of the
fleet are maintained and where mileage is accrued by the fleet.
In case a registrant operates more than one fleet, and
maintains records for each fleet in different places, the "base
jurisdiction" for a fleet shall be the jurisdiction where an
established place of business is maintained, where records of
the operation of that fleet are maintained and where mileage is
accrued by that fleet.
"Operational Records" means documents supporting miles
traveled in each jurisdiction and total miles traveled, such as
fuel reports, trip leases, and logs.
"Owner" means a Owner. A person who holds legal title of a
motor vehicle, or in the event a motor vehicle is the subject
of an agreement for the conditional sale or lease thereof with
the right of purchase upon performance of the conditions stated
in the agreement and with an immediate right of possession
vested in the conditional vendee or lessee with right of
purchase, or in the event a mortgagor of such motor vehicle is
entitled to possession, or in the event a lessee of such motor
vehicle is entitled to possession or control, then such
conditional vendee or lessee with right of purchase or
mortgagor or lessee is considered to be the owner for the
purpose of this Act.
"Registration plate cover" means any tinted, colored,
painted, marked, clear, or illuminated object that is designed
to (i) cover any of the characters of a motor vehicle's
registration plate; or (ii) distort a recorded image of any of
the characters of a motor vehicle's registration plate recorded
by an automated enforcement system as defined in Section
11-208.6, 11-208.8, or 11-1201.1 of this Code or recorded by an
automated traffic control system as defined in Section 15 of
the Automated Traffic Control Systems in Highway Construction
or Maintenance Zones Act.
"Rental Owner" means an owner principally engaged, with
respect to one or more rental fleets, in renting to others or
offering for rental the vehicles of such fleets, without
drivers.
"Restricted Plates" shall include, but is are not limited
to, dealer, manufacturer, transporter, farm, repossessor, and
permanently mounted type plates. Vehicles displaying any of
these type plates from a foreign jurisdiction that is a member
of the International Registration Plan shall be granted
reciprocity but shall be subject to the same limitations as
similar plated Illinois registered vehicles.
(Source: P.A. 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13;
revised 2-7-15.)
(625 ILCS 5/3-413) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-413)
Sec. 3-413. Display of registration plates, registration
stickers, and drive-away permits; registration plate covers.
(a) Registration plates issued for a motor vehicle other
than a motorcycle, autocycle, trailer, semitrailer,
truck-tractor, apportioned bus, or apportioned truck shall be
attached thereto, one in the front and one in the rear. The
registration plate issued for a motorcycle, autocycle, trailer
or semitrailer required to be registered hereunder and any
apportionment plate issued to a bus under the provisions of
this Code shall be attached to the rear thereof. The
registration plate issued for a truck-tractor or an apportioned
truck required to be registered hereunder shall be attached to
the front thereof.
(b) Every registration plate shall at all times be securely
fastened in a horizontal position to the vehicle for which it
is issued so as to prevent the plate from swinging and at a
height of not less than 5 inches from the ground, measuring
from the bottom of such plate, in a place and position to be
clearly visible and shall be maintained in a condition to be
clearly legible, free from any materials that would obstruct
the visibility of the plate. A registration plate on a
motorcycle may be mounted vertically as long as it is otherwise
clearly visible. Registration stickers issued as evidence of
renewed annual registration shall be attached to registration
plates as required by the Secretary of State, and be clearly
visible at all times.
(c) Every drive-away permit issued pursuant to this Code
shall be firmly attached to the motor vehicle in the manner
prescribed by the Secretary of State. If a drive-away permit is
affixed to a motor vehicle in any other manner the permit shall
be void and of no effect.
(d) The Illinois prorate decal issued to a foreign
registered vehicle part of a fleet prorated or apportioned with
Illinois, shall be displayed on a registration plate and
displayed on the front of such vehicle in the same manner as an
Illinois registration plate.
(e) The registration plate issued for a camper body mounted
on a truck displaying registration plates shall be attached to
the rear of the camper body.
(f) No person shall operate a vehicle, nor permit the
operation of a vehicle, upon which is displayed an Illinois
registration plate, plates or registration stickers, except as
provided for in subsection (b) of Section 3-701 of this Code,
after the termination of the registration period for which
issued or after the expiration date set pursuant to Sections
3-414 and 3-414.1 of this Code.
(g) A person may not operate any motor vehicle that is
equipped with registration plate covers. A violation of this
subsection (g) or a similar provision of a local ordinance is
an offense against laws and ordinances regulating the movement
of traffic.
(h) A person may not sell or offer for sale a registration
plate cover. A violation of this subsection (h) is a business
offense.
(i) A person may not advertise for the purpose of promoting
the sale of registration plate covers. A violation of this
subsection (i) is a business offense.
(j) A person may not modify the original manufacturer's
mounting location of the rear registration plate on any vehicle
so as to conceal the registration or to knowingly cause it to
be obstructed in an effort to hinder a peace officer from
obtaining the registration for the enforcement of a violation
of this Code, Section 27.1 of the Toll Highway Act concerning
toll evasion, or any municipal ordinance. Modifications
prohibited by this subsection (j) include but are not limited
to the use of an electronic device. A violation of this
subsection (j) is a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 98-777, eff. 1-1-15;
98-1103, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/3-701) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-701)
Sec. 3-701. Operation of vehicles without evidence of
registration - Operation under mileage plates when odometer
broken or disconnected.
(a) No person shall operate, nor shall an owner knowingly
permit to be operated, except as provided in subsection (b) of
this Section, a vehicle upon any highway unless there shall be
attached thereto and displayed thereon when and as required by
law, proper evidence of registration in Illinois, as follows:
(1) A vehicle required to be registered in Illinois. A
current and valid Illinois registration sticker or
stickers and plate or plates, or an Illinois temporary
registration permit, or a drive-away or in-transit permit,
issued therefor by the Secretary of State. ; or
(2) A vehicle eligible for Reciprocity. A current and
valid reciprocal foreign registration plate or plates
properly issued to such vehicle or a temporary registration
issued therefor, by the reciprocal State, and, in addition,
when required by the Secretary, a current and valid
Illinois Reciprocity Permit or Prorate Decal issued
therefor by the Secretary of State; or except as otherwise
expressly provided for in this Chapter.
(3) A vehicle commuting for repairs in Illinois. A
dealer plate issued by a foreign state shall exempt a
vehicle from the requirements of this Section if the
vehicle is being operated for the purpose of transport to a
repair facility in Illinois to have repairs performed on
the vehicle displaying foreign dealer plates. The driver of
the motor vehicle bearing dealer plates shall provide a
work order or contract with the repair facility to a law
enforcement officer upon request.
(b) A person may operate or permit operation of a vehicle
upon any highway a vehicle that has been properly registered
but does not display a current and valid Illinois registration
sticker if he or she has proof, in the form of a printed
receipt from the Secretary, that he or she registered the
vehicle before the previous registration's expiration but has
not received a new registration sticker from the Secretary.
This printed proof of registration is valid for 30 days from
the expiration of the previous registration sticker's date.
(c) No person shall operate, nor shall any owner knowingly
permit to be operated, any vehicle of the second division for
which the owner has made an election to pay the mileage tax in
lieu of the annual flat weight tax, at any time when the
odometer of such vehicle is broken or disconnected, or is
inoperable or not operating.
(Source: P.A. 98-971, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1103, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 10-3-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/5-101) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-101)
Sec. 5-101. New vehicle dealers must be licensed.
(a) No person shall engage in this State in the business of
selling or dealing in, on consignment or otherwise, new
vehicles of any make, or act as an intermediary or agent or
broker for any licensed dealer or vehicle purchaser other than
as a salesperson, or represent or advertise that he is so
engaged or intends to so engage in such business unless
licensed to do so in writing by the Secretary of State under
the provisions of this Section.
(b) An application for a new vehicle dealer's license shall
be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by oath, on
such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or regulation
prescribe and shall contain:
1. The name and type of business organization of the
applicant and his established and additional places of
business, if any, in this State.
2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its
officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent
or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting
forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a
sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated
association, a trust, or any similar form of business
organization, the name and residence address of the
proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director,
trustee, or manager.
3. The make or makes of new vehicles which the
applicant will offer for sale at retail in this State.
4. The name of each manufacturer or franchised
distributor, if any, of new vehicles with whom the
applicant has contracted for the sale of such new vehicles.
As evidence of this fact, the application shall be
accompanied by a signed statement from each such
manufacturer or franchised distributor. If the applicant
is in the business of offering for sale new conversion
vehicles, trucks or vans, except for trucks modified to
serve a special purpose which includes but is not limited
to the following vehicles: street sweepers, fertilizer
spreaders, emergency vehicles, implements of husbandry or
maintenance type vehicles, he must furnish evidence of a
sales and service agreement from both the chassis
manufacturer and second stage manufacturer.
5. A statement that the applicant has been approved for
registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the
Department of Revenue: Provided that this requirement does
not apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder
with the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for
a renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the
application shall be accompanied by a certification from
the Department of Revenue showing that that Department has
approved the applicant for registration under the
Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.
6. A statement that the applicant has complied with the
appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate
of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business
in the State of Illinois shall be included with each
application covering each location at which he proposes to
act as a new vehicle dealer. The policy must provide
liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for
bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for
bodily injury to, or death of, two or more persons in any
one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such
policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year
for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration
of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability
under the policy arising during the period for which the
policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are
exempt from this requirement.
If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy
that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of
at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any
person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2
or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage
to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the
primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the
secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a
liability insurance policy that provides automobile
liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for
bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for
bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in
any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, or
does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's
insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted
user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.
When a permitted user is "test driving" a new vehicle
dealer's automobile, the new vehicle dealer's insurance
shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall
be secondary.
As used in this paragraph 6, a "permitted user" is a
person who, with the permission of the new vehicle dealer
or an employee of the new vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle
owned and held for sale or lease by the new vehicle dealer
which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in
order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or
condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also
includes a person who, with the permission of the new
vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or
lease by the new vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while
the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.
As used in this paragraph 6, "test driving" occurs when
a permitted user who, with the permission of the new
vehicle dealer or an employee of the new vehicle dealer,
drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a new
vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase
or lease, in order to evaluate the performance,
reliability, or condition of the vehicle.
As used in this paragraph 6, "loaner purposes" means
when a person who, with the permission of the new vehicle
dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by
the new vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being
repaired or evaluated.
7. (A) An application for a new motor vehicle dealer's
license shall be accompanied by the following license fees:
(i) $1,000 for applicant's established place of
business, and $100 for each additional place of
business, if any, to which the application pertains;
but if the application is made after June 15 of any
year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's
established place of business plus $50 for each
additional place of business, if any, to which the
application pertains. License fees shall be returnable
only in the event that the application is denied by the
Secretary of State. All moneys received by the
Secretary of State as license fees under this
subparagraph (i) prior to applications for the 2004
licensing year shall be deposited into the Motor
Vehicle Review Board Fund and shall be used to
administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the
Motor Vehicle Franchise Act. Of the money received by
the Secretary of State as license fees under this
subparagraph (i) for the 2004 licensing year and
thereafter, 10% shall be deposited into the Motor
Vehicle Review Board Fund and shall be used to
administer the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the
Motor Vehicle Franchise Act and 90% shall be deposited
into the General Revenue Fund.
(ii) Except for dealers selling 25 or fewer
automobiles or as provided in subsection (h) of Section
5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund
Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's
established place of business, and $50 for each
additional place of business, if any, to which the
application pertains; but if the application is made
after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for
the applicant's established place of business plus $25
for each additional place of business, if any, to which
the application pertains. For a license renewal
application, the fee shall be based on the amount of
automobiles sold in the past year according to the
following formula:
(1) $0 for dealers selling 25 or less
automobiles;
(2) $150 for dealers selling more than 25 but
less than 200 automobiles;
(3) $300 for dealers selling 200 or more
automobiles but less than 300 automobiles; and
(4) $500 for dealers selling 300 or more
automobiles.
License fees shall be returnable only in the event
that the application is denied by the Secretary of
State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (ii)
shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.
(B) An application for a new vehicle dealer's license,
other than for a new motor vehicle dealer's license, shall
be accompanied by the following license fees:
(i) $1,000 for applicant's established place of
business, and $50 for each additional place of
business, if any, to which the application pertains;
but if the application is made after June 15 of any
year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's
established place of business plus $25 for each
additional place of business, if any, to which the
application pertains. License fees shall be returnable
only in the event that the application is denied by the
Secretary of State. Of the money received by the
Secretary of State as license fees under this
subparagraph (i) for the 2004 licensing year and
thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General
Revenue Fund.
(ii) Except as provided in subsection (h) of
Section 5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery
Fund Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's
established place of business, and $50 for each
additional place of business, if any, to which the
application pertains; but if the application is made
after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for
the applicant's established place of business plus $25
for each additional place of business, if any, to which
the application pertains. License fees shall be
returnable only in the event that the application is
denied by the Secretary of State. Moneys received under
this subparagraph (ii) shall be deposited into the
Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.
8. A statement that the applicant's officers,
directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership
interest therein, proprietor, a partner, member, officer,
director, trustee, manager or other principals in the
business have not committed in the past 3 years any one
violation as determined in any civil, criminal or
administrative proceedings of any one of the following
Acts:
(A) The Anti-Theft Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois
Vehicle Code;
(B) The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois
Vehicle Code;
(C) The Offenses against Registration and
Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle
Code;
(D) The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and
Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
(E) Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to
Vehicles; or
(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.
9. A statement that the applicant's officers,
directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership
interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer,
director, trustee, manager or other principals in the
business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more
violations, as determined in any civil, criminal or
administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the
following Acts:
(A) The Consumer Finance Act;
(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;
(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;
(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales
Act;
(E) The Interest Act;
(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;
(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil
Procedure; or
(H) The Consumer Fraud Act.
10. A bond or certificate of deposit in the amount of
$20,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to
act as a new vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the term
of the license, or its renewal, for which application is
made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the
year for which the license was issued or renewed. The bond
shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with
surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do
business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the
proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and
taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax
Act) accepted by the applicant as a new vehicle dealer.
11. Such other information concerning the business of
the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or
regulation prescribe.
12. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter
1 One through Chapter 5 Five of this Code.
(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any
information contained in any application for a new vehicle
dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the
occurrence of such change on such form as the Secretary of
State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an
amendatory fee of $2.
(d) Anything in this Chapter 5 to the contrary
notwithstanding no person shall be licensed as a new vehicle
dealer unless:
1. He is authorized by contract in writing between
himself and the manufacturer or franchised distributor of
such make of vehicle to so sell the same in this State, and
2. Such person shall maintain an established place of
business as defined in this Act.
(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time
after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under
this Section and unless he makes a determination that the
application submitted to him does not conform with the
requirements of this Section or that grounds exist for a denial
of the application, under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, grant
the applicant an original new vehicle dealer's license in
writing for his established place of business and a
supplemental license in writing for each additional place of
business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation
which shall include the following:
1. The name of the person licensed;
2. If a corporation, the name and address of its
officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an
unincorporated association or any similar form of business
organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of
each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or
manager;
3. In the case of an original license, the established
place of business of the licensee;
4. In the case of a supplemental license, the
established place of business of the licensee and the
additional place of business to which such supplemental
license pertains;
5. The make or makes of new vehicles which the licensee
is licensed to sell.
(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a
certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State,
shall be kept posted conspicuously in the established place of
business of the licensee and in each additional place of
business, if any, maintained by such licensee.
(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) hereof, all new
vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section shall
expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year
for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled
under the provisions of Section 5-501 of this Chapter.
(h) A new vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon
application and payment of the fee required herein, and
submission of proof of coverage under an approved bond under
the "Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" or proof that applicant is
not subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an
original license, but in case an application for the renewal of
an effective license is made during the month of December, the
effective license shall remain in force until the application
is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.
(i) All persons licensed as a new vehicle dealer are
required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:
1. In the case of a new vehicle a manufacturer's
statement of origin and in the case of a used motor vehicle
a certificate of title, in either case properly assigned to
the purchaser;
2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying
numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate
of title or manufacturer's statement of origin;
3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such
person;
4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting
return referred to in Section 5-402 hereof;
5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the
Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and
6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has
been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.
(j) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the
vehicle, no person licensed as a new vehicle dealer may issue
any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the
new vehicle dealer makes a copy of the driver's license or
State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining
the newly created key. The new vehicle dealer must retain the
copy for 30 days.
A new vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (j) is
guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (j) is
not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the
new vehicle dealer's license.
This amendatory Act of 1983 shall be applicable to the 1984
registration year and thereafter.
(Source: P.A. 97-480, eff. 10-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
98-450, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/5-102) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-102)
Sec. 5-102. Used vehicle dealers must be licensed.
(a) No person, other than a licensed new vehicle dealer,
shall engage in the business of selling or dealing in, on
consignment or otherwise, 5 or more used vehicles of any make
during the year (except house trailers as authorized by
paragraph (j) of this Section and rebuilt salvage vehicles sold
by their rebuilders to persons licensed under this Chapter), or
act as an intermediary, agent or broker for any licensed dealer
or vehicle purchaser (other than as a salesperson) or represent
or advertise that he is so engaged or intends to so engage in
such business unless licensed to do so by the Secretary of
State under the provisions of this Section.
(b) An application for a used vehicle dealer's license
shall be filed with the Secretary of State, duly verified by
oath, in such form as the Secretary of State may by rule or
regulation prescribe and shall contain:
1. The name and type of business organization
established and additional places of business, if any, in
this State.
2. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its
officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent
or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting
forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a
sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated
association, a trust, or any similar form of business
organization, the names and residence address of the
proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director,
trustee or manager.
3. A statement that the applicant has been approved for
registration under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act by the
Department of Revenue. However, this requirement does not
apply to a dealer who is already licensed hereunder with
the Secretary of State, and who is merely applying for a
renewal of his license. As evidence of this fact, the
application shall be accompanied by a certification from
the Department of Revenue showing that the Department has
approved the applicant for registration under the
Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.
4. A statement that the applicant has complied with the
appropriate liability insurance requirement. A Certificate
of Insurance in a solvent company authorized to do business
in the State of Illinois shall be included with each
application covering each location at which he proposes to
act as a used vehicle dealer. The policy must provide
liability coverage in the minimum amounts of $100,000 for
bodily injury to, or death of, any person, $300,000 for
bodily injury to, or death of, two or more persons in any
one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property. Such
policy shall expire not sooner than December 31 of the year
for which the license was issued or renewed. The expiration
of the insurance policy shall not terminate the liability
under the policy arising during the period for which the
policy was filed. Trailer and mobile home dealers are
exempt from this requirement.
If the permitted user has a liability insurance policy
that provides automobile liability insurance coverage of
at least $100,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any
person, $300,000 for bodily injury to or the death of any 2
or more persons in any one accident, and $50,000 for damage
to property, then the permitted user's insurer shall be the
primary insurer and the dealer's insurer shall be the
secondary insurer. If the permitted user does not have a
liability insurance policy that provides automobile
liability insurance coverage of at least $100,000 for
bodily injury to or the death of any person, $300,000 for
bodily injury to or the death of any 2 or more persons in
any one accident, and $50,000 for damage to property, or
does not have any insurance at all, then the dealer's
insurer shall be the primary insurer and the permitted
user's insurer shall be the secondary insurer.
When a permitted user is "test driving" a used vehicle
dealer's automobile, the used vehicle dealer's insurance
shall be primary and the permitted user's insurance shall
be secondary.
As used in this paragraph 4, a "permitted user" is a
person who, with the permission of the used vehicle dealer
or an employee of the used vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle
owned and held for sale or lease by the used vehicle dealer
which the person is considering to purchase or lease, in
order to evaluate the performance, reliability, or
condition of the vehicle. The term "permitted user" also
includes a person who, with the permission of the used
vehicle dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or
lease by the used vehicle dealer for loaner purposes while
the user's vehicle is being repaired or evaluated.
As used in this paragraph 4, "test driving" occurs when
a permitted user who, with the permission of the used
vehicle dealer or an employee of the used vehicle dealer,
drives a vehicle owned and held for sale or lease by a used
vehicle dealer that the person is considering to purchase
or lease, in order to evaluate the performance,
reliability, or condition of the vehicle.
As used in this paragraph 4, "loaner purposes" means
when a person who, with the permission of the used vehicle
dealer, drives a vehicle owned or held for sale or lease by
the used vehicle dealer while the user's vehicle is being
repaired or evaluated.
5. An application for a used vehicle dealer's license
shall be accompanied by the following license fees:
(A) $1,000 for applicant's established place of
business, and $50 for each additional place of
business, if any, to which the application pertains;
however, if the application is made after June 15 of
any year, the license fee shall be $500 for applicant's
established place of business plus $25 for each
additional place of business, if any, to which the
application pertains. License fees shall be returnable
only in the event that the application is denied by the
Secretary of State. Of the money received by the
Secretary of State as license fees under this
subparagraph (A) for the 2004 licensing year and
thereafter, 95% shall be deposited into the General
Revenue Fund.
(B) Except for dealers selling 25 or fewer
automobiles or as provided in subsection (h) of Section
5-102.7 of this Code, an Annual Dealer Recovery Fund
Fee in the amount of $500 for the applicant's
established place of business, and $50 for each
additional place of business, if any, to which the
application pertains; but if the application is made
after June 15 of any year, the fee shall be $250 for
the applicant's established place of business plus $25
for each additional place of business, if any, to which
the application pertains. For a license renewal
application, the fee shall be based on the amount of
automobiles sold in the past year according to the
following formula:
(1) $0 for dealers selling 25 or less
automobiles;
(2) $150 for dealers selling more than 25 but
less than 200 automobiles;
(3) $300 for dealers selling 200 or more
automobiles but less than 300 automobiles; and
(4) $500 for dealers selling 300 or more
automobiles.
License fees shall be returnable only in the event
that the application is denied by the Secretary of
State. Moneys received under this subparagraph (B)
shall be deposited into the Dealer Recovery Trust Fund.
6. A statement that the applicant's officers,
directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership
interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer,
director, trustee, manager or other principals in the
business have not committed in the past 3 years any one
violation as determined in any civil, criminal or
administrative proceedings of any one of the following
Acts:
(A) The Anti-Theft Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois
Vehicle Code;
(B) The Certificate of Title Laws of the Illinois
Vehicle Code;
(C) The Offenses against Registration and
Certificates of Title Laws of the Illinois Vehicle
Code;
(D) The Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and
Rebuilders Laws of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
(E) Section 21-2 of the Illinois Criminal Code of
1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to
Vehicles; or
(F) The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.
7. A statement that the applicant's officers,
directors, shareholders having a 10% or greater ownership
interest therein, proprietor, partner, member, officer,
director, trustee, manager or other principals in the
business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or more
violations, as determined in any civil or criminal or
administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the
following Acts:
(A) The Consumer Finance Act;
(B) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;
(C) The Retail Installment Sales Act;
(D) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales
Act;
(E) The Interest Act;
(F) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;
(G) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil
Procedure; or
(H) The Consumer Fraud Act.
8. A bond or Certificate of Deposit in the amount of
$20,000 for each location at which the applicant intends to
act as a used vehicle dealer. The bond shall be for the
term of the license, or its renewal, for which application
is made, and shall expire not sooner than December 31 of
the year for which the license was issued or renewed. The
bond shall run to the People of the State of Illinois, with
surety by a bonding or insurance company authorized to do
business in this State. It shall be conditioned upon the
proper transmittal of all title and registration fees and
taxes (excluding taxes under the Retailers' Occupation Tax
Act) accepted by the applicant as a used vehicle dealer.
9. Such other information concerning the business of
the applicant as the Secretary of State may by rule or
regulation prescribe.
10. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter
1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.
11. A copy of the certification from the prelicensing
education program.
(c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any
information contained in any application for a used vehicle
dealer's license shall be amended within 30 days after the
occurrence of each change on such form as the Secretary of
State may prescribe by rule or regulation, accompanied by an
amendatory fee of $2.
(d) Anything in this Chapter to the contrary
notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed as a used vehicle
dealer unless such person maintains an established place of
business as defined in this Chapter.
(e) The Secretary of State shall, within a reasonable time
after receipt, examine an application submitted to him under
this Section. Unless the Secretary makes a determination that
the application submitted to him does not conform to this
Section or that grounds exist for a denial of the application
under Section 5-501 of this Chapter, he must grant the
applicant an original used vehicle dealer's license in writing
for his established place of business and a supplemental
license in writing for each additional place of business in
such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation which shall
include the following:
1. The name of the person licensed;
2. If a corporation, the name and address of its
officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an
unincorporated association or any similar form of business
organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of
each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or
manager;
3. In case of an original license, the established
place of business of the licensee;
4. In the case of a supplemental license, the
established place of business of the licensee and the
additional place of business to which such supplemental
license pertains.
(f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a
certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State
shall be kept posted, conspicuously, in the established place
of business of the licensee and in each additional place of
business, if any, maintained by such licensee.
(g) Except as provided in subsection (h) of this Section,
all used vehicle dealer's licenses granted under this Section
expire by operation of law on December 31 of the calendar year
for which they are granted unless sooner revoked or cancelled
under Section 5-501 of this Chapter.
(h) A used vehicle dealer's license may be renewed upon
application and payment of the fee required herein, and
submission of proof of coverage by an approved bond under the
"Retailers' Occupation Tax Act" or proof that applicant is not
subject to such bonding requirements, as in the case of an
original license, but in case an application for the renewal of
an effective license is made during the month of December, the
effective license shall remain in force until the application
for renewal is granted or denied by the Secretary of State.
(i) All persons licensed as a used vehicle dealer are
required to furnish each purchaser of a motor vehicle:
1. A certificate of title properly assigned to the
purchaser;
2. A statement verified under oath that all identifying
numbers on the vehicle agree with those on the certificate
of title;
3. A bill of sale properly executed on behalf of such
person;
4. A copy of the Uniform Invoice-transaction reporting
return referred to in Section 5-402 of this Chapter;
5. In the case of a rebuilt vehicle, a copy of the
Disclosure of Rebuilt Vehicle Status; and
6. In the case of a vehicle for which the warranty has
been reinstated, a copy of the warranty.
(j) A real estate broker holding a valid certificate of
registration issued pursuant to "The Real Estate Brokers and
Salesmen License Act" may engage in the business of selling or
dealing in house trailers not his own without being licensed as
a used vehicle dealer under this Section; however such broker
shall maintain a record of the transaction including the
following:
(1) the name and address of the buyer and seller,
(2) the date of sale,
(3) a description of the mobile home, including the
vehicle identification number, make, model, and year, and
(4) the Illinois certificate of title number.
The foregoing records shall be available for inspection by
any officer of the Secretary of State's Office at any
reasonable hour.
(k) Except at the time of sale or repossession of the
vehicle, no person licensed as a used vehicle dealer may issue
any other person a newly created key to a vehicle unless the
used vehicle dealer makes a copy of the driver's license or
State identification card of the person requesting or obtaining
the newly created key. The used vehicle dealer must retain the
copy for 30 days.
A used vehicle dealer who violates this subsection (k) is
guilty of a petty offense. Violation of this subsection (k) is
not cause to suspend, revoke, cancel, or deny renewal of the
used vehicle dealer's license.
(l) Used vehicle dealers licensed under this Section shall
provide the Secretary of State a register for the sale at
auction of each salvage or junk certificate vehicle. Each
register shall include the following information:
1. The year, make, model, style and color of the
vehicle;
2. The vehicle's manufacturer's identification number
or, if applicable, the Secretary of State or Illinois
Department of State Police identification number;
3. The date of acquisition of the vehicle;
4. The name and address of the person from whom the
vehicle was acquired;
5. The name and address of the person to whom any
vehicle was disposed, the person's Illinois license number
or if the person is an out-of-state salvage vehicle buyer,
the license number from the state or jurisdiction where the
buyer is licensed; and
6. The purchase price of the vehicle.
The register shall be submitted to the Secretary of State
via written or electronic means within 10 calendar days from
the date of the auction.
(Source: P.A. 97-480, eff. 10-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
98-450, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/6-113) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-113)
Sec. 6-113. Restricted licenses and permits.
(a) The Secretary of State upon issuing a drivers license
or permit shall have the authority whenever good cause appears
to impose restrictions suitable to the licensee's driving
ability with respect to the type of, or special mechanical
control devices required on, a motor vehicle which the licensee
may operate or such other restrictions applicable to the
licensee as the Secretary of State may determine to be
appropriate to assure the safe operation of a motor vehicle by
the licensee.
(b) The Secretary of State may either issue a special
restricted license or permit or may set forth such restrictions
upon the usual license or permit form.
(c) The Secretary of State may issue a probationary license
to a person whose driving privileges have been suspended
pursuant to subsection (d) of this Section or subsection (a)(2)
of Section 6-206 of this Code. This subsection (c) does not
apply to any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose
of operating a commercial motor vehicle. The Secretary of State
shall promulgate rules pursuant to the Illinois Administrative
Procedure Act, setting forth the conditions and criteria for
the issuance and cancellation of probationary licenses.
(d) The Secretary of State may upon receiving satisfactory
evidence of any violation of the restrictions of such license
or permit suspend, revoke or cancel the same without
preliminary hearing, but the licensee or permittee shall be
entitled to a hearing as in the case of a suspension or
revocation.
(e) It is unlawful for any person to operate a motor
vehicle in any manner in violation of the restrictions imposed
on a restricted license or permit issued to him.
(f) Whenever the holder of a restricted driving permit is
issued a citation for any of the following offenses including
similar local ordinances, the restricted driving permit is
immediately invalidated:
1. Reckless homicide resulting from the operation of a
motor vehicle;
2. Violation of Section 11-501 of this Act relating to
the operation of a motor vehicle while under the influence
of intoxicating liquor or narcotic drugs;
3. Violation of Section 11-401 of this Act relating to
the offense of leaving the scene of a traffic accident
involving death or injury;
4. Violation of Section 11-504 of this Act relating to
the offense of drag racing; or
5. Violation of Section 11-506 of this Act relating to
the offense of street racing.
The police officer issuing the citation shall confiscate
the restricted driving permit and forward it, along with the
citation, to the Clerk of the Circuit Court of the county in
which the citation was issued.
(g) The Secretary of State may issue a special restricted
license for a period of 48 months to individuals using vision
aid arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or contact
lenses, allowing the operation of a motor vehicle during
nighttime hours. The Secretary of State shall adopt rules
defining the terms and conditions by which the individual may
obtain and renew this special restricted license. At a minimum,
all drivers must meet the following requirements:
1. Possess a valid driver's license and have operated a
motor vehicle during daylight hours for a period of 12
months using vision aid arrangements other than standard
eyeglasses or contact lenses.
2. Have a driving record that does not include any
traffic accidents that occurred during nighttime hours,
for which the driver has been found to be at fault, during
the 12 months before he or she applied for the special
restricted license.
3. Successfully complete a road test administered
during nighttime hours.
The special restricted license holder must submit to the
Secretary annually a vision specialist report from his or her
ophthalmologist or optometrist that the special restricted
license holder's vision has not changed. If the special
restricted license holder fails to submit this vision
specialist report, the special restricted license shall be
cancelled under Section 6-201 of this Code.
At a minimum, all drivers renewing this license must meet
the following requirements:
1. Successfully complete a road test administered
during nighttime hours.
2. Have a driving record that does not include any
traffic accidents that occurred during nighttime hours,
for which the driver has been found to be at fault, during
the 12 months before he or she applied for the special
restricted license.
(h) Any driver issued a special restricted license as
defined in subsection (g) whose privilege to drive during
nighttime hours has been suspended due to an accident occurring
during nighttime hours may request a hearing as provided in
Section 2-118 of this Code to contest that suspension. If it is
determined that the accident for which the driver was at fault
was not influenced by the driver's use of vision aid
arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or contact lenses,
the Secretary may reinstate that driver's privilege to drive
during nighttime hours.
(i) The Secretary of State may issue a special restricted
training permit for a period of 6 months to individuals using
vision aid arrangements other than standard eyeglasses or
contact lenses, allowing the operation of a motor vehicle
between sunset and 10:00 p.m. provided the driver is
accompanied by a person holding a valid driver's license
without nighttime operation restrictions. The Secretary may
adopt rules defining the terms and conditions by which the
individual may obtain and renew this special restricted
training permit. At a minimum, all persons applying for a
special restricted training permit must meet the following
requirements:
1. Possess a valid driver's license and have operated a
motor vehicle during daylight hours for a period of 6
months using vision aid arrangements other than standard
eyeglasses or contact lenses.
2. Have a driving record that does not include any
traffic accidents, for which the person has been found to
be at fault, during the 6 months before he or she applied
for the special restricted training permit.
(Source: P.A. 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 98-746, eff. 1-1-15;
98-747, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/7-311) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 7-311)
Sec. 7-311. Payments sufficient to satisfy requirements.
(a) Judgments herein referred to arising out of motor
vehicle accidents occurring on or after January 1, 2015 (the
effective date of Public 98-519) this amendatory Act of the
98th General Assembly, shall for the purpose of this Chapter be
deemed satisfied:
1. When $25,000 has been credited upon any judgment or
judgments rendered in excess of that amount for bodily
injury to or the death of one person as the result of any
one motor vehicle accident; or
2. When, subject to said limit of $25,000 as to any one
person, the sum of $50,000 has been credited upon any
judgment or judgments rendered in excess of that amount for
bodily injury to or the death of more than one person as
the result of any one motor vehicle accident; or
3. When $20,000 has been credited upon any judgment or
judgments, rendered in excess of that amount for damages to
property of others as a result of any one motor vehicle
accident.
The changes to this subsection made by Public Act 98-519
this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply only to
policies issued or renewed on or after January 1, 2015.
(b) Credit for such amounts shall be deemed a satisfaction
of any such judgment or judgments in excess of said amounts
only for the purposes of this Chapter.
(c) Whenever payment has been made in settlement of any
claim for bodily injury, death or property damage arising from
a motor vehicle accident resulting in injury, death or property
damage to two or more persons in such accident, any such
payment shall be credited in reduction of the amounts provided
for in this Section.
(Source: P.A. 98-519, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/Ch. 11 Art. V heading)
ARTICLE V. DRIVING WHILE UNDER THE INFLUENCE INTOXICATED ,
TRANSPORTING ALCOHOLIC LIQUOR,
AND RECKLESS DRIVING
(625 ILCS 5/11-601) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-601)
Sec. 11-601. General speed restrictions.
(a) No vehicle may be driven upon any highway of this State
at a speed which is greater than is reasonable and proper with
regard to traffic conditions and the use of the highway, or
endangers the safety of any person or property. The fact that
the speed of a vehicle does not exceed the applicable maximum
speed limit does not relieve the driver from the duty to
decrease speed when approaching and crossing an intersection,
approaching and going around a curve, when approaching a hill
crest, when traveling upon any narrow or winding roadway, or
when special hazard exists with respect to pedestrians or other
traffic or by reason of weather or highway conditions. Speed
must be decreased as may be necessary to avoid colliding with
any person or vehicle on or entering the highway in compliance
with legal requirements and the duty of all persons to use due
care.
(a-5) For purposes of this Section, "urban district" does
not include any interstate highway as defined by Section
1-133.1 of this Code which includes all highways under the
jurisdiction of the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority.
(b) No person may drive a vehicle upon any highway of this
State at a speed which is greater than the applicable statutory
maximum speed limit established by paragraphs (c), (d), (e),
(f) or (g) of this Section, by Section 11-605 or by a
regulation or ordinance made under this Chapter.
(c) Unless some other speed restriction is established
under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit in an urban
district for all vehicles is:
1. 30 miles per hour; and
2. 15 miles per hour in an alley.
(d) Unless some other speed restriction is established
under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban
district for any vehicle is (1) 65 miles per hour for all or
part of highways that are designated by the Department, have at
least 4 lanes of traffic, and have a separation between the
roadways moving in opposite directions and (2) 55 miles per
hour for all other highways, roads, and streets.
(d-1) Unless some other speed restriction is established
under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban
district for any vehicle is (1) 70 miles per hour on any
interstate highway as defined by Section 1-133.1 of this Code
which includes all highways under the jurisdiction of the
Illinois State Toll Highway Authority; (2) 65 miles per hour
for all or part of highways that are designated by the
Department, have at least 4 lanes of traffic, and have a
separation between the roadways moving in opposite directions;
and (3) 55 miles per hour for all other highways, roads, and
streets. The counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, Madison,
McHenry, St. Clair, and Will may adopt ordinances setting a
maximum speed limit on highways, roads, and streets that is
lower than the limits established by this Section.
(e) In the counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry,
and Will, unless some lesser speed restriction is established
under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban
district for a second division vehicle designed or used for the
carrying of a gross weight of 8,001 pounds or more (including
the weight of the vehicle and maximum load) is 60 miles per
hour on any interstate highway as defined by Section 1-133.1 of
this Code and 55 miles per hour on all other highways, roads,
and streets.
(e-1) (Blank).
(f) Unless some other speed restriction is established
under this Chapter, the maximum speed limit outside an urban
district for a bus is:
1. 65 miles per hour upon any highway which has at
least 4 lanes of traffic and of which the roadways for
traffic moving in opposite directions are separated by a
strip of ground which is not surfaced or suitable for
vehicular traffic, except that the maximum speed limit for
a bus on all highways, roads, or streets not under the
jurisdiction of the Department or the Illinois State Toll
Highway Authority is 55 miles per hour;
1.5. 70 miles per hour upon any interstate highway as
defined by Section 1-133.1 of this Code outside the
counties of Cook, DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will;
and
2. 55 miles per hour on any other highway.
(g) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 97-202, eff. 1-1-12; 98-511, eff. 1-1-14;
98-1126, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1128, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/11-709.2)
Sec. 11-709.2. Bus on shoulder program.
(a) The use of specifically designated shoulders of
roadways by transit buses may be authorized by the Department
in cooperation with the Regional Transportation Authority and
the Suburban Bus Division of the Regional Transportation
Authority. The Department shall prescribe by rule which transit
buses are authorized to operate on shoulders, as well as times
and locations. The Department may erect signage to indicate
times and locations of designated shoulder usage.
(b) (Blank).
(c) (Blank) Transportation.
(Source: P.A. 97-292, eff. 8-11-11; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14;
98-871, eff. 8-11-14; revised 10-1-147.)
(625 ILCS 5/12-215) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-215)
Sec. 12-215. Oscillating, rotating or flashing lights on
motor vehicles. Except as otherwise provided in this Code:
(a) The use of red or white oscillating, rotating or
flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited
except on:
1. Law enforcement vehicles of State, Federal or local
authorities;
2. A vehicle operated by a police officer or county
coroner and designated or authorized by local authorities,
in writing, as a law enforcement vehicle; however, such
designation or authorization must be carried in the
vehicle;
2.1. A vehicle operated by a fire chief who has
completed an emergency vehicle operation training course
approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and
designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing,
as a fire department, fire protection district, or township
fire department vehicle; however, the designation or
authorization must be carried in the vehicle, and the
lights may be visible or activated only when responding to
a bona fide emergency;
3. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or
federal firefighting vehicles;
4. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as
ambulances or rescue vehicles; furthermore, such lights
shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency
call for and while actually conveying the sick or injured;
5. Tow trucks licensed in a state that requires such
lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on
any such tow truck while the tow truck is operating in the
State of Illinois;
6. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management
Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire
Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public
Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of
Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of
Juvenile Justice;
7. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency
management services agency as defined in the Illinois
Emergency Management Agency Act;
8. School buses operating alternately flashing head
lamps as permitted under Section 12-805 of this Code;
9. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as
organ transplant vehicles when used in combination with
blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights;
furthermore, these lights shall be lighted only when the
transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the
transplant team or a representative of the organ
procurement organization;
10. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural
Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives
emergency response; and
11. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of
Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic Patrol; the
lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an
emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged
in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the
emergency; and
12. Vehicles of the Illinois State Toll Highway
Authority identified as Highway Emergency Lane Patrol; the
lights shall not be lighted except when responding to an
emergency call or when parked or stationary while engaged
in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the
emergency.
(b) The use of amber oscillating, rotating or flashing
lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:
1. Second division vehicles designed and used for
towing or hoisting vehicles; furthermore, such lights
shall not be lighted except as required in this paragraph
1; such lights shall be lighted when such vehicles are
actually being used at the scene of an accident or
disablement; if the towing vehicle is equipped with a flat
bed that supports all wheels of the vehicle being
transported, the lights shall not be lighted while the
vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway; if the towing
vehicle is not equipped with a flat bed that supports all
wheels of a vehicle being transported, the lights shall be
lighted while the towing vehicle is engaged in towing on a
highway during all times when the use of headlights is
required under Section 12-201 of this Code; in addition,
these vehicles may use white oscillating, rotating, or
flashing lights in combination with amber oscillating,
rotating, or flashing lights as provided in this paragraph;
2. Motor vehicles or equipment of the State of
Illinois, the Illinois State Toll Highway Authority, local
authorities and contractors; furthermore, such lights
shall not be lighted except while such vehicles are engaged
in maintenance or construction operations within the
limits of construction projects;
3. Vehicles or equipment used by engineering or survey
crews; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except
while such vehicles are actually engaged in work on a
highway;
4. Vehicles of public utilities, municipalities, or
other construction, maintenance or automotive service
vehicles except that such lights shall be lighted only as a
means for indicating the presence of a vehicular traffic
hazard requiring unusual care in approaching, overtaking
or passing while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance,
service or construction on a highway;
5. Oversized vehicle or load; however, such lights
shall only be lighted when moving under permit issued by
the Department under Section 15-301 of this Code;
6. The front and rear of motorized equipment owned and
operated by the State of Illinois or any political
subdivision thereof, which is designed and used for removal
of snow and ice from highways;
6.1. The front and rear of motorized equipment or
vehicles that (i) are not owned by the State of Illinois or
any political subdivision of the State, (ii) are designed
and used for removal of snow and ice from highways and
parking lots, and (iii) are equipped with a snow plow that
is 12 feet in width; these lights may not be lighted except
when the motorized equipment or vehicle is actually being
used for those purposes on behalf of a unit of government;
7. Fleet safety vehicles registered in another state,
furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as
provided for in Section 12-212 of this Code;
8. Such other vehicles as may be authorized by local
authorities;
9. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local
authorities when used in combination with red oscillating,
rotating or flashing lights;
9.5. Propane delivery trucks;
10. Vehicles used for collecting or delivering mail for
the United States Postal Service provided that such lights
shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually
being used for such purposes;
10.5. Vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire
Marshal, provided that such lights shall not be lighted
except for when such vehicles are engaged in work for the
Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal;
11. Any vehicle displaying a slow-moving vehicle
emblem as provided in Section 12-205.1;
12. All trucks equipped with self-compactors or
roll-off hoists and roll-on containers for garbage or
refuse hauling. Such lights shall not be lighted except
when such vehicles are actually being used for such
purposes;
13. Vehicles used by a security company, alarm
responder, control agency, or the Illinois Department of
Corrections;
14. Security vehicles of the Department of Human
Services; however, the lights shall not be lighted except
when being used for security related purposes under the
direction of the superintendent of the facility where the
vehicle is located; and
15. Vehicles of union representatives, except that the
lights shall be lighted only while the vehicle is within
the limits of a construction project.
(c) The use of blue oscillating, rotating or flashing
lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:
1. Rescue squad vehicles not owned by a fire department
and vehicles owned or operated by a:
voluntary firefighter;
paid firefighter;
part-paid firefighter;
call firefighter;
member of the board of trustees of a fire
protection district;
paid or unpaid member of a rescue squad;
paid or unpaid member of a voluntary ambulance
unit; or
paid or unpaid members of a local or county
emergency management services agency as defined in the
Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, designated
or authorized by local authorities, in writing, and
carrying that designation or authorization in the
vehicle.
However, such lights are not to be lighted except when
responding to a bona fide emergency or when parked or
stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance
call, or motor vehicle accident.
Any person using these lights in accordance with this
subdivision (c)1 must carry on his or her person an
identification card or letter identifying the bona fide
member of a fire department, fire protection district,
rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management
services agency that owns or operates that vehicle. The
card or letter must include:
(A) the name of the fire department, fire
protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or
emergency management services agency;
(B) the member's position within the fire
department, fire protection district, rescue squad,
ambulance unit, or emergency management services
agency;
(C) the member's term of service; and
(D) the name of a person within the fire
department, fire protection district, rescue squad,
ambulance unit, or emergency management services
agency to contact to verify the information provided.
2. Police department vehicles in cities having a
population of 500,000 or more inhabitants.
3. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local
authorities when used in combination with red oscillating,
rotating or flashing lights.
4. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or
federal firefighting vehicles when used in combination
with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.
5. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as
ambulances or rescue vehicles when used in combination with
red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights; furthermore,
such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to
an emergency call.
6. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as
organ transport vehicles when used in combination with red
oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore,
these lights shall only be lighted when the transportation
is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team
or a representative of the organ procurement organization.
7. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management
Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire
Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public
Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of
Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of
Juvenile Justice, when used in combination with red
oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.
8. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency
management services agency as defined in the Illinois
Emergency Management Agency Act, when used in combination
with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.
9. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural
Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives
emergency response, when used in combination with red
oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.
(c-1) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or
flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and
notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a
voluntary firefighter, a voluntary member of a rescue squad, or
a member of a voluntary ambulance unit may be equipped with
flashing white headlights and blue grill lights, which may be
used only in responding to an emergency call or when parked or
stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call,
or motor vehicle accident.
(c-2) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or
flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and
notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a paid or
unpaid member of a local or county emergency management
services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management
Agency Act, may be equipped with white oscillating, rotating,
or flashing lights to be used in combination with blue
oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights, if authorization by
local authorities is in writing and carried in the vehicle.
(d) The use of a combination of amber and white
oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or
unlighted, is prohibited except on second division vehicles
designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or motor
vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local
authorities, contractors, and union representatives;
furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on second
division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting
vehicles or vehicles of the State of Illinois, local
authorities, and contractors except while such vehicles are
engaged in a tow operation, highway maintenance, or
construction operations within the limits of highway
construction projects, and shall not be lighted on the vehicles
of union representatives except when those vehicles are within
the limits of a construction project.
(e) All oscillating, rotating or flashing lights referred
to in this Section shall be of sufficient intensity, when
illuminated, to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.
(f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer
of oscillating, rotating or flashing lights or his
representative or authorized vendor from temporarily mounting
such lights on a vehicle for demonstration purposes only. If
the lights are not covered while the vehicle is operated upon a
highway, the vehicle shall display signage indicating that the
vehicle is out of service or not an emergency vehicle. The
signage shall be displayed on all sides of the vehicle in
letters at least 2 inches tall and one-half inch wide. A
vehicle authorized to have oscillating, rotating, or flashing
lights mounted for demonstration purposes may not activate the
lights while the vehicle is operated upon a highway.
(g) Any person violating the provisions of subsections (a),
(b), (c) or (d) of this Section who without lawful authority
stops or detains or attempts to stop or detain another person
shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.
(h) Except as provided in subsection (g) above, any person
violating the provisions of subsections (a) or (c) of this
Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(Source: P.A. 97-39, eff. 1-1-12; 97-149, eff. 7-14-11; 97-813,
eff. 7-13-12; 97-1173, eff. 1-1-14; 98-80, eff. 7-15-13;
98-123, eff. 1-1-14; 98-468, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff.
7-16-14; 98-873, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-6-14.)
(625 ILCS 5/15-111) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-111)
Sec. 15-111. Wheel and axle loads and gross weights.
(a) No vehicle or combination of vehicles with pneumatic
tires may be operated, unladen or with load, when the total
weight on the road surface exceeds the following: 20,000 pounds
on a single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle with no axle
within the tandem exceeding 20,000 pounds; 80,000 pounds gross
weight for vehicle combinations of 5 or more axles; or a total
weight on a group of 2 or more consecutive axles in excess of
that weight produced by the application of the following
formula: W = 500 times the sum of (LN divided by N-1) + 12N +
36, where "W" equals overall total weight on any group of 2 or
more consecutive axles to the nearest 500 pounds, "L" equals
the distance measured to the nearest foot between extremes of
any group of 2 or more consecutive axles, and "N" equals the
number of axles in the group under consideration.
The above formula when expressed in tabular form results in
allowable loads as follows:
Distance measured
to the nearest
foot between the
extremes of any Maximum weight in pounds
group of 2 or of any group of
more consecutive 2 or more consecutive axles
axles
feet2 axles3 axles4 axles5 axles6 axles
434,000
534,000
634,000
734,000
838,000*42,000
939,00042,500
1040,00043,500
1144,000
1245,00050,000
1345,50050,500
1446,50051,500
1547,00052,000
1648,00052,50058,000
1748,50053,50058,500
1849,50054,00059,000
1950,00054,50060,000
2051,00055,50060,50066,000
2151,50056,00061,00066,500
2252,50056,50061,50067,000
2353,00057,50062,50068,000
2454,00058,00063,00068,500
2554,50058,50063,50069,000
2655,50059,50064,00069,500
2756,00060,00065,00070,000
2857,00060,50065,50071,000
2957,50061,50066,00071,500
3058,50062,00066,50072,000
3159,00062,50067,50072,500
3260,00063,50068,00073,000
3364,00068,50074,000
3464,50069,00074,500
3565,50070,00075,000
3666,00070,50075,500
3766,50071,00076,000
3867,50072,00077,000
3968,00072,50077,500
4068,50073,00078,000
4169,50073,50078,500
4270,00074,00079,000
4370,50075,00080,000
4471,50075,500
4572,00076,000
4672,50076,500
4773,50077,500
4874,00078,000
4974,50078,500
5075,50079,000
5176,00080,000
5276,500
5377,500
5478,000
5578,500
5679,500
5780,000
*If the distance between 2 axles is 96 inches or less, the 2
axles are tandem axles and the maximum total weight may not
exceed 34,000 pounds, notwithstanding the higher limit
resulting from the application of the formula.
Vehicles not in a combination having more than 4 axles may
not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 4
axles measured between the extreme axles of the vehicle.
Vehicles in a combination having more than 6 axles may not
exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 6
axles measured between the extreme axles of the combination.
Local authorities, with respect to streets and highways
under their jurisdiction, without additional fees, may also by
ordinance or resolution allow the weight limitations of this
subsection, provided the maximum gross weight on any one axle
shall not exceed 20,000 pounds and the maximum total weight on
any tandem axle shall not exceed 34,000 pounds, on designated
highways when appropriate regulatory signs giving notice are
erected upon the street or highway or portion of any street or
highway affected by the ordinance or resolution.
The following are exceptions to the above formula:
(1) Vehicles for which a different limit is established
and posted in accordance with Section 15-316 of this Code.
(2) Vehicles for which the Department of
Transportation and local authorities issue overweight
permits under authority of Section 15-301 of this Code.
These vehicles are not subject to the bridge formula.
(3) Cities having a population of more than 50,000 may
permit by ordinance axle loads on 2-axle 2 axle motor
vehicles 33 1/2% above those provided for herein, but the
increase shall not become effective until the city has
officially notified the Department of the passage of the
ordinance and shall not apply to those vehicles when
outside of the limits of the city, nor shall the gross
weight of any 2-axle 2 axle motor vehicle operating over
any street of the city exceed 40,000 pounds.
(4) Weight limitations shall not apply to vehicles
(including loads) operated by a public utility when
transporting equipment required for emergency repair of
public utility facilities or properties or water wells.
(4.5) A 3-axle or 4-axle 3 or 4 axle vehicle (including
when laden) operated or hired by a municipality within
Cook, Lake, McHenry, Kane, DuPage, or Will county being
operated for the purpose of performing emergency sewer
repair that would be subject to a weight limitation less
than 66,000 pounds under the formula in this subsection (a)
shall have a weight limitation of 66,000 pounds or the
vehicle's gross vehicle weight rating, whichever is less.
This paragraph (4.5) does not apply to vehicles being
operated on the National System of Interstate and Defense
Highways, or to vehicles being operated on bridges or other
elevated structures constituting a part of a highway.
(5) Two consecutive sets of tandem axles may carry a
total weight of 34,000 pounds each if the overall distance
between the first and last axles of the consecutive sets of
tandem axles is 36 feet or more, notwithstanding the lower
limit resulting from the application of the above formula.
(6) A truck, not in combination and used exclusively
for the collection of rendering materials, may, when laden,
transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the
National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the
following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle;
40,000 pounds on a tandem axle.
(7) A truck not in combination, equipped with a self
compactor or an industrial roll-off hoist and roll-off
container, used exclusively for garbage, refuse, or
recycling operations, may, when laden, transmit upon the
road surface, except when on part of the National System of
Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum
weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a
tandem axle; 40,000 pounds gross weight on a 2-axle
vehicle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle.
This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.
(7.5) A 3-axle rear discharge truck mixer registered as
a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing
and transportation of concrete in the plastic state, may,
when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on
part of the National System of Interstate and Defense
Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on
single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds
gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not
subject to the bridge formula.
(8) Except as provided in paragraph (7.5) of this
subsection (a), tandem axles on a 3-axle truck registered
as a Special Hauling Vehicle, manufactured prior to or in
the model year of 2024 and first registered in Illinois
prior to January 1, 2025, with a distance greater than 72
inches but not more than 96 inches between any series of 2
axles, is allowed a combined weight on the series not to
exceed 36,000 pounds and neither axle of the series may
exceed 20,000 pounds. Any vehicle of this type manufactured
after the model year of 2024 or first registered in
Illinois after December 31, 2024 may not exceed a combined
weight of 34,000 pounds through the series of 2 axles and
neither axle of the series may exceed 20,000 pounds.
A 3-axle combination sewer cleaning jetting vacuum
truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used
exclusively for the transportation of non-hazardous solid
waste, manufactured before or in the model year of 2014,
first registered in Illinois before January 1, 2015, may,
when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on
part of the National System of Interstate and Defense
Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a
single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds
gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not
subject to the bridge formula.
(9) A 4-axle truck mixer registered as a Special
Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing and
transportation of concrete in the plastic state, and not
operated on a highway that is part of the National System
of Interstate Highways, is allowed the following maximum
weights: 20,000 pounds on any single axle; 36,000 pounds on
a series of axles greater than 72 inches but not more than
96 inches; and 34,000 pounds on any series of 2 axles
greater than 40 inches but not more than 72 inches. The
gross weight of this vehicle may not exceed the weights
allowed by the bridge formula for 4 axles. The bridge
formula does not apply to any series of 3 axles while the
vehicle is transporting concrete in the plastic state, but
no axle or tandem axle of the series may exceed the maximum
weight permitted under this paragraph (9) of subsection
(a).
(10) Combinations of vehicles, registered as Special
Hauling Vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured
prior to or in the model year of 2024, and registered in
Illinois prior to January 1, 2025, having 5 axles with a
distance of 42 feet or less between extreme axles, may not
exceed the following maximum weights: 20,000 pounds on a
single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle; and 72,000
pounds gross weight. This combination of vehicles is not
subject to the bridge formula. For all those combinations
of vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured after
the effective date of P.A. 92-0417, the overall distance
between the first and last axles of the 2 sets of tandems
must be 18 feet 6 inches or more. Any combination of
vehicles that has had its cargo container replaced in its
entirety after December 31, 2024 may not exceed the weights
allowed by the bridge formula.
(11) The maximum weight allowed on a vehicle with
crawler type tracks is 40,000 pounds.
(12) A combination of vehicles, including a tow truck
and a disabled vehicle or disabled combination of vehicles,
that exceeds the weight restriction imposed by this Code,
may be operated on a public highway in this State provided
that neither the disabled vehicle nor any vehicle being
towed nor the tow truck itself shall exceed the weight
limitations permitted under this Chapter. During the
towing operation, neither the tow truck nor the vehicle
combination shall exceed 24,000 pounds on a single rear
axle and 44,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle, provided the
towing vehicle:
(i) is specifically designed as a tow truck having
a gross vehicle weight rating of at least 18,000 pounds
and is equipped with air brakes, provided that air
brakes are required only if the towing vehicle is
towing a vehicle, semitrailer, or tractor-trailer
combination that is equipped with air brakes;
(ii) is equipped with flashing, rotating, or
oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet
in all directions;
(iii) is capable of utilizing the lighting and
braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination
of vehicles; and
(iv) does not engage in a tow exceeding 20 miles
from the initial point of wreck or disablement. Any
additional movement of the vehicles may occur only upon
issuance of authorization for that movement under the
provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this
Code. The towing vehicle, however, may tow any disabled
vehicle to a point where repairs are actually to occur.
This movement shall be valid only on State routes. The
tower must abide by posted bridge weight limits.
(13) Upon and during a declaration of an emergency
propane supply disaster by the Governor under Section 7 of
the Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act:
(i) a truck not in combination, equipped with a
cargo tank, used exclusively for the transportation of
propane or liquefied petroleum gas may, when laden,
transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of
the National System of Interstate and Defense
Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds
on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle;
40,000 pounds gross weight on a 2-axle vehicle; 54,000
pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle; and
(ii) a truck when in combination with a trailer
equipped with a cargo tank used exclusively for the
transportation of propane or liquefied petroleum gas
may, when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except
when on part of the National System of Interstate and
Defense Highways, the following maximum weights:
22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a
tandem axle; 90,000 pounds gross weight on a 5-axle 5
or 6-axle vehicle.
Vehicles operating under this paragraph (13) are not
subject to the bridge formula.
(14) (13) A vehicle or combination of vehicles that
uses natural gas or propane gas as a motor fuel may exceed
the above weight limitations by 2,000 pounds, except on
interstate highways as defined by Section 1-133.1 of this
Code. This paragraph (14) (13) shall not allow a vehicle to
exceed any posted weight limit on a highway or structure.
Gross weight limits shall not apply to the combination of
the tow truck and vehicles being towed. The tow truck license
plate must cover the operating empty weight of the tow truck
only. The weight of each vehicle being towed shall be covered
by a valid license plate issued to the owner or operator of the
vehicle being towed and displayed on that vehicle. If no valid
plate issued to the owner or operator of that vehicle is
displayed on that vehicle, or the plate displayed on that
vehicle does not cover the weight of the vehicle, the weight of
the vehicle shall be covered by the third tow truck plate
issued to the owner or operator of the tow truck and
temporarily affixed to the vehicle being towed. If a roll-back
carrier is registered and being used as a tow truck, however,
the license plate or plates for the tow truck must cover the
gross vehicle weight, including any load carried on the bed of
the roll-back carrier.
The Department may by rule or regulation prescribe
additional requirements. However, nothing in this Code shall
prohibit a tow truck under instructions of a police officer
from legally clearing a disabled vehicle, that may be in
violation of weight limitations of this Chapter, from the
roadway to the berm or shoulder of the highway. If in the
opinion of the police officer that location is unsafe, the
officer is authorized to have the disabled vehicle towed to the
nearest place of safety.
For the purpose of this subsection, gross vehicle weight
rating, or GVWR, means the value specified by the manufacturer
as the loaded weight of the tow truck.
(b) As used in this Section, "recycling haul" or "recycling
operation" means the hauling of non-hazardous, non-special,
non-putrescible materials, such as paper, glass, cans, or
plastic, for subsequent use in the secondary materials market.
(c) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with
pneumatic tires shall be operated, unladen or with load, upon
the highways of this State in violation of the provisions of
any permit issued under the provisions of Sections 15-301
through 15-319 of this Chapter.
(d) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with
other than pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with
load, upon the highways of this State when the gross weight on
the road surface through any wheel exceeds 800 pounds per inch
width of tire tread or when the gross weight on the road
surface through any axle exceeds 16,000 pounds.
(e) No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of
vehicles over a bridge or other elevated structure constituting
part of a highway with a gross weight that is greater than the
maximum weight permitted by the Department, when the structure
is sign posted as provided in this Section.
(f) The Department upon request from any local authority
shall, or upon its own initiative may, conduct an investigation
of any bridge or other elevated structure constituting a part
of a highway, and if it finds that the structure cannot with
safety to itself withstand the weight of vehicles otherwise
permissible under this Code the Department shall determine and
declare the maximum weight of vehicles that the structures can
withstand, and shall cause or permit suitable signs stating
maximum weight to be erected and maintained before each end of
the structure. No person shall operate a vehicle or combination
of vehicles over any structure with a gross weight that is
greater than the posted maximum weight.
(g) Upon the trial of any person charged with a violation
of subsection (e) or (f) of this Section, proof of the
determination of the maximum allowable weight by the Department
and the existence of the signs, constitutes conclusive evidence
of the maximum weight that can be maintained with safety to the
bridge or structure.
(Source: P.A. 97-201, eff. 1-1-12; 98-409, eff. 1-1-14; 98-410,
eff. 8-16-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-942, eff. 1-1-15;
98-956, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1029, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)
Section 470. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is
amended by changing Section 5-18 as follows:
(625 ILCS 45/5-18) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 315-13)
Sec. 5-18. (a) Beginning on January 1, 2016, no person born
on or after January 1, 1998, unless exempted by subsection (i),
shall operate a motorboat with over 10 horse power unless that
person has a valid Boating Safety Certificate issued by the
Department of Natural Resources or an entity or organization
recognized and approved by the Department.
(b) No person under 10 years of age may operate a
motorboat.
(c) Prior to January 1, 2016, persons at least 10 years of
age and less than 12 years of age may operate a motorboat with
over 10 horse power only if they are accompanied on the
motorboat and under the direct control of a parent or guardian
or a person at least 18 years of age designated by a parent or
guardian. Beginning on January 1, 2016, persons at least 10
years of age and less than 12 years of age may operate a
motorboat with over 10 horse power only if the person is under
the direct on-board supervision of a parent or guardian who
meets the requirements of subsection (a) or a person at least
18 years of age who meets the requirements of subsection (a)
and is designated by a parent or guardian.
(d) Prior to January 1, 2016, persons at least 12 years of
age and less than 18 years of age may operate a motorboat with
over 10 horse power only if they are accompanied on the
motorboat and under the direct control of a parent or guardian
or a person at least 18 years of age designated by a parent or
guardian, or the motorboat operator is in possession of a
Boating Safety Certificate issued by the Department of Natural
Resources, Division of Law Enforcement, authorizing the holder
to operate motorboats. Beginning on January 1, 2016, persons at
least 12 years and less than 18 years of age may operate a
motorboat with over 10 horse power only if the person meets the
requirements of subsection (a) or is under the direct on-board
supervision of a parent or guardian who meets the requirements
of subsection (a) or a person at least 18 years of age who
meets the requirements of subsection (a) and is designated by a
parent or guardian.
(e) Beginning January 1, 2016, the owner of a motorboat or
a person given supervisory authority over a motorboat shall not
permit a motorboat with over 10 horse power to be operated by a
person who does not meet the Boating Safety Certificate
requirements of this Section.
(f) Licensed boat liveries shall offer abbreviated
operating and safety instruction covering core boat safety
rules to all renters, unless the renter can demonstrate
compliance with the Illinois Boating Safety Certificate
requirements of this Section, or is exempt under subsection (i)
of this Section. A person who completes abbreviated operating
and safety instruction may operate a motorboat rented from the
livery providing the abbreviated operating and safety
instruction without having a Boating Safety Certificate for up
to one year from the date of instruction. The Department shall
adopt rules to implement this subsection.
(g) Violations.
(1) A person who is operating a motorboat with over 10
horse power and is required to have a valid Boating Safety
Certificate under the provisions of this Section shall
present the certificate to a law enforcement officer upon
request. Failure of the person to present the certificate
upon request is a petty offense.
(2) A person who provides false or fictitious
information in an application for a Boating Safety
Certificate; or who alters, forges, counterfeits, or
falsifies a Boating Safety Certificate; or who possesses a
Boating Safety Certificate that has been altered, forged,
counterfeited, or falsified is guilty of a Class A
misdemeanor.
(3) A person who loans or permits his or her their
Boating Safety Certificate to be used by another person; or
who operates a motorboat with over 10 horse power using a
Boating Safety Certificate that has not been issued to that
person is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(4) A violation Violations of this Section done with
the knowledge of a parent or guardian shall be deemed a
violation by the parent or guardian and punishable under
Section 11A-1.
(h) The Department of Natural Resources shall establish a
program of instruction on boating safety, laws, regulations and
administrative laws, and any other subject matter which might
be related to the subject of general boat safety. The program
shall be conducted by instructors certified by the Department
of Natural Resources. The course of instruction for persons
certified to teach boating safety shall be not less than 8
hours in length, and the Department shall have the authority to
revoke the certification of any instructor who has demonstrated
his inability to conduct courses on the subject matter. The
Department of Natural Resources shall develop and provide a
method for students to complete the program online. Students
satisfactorily completing a program of not less than 8 hours in
length shall receive a certificate of safety from the
Department of Natural Resources. The Department may cooperate
with schools, online vendors, private clubs and other
organizations in offering boating safety courses throughout
the State of Illinois.
The Department shall issue certificates of boating safety
to persons 10 years of age or older successfully completing the
prescribed course of instruction and passing such tests as may
be prescribed by the Department. The Department may charge each
person who enrolls in a course of instruction a fee not to
exceed $5. If a fee is authorized by the Department, the
Department shall authorize instructors conducting such courses
meeting standards established by it to charge for the rental of
facilities or for the cost of materials utilized in the course.
Fees retained by the Department shall be utilized to defray a
part of its expenses to operate the safety and accident
reporting programs of the Department.
(i) A Boating Safety Certificate is not required by:
(1) a person who possesses a valid United States Coast
Guard commercial vessel operator's license or a marine
certificate issued by the Canadian government;
(2) a person employed by the United States, this State,
another state, or a subdivision thereof while in
performance of his or her official duties;
(3) a person who is not a resident, is temporarily
using the waters of this State for a period not to exceed
90 days, and meets any applicable boating safety education
requirements of his or her state of residency or possesses
a Canadian Pleasure Craft Operator's Card;
(4) a person who is a resident of this State who has
met the applicable boating safety education requirements
of another state or possesses a Canadian Pleasure Craft
Operator's Card;
(5) a person who has assumed operation of the motorboat
due to the illness or physical impairment of the operator,
and is returning the motorboat or personal watercraft to
shore in order to provide assistance or care for that
operator;
(6) a person who is registered as a commercial
fisherman or a person who is under the onboard direct
supervision of the commercial fisherman while operating
the commercial fisherman's vessel;
(7) a person who is serving or has qualified as a
surface warfare officer or enlisted surface warfare
specialist in the United States Navy;
(8) a person who has assumed operation of the motorboat
for the purpose of completing a watercraft safety course
approved by the Department, the U.S. Coast Guard, or the
National Association of State Boating Law Administrators;
(9) a person using only an electric motor to propel the
motorboat;
(10) a person operating a motorboat on private
property; or
(11) a person over the age of 12 years who holds a
valid certificate issued by another state, a province of
the Dominion of Canada, the United States Coast Guard
Auxiliary or the United States Power Squadron need not
obtain a certificate from the Department if the course
content of the program in such other state, province or
organization substantially meets that established by the
Department under this Section. A certificate issued by the
Department or by another state, province of the Dominion of
Canada or approved organization shall not constitute an
operator's license, but shall certify only that the student
has successfully passed a course in boating safety
instruction.
(j) The Department of Natural Resources shall adopt rules
necessary to implement this Section. The Department of Natural
Resources shall consult and coordinate with the boating public,
professional organizations for recreational boating safety,
and the boating retail, leasing, and dealer business community
in the adoption of these rules.
(Source: P.A. 98-698, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 475. The Clerks of Courts Act is amended by
changing Section 27.6 as follows:
(705 ILCS 105/27.6)
(Section as amended by P.A. 96-286, 96-576, 96-578, 96-625,
96-667, 96-1175, 96-1342, 97-434, 97-1051, 97-1108, 97-1150,
98-658, and 98-1013)
Sec. 27.6. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional
penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other
amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk equalling an
amount of $55 or more, except the fine imposed by Section
5-9-1.15 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the additional fee
required by subsections (b) and (c), restitution under Section
5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, contributions to a
local anti-crime program ordered pursuant to Section
5-6-3(b)(13) or Section 5-6-3.1(c)(13) of the Unified Code of
Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency
response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety
program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee
collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002
of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the
Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of
supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of
Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a
similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of
the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a
local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this
Section shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the
circuit clerk as follows: 44.5% shall be disbursed to the
entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the
case; 16.825% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and
38.675% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate
fund. Of the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 2/17
shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent
Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 5.052/17 shall be deposited into
the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, 3/17 shall
be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund, and 6.948/17
shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Of the 6.948/17
deposited into the Trauma Center Fund from the 16.825%
disbursed to the State Treasurer, 50% shall be disbursed to the
Department of Public Health and 50% shall be disbursed to the
Department of Healthcare and Family Services. For fiscal year
1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims
Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge
Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of
the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any
amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as
follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general
corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity
authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not
later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit
a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer
under this Section during the preceding year based upon
independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall
be subject to this Section, except that counties with a
population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be
subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section,
judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for
violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts
except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and
27.3c of this Act, unless those amounts are specifically waived
by the judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit
clerk as a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or
guilty plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit
clerk shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections
27.3a and 27.3c of this Act. This Section is a denial and
limitation of home rule powers and functions under subsection
(h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
(b) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed
by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of
supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs
shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit
court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray
administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted
by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for
deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of
$100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of
any reduction in the fine for time served either before or
after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the
Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds
remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during
the preceding calendar year.
(b-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs
assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an
order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol
or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the
circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to
defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be
remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure
Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be
considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in
the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not
later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit
a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer
under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.
(c) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed
by the courts, any person convicted for a violation of Sections
24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012 or a person sentenced for a violation of
the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances
Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
Act shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the
circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to
defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be
remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This
additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the
fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served
either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of
each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount
of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection
during the preceding calendar year.
(c-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs
assessed by the courts, any person sentenced for a violation of
the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances
Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
Act shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the
circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to
defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be
remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure
Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be
considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in
the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not
later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit
a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer
under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.
(d) The following amounts must be remitted to the State
Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:
(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses
under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5,
5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for
Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code
of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class
B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04,
5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care
for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and
(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C
misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care
for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
(e) Any person who receives a disposition of court
supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to
any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee
of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the
Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the
person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court.
If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be
deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and
Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court
and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner
Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.
(f) This Section does not apply to the additional child
pornography fines assessed and collected under Section
5-9-1.14 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(g) (Blank).
(h) (Blank).
(i) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (b)
of Section 3-712 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, 99% shall be
deposited into the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund and 1%
shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and
Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court
to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court
Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect
and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as
provided by law.
(j) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed
on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in
Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of
Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of
a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an
additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section
16-104d of that Code.
This subsection (j) becomes inoperative on January 1, 2020.
(k) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision
for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the
person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code.
(l) Any person who receives a disposition of court
supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall,
in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an
additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit
clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into
the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State
treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full
restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all
moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the
Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under
subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The
fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month
after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the
Roadside Memorial Fund.
(m) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (c)
of Section 411.4 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or
subsection (c) of Section 90 of the Methamphetamine Control and
Community Protection Act, 99% shall be deposited to the law
enforcement agency or fund specified and 1% shall be deposited
into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund
to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court
Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect
and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as
provided by law.
(n) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed
by the courts, any person who is convicted of or pleads guilty
to a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or
who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or receives a
disposition of court supervision for a violation of the
Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local
ordinance, shall pay an additional fee of $15 to the clerk of
the circuit court. This additional fee of $15 shall not be
considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in
the fine for time served either before or after sentencing.
This amount, less 2.5% that shall be used to defray
administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted
by the clerk to the State Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the State Police Merit Board Public
Safety Fund.
(o) The amounts collected as fines under Sections 10-9,
11-14.1, 11-14.3, and 11-18 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall
be collected by the circuit clerk and distributed as provided
under Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections in
lieu of any disbursement under subsection (a) of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-434, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1051, eff. 1-1-13;
97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-658, eff.
6-23-14; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)
(Section as amended by P.A. 96-576, 96-578, 96-625, 96-667,
96-735, 96-1175, 96-1342, 97-434, 97-1051, 97-1108, 97-1150,
98-658, and 98-1013)
Sec. 27.6. (a) All fees, fines, costs, additional
penalties, bail balances assessed or forfeited, and any other
amount paid by a person to the circuit clerk equalling an
amount of $55 or more, except the fine imposed by Section
5-9-1.15 of the Unified Code of Corrections, the additional fee
required by subsections (b) and (c), restitution under Section
5-5-6 of the Unified Code of Corrections, contributions to a
local anti-crime program ordered pursuant to Section
5-6-3(b)(13) or Section 5-6-3.1(c)(13) of the Unified Code of
Corrections, reimbursement for the costs of an emergency
response as provided under Section 11-501 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code, any fees collected for attending a traffic safety
program under paragraph (c) of Supreme Court Rule 529, any fee
collected on behalf of a State's Attorney under Section 4-2002
of the Counties Code or a sheriff under Section 4-5001 of the
Counties Code, or any cost imposed under Section 124A-5 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963, for convictions, orders of
supervision, or any other disposition for a violation of
Chapters 3, 4, 6, 11, and 12 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a
similar provision of a local ordinance, and any violation of
the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar provision of a
local ordinance, and except as otherwise provided in this
Section shall be disbursed within 60 days after receipt by the
circuit clerk as follows: 44.5% shall be disbursed to the
entity authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the
case; 16.825% shall be disbursed to the State Treasurer; and
38.675% shall be disbursed to the county's general corporate
fund. Of the 16.825% disbursed to the State Treasurer, 2/17
shall be deposited by the State Treasurer into the Violent
Crime Victims Assistance Fund, 5.052/17 shall be deposited into
the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge Fund, 3/17 shall
be deposited into the Drivers Education Fund, and 6.948/17
shall be deposited into the Trauma Center Fund. Of the 6.948/17
deposited into the Trauma Center Fund from the 16.825%
disbursed to the State Treasurer, 50% shall be disbursed to the
Department of Public Health and 50% shall be disbursed to the
Department of Healthcare and Family Services. For fiscal year
1993, amounts deposited into the Violent Crime Victims
Assistance Fund, the Traffic and Criminal Conviction Surcharge
Fund, or the Drivers Education Fund shall not exceed 110% of
the amounts deposited into those funds in fiscal year 1991. Any
amount that exceeds the 110% limit shall be distributed as
follows: 50% shall be disbursed to the county's general
corporate fund and 50% shall be disbursed to the entity
authorized by law to receive the fine imposed in the case. Not
later than March 1 of each year the circuit clerk shall submit
a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer
under this Section during the preceding year based upon
independent verification of fines and fees. All counties shall
be subject to this Section, except that counties with a
population under 2,000,000 may, by ordinance, elect not to be
subject to this Section. For offenses subject to this Section,
judges shall impose one total sum of money payable for
violations. The circuit clerk may add on no additional amounts
except for amounts that are required by Sections 27.3a and
27.3c of this Act, Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle
Code, and subsection (a) of Section 5-1101 of the Counties
Code, unless those amounts are specifically waived by the
judge. With respect to money collected by the circuit clerk as
a result of forfeiture of bail, ex parte judgment or guilty
plea pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 529, the circuit clerk
shall first deduct and pay amounts required by Sections 27.3a
and 27.3c of this Act. Unless a court ordered payment schedule
is implemented or fee requirements are waived pursuant to court
order, the clerk of the court may add to any unpaid fees and
costs a delinquency amount equal to 5% of the unpaid fees that
remain unpaid after 30 days, 10% of the unpaid fees that remain
unpaid after 60 days, and 15% of the unpaid fees that remain
unpaid after 90 days. Notice to those parties may be made by
signage posting or publication. The additional delinquency
amounts collected under this Section shall be deposited in the
Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund to be
used to defray administrative costs incurred by the circuit
clerk in performing the duties required to collect and disburse
funds. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule
powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of
Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
(b) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed
by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an order of
supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs
shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the circuit
court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to defray
administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted
by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after receipt for
deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This additional fee of
$100 shall not be considered a part of the fine for purposes of
any reduction in the fine for time served either before or
after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of each year the
Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount of funds
remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection during
the preceding calendar year.
(b-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs
assessed by the courts, any person convicted or receiving an
order of supervision for driving under the influence of alcohol
or drugs shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the
circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to
defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be
remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure
Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be
considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in
the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not
later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit
a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer
under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.
(c) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed
by the courts, any person convicted for a violation of Sections
24-1.1, 24-1.2, or 24-1.5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012 or a person sentenced for a violation of
the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances
Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
Act shall pay an additional fee of $100 to the clerk of the
circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to
defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be
remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the Trauma Center Fund. This
additional fee of $100 shall not be considered a part of the
fine for purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served
either before or after sentencing. Not later than March 1 of
each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit a report of the amount
of funds remitted to the State Treasurer under this subsection
during the preceding calendar year.
(c-1) In addition to any other fines and court costs
assessed by the courts, any person sentenced for a violation of
the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances
Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
Act shall pay an additional fee of $5 to the clerk of the
circuit court. This amount, less 2 1/2% that shall be used to
defray administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be
remitted by the clerk to the Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the Spinal Cord Injury Paralysis Cure
Research Trust Fund. This additional fee of $5 shall not be
considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in
the fine for time served either before or after sentencing. Not
later than March 1 of each year the Circuit Clerk shall submit
a report of the amount of funds remitted to the State Treasurer
under this subsection during the preceding calendar year.
(d) The following amounts must be remitted to the State
Treasurer for deposit into the Illinois Animal Abuse Fund:
(1) 50% of the amounts collected for felony offenses
under Sections 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04, 5,
5.01, 6, 7, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care for
Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal Code
of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
(2) 20% of the amounts collected for Class A and Class
B misdemeanors under Sections 3, 3.01, 4, 4.01, 4.03, 4.04,
5, 5.01, 6, 7, 7.1, 7.5, 7.15, and 16 of the Humane Care
for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; and
(3) 50% of the amounts collected for Class C
misdemeanors under Sections 4.01 and 7.1 of the Humane Care
for Animals Act and Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
(e) Any person who receives a disposition of court
supervision for a violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance shall, in addition to
any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an additional fee
of $29, to be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104c of the
Illinois Vehicle Code. In addition to the fee of $29, the
person shall also pay a fee of $6, if not waived by the court.
If this $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be
deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and
Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court
and 50 cents of the fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner
Review Board Vehicle and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.
(f) This Section does not apply to the additional child
pornography fines assessed and collected under Section
5-9-1.14 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(g) Any person convicted of or pleading guilty to a serious
traffic violation, as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code, shall pay an additional fee of $35, to
be disbursed as provided in Section 16-104d of that Code. This
subsection (g) becomes inoperative on January 1, 2020.
(h) In all counties having a population of 3,000,000 or
more inhabitants,
(1) A person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to
violating subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code, including any person placed on court
supervision for violating subsection (a), shall be fined
$750 as provided for by subsection (f) of Section 11-501.01
of the Illinois Vehicle Code, payable to the circuit clerk,
who shall distribute the money pursuant to subsection (f)
of Section 11-501.01 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(2) When a crime laboratory DUI analysis fee of $150,
provided for by Section 5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of
Corrections is assessed, it shall be disbursed by the
circuit clerk as provided by subsection (f) of Section
5-9-1.9 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
(3) When a fine for a violation of Section 11-605.1 of
the Illinois Vehicle Code is $250 or greater, the person
who violated that Section shall be charged an additional
$125 as provided for by subsection (e) of Section 11-605.1
of the Illinois Vehicle Code, which shall be disbursed by
the circuit clerk to a State or county Transportation
Safety Highway Hire-back Fund as provided by subsection (e)
of Section 11-605.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(4) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of
Section 11-605 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or
greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided
for by subsection (f) of Section 11-605 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a
school district or districts for school safety purposes as
provided by subsection (f) of Section 11-605.
(5) When a fine for a violation of subsection (a) of
Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois Vehicle Code is $150 or
greater, the additional $50 which is charged as provided
for by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to a
school district or districts for school safety purposes as
provided by subsection (c) of Section 11-1002.5 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code.
(6) When a mandatory drug court fee of up to $5 is
assessed as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of
the Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit
clerk as provided in subsection (f) of Section 5-1101 of
the Counties Code.
(7) When a mandatory teen court, peer jury, youth
court, or other youth diversion program fee is assessed as
provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the
Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk
as provided in subsection (e) of Section 5-1101 of the
Counties Code.
(8) When a Children's Advocacy Center fee is assessed
pursuant to subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the
Counties Code, it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk
as provided in subsection (f-5) of Section 5-1101 of the
Counties Code.
(9) When a victim impact panel fee is assessed pursuant
to subsection (b) of Section 11-501.01 of the Vehicle Code,
it shall be disbursed by the circuit clerk to the victim
impact panel to be attended by the defendant.
(10) When a new fee collected in traffic cases is
enacted after the effective date of this subsection (h), it
shall be excluded from the percentage disbursement
provisions of this Section unless otherwise indicated by
law.
(i) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (b)
of Section 3-712 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, 99% shall be
deposited into the Illinois Military Family Relief Fund and 1%
shall be deposited into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and
Administrative Fund created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court
to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court
Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect
and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as
provided by law.
(j) (Blank).
(k) For any conviction or disposition of court supervision
for a violation of Section 11-1429 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code, the circuit clerk shall distribute the fines paid by the
person as specified by subsection (h) of Section 11-1429 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code.
(l) Any person who receives a disposition of court
supervision for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall,
in addition to any other fines, fees, and court costs, pay an
additional fee of $50, which shall be collected by the circuit
clerk and then remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into
the Roadside Memorial Fund, a special fund in the State
treasury. However, the court may waive the fee if full
restitution is complied with. Subject to appropriation, all
moneys in the Roadside Memorial Fund shall be used by the
Department of Transportation to pay fees imposed under
subsection (f) of Section 20 of the Roadside Memorial Act. The
fee shall be remitted by the circuit clerk within one month
after receipt to the State Treasurer for deposit into the
Roadside Memorial Fund.
(m) Of the amounts collected as fines under subsection (c)
of Section 411.4 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act or
subsection (c) of Section 90 of the Methamphetamine Control and
Community Protection Act, 99% shall be deposited to the law
enforcement agency or fund specified and 1% shall be deposited
into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund
to be used to offset the costs incurred by the Circuit Court
Clerk in performing the additional duties required to collect
and disburse funds to entities of State and local government as
provided by law.
(n) In addition to any other fines and court costs assessed
by the courts, any person who is convicted of or pleads guilty
to a violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, or
who is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or receives a
disposition of court supervision for a violation of the
Illinois Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local
ordinance, shall pay an additional fee of $15 to the clerk of
the circuit court. This additional fee of $15 shall not be
considered a part of the fine for purposes of any reduction in
the fine for time served either before or after sentencing.
This amount, less 2.5% that shall be used to defray
administrative costs incurred by the clerk, shall be remitted
by the clerk to the State Treasurer within 60 days after
receipt for deposit into the State Police Merit Board Public
Safety Fund.
(o) The amounts collected as fines under Sections 10-9,
11-14.1, 11-14.3, and 11-18 of the Criminal Code of 2012 shall
be collected by the circuit clerk and distributed as provided
under Section 5-9-1.21 of the Unified Code of Corrections in
lieu of any disbursement under subsection (a) of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-434, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1051, eff. 1-1-13;
97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-658, eff.
6-23-14; 98-1013, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)
Section 480. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by
changing Sections 3-40, 5-105, and 5-301 as follows:
(705 ILCS 405/3-40)
Sec. 3-40. Minors involved in electronic dissemination of
indecent visual depictions in need of supervision.
(a) For the purposes of this Section:
"Computer" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 17-0.5
of the Criminal Code of 2012.
"Electronic communication device" means an electronic
device, including but not limited to a wireless telephone,
personal digital assistant, or a portable or mobile computer,
that is capable of transmitting images or pictures.
"Indecent visual depiction" means a depiction or portrayal
in any pose, posture, or setting involving a lewd exhibition of
the unclothed or transparently clothed genitals, pubic area,
buttocks, or, if such person is female, a fully or partially
developed breast of the person.
"Minor" means a person under 18 years of age.
(b) A minor shall not distribute or disseminate an indecent
visual depiction of another minor through the use of a computer
or electronic communication device.
(c) Adjudication. A minor who violates subsection (b) of
this Section may be subject to a petition for adjudication and
adjudged a minor in need of supervision.
(d) Kinds of dispositional orders. A minor found to be in
need of supervision under this Section may be:
(1) ordered to obtain counseling or other supportive
services to address the acts that led to the need for
supervision; or
(2) ordered to perform community service.
(e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit
a prosecution for disorderly conduct, public indecency, child
pornography, a violation of Article 26.5 (Harassing and Obscene
Communications) of the Criminal Code of 2012, or any other
applicable provision of law.
(Source: P.A. 96-1087, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13;
97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)
(705 ILCS 405/5-105)
Sec. 5-105. Definitions. As used in this Article:
(1) "Aftercare release" means the conditional and
revocable release of an adjudicated delinquent juvenile
committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the
supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.
(1.5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or
division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act, and
includes the term Juvenile Court.
(2) "Community service" means uncompensated labor for
a community service agency as hereinafter defined.
(2.5) "Community service agency" means a
not-for-profit organization, community organization,
church, charitable organization, individual, public
office, or other public body whose purpose is to enhance
the physical or mental health of a delinquent minor or to
rehabilitate the minor, or to improve the environmental
quality or social welfare of the community which agrees to
accept community service from juvenile delinquents and to
report on the progress of the community service to the
State's Attorney pursuant to an agreement or to the court
or to any agency designated by the court or to the
authorized diversion program that has referred the
delinquent minor for community service.
(3) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his
or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate,
regardless of where the act occurred, any federal, State,
county or municipal law or ordinance.
(4) "Department" means the Department of Human
Services unless specifically referenced as another
department.
(5) "Detention" means the temporary care of a minor who
is alleged to be or has been adjudicated delinquent and who
requires secure custody for the minor's own protection or
the community's protection in a facility designed to
physically restrict the minor's movements, pending
disposition by the court or execution of an order of the
court for placement or commitment. Design features that
physically restrict movement include, but are not limited
to, locked rooms and the secure handcuffing of a minor to a
rail or other stationary object. In addition, "detention"
includes the court ordered care of an alleged or
adjudicated delinquent minor who requires secure custody
pursuant to Section 5-125 of this Act.
(6) "Diversion" means the referral of a juvenile,
without court intervention, into a program that provides
services designed to educate the juvenile and develop a
productive and responsible approach to living in the
community.
(7) "Juvenile detention home" means a public facility
with specially trained staff that conforms to the county
juvenile detention standards adopted by the Department of
Juvenile Justice.
(8) "Juvenile justice continuum" means a set of
delinquency prevention programs and services designed for
the purpose of preventing or reducing delinquent acts,
including criminal activity by youth gangs, as well as
intervention, rehabilitation, and prevention services
targeted at minors who have committed delinquent acts, and
minors who have previously been committed to residential
treatment programs for delinquents. The term includes
children-in-need-of-services and
families-in-need-of-services programs; aftercare and
reentry services; substance abuse and mental health
programs; community service programs; community service
work programs; and alternative-dispute resolution programs
serving youth-at-risk of delinquency and their families,
whether offered or delivered by State or local governmental
entities, public or private for-profit or not-for-profit
organizations, or religious or charitable organizations.
This term would also encompass any program or service
consistent with the purpose of those programs and services
enumerated in this subsection.
(9) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police
officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course,
has been assigned to the position of juvenile police
officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has
completed the necessary juvenile officers training as
prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training
Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer,
juvenile officer training approved by the Director of State
Police.
(10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years
subject to this Act.
(11) "Non-secure custody" means confinement where the
minor is not physically restricted by being placed in a
locked cell or room, by being handcuffed to a rail or other
stationary object, or by other means. Non-secure custody
may include, but is not limited to, electronic monitoring,
foster home placement, home confinement, group home
placement, or physical restriction of movement or activity
solely through facility staff.
(12) "Public or community service" means uncompensated
labor for a not-for-profit organization or public body
whose purpose is to enhance physical or mental stability of
the offender, environmental quality or the social welfare
and which agrees to accept public or community service from
offenders and to report on the progress of the offender and
the public or community service to the court or to the
authorized diversion program that has referred the
offender for public or community service. "Public or
community service" does not include blood donation or
assignment to labor at a blood bank. For the purposes of
this Act, "blood bank" has the meaning ascribed to the term
in Section 2-124 of the Illinois Clinical Laboratory and
Blood Bank Act.
(13) "Sentencing hearing" means a hearing to determine
whether a minor should be adjudged a ward of the court, and
to determine what sentence should be imposed on the minor.
It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term
"sentencing hearing" replace the term "dispositional
hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was
used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
(14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in
physically unrestricting facilities pending court
disposition or execution of court order for placement.
(15) "Site" means a not-for-profit organization,
public body, church, charitable organization, or
individual agreeing to accept community service from
offenders and to report on the progress of ordered or
required public or community service to the court or to the
authorized diversion program that has referred the
offender for public or community service.
(16) "Station adjustment" means the informal or formal
handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police
officer.
(17) "Trial" means a hearing to determine whether the
allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor
is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt. It is
the intent of the General Assembly that the term "trial"
replace the term "adjudicatory hearing" and be synonymous
with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court
Act of 1987.
The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 apply
to violations or attempted violations committed on or after
January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61).
(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-685,
eff. 1-1-15; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-824, eff. 1-1-15; revised
10-2-14.)
(705 ILCS 405/5-301)
Sec. 5-301. Station adjustments. A minor arrested for any
offense or a violation of a condition of previous station
adjustment may receive a station adjustment for that arrest as
provided herein. In deciding whether to impose a station
adjustment, either informal or formal, a juvenile police
officer shall consider the following factors:
(A) The seriousness of the alleged offense.
(B) The prior history of delinquency of the minor.
(C) The age of the minor.
(D) The culpability of the minor in committing the
alleged offense.
(E) Whether the offense was committed in an aggressive
or premeditated manner.
(F) Whether the minor used or possessed a deadly weapon
when committing the alleged offenses.
(1) Informal station adjustment.
(a) An informal station adjustment is defined as a
procedure when a juvenile police officer determines that
there is probable cause to believe that the minor has
committed an offense.
(b) A minor shall receive no more than 3 informal
station adjustments statewide for a misdemeanor offense
within 3 years without prior approval from the State's
Attorney's Office.
(c) A minor shall receive no more than 3 informal
station adjustments statewide for a felony offense within 3
years without prior approval from the State's Attorney's
Office.
(d) A minor shall receive a combined total of no more
than 5 informal station adjustments statewide during his or
her minority.
(e) The juvenile police officer may make reasonable
conditions of an informal station adjustment which may
include but are not limited to:
(i) Curfew.
(ii) Conditions restricting entry into designated
geographical areas.
(iii) No contact with specified persons.
(iv) School attendance.
(v) Performing up to 25 hours of community service
work.
(vi) Community mediation.
(vii) Teen court or a peer court.
(viii) Restitution limited to 90 days.
(f) If the minor refuses or fails to abide by the
conditions of an informal station adjustment, the juvenile
police officer may impose a formal station adjustment or
refer the matter to the State's Attorney's Office.
(g) An informal station adjustment does not constitute
an adjudication of delinquency or a criminal conviction.
Beginning January 1, 2000, a record shall be maintained
with the Department of State Police for informal station
adjustments for offenses that would be a felony if
committed by an adult, and may be maintained if the offense
would be a misdemeanor.
(2) Formal station adjustment.
(a) A formal station adjustment is defined as a
procedure when a juvenile police officer determines that
there is probable cause to believe the minor has committed
an offense and an admission by the minor of involvement in
the offense.
(b) The minor and parent, guardian, or legal custodian
must agree in writing to the formal station adjustment and
must be advised of the consequences of violation of any
term of the agreement.
(c) The minor and parent, guardian or legal custodian
shall be provided a copy of the signed agreement of the
formal station adjustment. The agreement shall include:
(i) The offense which formed the basis of the
formal station adjustment.
(ii) An acknowledgment that the terms of the formal
station adjustment and the consequences for violation
have been explained.
(iii) An acknowledgment that the formal station
adjustments record may be expunged under Section 5-915
of this Act.
(iv) An acknowledgement that the minor understands
that his or her admission of involvement in the offense
may be admitted into evidence in future court hearings.
(v) A statement that all parties understand the
terms and conditions of formal station adjustment and
agree to the formal station adjustment process.
(d) Conditions of the formal station adjustment may
include, but are not be limited to:
(i) The time shall not exceed 120 days.
(ii) The minor shall not violate any laws.
(iii) The juvenile police officer may require the
minor to comply with additional conditions for the
formal station adjustment which may include but are not
limited to:
(a) Attending school.
(b) Abiding by a set curfew.
(c) Payment of restitution.
(d) Refraining from possessing a firearm or
other weapon.
(e) Reporting to a police officer at
designated times and places, including reporting
and verification that the minor is at home at
designated hours.
(f) Performing up to 25 hours of community
service work.
(g) Refraining from entering designated
geographical areas.
(h) Participating in community mediation.
(i) Participating in teen court or peer court.
(j) Refraining from contact with specified
persons.
(e) A formal station adjustment does not constitute an
adjudication of delinquency or a criminal conviction.
Beginning January 1, 2000, a record shall be maintained
with the Department of State Police for formal station
adjustments.
(f) A minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal
custodian, or both the minor and the minor's parent,
guardian, or legal custodian, may refuse a formal station
adjustment and have the matter referred for court action or
other appropriate action.
(g) A minor or the minor's parent, guardian, or legal
custodian, or both the minor and the minor's parent,
guardian, or legal custodian, may within 30 days of the
commencement of the formal station adjustment revoke their
consent and have the matter referred for court action or
other appropriate action. This revocation must be in
writing and personally served upon the police officer or
his or her supervisor.
(h) The admission of the minor as to involvement in the
offense shall be admissible at further court hearings as
long as the statement would be admissible under the rules
of evidence.
(i) If the minor violates any term or condition of the
formal station adjustment the juvenile police officer
shall provide written notice of violation to the minor and
the minor's parent, guardian, or legal custodian. After
consultation with the minor and the minor's parent,
guardian, or legal custodian, the juvenile police officer
may take any of the following steps upon violation:
(i) Warn the minor of consequences of continued
violations and continue the formal station adjustment.
(ii) Extend the period of the formal station
adjustment up to a total of 180 days.
(iii) Extend the hours of community service work up
to a total of 40 hours.
(iv) Terminate the formal station adjustment
unsatisfactorily and take no other action.
(v) Terminate the formal station adjustment
unsatisfactorily and refer the matter to the juvenile
court.
(j) A minor shall receive no more than 2 formal station
adjustments statewide for a felony offense without the
State's Attorney's approval within a 3 year period.
(k) A minor shall receive no more than 3 formal station
adjustments statewide for a misdemeanor offense without
the State's Attorney's approval within a 3 year period.
(l) The total for formal station adjustments statewide
within the period of minority may not exceed 4 without the
State's Attorney's approval.
(m) If the minor is arrested in a jurisdiction where
the minor does not reside, the formal station adjustment
may be transferred to the jurisdiction where the minor does
reside upon written agreement of that jurisdiction to
monitor the formal station adjustment.
(3) Beginning January 1, 2000, the juvenile police officer
making a station adjustment shall assure that information about
any offense which would constitute a felony if committed by an
adult and may assure that information about a misdemeanor is
transmitted to the Department of State Police.
(4) The total number of station adjustments, both formal
and informal, shall not exceed 9 without the State's Attorney's
approval for any minor arrested anywhere in the State.
(Source: P.A. 90-590, eff. 1-1-99; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 485. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by
changing Sections 12-2, 33E-14, 36-1, and 36-2 as follows:
(720 ILCS 5/12-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 12-2)
Sec. 12-2. Aggravated assault.
(a) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits
aggravated assault when he or she commits an assault against an
individual who is on or about a public way, public property, a
public place of accommodation or amusement, or a sports venue.
(b) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits
aggravated assault when, in committing an assault, he or she
knows the individual assaulted to be any of the following:
(1) A physically handicapped person or a person 60
years of age or older and the assault is without legal
justification.
(2) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or
grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building
used for school purposes.
(3) A park district employee upon park grounds or
grounds adjacent to a park or in any part of a building
used for park purposes.
(4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer,
fireman, private security officer, emergency management
worker, emergency medical technician, or utility worker:
(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her
official duties; or
(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his
or her official duties.
(5) A correctional officer or probation officer:
(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her
official duties; or
(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his
or her official duties.
(6) A correctional institution employee, a county
juvenile detention center employee who provides direct and
continuous supervision of residents of a juvenile
detention center, including a county juvenile detention
center employee who supervises recreational activity for
residents of a juvenile detention center, or a Department
of Human Services employee, Department of Human Services
officer, or employee of a subcontractor of the Department
of Human Services supervising or controlling sexually
dangerous persons or sexually violent persons:
(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her
official duties; or
(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his
or her official duties.
(7) An employee of the State of Illinois, a municipal
corporation therein, or a political subdivision thereof,
performing his or her official duties.
(8) A transit employee performing his or her official
duties, or a transit passenger.
(9) A sports official or coach actively participating
in any level of athletic competition within a sports venue,
on an indoor playing field or outdoor playing field, or
within the immediate vicinity of such a facility or field.
(10) A person authorized to serve process under Section
2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process
server appointed by the circuit court, while that
individual is in the performance of his or her duties as a
process server.
(c) Offense based on use of firearm, device, or motor
vehicle. A person commits aggravated assault when, in
committing an assault, he or she does any of the following:
(1) Uses a deadly weapon, an air rifle as defined in
Section 24.8-0.1 of this Act the Air Rifle Act, or any
device manufactured and designed to be substantially
similar in appearance to a firearm, other than by
discharging a firearm.
(2) Discharges a firearm, other than from a motor
vehicle.
(3) Discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle.
(4) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her
identity.
(5) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines
or flashes a laser gun sight or other laser device attached
to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that
the laser beam strikes near or in the immediate vicinity of
any person.
(6) Uses a firearm, other than by discharging the
firearm, against a peace officer, community policing
volunteer, fireman, private security officer, emergency
management worker, emergency medical technician, employee
of a police department, employee of a sheriff's department,
or traffic control municipal employee:
(i) performing his or her official duties;
(ii) assaulted to prevent performance of his or her
official duties; or
(iii) assaulted in retaliation for performing his
or her official duties.
(7) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a
manner which places a person, other than a person listed in
subdivision (b)(4), in reasonable apprehension of being
struck by the moving motor vehicle.
(8) Without justification operates a motor vehicle in a
manner which places a person listed in subdivision (b)(4),
in reasonable apprehension of being struck by the moving
motor vehicle.
(9) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with
the intent to disseminate the recording.
(d) Sentence. Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision
(a), (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), (b)(7), (b)(8), (b)(9),
(c)(1), (c)(4), or (c)(9) is a Class A misdemeanor, except that
aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (b)(4) and (b)(7)
is a Class 4 felony if a Category I, Category II, or Category
III weapon is used in the commission of the assault. Aggravated
assault as defined in subdivision (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(10),
(c)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), or (c)(7) is a Class 4 felony.
Aggravated assault as defined in subdivision (c)(3) or (c)(8)
is a Class 3 felony.
(e) For the purposes of this Section, "Category I weapon",
"Category II weapon, and "Category III weapon" have the
meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 33A-1 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 97-225, eff. 7-28-11; 97-313, eff. 1-1-12;
97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 98-385, eff.
1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)
(720 ILCS 5/33E-14)
Sec. 33E-14. False statements on vendor applications.
(a) A person commits false statements on vendor
applications when he or she knowingly makes any false statement
or report, with the intent to influence in any way the action
of any unit of local government or school district in
considering a vendor application.
(b) Sentence. False statements on vendor applications is a
Class 3 felony.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 12-10-14.)
(720 ILCS 5/36-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-1)
Sec. 36-1. Seizure.
(a) Any vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft may be
seized and impounded by the law enforcement agency if the
vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is used with the
knowledge and consent of the owner in the commission of, or in
the attempt to commit as defined in Section 8-4 of this Code,
an offense prohibited by:
(1) an offense prohibited by Section 9-1 (first degree
murder), Section 9-3 (involuntary manslaughter and
reckless homicide), Section 10-2 (aggravated kidnaping),
Section 11-1.20 (criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.30
(aggravated criminal sexual assault), Section 11-1.40
(predatory criminal sexual assault of a child), subsection
(a) of Section 11-1.50 (criminal sexual abuse), subsection
(a), (c), or (d) of Section 11-1.60 (aggravated criminal
sexual abuse), Section 11-6 (indecent solicitation of a
child), Section 11-14.4 (promoting juvenile prostitution
except for keeping a place of juvenile prostitution),
Section 11-20.1 (child pornography), paragraph (a)(1),
(a)(2), (a)(4), (b)(1), (b)(2), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3),
(e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (e)(7) of Section 12-3.05
(aggravated battery), Section 12-7.3 (stalking), Section
12-7.4 (aggravated stalking), Section 16-1 (theft if the
theft is of precious metal or of scrap metal), subdivision
(f)(2) or (f)(3) of Section 16-25 (retail theft), Section
18-2 (armed robbery), Section 19-1 (burglary), Section
19-2 (possession of burglary tools), Section 19-3
(residential burglary), Section 20-1 (arson; residential
arson; place of worship arson), Section 20-2 (possession of
explosives or explosive or incendiary devices),
subdivision (a)(6) or (a)(7) of Section 24-1 (unlawful use
of weapons), Section 24-1.2 (aggravated discharge of a
firearm), Section 24-1.2-5 (aggravated discharge of a
machine gun or a firearm equipped with a device designed or
used for silencing the report of a firearm), Section 24-1.5
(reckless discharge of a firearm), Section 28-1
(gambling), or Section 29D-15.2 (possession of a deadly
substance) of this Code;
(2) an offense prohibited by Section 21, 22, 23, 24 or
26 of the Cigarette Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft,
vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such
cigarettes;
(3) an offense prohibited by Section 28, 29, or 30 of
the Cigarette Use Tax Act if the vessel or watercraft,
vehicle, or aircraft contains more than 10 cartons of such
cigarettes;
(4) an offense prohibited by Section 44 of the
Environmental Protection Act;
(5) an offense prohibited by Section 11-204.1 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code (aggravated fleeing or attempting to
elude a peace officer);
(6) an offense prohibited by Section 11-501 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code (driving while under the influence of
alcohol or other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or
compounds or any combination thereof) or a similar
provision of a local ordinance, and:
(A) during a period in which his or her driving
privileges are revoked or suspended if the revocation
or suspension was for:
(i) Section 11-501 (driving under the
influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs,
intoxicating compound or compounds or any
combination thereof),
(ii) Section 11-501.1 (statutory summary
suspension or revocation),
(iii) paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 (motor
vehicle accidents involving death or personal
injuries), or
(iv) reckless homicide as defined in Section
9-3 of this Code;
(B) has been previously convicted of reckless
homicide or a similar provision of a law of another
state relating to reckless homicide in which the person
was determined to have been under the influence of
alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound
or compounds as an element of the offense or the person
has previously been convicted of committing a
violation of driving under the influence of alcohol or
other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or
compounds or any combination thereof and was involved
in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in death,
great bodily harm, or permanent disability or
disfigurement to another, when the violation was a
proximate cause of the death or injuries;
(C) the person committed a violation of driving
under the influence of alcohol or other drug or drugs,
intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination
thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code or a similar provision for the third or subsequent
time;
(D) he or she did not possess a valid driver's
license or permit or a valid restricted driving permit
or a valid judicial driving permit or a valid
monitoring device driving permit; or
(E) he or she knew or should have known that the
vehicle he or she was driving was not covered by a
liability insurance policy;
(7) an offense described in subsection (g) of Section
6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
(8) an offense described in subsection (e) of Section
6-101 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; or
(9)(A) (i) (1) operating a watercraft under the
influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating
compound or compounds, or combination thereof under
Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act during
a period in which his or her privileges to operate a
watercraft are revoked or suspended and the revocation or
suspension was for operating a watercraft under the
influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating
compound or compounds, or combination thereof; (B) (2)
operating a watercraft under the influence of alcohol,
other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or
combination thereof and has been previously convicted of
reckless homicide or a similar provision of a law in
another state relating to reckless homicide in which the
person was determined to have been under the influence of
alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or
compounds, or combination thereof as an element of the
offense or the person has previously been convicted of
committing a violation of operating a watercraft under the
influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating
compound or compounds, or combination thereof and was
involved in an accident that resulted in death, great
bodily harm, or permanent disability or disfigurement to
another, when the violation was a proximate cause of the
death or injuries; or (C) (3) the person committed a
violation of operating a watercraft under the influence of
alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or
compounds, or combination thereof under Section 5-16 of the
Boat Registration and Safety Act or a similar provision for
the third or subsequent time;. or watercraft or watercraft
(b) In addition, any mobile or portable equipment used in
the commission of an act which is in violation of Section 7g of
the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act shall be
subject to seizure and forfeiture under the same procedures
provided in this Article for the seizure and forfeiture of
vessels or watercraft, vehicles, and aircraft, and any such
equipment shall be deemed a vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or
aircraft for purposes of this Article.
(c) In addition, when a person discharges a firearm at
another individual from a vehicle with the knowledge and
consent of the owner of the vehicle and with the intent to
cause death or great bodily harm to that individual and as a
result causes death or great bodily harm to that individual,
the vehicle shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture under
the same procedures provided in this Article for the seizure
and forfeiture of vehicles used in violations of clauses (1),
(2), (3), or (4) of subsection (a) of this Section.
(d) If the spouse of the owner of a vehicle seized for an
offense described in subsection (g) of Section 6-303 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of subdivision (d)(1)(A),
(d)(1)(D), (d)(1)(G), (d)(1)(H), or (d)(1)(I) of Section
11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or Section 9-3 of this
Code makes a showing that the seized vehicle is the only source
of transportation and it is determined that the financial
hardship to the family as a result of the seizure outweighs the
benefit to the State from the seizure, the vehicle may be
forfeited to the spouse or family member and the title to the
vehicle shall be transferred to the spouse or family member who
is properly licensed and who requires the use of the vehicle
for employment or family transportation purposes. A written
declaration of forfeiture of a vehicle under this Section shall
be sufficient cause for the title to be transferred to the
spouse or family member. The provisions of this paragraph shall
apply only to one forfeiture per vehicle. If the vehicle is the
subject of a subsequent forfeiture proceeding by virtue of a
subsequent conviction of either spouse or the family member,
the spouse or family member to whom the vehicle was forfeited
under the first forfeiture proceeding may not utilize the
provisions of this paragraph in another forfeiture proceeding.
If the owner of the vehicle seized owns more than one vehicle,
the procedure set out in this paragraph may be used for only
one vehicle.
(e) In addition, property declared contraband under
Section 40 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus
Prevention Act may be seized and forfeited under this Article.
(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13;
97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-699, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1020, eff.
8-22-14; revised 9-30-14.)
(720 ILCS 5/36-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 36-2)
Sec. 36-2. Action for forfeiture.
(a) The State's Attorney in the county in which such
seizure occurs if he or she finds that the forfeiture was
incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on
the part of the owner of the vessel or watercraft, vehicle or
aircraft or any person whose right, title or interest is of
record as described in Section 36-1, to violate the law, or
finds the existence of such mitigating circumstances as to
justify remission of the forfeiture, may cause the law
enforcement agency to remit the same upon such terms and
conditions as the State's Attorney deems reasonable and just.
The State's Attorney shall exercise his or her discretion under
the foregoing provision of this Section 36-2(a) prior to or
promptly after the preliminary review under Section 36-1.5.
(b) If the State's Attorney does not cause the forfeiture
to be remitted he or she shall forthwith bring an action for
forfeiture in the Circuit Court within whose jurisdiction the
seizure and confiscation has taken place. The State's Attorney
shall give notice of seizure and the forfeiture proceeding to
each person according to the following method: upon each person
whose right, title, or interest is of record in the office of
the Secretary of State, the Secretary of Transportation, the
Administrator of the Federal Aviation Agency, or any other
department of this State, or any other state of the United
States if the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is
required to be so registered, as the case may be, by delivering
the notice and complaint in open court or by certified mail to
the address as given upon the records of the Secretary of
State, the Division of Aeronautics of the Department of
Transportation, the Capital Development Board, or any other
department of this State or the United States if the vessel or
watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft is required to be so
registered.
(c) The owner of the seized vessel or watercraft, vehicle,
or aircraft or any person whose right, title, or interest is of
record as described in Section 36-1, may within 20 days after
delivery in open court or the mailing of such notice file a
verified answer to the Complaint and may appear at the hearing
on the action for forfeiture.
(d) The State shall show at such hearing by a preponderance
of the evidence, that such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or
aircraft was used in the commission of an offense described in
Section 36-1.
(e) The owner of such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or
aircraft or any person whose right, title, or interest is of
record as described in Section 36-1, may show by a
preponderance of the evidence that he did not know, and did not
have reason to know, that the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or
aircraft was to be used in the commission of such an offense or
that any of the exceptions set forth in Section 36-3 are
applicable.
(f) Unless the State shall make such showing, the Court
shall order such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft
released to the owner. Where the State has made such showing,
the Court may order the vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or
aircraft destroyed or may order it forfeited to any local,
municipal or county law enforcement agency, or the Department
of State Police or the Department of Revenue of the State of
Illinois.
(g) A copy of the order shall be filed with the law
enforcement agency, and with each Federal or State office or
agency with which such vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or
aircraft is required to be registered. Such order, when filed,
constitutes authority for the issuance of clear title to such
vessel or watercraft, vehicle, or aircraft, to the department
or agency to whom it is delivered or any purchaser thereof. The
law enforcement agency shall comply promptly with instructions
to remit received from the State's Attorney or Attorney General
in accordance with Sections 36-2(a) or 36-3.
(h) The proceeds of any sale at public auction pursuant to
Section 36-2 of this Act, after payment of all liens and
deduction of the reasonable charges and expenses incurred by
the State's Attorney's Office shall be paid to the law
enforcement agency having seized the vehicle for forfeiture.
(Source: P.A. 98-699, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1020, eff. 8-22-14;
revised 10-1-14.)
Section 490. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by
changing Section 15.2 as follows:
(720 ILCS 550/15.2)
Sec. 15.2. Industrial hemp pilot program.
(a) Pursuant to Section 7606 of the federal Agricultural
Act of 2014, an institution of higher education or the
Department of Agriculture may grow or cultivate industrial hemp
if:
(1) the industrial hemp is grown or cultivated for
purposes of research conducted under an agricultural pilot
program or other agricultural or academic research;
(2) the pilot program studies the growth, cultivation,
or marketing of industrial hemp; and
(3) any site used for the growing or cultivating of
industrial hemp is certified by, and registered with, the
Department of Agriculture.
(b) Before conducting industrial hemp research, an
institution of higher education shall notify the Department of
Agriculture and any local law enforcement agency in writing.
(c) The institution of higher education shall provide
quarterly reports and an annual report to the Department of
Agriculture on the research and the research program shall be
subject to random inspection by the Department of Agriculture,
the Department of State Police, or local law enforcement
agencies. The institution of higher education shall submit the
annual report to the Department of Agriculture on or before
October 1.
(d) The Department of Agriculture may adopt rules to
implement this Section. In order to provide for the expeditious
and timely implementation of this Section, upon notification by
an institution of higher education that the institution wishes
to engage in the growth or cultivation of industrial hemp for
agricultural research purposes, the Department of Agriculture
may adopt emergency rules under Section 5-45 of the Illinois
Administrative Procedure Act to implement the provisions of
this Section. If changes to the rules are required to comply
with federal rules, the Department of Agriculture may adopt
peremptory rules as necessary to comply with changes to
corresponding federal rules. All other rules that the
Department of Agriculture deems necessary to adopt in
connection with this Section must proceed through the ordinary
rule-making process. The adoption of emergency rules
authorized by this Section shall be deemed to be necessary for
the public interest, safety, and welfare.
The Department of Agriculture may determine, by rule, the
duration of an institution of higher education's pilot program
or industrial hemp research. If the institution of higher
education has not completed its program within the timeframe
established by rule, then the Department of Agriculture may
grant an extension to the pilot program if unanticipated
circumstances arose that impacted the program.
(e) As used in this Section:
"Industrial hemp" means cannabis sativa L. having no more
than 0.3% total THC available, upon heating, or maximum delta-9
tetrahydrocannabinol content possible.
"Institution of higher education" means a State
institution of higher education that offers a 4-year degree in
agricultural science.
(Source: P.A. 98-1072, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 495. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is
amended by changing Sections 102 and 312 as follows:
(720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)
Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
context otherwise requires:
(a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug,
chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as
to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who
is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled
substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self
control with reference to his or her addiction.
(b) "Administer" means the direct application of a
controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation,
ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient,
research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
(1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his
or her authorized agent),
(2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
order, or
(3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
(c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf
of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,
dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a
common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
the carrier or warehouseman.
(c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal
substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to
testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins,
corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
(i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,
(ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,
(iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,
(iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],
17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),
(v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],
17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),
(vi) 4-androstenediol
(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),
(vii) 5-androstenediol
(3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),
(viii) 1-androstenedione
([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),
(ix) 4-androstenedione
(androst-4-en-3,17-dione),
(x) 5-androstenedione
(androst-5-en-3,17-dione),
(xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
(xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-
1,4,-diene-3-one),
(xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-
diene-3,17-dione),
(xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17
[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
(xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-
hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
(xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-
17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-
androst-1,4-dien-3-one),
(xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone
(17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]
-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),
(xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.
'1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-
5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
(xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-
androstan-3-one),
(xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-
5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
(xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyestr-4-ene),
(xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-
1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
(xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],
17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),
(xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),
(xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)
(xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-
androst-4-en-3-one),
(xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-
dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),
(xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),
(xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
[5a]-androstan-3-one),
(xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),
(xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-
dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),
(xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
(xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-
dihydroxy-5a-androstane),
(xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy
-5a-androstane),
(xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-
dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),
(xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-
methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
(xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),
(xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),
(xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
(xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
(xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone
(17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-
androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-
1-testosterone'),
(xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
(xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-
dihydroxyestr-4-ene),
(xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-
dihydroxyestr-4-ene),
(xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-
dihydroxyestr-5-ene),
(xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-
dihydroxyestr-5-ene),
(xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione
(estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),
(xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-
en-3,17-dione),
(xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-
en-3,17-dione),
(l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-
hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),
(li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
(lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
(liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
(liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
(lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-
dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
(lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-
17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
(lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
(5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),
(lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-
(5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
(lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-
secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic
acid lactone),
(lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-
4-en-3-one),
(lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-
diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-
4,9,11-trien-3-one),
(lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,
11-trien-3-one).
Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an
anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,
distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to
deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is
expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services
for such administration, and which the person intends to
administer or have administered through such implants, shall
not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to
unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or
possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
purposes of this Act.
(d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement
Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its
successor agency.
(d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"
means a Department of Human Services administrative employee
licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances
who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human
Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription
Information Library.
(d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of
components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the
prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of
professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident
to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale
or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs
or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug
orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the
following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not
reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a
timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
compounded.
(e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or
immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from
another Schedule or otherwise.
(f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or
immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act
or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor,
designated as a controlled substance by the Department through
administrative rule. The term does not include distilled
spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the
Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
(f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
(1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance
in Schedule I or II;
(2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is
substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,
depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or
II; or
(3) with respect to a particular person, which such
person represents or intends to have a stimulant,
depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater
than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect
on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in
Schedule I or II.
(g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,
which, or the container or labeling of which, without
authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other
identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness
thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other
than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or
dispensed the substance.
(h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive
or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,
with or without consideration, whether or not there is an
agency relationship.
(i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and
Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
(j) (Blank).
(k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of
Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
(l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"
means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
(m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall
depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes
impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles
and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs,
barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and
synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar
sedative hypnotics.
(n) (Blank).
(o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State
Police or his or her designated agents.
(p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to
an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the
lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing,
administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary
to prepare the substance for that delivery.
(q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
(r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by
administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
(s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
(t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the
official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic
Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National
Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances
intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or
prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other
than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use
as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or
(3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their
components, parts, or accessories.
(t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control
facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal
Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase,
store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal
euthanasia.
(t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III
substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used
by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
(u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a
controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of
professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or
her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that
individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or
addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein:
and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the
dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the
pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by
accepted professional standards including, but not limited to
the following, in making the judgment:
(1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
relationship,
(2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
prescriber for large numbers of patients,
(3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
(4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be
clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual
dose may be used legitimately),
(5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
pharmacist and prescriber,
(6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
(u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly
altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any
type.
(u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a
pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to
a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or
hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous,
intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
(u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the
State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
(v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
(1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
designated as being a principal compound used, or produced
primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled
substance;
(2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or
likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled
substance; and
(3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled
substance.
(w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,
educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled
substances within educational facilities approved by the State
Board of Education or its successor agency.
(x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,
County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
(y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a
controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit
appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack
thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical
characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person
to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2)
is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled
substance or is distributed under circumstances which would
lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a
controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether
the representations made or the circumstances of the
distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the
substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of
subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the
following factors in addition to any other factor that may be
relevant:
(a) statements made by the owner or person in control
of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
(b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the
substance may be resold for profit;
(c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled
substances;
(d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution
included an exchange of or demand for money or other
property as consideration, and whether the amount of the
consideration was substantially greater than the
reasonable retail market value of the substance.
Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a
noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was
initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial
introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its
finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or
distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized
to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this
Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried
out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances
involved were controlled substances.
Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the
manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding,
processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or
drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
(y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is
located in a state of the United States that delivers,
dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal
Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any
substance which requires a prescription.
(z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,
propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a
controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of
natural origin, or independently by means of chemical
synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the
substance or labeling of its container, except that this term
does not include:
(1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding
of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
(2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
under his or her supervision, the preparation,
compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled
substance:
(a) as an incident to his or her administering or
dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of
his or her professional practice; or
(b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or
chemical analysis and not for sale.
(z-1) (Blank).
(z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited
under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
(z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician
assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through
a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to
practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with
Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987,
(ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated
authority to prescribe through a written delegation of
authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an animal
euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist.
(aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether
produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances
of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical
synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
synthesis:
(1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts
of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of
such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within
the specific chemical designation; however the term
"narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline
alkaloids of opium;
(2) (blank);
(3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
(4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and
ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have
been removed;
(5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,
and salts of isomers;
(6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
and salts of isomers;
(7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to
in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
(bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
Nurse Practice Act.
(cc) (Blank).
(dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction
forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine
or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction
forming or addiction sustaining liability.
(ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
somniferum L., except its seeds.
(ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or
solution or other liquid form of medication intended for
administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form
of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal
administration.
(ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon
Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
(gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,
mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or
agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or
association, or any other entity.
(hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or
certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local
registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist
under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
(ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in
which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy
Practice Act.
(ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited
under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
(ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise
requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all
of its branches.
(jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of
the opium poppy, after mowing.
(kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric
physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,
physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed
practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or
pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise
lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to
distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to,
administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
controlled substance in the course of professional practice or
research.
(ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written
prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated
prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written
prescription that is individually generated by machine or
computer in the prescriber's office.
(mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist,
prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive
authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical
Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant
who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in
accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced
practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under
Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with
Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written
collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse
Practice Act.
(nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral
order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable
federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or
veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist
for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in
accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric
Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed
under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act
with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant
for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a
written delegation, and a written supervision agreement
required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice
Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive
authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
Act who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in
accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the
Nurse Practice Act when required by law.
(nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an
electronic library that contains reported controlled substance
data.
(nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the
entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on
controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
(oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,
planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled
substance other than methamphetamine.
(pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to
register under Section 302 of this Act.
(qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each
person authorized to handle controlled substances under the
laws of the United States and of this State.
(qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either
the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the
Secretary's designated agents.
(rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,
district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,
and any area subject to the legal authority of the United
States of America.
(rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an
overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)
causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs,
methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine
and its analogs.
(ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses
a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of
a member of his or her household or for administering to an
animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her
household.
(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668,
eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14;
revised 10-1-14.)
(720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312)
Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled
substances.
(a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule
II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in
Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of
amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers
or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or
pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances
to any person upon a written or electronic prescription of any
prescriber, dated and signed by the person prescribing (or
electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on
the day when issued and bearing the name and address of the
patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which the
controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address
and registry number under the laws of the United States
relating to controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or
she is required by those laws to be registered. If the
prescription is for an animal it shall state the species of
animal for which it is ordered. The practitioner filling the
prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date
of filling and his or her own signature on the face of the
written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such
filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v)
of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. The written
prescription shall be retained on file by the practitioner who
filled it or pharmacy in which the prescription was filled for
a period of 2 years, so as to be readily accessible for
inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged in the
enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or
pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or
employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the
purpose of investigation or as evidence, such officer or
employee shall give to the practitioner or pharmacy a receipt
in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or
computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the
date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription for a
Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more
than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5),
and shall be valid for up to 90 days after the date of
issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or V
controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than
6 months after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times
unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber.
(a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3
sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled
substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before
authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled
substance, the physician must meet both of the following
conditions:
(1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a
legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician
acting in the usual course of professional practice.
(2) The individual physician must provide written
instructions on each prescription (other than the first
prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the
prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the
earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that
prescription.
(b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this
Section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule
III, IV, or V substances to any person either upon receiving a
facsimile of a written, signed prescription transmitted by the
prescriber or the prescriber's agent or upon a lawful oral
prescription of a prescriber which oral prescription shall be
reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and such written
memorandum thereof shall be dated on the day when such oral
prescription is received by the pharmacist and shall bear the
full name and address of the ultimate user for whom, or of the
owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is
dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number
under the law of the United States relating to controlled
substances of the prescriber prescribing if he or she is
required by those laws to be so registered, and the pharmacist
filling such oral prescription shall write the date of filling
and his or her own signature on the face of such written
memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or
written memorandum of the oral prescription shall be retained
on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled
for a period of not less than two years, so as to be readily
accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged in
the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written
prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral
prescription and the written memorandum thereof shall not be
filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or
be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by
the prescriber.
(c) Except for any non-prescription targeted
methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine
Precursor Control Act, a controlled substance included in
Schedule V shall not be distributed or dispensed other than for
a medical purpose and not for the purpose of evading this Act,
and then:
(1) only personally by a person registered to dispense
a Schedule V controlled substance and then only to his or
her patients, or
(2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to a
person over 21 years of age who has identified himself or
herself to the pharmacist by means of 2 positive documents
of identification.
(3) the dispenser shall record the name and address of
the purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the
date and time of the sale, and the dispenser's signature.
(4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more than
120 milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V
substance which contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any
salts thereof, or ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in
any 96 hour period. The purchaser shall sign a form,
approved by the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any
Schedule V controlled substances within the immediately
preceding 96 hours.
(5) (Blank).
(6) all records of purchases and sales shall be
maintained for not less than 2 years.
(7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain within
any consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of
more than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams containing
codeine, dihydrocodeine or any of its salts, or
ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person obtaining any
such preparations or combination of preparations in excess
of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such
controlled substance.
(8) a person qualified to dispense controlled
substances under this Act and registered thereunder shall
at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule
V controlled substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each
substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in
stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as
defined in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance, plus
the additional quantity of controlled substances necessary
to fill the largest number of prescription orders filled by
that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one
week in the previous year. These limitations shall not
apply to Schedule V controlled substances which Federal law
prohibits from being dispensed without a prescription.
(9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl
nitrite for inhalation or other introduction into the human
body for euphoric or physical effect.
(d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of
controlled substances received by him or her and a record of
all such controlled substances administered, dispensed or
professionally used by him or her otherwise than by
prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with
this paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled
substances listed in Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a
record of all those substances dispensed and distributed by him
or her other than those controlled substances which are
administered by the direct application of a controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any
other means to the body of a patient or research subject. A
practitioner who dispenses, other than by administering, a
controlled substance in Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug
listed in Section 206 of this Act, or which contains any
quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts,
optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or
methaqualone shall do so only upon the issuance of a written
prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a
prescriber.
(e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled
substance in a package prepared by him or her, and whenever a
wholesale distributor distributes a controlled substance in a
package prepared by him or her or the manufacturer, he or she
shall securely affix to each package in which that substance is
contained a label showing in legible English the name and
address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity,
kind and form of controlled substance contained therein. No
person except a pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling
a prescription under this Act, shall alter, deface or remove
any label so affixed.
(f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled
substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a
non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated
by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she shall
affix to the container in which such substance is sold or
dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the
practitioner's name and address, the name of the patient, the
name of the prescriber, the directions for use and cautionary
statements, if any, contained in any prescription or required
by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name
of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity,
except as otherwise authorized by regulation by the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation. No person shall
alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the
specific medication remains in the container.
(g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled
substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner,
or other persons authorized under this Act, and the owner of
any animal for which such substance has been prescribed or
dispensed by a veterinarian, may lawfully possess such
substance only in the container in which it was delivered to
him or her by the person dispensing such substance.
(h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or
dispensing of controlled substances that are under the
prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The
responsibility for the proper filling of a prescription for
controlled substance drugs rests with the pharmacist. An order
purporting to be a prescription issued to any individual, which
is not in the regular course of professional treatment nor part
of an authorized methadone maintenance program, nor in
legitimate and authorized research instituted by any
accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable
foundation, or federal, state or local governmental agency, and
which is intended to provide that individual with controlled
substances sufficient to maintain that individual's or any
other individual's physical or psychological addiction,
habitual or customary use, dependence, or diversion of that
controlled substance is not a prescription within the meaning
and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be
subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law
relating to controlled substances.
(i) A prescriber shall not pre-print preprint or cause to
be pre-printed preprinted a prescription for any controlled
substance; nor shall any practitioner issue, fill or cause to
be issued or filled, a pre-printed preprinted prescription for
any controlled substance.
(i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device
to individually generate a printed prescription, but the
prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual
signature.
(j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver,
possess with intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or
cause to be administered under his or her direction any
anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than the
treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches for
a valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice.
The use of anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal
manipulation that is intended to increase muscle mass, strength
or weight without a medical necessity to do so, or for the
intended purpose of improving physical appearance or
performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a
valid medical purpose or in the course of professional
practice.
(k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the
following conditions are met:
(1) The controlled substances are not outwardly
dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause
injury to a person's life or health.
(2) The inner container of a parcel containing
controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required
under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain
outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper.
(3) If the controlled substances consist of
prescription medicines, the inner container must be
labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or
practitioner dispensing the prescription.
(4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of
markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.
(Source: P.A. 96-166, eff. 1-1-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised
12-10-14.)
Section 500. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 is
amended by changing Sections 104-18, 108-4, 109-1, 109-1.1, and
122-2.2 as follows:
(725 ILCS 5/104-18) (from Ch. 38, par. 104-18)
Sec. 104-18. Progress Reports.
(a) The treatment supervisor shall submit a written
progress report to the court, the State, and the defense:
(1) At least 7 days prior to the date for any hearing
on the issue of the defendant's fitness;
(2) Whenever he believes that the defendant has
attained fitness;
(3) Whenever he believes that there is not a
substantial probability that the defendant will attain
fitness, with treatment, within the time period set in
subsection (e) of Section 104-17 of this Code from the date
of the original finding of unfitness.
(b) The progress report shall contain:
(1) The clinical findings of the treatment supervisor
and the facts upon which the findings are based;
(2) The opinion of the treatment supervisor as to
whether the defendant has attained fitness or as to whether
the defendant is making progress, under treatment, toward
attaining fitness within the time period set in subsection
(e) of Section 104-17 of this Code from the date of the
original finding of unfitness;
(3) If the defendant is receiving medication,
information from the prescribing physician indicating the
type, the dosage and the effect of the medication on the
defendant's appearance, actions and demeanor.
(c) Whenever the court is sent a report from the supervisor
of the defendant's treatment under paragraph (2) of subsection
(a) of this Section, the treatment provider shall arrange with
the court for the return of the defendant to the county jail
before the time frame specified in subsection (a) of Section
104-20 of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 97-1020, eff. 8-17-12; 98-944, eff. 8-15-14;
98-1025, eff. 8-22-14; revised 10-1-14.)
(725 ILCS 5/108-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 108-4)
Sec. 108-4. Issuance of search warrant.
(a) All warrants upon written complaint shall state the
time and date of issuance and be the warrants of the judge
issuing the same and not the warrants of the court in which he
or she is then sitting and these warrants need not bear the
seal of the court or clerk thereof. The complaint on which the
warrant is issued need not be filed with the clerk of the court
nor with the court if there is no clerk until the warrant has
been executed or has been returned "not executed".
The search warrant upon written complaint may be issued
electronically or electromagnetically by use of electronic
mail or a facsimile transmission machine and this warrant shall
have the same validity as a written search warrant.
(b) Warrant upon oral testimony.
(1) General rule. When the offense in connection with
which a search warrant is sought constitutes terrorism or
any related offense as defined in Article 29D of the
Criminal Code of 2012, and if the circumstances make it
reasonable to dispense, in whole or in part, with a written
affidavit, a judge may issue a warrant based upon sworn
testimony communicated by telephone or other appropriate
means, including facsimile transmission.
(2) Application. The person who is requesting the
warrant shall prepare a document to be known as a duplicate
original warrant and shall read such duplicate original
warrant, verbatim, to the judge. The judge shall enter,
verbatim, what is so read to the judge on a document to be
known as the original warrant. The judge may direct that
the warrant be modified.
(3) Issuance. If the judge is satisfied that the
offense in connection with which the search warrant is
sought constitutes terrorism or any related offense as
defined in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 2012, that
the circumstances are such as to make it reasonable to
dispense with a written affidavit, and that grounds for the
application exist or that there is probable cause to
believe that they exist, the judge shall order the issuance
of a warrant by directing the person requesting the warrant
to sign the judge's name on the duplicate original warrant.
The judge shall immediately sign the original warrant and
enter on the face of the original warrant the exact time
when the warrant was ordered to be issued. The finding of
probable cause for a warrant upon oral testimony may be
based on the same kind of evidence as is sufficient for a
warrant upon affidavit.
(4) Recording and certification of testimony. When a
caller informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to
request a warrant, the judge shall immediately place under
oath each person whose testimony forms a basis of the
application and each person applying for that warrant. If a
voice recording device is available, the judge shall record
by means of the device all of the call after the caller
informs the judge that the purpose of the call is to
request a warrant, otherwise a stenographic or longhand
verbatim record shall be made. If a voice recording device
is used or a stenographic record made, the judge shall have
the record transcribed, shall certify the accuracy of the
transcription, and shall file a copy of the original record
and the transcription with the court. If a longhand
verbatim record is made, the judge shall file a signed copy
with the court.
(5) Contents. The contents of a warrant upon oral
testimony shall be the same as the contents of a warrant
upon affidavit.
(6) Additional rule for execution. The person who
executes the warrant shall enter the exact time of
execution on the face of the duplicate original warrant.
(7) Motion to suppress based on failure to obtain a
written affidavit. Evidence obtained pursuant to a warrant
issued under this subsection (b) is not subject to a motion
to suppress on the ground that the circumstances were not
such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written
affidavit, absent a finding of bad faith. All other grounds
to move to suppress are preserved.
(8) This subsection (b) is inoperative on and after
January 1, 2005.
(9) No evidence obtained pursuant to this subsection
(b) shall be inadmissible in a court of law by virtue of
subdivision (8).
(c) Warrant upon testimony by simultaneous video and audio
transmission.
(1) General rule. When a search warrant is sought and
the request is made by electronic means that has a
simultaneous video and audio transmission between the
requestor and a judge, the judge may issue a search warrant
based upon sworn testimony communicated in the
transmission.
(2) Application. The requestor shall prepare a
document to be known as a duplicate original warrant, and
(A) if circumstances allow, the requestor shall
transmit a copy of the warrant together with a
complaint for search warrant to the judge by facsimile,
email, or other reliable electronic means; or
(B) if circumstances make transmission under
subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (2) impracticable,
the requestor shall read the duplicate original
warrant, verbatim, to the judge after being placed
under oath as provided in paragraph (4) of this
subsection (c). The judge shall enter, verbatim, what
is so read to the judge on a document in the judge's
possession.
Under both subparagraphs (A) and (B), the document in
possession of the judge shall be known as the original
warrant. The judge may direct that the warrant be modified.
(3) Issuance. If the judge is satisfied that grounds
for the application exist or that there is probable cause
to believe that grounds exist, the judge shall order the
issuance of a warrant by directing the requestor to sign
the judge's name on the duplicate original warrant, place
the requestor's initials below the judge's name, and enter
on the face of the duplicate original warrant the exact
date and time when the warrant was ordered to be issued.
The judge shall immediately sign the original warrant and
enter on the face of the original warrant the exact date
and time when the warrant was ordered to be issued. The
finding of probable cause for a warrant under this
subsection (c) may be based on the same kind of evidence as
is sufficient for a warrant under subsection (a).
(4) Recording and certification of testimony. When a
requestor initiates a request for search warrant under this
subsection (c), and after the requestor informs the judge
that the purpose of the communication is to request a
warrant, the judge shall place under oath each person whose
testimony forms a basis of the application and each person
applying for that warrant. A record of the facts upon which
the judge based his or her decision to issue a warrant must
be made and filed with the court, together with the
original warrant.
(A) When the requestor has provided the judge with
a written complaint for search warrant under
subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of this subsection
(c) and the judge has sworn the complainant to the
facts contained in the complaint for search warrant but
has taken no other oral testimony from any person that
is essential to establishing probable cause, the judge
must acknowledge the attestation in writing on the
complaint and file this acknowledged complaint with
the court.
(B) When the requestor has not provided the judge
with a written complaint for search warrant, or when
the judge has taken oral testimony essential to
establishing probable cause not contained in the
written complaint for search warrant, the essential
facts in the oral testimony that form the basis of the
judge's decision to issue the warrant shall be included
in the record together with the written complaint, if
any. If a recording device is used or a stenographic
record is made, the judge shall have the record
transcribed, shall certify the accuracy of the
transcription, and shall file a copy of the original
record and the transcription with the court. If a
longhand record is made, the judge shall file a signed
copy with the court.
The material to be filed need not be filed until the
warrant has been executed or has been returned "not
executed".
(5) Contents. The contents of a warrant under this
subsection (c) shall be the same as the contents of a
warrant upon affidavit. A warrant under this subsection is
a warrant of the judge issuing the same and not the warrant
of the court in which he or she is then sitting and these
warrants need not bear the seal of the court or the clerk
of the court.
(6) Additional rule for execution. The person who
executes the warrant shall enter the exact time of
execution on the face of the duplicate original warrant.
(7) Motion to suppress based on failure to obtain a
written affidavit. Evidence obtained under a warrant
issued under this subsection (c) is not subject to a motion
to suppress on the ground that the circumstances were not
such as to make it reasonable to dispense with a written
affidavit, absent a finding of bad faith. All other grounds
to move to suppress are preserved.
(d) The Chief Judge of the circuit court or presiding judge
in the issuing jurisdiction shall, by local rule, create a
standard practice for the filing or other retention of
documents or recordings produced under this Section.
(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-829, eff. 8-1-14;
98-905, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
(725 ILCS 5/109-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 109-1)
Sec. 109-1. Person arrested.
(a) A person arrested with or without a warrant shall be
taken without unnecessary delay before the nearest and most
accessible judge in that county, except when such county is a
participant in a regional jail authority, in which event such
person may be taken to the nearest and most accessible judge,
irrespective of the county where such judge presides, and a
charge shall be filed. Whenever a person arrested either with
or without a warrant is required to be taken before a judge, a
charge may be filed against such person by way of a two-way
closed circuit television system, except that a hearing to deny
bail to the defendant may not be conducted by way of closed
circuit television.
(b) The judge shall:
(1) Inform the defendant of the charge against him and
shall provide him with a copy of the charge;
(2) Advise the defendant of his right to counsel and if
indigent shall appoint a public defender or licensed
attorney at law of this State to represent him in
accordance with the provisions of Section 113-3 of this
Code;
(3) Schedule a preliminary hearing in appropriate
cases;
(4) Admit the defendant to bail in accordance with the
provisions of Article 110 of this Code; and
(5) Order the confiscation of the person's passport or
impose travel restrictions on a defendant arrested for
first degree murder or other violent crime as defined in
Section 3 of the Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act,
if the judge determines, based on the factors in Section
110-5 of this Code, that this will reasonably ensure assure
the appearance of the defendant and compliance by the
defendant with all conditions of release.
(c) The court may issue an order of protection in
accordance with the provisions of Article 112A of this Code.
(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-143, eff. 1-1-14;
revised 12-10-14.)
(725 ILCS 5/109-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 109-1.1)
Sec. 109-1.1. (1) Whenever a person arrested either with or
without a warrant is taken before a judge as provided for in
Sections 107-9(d)(6) and 109-1(a), the judge shall ask the
arrestee whether he or she has any children under 18 years old
living with him or her who may be neglected as a result of the
arrest, incarceration or otherwise. If the judge has reasonable
cause to believe that a child may be a neglected child as
defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Care Reporting Act,
he shall instruct a probation officer to report it immediately
to the Department of Children and Family Services as provided
in that Act.
(Source: P.A. 82-228; revised 12-10-14.)
(725 ILCS 5/122-2.2)
Sec. 122-2.2. Intellectual disability and post-conviction
relief.
(a) In cases where no determination of an intellectual
disability was made and a defendant has been convicted of
first-degree murder, sentenced to death, and is in custody
pending execution of the sentence of death, the following
procedures shall apply:
(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law or rule
of court, a defendant may seek relief from the death
sentence through a petition for post-conviction relief
under this Article alleging that the defendant was
intellectually disabled as defined in Section 114-15 at the
time the offense was alleged to have been committed.
(2) The petition must be filed within 180 days of the
effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General
Assembly or within 180 days of the issuance of the mandate
by the Illinois Supreme Court setting the date of
execution, whichever is later.
(b) (3) All other provisions of this Article governing
petitions for post-conviction relief shall apply to a petition
for post-conviction relief alleging an intellectual
disability.
(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 505. The State Appellate Defender Act is amended by
changing Section 10 as follows:
(725 ILCS 105/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 208-10)
Sec. 10. Powers and duties of State Appellate Defender.
(a) The State Appellate Defender shall represent indigent
persons on appeal in criminal and delinquent minor proceedings,
when appointed to do so by a court under a Supreme Court Rule
or law of this State.
(b) The State Appellate Defender shall submit a budget for
the approval of the State Appellate Defender Commission.
(c) The State Appellate Defender may:
(1) maintain a panel of private attorneys available to
serve as counsel on a case basis;
(2) establish programs, alone or in conjunction with
law schools, for the purpose of utilizing volunteer law
students as legal assistants;
(3) cooperate and consult with state agencies,
professional associations, and other groups concerning the
causes of criminal conduct, the rehabilitation and
correction of persons charged with and convicted of crime,
the administration of criminal justice, and, in counties of
less than 1,000,000 population, study, design, develop and
implement model systems for the delivery of trial level
defender services, and make an annual report to the General
Assembly;
(4) hire investigators to provide investigative
services to appointed counsel and county public defenders;
(5) (blank); (Blank.)
(5.5) provide training to county public defenders;
(5.7) provide county public defenders with the
assistance of expert witnesses and investigators from
funds appropriated to the State Appellate Defender
specifically for that purpose by the General Assembly. The
Office of the State Appellate Defender shall not be
appointed to act as trial counsel;
(6) develop a Juvenile Defender Resource Center to: (i)
study, design, develop, and implement model systems for the
delivery of trial level defender services for juveniles in
the justice system; (ii) in cases in which a sentence of
incarceration or an adult sentence, or both, is an
authorized disposition, provide trial counsel with legal
advice and the assistance of expert witnesses and
investigators from funds appropriated to the Office of the
State Appellate Defender by the General Assembly
specifically for that purpose; (iii) develop and provide
training to public defenders on juvenile justice issues,
utilizing resources including the State and local bar
associations, the Illinois Public Defender Association,
law schools, the Midwest Juvenile Defender Center, and pro
bono efforts by law firms; and (iv) make an annual report
to the General Assembly.
(d) (Blank.).
(e) The requirement for reporting to the General Assembly
shall be satisfied by filing copies of the report with the
Speaker, the Minority Leader and the Clerk of the House of
Representatives and the President, the Minority Leader and the
Secretary of the Senate and the Legislative Research Unit, as
required by Section 3.1 of the General Assembly Organization
Act and filing such additional copies with the State Government
Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly as is
required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State Library
Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-1148, eff. 7-21-10; 97-1003, eff. 8-17-12;
revised 12-10-14.)
Section 510. The Gang Crime Witness Protection Act of 2013
is amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
(725 ILCS 173/15)
Sec. 15. Funding. The Illinois Criminal Justice
Information Authority, in consultation with the Attorney
General, shall adopt rules for the implementation of the Gang
Crime Witness Protection Program. Assistance shall be subject
to the following limitations:
(a) Funds shall be limited to payment of the following:
(1) temporary living costs;
(2) moving expenses;
(3) rent;
(4) security deposits; and
(5) other appropriate expenses of relocation or
transition;
(b) Approval of applications made by State's Attorneys
shall be conditioned upon county funding for costs at a
level of at least 25%, unless this requirement is waived by
the administrator, in accordance with adopted rules, for
good cause shown;
(c) Counties providing assistance consistent with the
limitations in this Act may apply for reimbursement of up
to 75% of their costs; and
(d) No more than 50% of funding available in any given
fiscal year may be used for costs associated with any
single county; and .
(e) Before the Illinois Criminal Justice Information
Authority distributes moneys from the Gang Crime Witness
Protection Program Fund as provided in this Section, it
shall retain 2% of those moneys for administrative
purposes.
(Source: P.A. 98-58, eff. 7-8-13; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 515. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by
changing Sections 3-2.7-25, 3-2.7-50, 3-10-2, 5-6-1, 5-6-2,
and 5-6-3.1 as follows:
(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-25)
Sec. 3-2.7-25. Duties and powers.
(a) The Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall function
independently within the Department of Juvenile Justice with
respect to the operations of the Office in performance of his
or her duties under this Article and shall report to the
Governor. The Ombudsman shall adopt rules and standards as may
be necessary or desirable to carry out his or her duties.
Funding for the Office shall be designated separately within
Department funds. The Department shall provide necessary
administrative services and facilities to the Office of the
Independent Juvenile Ombudsman.
(b) The Office of Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall have
the following duties:
(1) review and monitor the implementation of the rules
and standards established by the Department of Juvenile
Justice and evaluate the delivery of services to youth to
ensure that the rights of youth are fully observed;
(2) provide assistance to a youth or family whom who
the Ombudsman determines is in need of assistance,
including advocating with an agency, provider, or other
person in the best interests of the youth;
(3) investigate and attempt to resolve complaints made
by or on behalf of youth, other than complaints alleging
criminal behavior or violations of the State Officials and
Employees Employee Ethics Act, if the Office determines
that the investigation and resolution would further the
purpose of the Office, and:
(A) a youth committed to the Department of Juvenile
Justice or the youth's family is in need of assistance
from the Office; or
(B) a systemic issue in the Department of Juvenile
Justice's provision of services is raised by a
complaint;
(4) review or inspect periodically the facilities and
procedures of any facility in which a youth has been placed
by the Department of Juvenile Justice to ensure that the
rights of youth are fully observed; and
(5) be accessible to and meet confidentially and
regularly with youth committed to the Department and serve
as a resource by informing them of pertinent laws, rules,
and policies, and their rights thereunder.
(c) The following cases shall be reported immediately to
the Director of Juvenile Justice and the Governor:
(1) cases of severe abuse or injury of a youth;
(2) serious misconduct, misfeasance, malfeasance, or
serious violations of policies and procedures concerning
the administration of a Department of Juvenile Justice
program or operation;
(3) serious problems concerning the delivery of
services in a facility operated by or under contract with
the Department of Juvenile Justice;
(4) interference by the Department of Juvenile Justice
with an investigation conducted by the Office; and
(5) other cases as deemed necessary by the Ombudsman.
(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the
Ombudsman may not investigate alleged criminal behavior or
violations of the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act. If
the Ombudsman determines that a possible criminal act has been
committed, or that special expertise is required in the
investigation, he or she shall immediately notify the
Department of State Police. If the Ombudsman determines that a
possible violation of the State Officials and Employees Ethics
Act has occurred, he or she shall immediately refer the
incident to the Office of the Governor's Executive Inspector
General for investigation. If the Ombudsman receives a
complaint from a youth or third party regarding suspected abuse
or neglect of a child, the Ombudsman shall refer the incident
to the Child Abuse and Neglect Hotline or to the State Police
as mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
Any investigation conducted by the Ombudsman shall not be
duplicative and shall be separate from any investigation
mandated by the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. All
investigations conducted by the Ombudsman shall be conducted in
a manner designed to ensure the preservation of evidence for
possible use in a criminal prosecution.
(e) In performance of his or her duties, the Ombudsman may:
(1) review court files of youth;
(2) recommend policies, rules, and legislation
designed to protect youth;
(3) make appropriate referrals under any of the duties
and powers listed in this Section;
(4) attend internal administrative and disciplinary
hearings to ensure the rights of youth are fully observed
and advocate for the best interest of youth when deemed
necessary; and
(5) perform other acts, otherwise permitted or
required by law, in furtherance of the purpose of the
Office.
(f) To assess if a youth's rights have been violated, the
Ombudsman may, in any matter that does not involve alleged
criminal behavior, contact or consult with an administrator,
employee, youth, parent, expert, or any other individual in the
course of his or her investigation or to secure information as
necessary to fulfill his or her duties.
(Source: P.A. 98-1032, eff. 8-25-14; revised 11-26-14.)
(730 ILCS 5/3-2.7-50)
Sec. 3-2.7-50. Promotion and awareness of Office. The
Independent Juvenile Ombudsman shall promote awareness among
the public and youth of:
(1) the rights of youth committed to the Department;
(2) the purpose of the Office;
(3) how the Office may be contacted;
(4) the confidential nature of communications; and
(5) the services the Office provides.
(Source: P.A. 98-1032, eff. 8-25-14; revised 11-26-14.)
(730 ILCS 5/3-10-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-10-2)
Sec. 3-10-2. Examination of Persons Committed to the
Department of Juvenile Justice.
(a) A person committed to the Department of Juvenile
Justice shall be examined in regard to his medical,
psychological, social, educational and vocational condition
and history, including the use of alcohol and other drugs, the
circumstances of his offense and any other information as the
Department of Juvenile Justice may determine.
(a-5) Upon admission of a person committed to the
Department of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile
Justice must provide the person with appropriate information
concerning HIV and AIDS in writing, verbally, or by video or
other electronic means. The Department of Juvenile Justice
shall develop the informational materials in consultation with
the Department of Public Health. At the same time, the
Department of Juvenile Justice also must offer the person the
option of being tested, at no charge to the person, for
infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Pre-test
information shall be provided to the committed person and
informed consent obtained as required in subsection (q) of
Section 3 and Section 5 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. The
Department of Juvenile Justice may conduct opt-out HIV testing
as defined in Section 4 of the AIDS Confidentiality Act. If the
Department conducts opt-out HIV testing, the Department shall
place signs in English, Spanish and other languages as needed
in multiple, highly visible locations in the area where HIV
testing is conducted informing inmates that they will be tested
for HIV unless they refuse, and refusal or acceptance of
testing shall be documented in the inmate's medical record. The
Department shall follow procedures established by the
Department of Public Health to conduct HIV testing and testing
to confirm positive HIV test results. All testing must be
conducted by medical personnel, but pre-test and other
information may be provided by committed persons who have
received appropriate training. The Department, in conjunction
with the Department of Public Health, shall develop a plan that
complies with the AIDS Confidentiality Act to deliver
confidentially all positive or negative HIV test results to
inmates or former inmates. Nothing in this Section shall
require the Department to offer HIV testing to an inmate who is
known to be infected with HIV, or who has been tested for HIV
within the previous 180 days and whose documented HIV test
result is available to the Department electronically. The
testing provided under this subsection (a-5) shall consist of a
test approved by the Illinois Department of Public Health to
determine the presence of HIV infection, based upon
recommendations of the United States Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention. If the test result is positive, a
reliable supplemental test based upon recommendations of the
United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention shall
be administered.
Also upon admission of a person committed to the Department
of Juvenile Justice, the Department of Juvenile Justice must
inform the person of the Department's obligation to provide the
person with medical care.
(b) Based on its examination, the Department of Juvenile
Justice may exercise the following powers in developing a
treatment program of any person committed to the Department of
Juvenile Justice:
(1) Require participation by him in vocational,
physical, educational and corrective training and
activities to return him to the community.
(2) Place him in any institution or facility of the
Department of Juvenile Justice.
(3) Order replacement or referral to the Parole and
Pardon Board as often as it deems desirable. The Department
of Juvenile Justice shall refer the person to the Parole
and Pardon Board as required under Section 3-3-4.
(4) Enter into agreements with the Secretary of Human
Services and the Director of Children and Family Services,
with courts having probation officers, and with private
agencies or institutions for separate care or special
treatment of persons subject to the control of the
Department of Juvenile Justice.
(c) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall make periodic
reexamination of all persons under the control of the
Department of Juvenile Justice to determine whether existing
orders in individual cases should be modified or continued.
This examination shall be made with respect to every person at
least once annually.
(d) A record of the treatment decision including any
modification thereof and the reason therefor, shall be part of
the committed person's master record file.
(e) The Department of Juvenile Justice shall by certified
mail and telephone or electronic message notify the parent,
guardian or nearest relative of any person committed to the
Department of Juvenile Justice of his or her physical location
and any change thereof.
(Source: P.A. 97-244, eff. 8-4-11; 97-323, eff. 8-12-11;
97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-689, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1046, eff.
1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
(730 ILCS 5/5-6-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-1)
Sec. 5-6-1. Sentences of Probation and of Conditional
Discharge and Disposition of Supervision. The General Assembly
finds that in order to protect the public, the criminal justice
system must compel compliance with the conditions of probation
by responding to violations with swift, certain and fair
punishments and intermediate sanctions. The Chief Judge of each
circuit shall adopt a system of structured, intermediate
sanctions for violations of the terms and conditions of a
sentence of probation, conditional discharge or disposition of
supervision.
(a) Except where specifically prohibited by other
provisions of this Code, the court shall impose a sentence of
probation or conditional discharge upon an offender unless,
having regard to the nature and circumstance of the offense,
and to the history, character and condition of the offender,
the court is of the opinion that:
(1) his imprisonment or periodic imprisonment is
necessary for the protection of the public; or
(2) probation or conditional discharge would deprecate
the seriousness of the offender's conduct and would be
inconsistent with the ends of justice; or
(3) a combination of imprisonment with concurrent or
consecutive probation when an offender has been admitted
into a drug court program under Section 20 of the Drug
Court Treatment Act is necessary for the protection of the
public and for the rehabilitation of the offender.
The court shall impose as a condition of a sentence of
probation, conditional discharge, or supervision, that the
probation agency may invoke any sanction from the list of
intermediate sanctions adopted by the chief judge of the
circuit court for violations of the terms and conditions of the
sentence of probation, conditional discharge, or supervision,
subject to the provisions of Section 5-6-4 of this Act.
(b) The court may impose a sentence of conditional
discharge for an offense if the court is of the opinion that
neither a sentence of imprisonment nor of periodic imprisonment
nor of probation supervision is appropriate.
(b-1) Subsections (a) and (b) of this Section do not apply
to a defendant charged with a misdemeanor or felony under the
Illinois Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of
the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if the
defendant within the past 12 months has been convicted of or
pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor or felony under the Illinois
Vehicle Code or reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
(c) The court may, upon a plea of guilty or a stipulation
by the defendant of the facts supporting the charge or a
finding of guilt, defer further proceedings and the imposition
of a sentence, and enter an order for supervision of the
defendant, if the defendant is not charged with: (i) a Class A
misdemeanor, as defined by the following provisions of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012: Sections
11-9.1; 12-3.2; 11-1.50 or 12-15; 26-5 or 48-1; 31-1; 31-6;
31-7; paragraphs (2) and (3) of subsection (a) of Section 21-1;
paragraph (1) through (5), (8), (10), and (11) of subsection
(a) of Section 24-1; (ii) a Class A misdemeanor violation of
Section 3.01, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane Care for Animals
Act; or (iii) a felony. If the defendant is not barred from
receiving an order for supervision as provided in this
subsection, the court may enter an order for supervision after
considering the circumstances of the offense, and the history,
character and condition of the offender, if the court is of the
opinion that:
(1) the offender is not likely to commit further
crimes;
(2) the defendant and the public would be best served
if the defendant were not to receive a criminal record; and
(3) in the best interests of justice an order of
supervision is more appropriate than a sentence otherwise
permitted under this Code.
(c-5) Subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section do not
apply to a defendant charged with a second or subsequent
violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code
committed while his or her driver's license, permit or
privileges were revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3
of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,
relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a similar
provision of a law of another state.
(d) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when
the defendant has previously been:
(1) convicted for a violation of Section 11-501 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of another state;
or
(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section
11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision
of a local ordinance or any similar law or ordinance of
another state; or
(3) pleaded guilty to or stipulated to the facts
supporting a charge or a finding of guilty to a violation
of Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar
provision of a local ordinance or any similar law or
ordinance of another state, and the plea or stipulation was
the result of a plea agreement.
The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting
authority with regard to the standards set forth in this
Section.
(e) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Section 16-25 or 16A-3 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if said
defendant has within the last 5 years been:
(1) convicted for a violation of Section 16-25 or 16A-3
of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
or
(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section
16-25 or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
Code of 2012.
The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting
authority with regard to the standards set forth in this
Section.
(f) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Sections 15-111, 15-112,
15-301, paragraph (b) of Section 6-104, Section 11-605, Section
11-1002.5, or Section 11-1414 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance.
(g) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (i) of this
Section, the provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Section 3-707, 3-708, 3-710,
or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision
of a local ordinance if the defendant has within the last 5
years been:
(1) convicted for a violation of Section 3-707, 3-708,
3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar
provision of a local ordinance; or
(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section
3-707, 3-708, 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.
The court shall consider the statement of the prosecuting
authority with regard to the standards set forth in this
Section.
(h) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant under the age of 21 years charged with violating a
serious traffic offense as defined in Section 1-187.001 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code:
(1) unless the defendant, upon payment of the fines,
penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to attend and
successfully complete a traffic safety program approved by
the court under standards set by the Conference of Chief
Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for
payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused
fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or
before the termination date of the supervision order, the
supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction
entered. The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating
to pleas of guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant
enters a guilty plea under this provision; or
(2) if the defendant has previously been sentenced
under the provisions of paragraph (c) on or after January
1, 1998 for any serious traffic offense as defined in
Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(h-1) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant under the age of 21 years charged with an offense
against traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles
or any violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code, unless the defendant, upon payment of
the fines, penalties, and costs provided by law, agrees to
attend and successfully complete a traffic safety program
approved by the court under standards set by the Conference of
Chief Circuit Judges. The accused shall be responsible for
payment of any traffic safety program fees. If the accused
fails to file a certificate of successful completion on or
before the termination date of the supervision order, the
supervision shall be summarily revoked and conviction entered.
The provisions of Supreme Court Rule 402 relating to pleas of
guilty do not apply in cases when a defendant enters a guilty
plea under this provision.
(i) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the
defendant has been assigned supervision for a violation of
Section 3-707 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar
provision of a local ordinance.
(j) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when
the revocation or suspension was for a violation of Section
11-501 or a similar provision of a local ordinance or a
violation of Section 11-501.1 or paragraph (b) of Section
11-401 of the Illinois Vehicle Code if the defendant has within
the last 10 years been:
(1) convicted for a violation of Section 6-303 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance; or
(2) assigned supervision for a violation of Section
6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision
of a local ordinance.
(k) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance that
governs the movement of vehicles if, within the 12 months
preceding the date of the defendant's arrest, the defendant has
been assigned court supervision on 2 occasions for a violation
that governs the movement of vehicles under the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance. The
provisions of this paragraph (k) do not apply to a defendant
charged with violating Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.
(l) A defendant charged with violating any provision of the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance who receives a disposition of supervision under
subsection (c) shall pay an additional fee of $29, to be
collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the Clerks
of Courts Act. In addition to the $29 fee, the person shall
also pay a fee of $6, which, if not waived by the court, shall
be collected as provided in Sections 27.5 and 27.6 of the
Clerks of Courts Act. The $29 fee shall be disbursed as
provided in Section 16-104c of the Illinois Vehicle Code. If
the $6 fee is collected, $5.50 of the fee shall be deposited
into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and Administrative Fund
created by the Clerk of the Circuit Court and 50 cents of the
fee shall be deposited into the Prisoner Review Board Vehicle
and Equipment Fund in the State treasury.
(m) Any person convicted of, pleading guilty to, or placed
on supervision for a serious traffic violation, as defined in
Section 1-187.001 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, a violation of
Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or a violation of
a similar provision of a local ordinance shall pay an
additional fee of $35, to be disbursed as provided in Section
16-104d of that Code.
This subsection (m) becomes inoperative on January 1, 2020.
(n) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to any
person under the age of 18 who commits an offense against
traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles or any
violation of Section 6-107 or Section 12-603.1 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code, except upon personal appearance of the defendant
in court and upon the written consent of the defendant's parent
or legal guardian, executed before the presiding judge. The
presiding judge shall have the authority to waive this
requirement upon the showing of good cause by the defendant.
(o) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Section 6-303 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance when
the suspension was for a violation of Section 11-501.1 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code and when:
(1) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of
the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first
offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code and the defendant failed to obtain a monitoring device
driving permit; or
(2) at the time of the violation of Section 11-501.1 of
the Illinois Vehicle Code, the defendant was a first
offender pursuant to Section 11-500 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code, had subsequently obtained a monitoring device
driving permit, but was driving a vehicle not equipped with
a breath alcohol ignition interlock device as defined in
Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
(p) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating Section 11-601.5 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance.
(q) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating subsection (b) of Section
11-601 of the Illinois Vehicle Code when the defendant was
operating a vehicle, in an urban district, at a speed in excess
of 25 miles per hour over the posted speed limit.
(r) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating any provision of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance if the
violation was the proximate cause of the death of another and
the defendant's driving abstract contains a prior conviction or
disposition of court supervision for any violation of the
Illinois Vehicle Code, other than an equipment violation, or a
suspension, revocation, or cancellation of the driver's
license.
(s) The provisions of paragraph (c) shall not apply to a
defendant charged with violating subsection (i) of Section 70
of the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12;
97-831, eff. 7-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff.
1-25-13; 98-169, eff. 1-1-14; 98-658, eff. 6-23-14; 98-899,
eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)
(730 ILCS 5/5-6-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-2)
Sec. 5-6-2. Incidents of Probation and of Conditional
Discharge.
(a) When an offender is sentenced to probation or
conditional discharge, the court shall impose a period as
provided in Article 4.5 of Chapter V, and shall specify the
conditions under Section 5-6-3.
(b) Multiple terms of probation imposed at the same time
shall run concurrently.
(c) The court may at any time terminate probation or
conditional discharge if warranted by the conduct of the
offender and the ends of justice, as provided in Section 5-6-4.
(c-1) For purposes of this subsection (c-1), a "violent
offense" means an offense in which bodily harm is inflicted or
force is used against any person or threatened against any
person; an offense involving sexual conduct, sexual
penetration, or sexual exploitation; an offense involving
domestic violence; an offense of domestic battery, violation of
an order of protection, stalking, or hate crime; an offense of
driving under the influence of drugs or alcohol; or an offense
involving the possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. An
offender, other than an offender sentenced on a violent
offense, shall be entitled to a time credit toward the
completion of the offender's probation or conditional
discharge as follows:
(1) For obtaining a high school diploma or GED: 90
days.
(2) For obtaining an associate's degree, career
certificate, or vocational technical certification: 120
days.
(3) For obtaining a bachelor's degree: 180 days.
An offender's supervising officer shall promptly and as
soon as practicable notify the court of the offender's right to
time credits under this subsection (c-1). Upon receipt of this
notification, the court shall enter an order modifying the
offender's remaining period of probation or conditional
discharge to reflect the time credit earned. If, before the
expiration of the original period or a reduced period of
probation or conditional discharge, the court, after a hearing
under Section 5-6-4 of this Code, finds that an offender
violated one or more conditions of probation or conditional
discharge, the court may order that some or all of the time
credit to which the offender is entitled under this Section be
forfeited.
(d) Upon the expiration or termination of the period of
probation or of conditional discharge, the court shall enter an
order discharging the offender.
(e) The court may extend any period of probation or
conditional discharge beyond the limits set forth in Article
4.5 of Chapter V upon a violation of a condition of the
probation or conditional discharge, for the payment of an
assessment required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control
Act, Section 411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
or Section 80 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
Protection Act, or for the payment of restitution as provided
by an order of restitution under Section 5-5-6 of this Code.
(e-5) If payment of restitution as ordered has not been
made, the victim shall file a petition notifying the sentencing
court, any other person to whom restitution is owed, and the
State's Attorney of the status of the ordered restitution
payments unpaid at least 90 days before the probation or
conditional discharge expiration date. If payment as ordered
has not been made, the court shall hold a review hearing prior
to the expiration date, unless the hearing is voluntarily
waived by the defendant with the knowledge that waiver may
result in an extension of the probation or conditional
discharge period or in a revocation of probation or conditional
discharge. If the court does not extend probation or
conditional discharge, it shall issue a judgment for the unpaid
restitution and direct the clerk of the circuit court to file
and enter the judgment in the judgment and lien docket, without
fee, unless it finds that the victim has recovered a judgment
against the defendant for the amount covered by the restitution
order. If the court issues a judgment for the unpaid
restitution, the court shall send to the defendant at his or
her last known address written notification that a civil
judgment has been issued for the unpaid restitution.
(f) The court may impose a term of probation that is
concurrent or consecutive to a term of imprisonment so long as
the maximum term imposed does not exceed the maximum term
provided under Article 4.5 of Chapter V or Article 8 of this
Chapter. The court may provide that probation may commence
while an offender is on mandatory supervised release,
participating in a day release program, or being monitored by
an electronic monitoring device.
(g) The court may extend a term of probation or conditional
discharge that was concurrent to, consecutive to, or otherwise
interrupted by a term of imprisonment for the purpose of
providing additional time to complete an order of restitution.
(Source: P.A. 98-940, eff. 1-1-15; 98-953, eff. 1-1-15;
98-1114, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-1-14.)
(730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-6-3.1)
Sec. 5-6-3.1. Incidents and Conditions of Supervision.
(a) When a defendant is placed on supervision, the court
shall enter an order for supervision specifying the period of
such supervision, and shall defer further proceedings in the
case until the conclusion of the period.
(b) The period of supervision shall be reasonable under all
of the circumstances of the case, but may not be longer than 2
years, unless the defendant has failed to pay the assessment
required by Section 10.3 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section
411.2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 80
of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in
which case the court may extend supervision beyond 2 years.
Additionally, the court shall order the defendant to perform no
less than 30 hours of community service and not more than 120
hours of community service, if community service is available
in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county
board where the offense was committed, when the offense (1) was
related to or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an
organized gang or was motivated by the defendant's membership
in or allegiance to an organized gang; or (2) is a violation of
any Section of Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012 where a disposition of supervision is not
prohibited by Section 5-6-1 of this Code. The community service
shall include, but not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of
any damage caused by violation of Section 21-1.3 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and similar
damages to property located within the municipality or county
in which the violation occurred. Where possible and reasonable,
the community service should be performed in the offender's
neighborhood.
For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has the
meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang
Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
(c) The court may in addition to other reasonable
conditions relating to the nature of the offense or the
rehabilitation of the defendant as determined for each
defendant in the proper discretion of the court require that
the person:
(1) make a report to and appear in person before or
participate with the court or such courts, person, or
social service agency as directed by the court in the order
of supervision;
(2) pay a fine and costs;
(3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational
training;
(4) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric
treatment; or treatment for drug addiction or alcoholism;
(5) attend or reside in a facility established for the
instruction or residence of defendants on probation;
(6) support his dependents;
(7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other
dangerous weapon;
(8) and in addition, if a minor:
(i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;
(ii) attend school;
(iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
(iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a
foster home; or
(v) with the consent of the superintendent of the
facility, attend an educational program at a facility
other than the school in which the offense was
committed if he or she is placed on supervision for a
crime of violence as defined in Section 2 of the Crime
Victims Compensation Act committed in a school, on the
real property comprising a school, or within 1,000 feet
of the real property comprising a school;
(9) make restitution or reparation in an amount not to
exceed actual loss or damage to property and pecuniary loss
or make restitution under Section 5-5-6 to a domestic
violence shelter. The court shall determine the amount and
conditions of payment;
(10) perform some reasonable public or community
service;
(11) comply with the terms and conditions of an order
of protection issued by the court pursuant to the Illinois
Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or an order of protection
issued by the court of another state, tribe, or United
States territory. If the court has ordered the defendant to
make a report and appear in person under paragraph (1) of
this subsection, a copy of the order of protection shall be
transmitted to the person or agency so designated by the
court;
(12) reimburse any "local anti-crime program" as
defined in Section 7 of the Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act
for any reasonable expenses incurred by the program on the
offender's case, not to exceed the maximum amount of the
fine authorized for the offense for which the defendant was
sentenced;
(13) contribute a reasonable sum of money, not to
exceed the maximum amount of the fine authorized for the
offense for which the defendant was sentenced, (i) to a
"local anti-crime program", as defined in Section 7 of the
Anti-Crime Advisory Council Act, or (ii) for offenses under
the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources, to
the fund established by the Department of Natural Resources
for the purchase of evidence for investigation purposes and
to conduct investigations as outlined in Section 805-105 of
the Department of Natural Resources (Conservation) Law;
(14) refrain from entering into a designated
geographic area except upon such terms as the court finds
appropriate. Such terms may include consideration of the
purpose of the entry, the time of day, other persons
accompanying the defendant, and advance approval by a
probation officer;
(15) refrain from having any contact, directly or
indirectly, with certain specified persons or particular
types of person, including but not limited to members of
street gangs and drug users or dealers;
(16) refrain from having in his or her body the
presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis
Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,
unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his
or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the
presence of any illicit drug;
(17) refrain from operating any motor vehicle not
equipped with an ignition interlock device as defined in
Section 1-129.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; under this
condition the court may allow a defendant who is not
self-employed to operate a vehicle owned by the defendant's
employer that is not equipped with an ignition interlock
device in the course and scope of the defendant's
employment; and
(18) if placed on supervision for a sex offense as
defined in subsection (a-5) of Section 3-1-2 of this Code,
unless the offender is a parent or guardian of the person
under 18 years of age present in the home and no
non-familial minors are present, not participate in a
holiday event involving children under 18 years of age,
such as distributing candy or other items to children on
Halloween, wearing a Santa Claus costume on or preceding
Christmas, being employed as a department store Santa
Claus, or wearing an Easter Bunny costume on or preceding
Easter.
(c-5) If payment of restitution as ordered has not been
made, the victim shall file a petition notifying the sentencing
court, any other person to whom restitution is owed, and the
State's Attorney of the status of the ordered restitution
payments unpaid at least 90 days before the supervision
expiration date. If payment as ordered has not been made, the
court shall hold a review hearing prior to the expiration date,
unless the hearing is voluntarily waived by the defendant with
the knowledge that waiver may result in an extension of the
supervision period or in a revocation of supervision. If the
court does not extend supervision, it shall issue a judgment
for the unpaid restitution and direct the clerk of the circuit
court to file and enter the judgment in the judgment and lien
docket, without fee, unless it finds that the victim has
recovered a judgment against the defendant for the amount
covered by the restitution order. If the court issues a
judgment for the unpaid restitution, the court shall send to
the defendant at his or her last known address written
notification that a civil judgment has been issued for the
unpaid restitution.
(d) The court shall defer entering any judgment on the
charges until the conclusion of the supervision.
(e) At the conclusion of the period of supervision, if the
court determines that the defendant has successfully complied
with all of the conditions of supervision, the court shall
discharge the defendant and enter a judgment dismissing the
charges.
(f) Discharge and dismissal upon a successful conclusion of
a disposition of supervision shall be deemed without
adjudication of guilt and shall not be termed a conviction for
purposes of disqualification or disabilities imposed by law
upon conviction of a crime. Two years after the discharge and
dismissal under this Section, unless the disposition of
supervision was for a violation of Sections 3-707, 3-708,
3-710, 5-401.3, or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance, or for a violation of
Sections 12-3.2, 16-25, or 16A-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961
or the Criminal Code of 2012, in which case it shall be 5 years
after discharge and dismissal, a person may have his record of
arrest sealed or expunged as may be provided by law. However,
any defendant placed on supervision before January 1, 1980, may
move for sealing or expungement of his arrest record, as
provided by law, at any time after discharge and dismissal
under this Section. A person placed on supervision for a sexual
offense committed against a minor as defined in clause
(a)(1)(L) of Section 5.2 of the Criminal Identification Act or
for a violation of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code
or a similar provision of a local ordinance shall not have his
or her record of arrest sealed or expunged.
(g) A defendant placed on supervision and who during the
period of supervision undergoes mandatory drug or alcohol
testing, or both, or is assigned to be placed on an approved
electronic monitoring device, shall be ordered to pay the costs
incidental to such mandatory drug or alcohol testing, or both,
and costs incidental to such approved electronic monitoring in
accordance with the defendant's ability to pay those costs. The
county board with the concurrence of the Chief Judge of the
judicial circuit in which the county is located shall establish
reasonable fees for the cost of maintenance, testing, and
incidental expenses related to the mandatory drug or alcohol
testing, or both, and all costs incidental to approved
electronic monitoring, of all defendants placed on
supervision. The concurrence of the Chief Judge shall be in the
form of an administrative order. The fees shall be collected by
the clerk of the circuit court. The clerk of the circuit court
shall pay all moneys collected from these fees to the county
treasurer who shall use the moneys collected to defray the
costs of drug testing, alcohol testing, and electronic
monitoring. The county treasurer shall deposit the fees
collected in the county working cash fund under Section 6-27001
or Section 6-29002 of the Counties Code, as the case may be.
(h) A disposition of supervision is a final order for the
purposes of appeal.
(i) The court shall impose upon a defendant placed on
supervision after January 1, 1992 or to community service under
the supervision of a probation or court services department
after January 1, 2004, as a condition of supervision or
supervised community service, a fee of $50 for each month of
supervision or supervised community service ordered by the
court, unless after determining the inability of the person
placed on supervision or supervised community service to pay
the fee, the court assesses a lesser fee. The court may not
impose the fee on a minor who is made a ward of the State under
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 while the minor is in placement.
The fee shall be imposed only upon a defendant who is actively
supervised by the probation and court services department. The
fee shall be collected by the clerk of the circuit court. The
clerk of the circuit court shall pay all monies collected from
this fee to the county treasurer for deposit in the probation
and court services fund pursuant to Section 15.1 of the
Probation and Probation Officers Act.
A circuit court may not impose a probation fee in excess of
$25 per month unless the circuit court has adopted, by
administrative order issued by the chief judge, a standard
probation fee guide determining an offender's ability to pay.
Of the amount collected as a probation fee, not to exceed $5 of
that fee collected per month may be used to provide services to
crime victims and their families.
The Court may only waive probation fees based on an
offender's ability to pay. The probation department may
re-evaluate an offender's ability to pay every 6 months, and,
with the approval of the Director of Court Services or the
Chief Probation Officer, adjust the monthly fee amount. An
offender may elect to pay probation fees due in a lump sum. Any
offender that has been assigned to the supervision of a
probation department, or has been transferred either under
subsection (h) of this Section or under any interstate compact,
shall be required to pay probation fees to the department
supervising the offender, based on the offender's ability to
pay.
(j) All fines and costs imposed under this Section for any
violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois Vehicle
Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and any
violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a similar
provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and
disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5
of the Clerks of Courts Act.
(k) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is placed on
supervision for a misdemeanor in a county of 3,000,000 or more
inhabitants and who has not been previously convicted of a
misdemeanor or felony may as a condition of his or her
supervision be required by the court to attend educational
courses designed to prepare the defendant for a high school
diploma and to work toward a high school diploma or to work
toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work
toward completing a vocational training program approved by the
court. The defendant placed on supervision must attend a public
institution of education to obtain the educational or
vocational training required by this subsection (k). The
defendant placed on supervision shall be required to pay for
the cost of the educational courses or high school equivalency
testing if a fee is charged for those courses or testing. The
court shall revoke the supervision of a person who wilfully
fails to comply with this subsection (k). The court shall
resentence the defendant upon revocation of supervision as
provided in Section 5-6-4. This subsection (k) does not apply
to a defendant who has a high school diploma or has
successfully passed high school equivalency testing. This
subsection (k) does not apply to a defendant who is determined
by the court to be developmentally disabled or otherwise
mentally incapable of completing the educational or vocational
program.
(l) The court shall require a defendant placed on
supervision for possession of a substance prohibited by the
Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act
after a previous conviction or disposition of supervision for
possession of a substance prohibited by the Cannabis Control
Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act or a
sentence of probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control
Act or Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act
and after a finding by the court that the person is addicted,
to undergo treatment at a substance abuse program approved by
the court.
(m) The Secretary of State shall require anyone placed on
court supervision for a violation of Section 3-707 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance to give proof of his or her financial responsibility
as defined in Section 7-315 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. The
proof shall be maintained by the individual in a manner
satisfactory to the Secretary of State for a minimum period of
3 years after the date the proof is first filed. The proof
shall be limited to a single action per arrest and may not be
affected by any post-sentence disposition. The Secretary of
State shall suspend the driver's license of any person
determined by the Secretary to be in violation of this
subsection.
(n) Any offender placed on supervision for any offense that
the court or probation department has determined to be sexually
motivated as defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act
shall be required to refrain from any contact, directly or
indirectly, with any persons specified by the court and shall
be available for all evaluations and treatment programs
required by the court or the probation department.
(o) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as
defined in the Sex Offender Management Board Act shall refrain
from residing at the same address or in the same condominium
unit or apartment unit or in the same condominium complex or
apartment complex with another person he or she knows or
reasonably should know is a convicted sex offender or has been
placed on supervision for a sex offense. The provisions of this
subsection (o) do not apply to a person convicted of a sex
offense who is placed in a Department of Corrections licensed
transitional housing facility for sex offenders.
(p) An offender placed on supervision for an offense
committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of
Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child
sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall
refrain from communicating with or contacting, by means of the
Internet, a person who is not related to the accused and whom
the accused reasonably believes to be under 18 years of age.
For purposes of this subsection (p), "Internet" has the meaning
ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012;
and a person is not related to the accused if the person is
not: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of the accused; (ii) a
descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or second cousin of
the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted child of the
accused.
(q) An offender placed on supervision for an offense
committed on or after June 1, 2008 (the effective date of
Public Act 95-464) that would qualify the accused as a child
sex offender as defined in Section 11-9.3 or 11-9.4 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall, if so
ordered by the court, refrain from communicating with or
contacting, by means of the Internet, a person who is related
to the accused and whom the accused reasonably believes to be
under 18 years of age. For purposes of this subsection (q),
"Internet" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1 of
the Criminal Code of 2012; and a person is related to the
accused if the person is: (i) the spouse, brother, or sister of
the accused; (ii) a descendant of the accused; (iii) a first or
second cousin of the accused; or (iv) a step-child or adopted
child of the accused.
(r) An offender placed on supervision for an offense under
Section 11-6, 11-9.1, 11-14.4 that involves soliciting for a
juvenile prostitute, 11-15.1, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, or
11-21 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
2012, or any attempt to commit any of these offenses, committed
on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
95th General Assembly shall:
(i) not access or use a computer or any other device
with Internet capability without the prior written
approval of the court, except in connection with the
offender's employment or search for employment with the
prior approval of the court;
(ii) submit to periodic unannounced examinations of
the offender's computer or any other device with Internet
capability by the offender's probation officer, a law
enforcement officer, or assigned computer or information
technology specialist, including the retrieval and copying
of all data from the computer or device and any internal or
external peripherals and removal of such information,
equipment, or device to conduct a more thorough inspection;
(iii) submit to the installation on the offender's
computer or device with Internet capability, at the
offender's expense, of one or more hardware or software
systems to monitor the Internet use; and
(iv) submit to any other appropriate restrictions
concerning the offender's use of or access to a computer or
any other device with Internet capability imposed by the
court.
(s) An offender placed on supervision for an offense that
is a sex offense as defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender
Registration Act that is committed on or after January 1, 2010
(the effective date of Public Act 96-362) that requires the
person to register as a sex offender under that Act, may not
knowingly use any computer scrub software on any computer that
the sex offender uses.
(t) An offender placed on supervision for a sex offense as
defined in the Sex Offender Registration Act committed on or
after January 1, 2010 (the effective date of Public Act 96-262)
shall refrain from accessing or using a social networking
website as defined in Section 17-0.5 of the Criminal Code of
2012.
(u) Jurisdiction over an offender may be transferred from
the sentencing court to the court of another circuit with the
concurrence of both courts. Further transfers or retransfers of
jurisdiction are also authorized in the same manner. The court
to which jurisdiction has been transferred shall have the same
powers as the sentencing court. The probation department within
the circuit to which jurisdiction has been transferred may
impose probation fees upon receiving the transferred offender,
as provided in subsection (i). The probation department from
the original sentencing court shall retain all probation fees
collected prior to the transfer.
(Source: P.A. 97-454, eff. 1-1-12; 97-597, eff. 1-1-12;
97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-718, eff.
1-1-15; 98-940, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 520. The Arsonist Registration Act is amended by
changing Sections 5 and 65 as follows:
(730 ILCS 148/5)
Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
(a) "Arsonist" means any person who is:
(1) charged under Illinois law, or any substantially
similar federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister
state, or foreign country law, with an arson offense, set
forth in subsection (b) of this Section or the attempt to
commit an included arson offense, and:
(i) is convicted of such offense or an attempt to
commit such offense; or
(ii) is found not guilty by reason of insanity of
such offense or an attempt to commit such offense; or
(iii) is found not guilty by reason of insanity
under subsection (c) of Section 104-25 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure of 1963 of such offense or an
attempt to commit such offense; or
(iv) is the subject of a finding not resulting in
an acquittal at a hearing conducted under subsection
(a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
of 1963 for the alleged commission or attempted
commission of such offense; or
(v) is found not guilty by reason of insanity
following a hearing conducted under a federal, Uniform
Code of Military Justice, sister state, or foreign
country law substantially similar to subsection (c) of
Section 104-25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of
1963 of such offense or of the attempted commission of
such offense; or
(vi) is the subject of a finding not resulting in
an acquittal at a hearing conducted under a federal,
Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or
foreign country law substantially similar to
subsection (a) of Section 104-25 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure of 1963 for the alleged violation or
attempted commission of such offense;
(2) is a minor who has been tried and convicted in an
adult criminal prosecution as the result of committing or
attempting to commit an offense specified in subsection (b)
of this Section or a violation of any substantially similar
federal, Uniform Code of Military Justice, sister state, or
foreign country law. Convictions that result from or are
connected with the same act, or result from offenses
committed at the same time, shall be counted for the
purpose of this Act as one conviction. Any conviction set
aside under law is not a conviction for purposes of this
Act.
(b) "Arson offense" means:
(1) A violation of any of the following Sections of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012:
(i) 20-1 (arson; residential arson; place of
worship arson),
(ii) 20-1.1 (aggravated arson),
(iii) 20-1(b) or 20-1.2 (residential arson),
(iv) 20-1(b-5) or 20-1.3 (place of worship arson),
(v) 20-2 (possession of explosives or explosive or
incendiary devices), or
(vi) An attempt to commit any of the offenses
listed in clauses (i) through (v).
(2) A violation of any former law of this State
substantially equivalent to any offense listed in
subsection (b) of this Section.
(c) A conviction for an offense of federal law, Uniform
Code of Military Justice, or the law of another state or a
foreign country that is substantially equivalent to any offense
listed in subsection (b) of this Section shall constitute a
conviction for the purpose of this Act.
(d) "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the
Chief of Police in each of the municipalities in which the
arsonist expects to reside, work, or attend school (1) upon his
or her discharge, parole or release or (2) during the service
of his or her sentence of probation or conditional discharge,
or the Sheriff of the county, in the event no Police Chief
exists or if the offender intends to reside, work, or attend
school in an unincorporated area. "Law enforcement agency
having jurisdiction" includes the location where out-of-state
students attend school and where out-of-state employees are
employed or are otherwise required to register.
(e) "Out-of-state student" means any arsonist, as defined
in this Section, who is enrolled in Illinois, on a full-time or
part-time basis, in any public or private educational
institution, including, but not limited to, any secondary
school, trade or professional institution, or institution of
higher learning.
(f) "Out-of-state employee" means any arsonist, as defined
in this Section, who works in Illinois, regardless of whether
the individual receives payment for services performed, for a
period of time of 10 or more days or for an aggregate period of
time of 30 or more days during any calendar year. Persons who
operate motor vehicles in the State accrue one day of
employment time for any portion of a day spent in Illinois.
(g) "I-CLEAR" means the Illinois Citizens and Law
Enforcement Analysis and Reporting System.
(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
revised 12-10-14.)
(730 ILCS 148/65)
Sec. 65. Penalty. Any person who is required to register
under this Act who violates any of the provisions of this Act
and any person who is required to register under this Act who
seeks to change his or her name under Article XXI 21 of the
Code of Civil Procedure is guilty of a Class 4 felony. Any
person who is required to register under this Act who knowingly
or wilfully gives material information required by this Act
that is false is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person
convicted of a violation of any provision of this Act shall, in
addition to any other penalty required by law, be required to
serve a minimum period of 7 days confinement in the local
county jail. The court shall impose a mandatory minimum fine of
$500 for failure to comply with any provision of this Act.
These fines shall be deposited in the Arsonist Registration
Fund. An arsonist who violates any provision of this Act may be
tried in any Illinois county where the arsonist can be located.
(Source: P.A. 93-949, eff. 1-1-05; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 525. The Sex Offender Registration Act is amended
by changing Section 10 as follows:
(730 ILCS 150/10) (from Ch. 38, par. 230)
Sec. 10. Penalty.
(a) Any person who is required to register under this
Article who violates any of the provisions of this Article and
any person who is required to register under this Article who
seeks to change his or her name under Article XXI 21 of the
Code of Civil Procedure is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any
person who is convicted for a violation of this Act for a
second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. Any
person who is required to register under this Article who
knowingly or wilfully gives material information required by
this Article that is false is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any
person convicted of a violation of any provision of this
Article shall, in addition to any other penalty required by
law, be required to serve a minimum period of 7 days
confinement in the local county jail. The court shall impose a
mandatory minimum fine of $500 for failure to comply with any
provision of this Article. These fines shall be deposited in
the Sex Offender Registration Fund. Any sex offender, as
defined in Section 2 of this Act, or sexual predator who
violates any provision of this Article may be arrested and
tried in any Illinois county where the sex offender can be
located. The local police department or sheriff's office is not
required to determine whether the person is living within its
jurisdiction.
(b) Any person, not covered by privilege under Part 8 of
Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure or the Illinois
Supreme Court's Rules of Professional Conduct, who has reason
to believe that a sexual predator is not complying, or has not
complied, with the requirements of this Article and who, with
the intent to assist the sexual predator in eluding a law
enforcement agency that is seeking to find the sexual predator
to question the sexual predator about, or to arrest the sexual
predator for, his or her noncompliance with the requirements of
this Article is guilty of a Class 3 felony if he or she:
(1) provides false information to the law enforcement
agency having jurisdiction about the sexual predator's
noncompliance with the requirements of this Article, and,
if known, the whereabouts of the sexual predator;
(2) harbors, or attempts to harbor, or assists another
person in harboring or attempting to harbor, the sexual
predator; or
(3) conceals or attempts to conceal, or assists another
person in concealing or attempting to conceal, the sexual
predator.
(c) Subsection (b) does not apply if the sexual predator is
incarcerated in or is in the custody of a State correctional
facility, a private correctional facility, a county or
municipal jail, a State mental health facility or a State
treatment and detention facility, or a federal correctional
facility.
(d) Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply if the sex
offender accurately registered his or her Internet protocol
address under this Act, and the address subsequently changed
without his or her knowledge or intent.
(Source: P.A. 94-168, eff. 1-1-06; 94-988, eff. 1-1-07; 95-579,
eff. 6-1-08; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 530. The Murderer and Violent Offender Against
Youth Registration Act is amended by changing Section 60 as
follows:
(730 ILCS 154/60)
Sec. 60. Penalty. Any person who is required to register
under this Act who violates any of the provisions of this Act
and any person who is required to register under this Act who
seeks to change his or her name under Article XXI 21 of the
Code of Civil Procedure is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any
person who is convicted for a violation of this Act for a
second or subsequent time is guilty of a Class 2 felony. Any
person who is required to register under this Act who knowingly
or wilfully gives material information required by this Act
that is false is guilty of a Class 3 felony. Any person
convicted of a violation of any provision of this Act shall, in
addition to any other penalty required by law, be required to
serve a minimum period of 7 days confinement in the local
county jail. The court shall impose a mandatory minimum fine of
$500 for failure to comply with any provision of this Act.
These fines shall be deposited into the Murderer and Violent
Offender Against Youth Registration Fund. Any violent offender
against youth who violates any provision of this Act may be
arrested and tried in any Illinois county where the violent
offender against youth can be located. The local police
department or sheriff's office is not required to determine
whether the person is living within its jurisdiction.
(Source: P.A. 97-154, eff. 1-1-12; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 535. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by
changing Sections 8-802 and 12-705 as follows:
(735 ILCS 5/8-802) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-802)
Sec. 8-802. Physician and patient. No physician or surgeon
shall be permitted to disclose any information he or she may
have acquired in attending any patient in a professional
character, necessary to enable him or her professionally to
serve the patient, except only (1) in trials for homicide when
the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate
circumstances of the homicide, (2) in actions, civil or
criminal, against the physician for malpractice, (3) with the
expressed consent of the patient, or in case of his or her
death or disability, of his or her personal representative or
other person authorized to sue for personal injury or of the
beneficiary of an insurance policy on his or her life, health,
or physical condition, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5,
(4) in all actions brought by or against the patient, his or
her personal representative, a beneficiary under a policy of
insurance, or the executor or administrator of his or her
estate wherein the patient's physical or mental condition is an
issue, (5) upon an issue as to the validity of a document as a
will of the patient, (6) in any criminal action where the
charge is either first degree murder by abortion, attempted
abortion or abortion, (7) in actions, civil or criminal,
arising from the filing of a report in compliance with the
Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, (8) to any
department, agency, institution or facility which has custody
of the patient pursuant to State statute or any court order of
commitment, (9) in prosecutions where written results of blood
alcohol tests are admissible pursuant to Section 11-501.4 of
the Illinois Vehicle Code, (10) in prosecutions where written
results of blood alcohol tests are admissible under Section
5-11a of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, (11) in criminal
actions arising from the filing of a report of suspected
terrorist offense in compliance with Section 29D-10(p)(7) of
the Criminal Code of 2012, (12) upon the issuance of a subpoena
pursuant to Section 38 of the Medical Practice Act of 1987; the
issuance of a subpoena pursuant to Section 25.1 of the Illinois
Dental Practice Act; the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to
Section 22 of the Nursing Home Administrators Licensing and
Disciplinary Act; or the issuance of a subpoena pursuant to
Section 25.5 of the Workers' Compensation Act, ; or (13) upon
the issuance of a grand jury subpoena pursuant to Article 112
of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963., or (14) (13) to or
through a health information exchange, as that term is defined
in Section 2 of the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Confidentiality Act, in accordance with State or
federal law.
Upon disclosure under item (13) of this Section, in any
criminal action where the charge is domestic battery,
aggravated domestic battery, or an offense under Article 11 of
the Criminal Code of 2012 or where the patient is under the age
of 18 years or upon the request of the patient, the State's
Attorney shall petition the court for a protective order
pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 415.
In the event of a conflict between the application of this
Section and the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
Confidentiality Act to a specific situation, the provisions of
the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
Confidentiality Act shall control.
(Source: P.A. 97-18, eff. 6-28-11; 97-623, eff. 11-23-11;
97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-954, eff.
1-1-15; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-2-14.)
(735 ILCS 5/12-705) (from Ch. 110, par. 12-705)
Sec. 12-705. Summons.
(a) Summons shall be returnable not less than 21 nor more
than 30 days after the date of issuance. Summons with 4 copies
of the interrogatories shall be served and returned as in other
civil cases. If the garnishee is served with summons less than
10 days prior to the return date, the court shall continue the
case to a new return date 14 days after the return date stated
on the summons. The summons shall be in a form consistent with
local court rules. The summons shall be accompanied by a copy
of the underlying judgment or a certification by the clerk of
the court that entered the judgment, or by the attorney for the
judgment creditor, setting forth the amount of the judgment,
the name of the court and the number of the case and one copy of
a garnishment notice in substantially the following form:
"GARNISHMENT NOTICE
(Name and address of Court)
Name of Case: (Name of Judgment Creditor),
Judgment Creditor v.
(Name of Judgment Judgement Debtor),
Judgment Debtor.
Address of Judgment Debtor: (Insert last known address)
Name and address of Attorney for Judgment
Creditor or of Judgment Creditor (If no
attorney is listed): (Insert name and address)
Amount of Judgment: $(Insert amount)
Name of Garnishee: (Insert name)
Return Date: (Insert return date specified in summons)
NOTICE: The court has issued a garnishment summons against
the garnishee named above for money or property (other than
wages) belonging to the judgment debtor or in which the
judgment debtor has an interest. The garnishment summons was
issued on the basis of a judgment against the judgment debtor
in favor of the judgment creditor in the amount stated above.
The amount of money or property (other than wages) that may
be garnished is limited by federal and Illinois law. The
judgment debtor has the right to assert statutory exemptions
against certain money or property of the judgment debtor which
may not be used to satisfy the judgment in the amount stated
above.
Under Illinois or federal law, the exemptions of personal
property owned by the debtor include the debtor's equity
interest, not to exceed $4,000 in value, in any personal
property as chosen by the debtor; Social Security and SSI
benefits; public assistance benefits; unemployment
compensation benefits; workers' compensation benefits;
veterans' benefits; circuit breaker property tax relief
benefits; the debtor's equity interest, not to exceed $2,400 in
value, in any one motor vehicle, and the debtor's equity
interest, not to exceed $1,500 in value, in any implements,
professional books or tools of the trade of the debtor.
The judgment debtor may have other possible exemptions from
garnishment under the law.
The judgment debtor has the right to request a hearing
before the court to dispute the garnishment or to declare
exempt from garnishment certain money or property or both. To
obtain a hearing in counties with a population of 1,000,000 or
more, the judgment debtor must notify the Clerk of the Court in
person and in writing at (insert address of Clerk) before the
return date specified above or appear in court on the date and
time on that return date. To obtain a hearing in counties with
a population of less than 1,000,000, the judgment debtor must
notify the Clerk of the Court in writing at (insert address of
Clerk) on or before the return date specified above. The Clerk
of the Court will provide a hearing date and the necessary
forms that must be prepared by the judgment debtor or the
attorney for the judgment debtor and sent to the judgment
creditor and the garnishee regarding the time and location of
the hearing. This notice may be sent by regular first class
mail."
(b) An officer or other person authorized by law to serve
process shall serve the summons, interrogatories and the
garnishment notice required by subsection (a) of this Section
upon the garnishee and shall, (1) within 2 business days of the
service upon the garnishee, mail a copy of the garnishment
notice and the summons to the judgment debtor by first class
mail at the judgment debtor's address indicated in the
garnishment notice and (2) within 4 business days of the
service upon the garnishee file with the clerk of the court a
certificate of mailing in substantially the following form:
"CERTIFICATE OF MAILING
I hereby certify that, within 2 business days of service
upon the garnishee of the garnishment summons, interrogatories
and garnishment notice, I served upon the judgment debtor in
this cause a copy of the garnishment summons and garnishment
notice by first class mail to the judgment debtor's address as
indicated in the garnishment notice.
Date:............ .........................
Signature"
In the case of service of the summons for garnishment upon
the garnishee by certified or registered mail, as provided in
subsection (c) of this Section, no sooner than 2 business days
nor later than 4 business days after the date of mailing, the
clerk shall mail a copy of the garnishment notice and the
summons to the judgment debtor by first class mail at the
judgment debtor's address indicated in the garnishment notice,
shall prepare the Certificate of Mailing described by this
subsection, and shall include the Certificate of Mailing in a
permanent record.
(c) In a county with a population of less than 1,000,000,
unless otherwise provided by circuit court rule, at the request
of the judgment creditor or his or her attorney and instead of
personal service, service of a summons for garnishment may be
made as follows:
(1) For each garnishee to be served, the judgment
creditor or his or her attorney shall pay to the clerk of
the court a fee of $2, plus the cost of mailing, and
furnish to the clerk an original and 2 copies of a summons,
an original and one copy of the interrogatories, an
affidavit setting forth the garnishee's mailing address,
an original and 2 copies of the garnishment notice required
by subsection (a) of this Section, and a copy of the
judgment or certification described in subsection (a) of
this Section. The original judgment shall be retained by
the clerk.
(2) The clerk shall mail to the garnishee, at the
address appearing in the affidavit, the copy of the
judgment or certification described in subsection (a) of
this Section, the summons, the interrogatories, and the
garnishment notice required by subsection (a) of this
Section, by certified or registered mail, return receipt
requested, showing to whom delivered and the date and
address of delivery. This Mailing shall be mailed on a
"restricted delivery" basis when service is directed to a
natural person. The envelope and return receipt shall bear
the return address of the clerk, and the return receipt
shall be stamped with the docket number of the case. The
receipt for certified or registered mail shall state the
name and address of the addressee, the date of the mailing,
shall identify the documents mailed, and shall be attached
to the original summons.
(3) The return receipt must be attached to the original
summons and, if it shows delivery at least 10 days before
the day for the return date, shall constitute proof of
service of any documents identified on the return receipt
as having been mailed.
(4) The clerk shall note the fact of service in a
permanent record.
(d) The garnishment summons may be served and returned in
the manner provided by Supreme Court Rule for service,
otherwise than by publication, of a notice for additional
relief upon a party in default.
(Source: P.A. 98-557, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 540. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing,
setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section
25-5-55 as follows:
(735 ILCS 30/25-5-55)
Sec. 25-5-55. Quick-take; McHenry County. Quick-take
proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a period of no
longer than one year from the effective date of this amendatory
Act of the 98th General Assembly by McHenry County for the
acquisition of the following described property for the purpose
of reconstruction of the intersection of Miller Road and
Illinois Route 31:
Route: Illinois State Route 31
Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW
County: McHenry County
Job No.: R-91-020-06
Parcel: 0003
Sta. 119+70.41 To Sta. 136+74.99
Owner: Parkway Bank and Trust
Company as Trustee under Trust
Agreement dated October 25, 1988
known as trust No. 9052
Index No. 14-02-100-002, 14-02- 100-051
A part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44
North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, in McHenry
County, Illinois, described as follows:
Commencing at the southwest corner of said Northwest Quarter;
thence North 0 degrees 40 minutes 30 seconds East, (bearings
based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum)
along the west line of said Northwest Quarter, 33.01 feet;
thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds East along a line
parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said
Northwest Quarter, 633.53 feet to the Point of Beginning;
thence North 47 degrees 43 minutes 11 seconds East, 76.04 feet;
thence Northeasterly 892.04 feet along a curve to the left
having a radius of 5900.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears
North 03 degrees 13 minutes 38 seconds East, a chord distance
of 891.20 feet; thence North 01 degrees 06 minutes 15 seconds
West, 737.81 feet; thence North 88 degrees 52 minutes 57
seconds East, 60.00 feet to a point on the westerly line of
Illinois State Route 31 as dedicated per Book 12 of
Miscellaneous Records, pages 200, 201 and 203; thence South 01
degrees 06 minutes 15 seconds East along said westerly line,
405.84 feet; thence South 01 degrees 00 minutes 45 seconds West
along said westerly line, 135.20 feet; thence South 02 degrees
50 minutes 15 seconds East along said westerly line, 165.10
feet; thence South 01 degrees 06 minutes 15 seconds East along
said westerly line, 407.00 feet; thence Southwesterly 567.07
feet along said westerly line, said line being a curve to the
right having a radius of 3779.83 feet, the chord of said curve
bears South 03 degrees 11 minutes 37 seconds West, a chord
distance of 566.54 feet to point on a line parallel with and
33.00 feet north of the south line of said Northwest Quarter;
thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds West along a line
parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said
Northwest Quarter, 142.09 feet to the Point of Beginning in
McHenry County, Illinois.
Said parcel containing 116,716 square feet (2.679 acres) more
or less.
Route: Bull Valley Road
Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW
County: McHenry County
Job No.: R-91-020-06
Parcel: 0003TE
Sta. 531+73.39 To Sta. 532+82.90
Owner: Parkway Bank and Trust
Company as Trustee under Trust
Agreement dated October 25, 1988
known as trust No. 9052
Index No. 14-02-100-002
A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of
Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third
Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as
follows:
Commencing at the southwest corner of said Southwest Quarter;
thence North 00 degrees 40 minutes 30 seconds East, (bearings
based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum)
along the west line of said Southwest Quarter, 33.01 feet;
thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds East along a line
parallel with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said
Southwest Quarter, 540.42 feet to the Point of Beginning;
thence North 00 degrees 33 minutes 06 seconds West, 14.95 feet;
thence North 89 degrees 26 minutes 54 seconds East, 109.87
feet; thence South 47 degrees 43 minutes 11 seconds West, 22.47
feet to a point on a line parallel with and 33.00 feet north of
the south line of said Southwest Quarter; thence South 89
degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds West along said line parallel
with and 33.00 feet north of the south line of said Southwest
Quarter, 93.10 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry
County, Illinois.
Said parcel containing 1,518 square feet (0.035 acres) more or
less.
Route: Illinois State Route 31
Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW
County: McHenry County
Job No.: R-91-020-06
Parcel: 0011
Sta. 124+14.14 To Sta. 124+35.35
Owner: Trapani, LLC, an Illinois
limited liability company
Index No. 14-02-100-050
A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of
Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third
Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as
follows:
Commencing at the northwest corner of Lot 1 in McDonalds
Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest
Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the
Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof
recorded December 22, 1993 as Document No. 93R80090, in McHenry
County, Illinois; thence Northeasterly along the easterly line
of Illinois State Route 31 as dedicated per Book 12 of
Miscellaneous Records, pages 200, 201 and 203, 206.43 feet
along a curve to the left having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the
chord of said curve bears North 2 degrees 41 minutes 29 seconds
East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East
Zone 1983 Datum) a chord distance of 206.41 feet to the Point
of Beginning; thence continuing Northeasterly along said
easterly line, 21.36 feet, said line being a curve to the left
having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears
North 1 degrees 00 minutes 02 seconds East, a chord distance of
21.36 feet to a point the south line of a parcel of land per
deed recorded February 10, 2003 as Document No. 2003R0017053;
thence North 89 degrees 22 minutes 29 seconds East along said
south line, 1.04 feet; thence Southwesterly 21.41 feet along a
curve to the right having a radius of 6060.00 feet, the chord
of said curve bears South 03 degrees 47 minutes 21 seconds
West, a chord distance of 21.41 feet to the Point of Beginning
in McHenry County, Illinois.
Said parcel containing 11 square feet (0.000 acres) more or
less.
Route: Illinois State Route 31
Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW
County: McHenry County
Job No.: R-91-020-06
Parcel: 0011TE-1
Sta. 123+50.48 To Sta. 124+26.94
Owner: Trapani, LLC, an Illinois
limited liability company
Index No. 14-02-100-050
A part of the Southwest Quarter of the Northwest Quarter of
Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third
Principal Meridian, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as
follows:
Commencing at the northwest corner of Lot 1 in McDonalds
Subdivision, being a subdivision of part of the Northwest
Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the
Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof
recorded December 22, 1993 as Document No. 93R80090, in McHenry
County, Illinois; thence Northeasterly along the easterly line
of Illinois State Route 31 as dedicated per Book 12 of
Miscellaneous Records, pages 200, 201 and 203, 142.05 feet
along a curve to the left having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the
chord of said curve bears North 3 degrees 10 minutes 09 seconds
East, (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East
Zone 1983 Datum) a chord distance of 142.05 feet to the Point
of Beginning; thence continuing Northeasterly along said
easterly line, 64.39 feet, said line being a curve to the left
having a radius of 3859.83 feet, the chord of said curve bears
North 1 degrees 38 minutes 13 seconds East, a chord distance of
64.38 feet; thence Northeasterly 12.69 feet along a curve to
the left having a radius of 6060.00 feet, the chord of said
curve bears North 03 degrees 49 minutes 49 seconds East, a
chord distance of 12.69 feet; thence South 89 degrees 01
minutes 32 seconds East, 4.46 feet; thence Southwesterly 77.18
feet along a curve to the right having a radius of 3864.83
feet, the chord of said curve bears South 01 degrees 32 minutes
47 seconds West, a chord distance of 77.17 feet; thence North
87 degrees 52 minutes 53 seconds West, 5.07 feet to the Point
of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.
Said parcel containing 387 square feet (0.009 acres) more or
less.
Route: Charles J. Miller Road
Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW
County: McHenry County
Job No.: R-91-020-06
Parcel: 0011TE-2
Sta. 537+44.77 To Sta. 538+37.59
Owner: Trapani, LLC, an Illinois
limited liability company
Index No. 14-02-100-050
A part of Lot 2, in McDonald's Subdivision, being a subdivision
of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44
North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according
to the plat thereof recorded December 22, 1993 as Document No.
93R80090, in McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:
Beginning at the southeast corner of said Lot 2; thence South
89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds West (bearings based on
Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) along
the south line of said Lot 2, 92.83 feet; thence North 00
degrees 33 minutes 02 seconds West, 33.91 feet; thence North 89
degrees 36 minutes 46 seconds East, 93.43 feet to a point on
the east line of said Lot 2; thence South 00 degrees 28 minutes
57 seconds West along said east line, 33.66 feet to the Point
of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.
Said parcel containing 3,146 square feet (0.072 acres) more or
less.
Route: Charles J. Miller Road
Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW
County: McHenry County
Job No.: R-91-020-06
Parcel: 0016
Sta. 538+37.74 To Sta. 539+63.26
Owner: Marion R. Reinwall Hoak
as Trustee of the Marion R.
Reinwall Hoak Living trust dated
September 15, 1998
Index No. 14-02-100-022
A part of the West Half of Government Lot 1 in the Northwest
Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the
Third Principal Meridian in McHenry County, Illinois,
described as follows:
Beginning at the southeast corner of said West Half of
Government Lot 1; thence South 89 degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds
West (bearings based on Illinois State Plane Coordinates East
Zone 1983 Datum) along the south line of said West Half of
Government Lot 1, 115.35 feet to the point of intersection with
the east line of Lot 2 in McDonald's Subdivision, being a
subdivision of part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 2,
Township 44 North, Range 8 East of the Third Principal
Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded December 22,
1993 as Document No. 93R80090, in McHenry County, Illinois
extended southerly; thence North 00 degrees 28 minutes 57
seconds East along said east line extended southerly and along
said east line, 48.01 feet; thence North 89 degrees 27 minutes
02 seconds East, 115.36 feet to a point on the east line of
said West Half of Government Lot 1; thence South 00 degrees 29
minutes 41 seconds West along said east line, 48.01 feet to the
Point of Beginning in McHenry County, Illinois.
Said parcel containing 5,537 square feet (0.127 acres) more or
less, of which 0.087 acres more or less, has been previously
used or dedicated.
Route: Illinois State Route 31
Section: Section 09-00372-00-PW
County: McHenry County
Job No.: R-91-020-06
Parcel: 0017
Sta. 536+90.86 To Sta. 539+43.61
Owner: Alliance Bible Church of
the Christian and Missionary
Alliance, an Illinois not for profit
corporation
Index No. 14-02-302-005; 14-02-
302-004; 14-02-302-002
A part of Lots 4 and 5, in Smith First Addition being a
subdivision of the North 473.90 feet of the Northwest Quarter
of the Southwest Quarter of Section 2, Township 44 North, Range
8 East of the Third Principal Meridian, lying easterly of the
easterly right-of-way of State Route 31, according to the plat
thereof recorded in the recorder's office of McHenry County,
Illinois on February 16, 1973, as Document No. 586905 in
McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:
Beginning at the northeast corner of said Lot 5; thence South
00 degrees 08 minutes 56 seconds West (bearings based on
Illinois State Plane Coordinates East Zone 1983 Datum) along
the east line of said Lot 5, 33.94 feet; thence Southwesterly
106.41 feet along a curve to the right having a radius of
795.00 feet, the chord of said curve bears South 85 degrees 36
minutes 55 seconds West, a chord distance of 106.34 feet;
thence South 89 degrees 26 minutes 58 seconds West, 154.36 feet
to a point on the west line of said Lot 4; thence North 00
degrees 10 minutes 27 seconds East along said west line, 41.06
feet to the northwest corner of said Lot 4; thence North 89
degrees 27 minutes 02 seconds East along the north line of said
Lots 4 and 5, 260.35 feet to the Point of Beginning in McHenry
County, Illinois.
Said parcel containing 10,438 square feet (0.240 acres) more or
less.
(Source: P.A. 98-852, eff. 8-1-14.)
(735 ILCS 30/25-5-60)
Sec. 25-5-60 25-5-55. Quick-take; Village of Mundelein.
Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a
period of no longer than one year after the effective date of
this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly by the Village
of Mundelein in Lake County for the acquisition of property and
easements, legally described below, for the purpose of widening
and reconstructing Hawley Street from Midlothian Road to
Seymour Avenue, and making other public utility improvements
including the construction of a bike path:
PIN: 10-24-423-010
That part of Lot 11 (as originally platted), in Western Slope
Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the
Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter
of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third
Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May
9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98,
described as follows: beginning at the Southeast corner of Lot
11; thence West along the South line of said Lot, 99.95 (meas.)
100.00 feet (rec.) to the Southwest corner of said Lot; thence
North along the West line of said Lot, 10.00 feet; thence
Southeasterly 8.51 feet to a point 6.00 feet East of and 4.00
feet North of the Southwest corner of said Lot; thence East
parallel with the South line of said Lot, 93.97 feet to the
East line of said Lot; thence South along said last described
line, 4.00 feet to the point of beginning, Lake County,
Illinois. 417.50 sq. ft.
Temporary easement:
That part of Lot 11 (as originally platted), in Western Slope
Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the
Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter
of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third
Principal Meridian, according to the plot thereof recorded May
9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98,
described as follows: commencing at the Southwest corner of
said Lot 11; thence North along the West line of said Lot,
10.00 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North
along said last described line, 35.00 feet; thence East
parallel with the South line of said Lot, 10.00 feet; thence
South parallel with the West line of said Lot, 25.00 feet to a
line 20.00 feet North of and parallel with the South line of
said Lot; thence East along said last described line, 20.00
feet; thence South parallel with the West line of said Lot,
16.00 feet to a line 4.00 feet North of and parallel with the
South line of said Lot; thence West along said last described
line, 24.00 feet to a point 6.00 feet East of the West line of
said Lot; thence Northwesterly, 8.51 feet to the point of
beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. Containing 712.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-24-423-011
The South 4.00 feet of Lot 10 (as originally platted), in
Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of
part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the
Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10,
East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of
Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 400.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-24-423-013
The South 4.00 feet of Lot 8 (as originally platted), in
Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of
part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the
Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10,
East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of
Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 400.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-24-423-016
The South 7.00 feet of Lot 5 (as originally platted), in
Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of
part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the
Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10,
East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of
Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 700.00 sq. ft.
Temporary Easement:
That part of Lot 5 (as originally platted), in Western Slope
Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the
Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter
of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third
Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May
9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98,
described as follows: commencing at the Southeast corner of
said Lot 5; thence North along the East line of said Lot, 7.00
feet to the point of beginning; thence West parallel with the
South line of said Lot, 100.00 feet to the West line of said
Lot; thence North along said last described line, 5.00 feet;
thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 52.00
feet; thence North parallel with the West line of said Lot,
22.50 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said
Lot, 14.50 feet; thence North parallel with the West line of
said Lot, 5.20 feet; thence East parallel with the South line
of said Lot, 33.50 feet to the East line of said Lot; thence
South along the last described line, 32.70 feet to the point of
beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. 1754.20 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-24-423-018
The South 13.50 feet of Lot 3 (as originally platted), in
Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of
part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the
Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10,
East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of
Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 1350.00 sq. ft.
Temporary Easement:
That part of Lot 3 (as originally platted), in Western Slope
Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the
Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter
of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third
Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May
9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98,
described as follows: commencing at the Southeast corner of
said Lot 3; thence North along the East line of said Lot, 13.50
feet to the point of beginning; thence West parallel with the
South line of said Lot, 100.00 feet to the West line of said
Lot; thence North along said last described line, 10.00 feet;
thence East parallel with the South line of said Lot, 45.00
feet; thence North parallel with the West line of said Lot,
30.00 feet; thence East parallel with the South line of said
Lot, 34.00 feet; thence South parallel with the West line of
said Lot, 30.00 feet; thence East parallel with the South line
of said Lot, 21.00 feet to the East line of said Lot; thence
South along the last described line, 10.00 feet to the point of
beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. 2020.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-24-423-019
The South 13.50 feet of Lot 2 (as originally platted), in
Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of
part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the
Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10,
East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of
Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 1350.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-24-423-021
The South 13.50 feet of a tract of land described as Lot 1 (as
originally platted), (except that part taken for highway per
Document No. 2242325 and 2242326), in Western Slope Subdivision
of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the Southeast
Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter of Section
25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third Principal
Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as
Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake County,
Illinois. 1040.30 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-25-205-003
Temporary Easement:
That part of Lot 44 (as originally platted), in Western Slope
Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the
Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter
of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third
Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May
9, 1925 as Document 257151 in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98,
described as follows: commencing at the Northeast corner of
said Lot 44; thence South along the East line of said Lot, 5.00
feet; thence West parallel with the North line of said Lot,
34.00 feet; thence South parallel with the East line of said
Lot, 5.00 feet; thence West parallel with the North line of
said Lot, 16.00 feet to the West line of said Lot; thence North
along said last described Lot, 10.00 feet to the Northwest
corner of said lot; thence East along the North line of said
lot, 50.00 feet to the point of beginning, in Lake County,
Illinois. Containing 331.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-25-205-004
Temporary Easement:
The North 10.00 feet (except the South 5.00 feet of the West
24.00 feet and the South 5.00 feet of the East 3.00 feet
thereof) of Lot 45 (as originally platted), in Western Slope
Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of part of the
Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the Northeast Quarter
of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10, East of the Third
Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof recorded May
9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of Plats, Page 98, Lake
County, Illinois. Containing 365.40 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-25-205-005
Temporary Easement:
The North 5.00 feet of Lot 46 (as originally platted), in
Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of
part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the
Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10,
East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of
Plats, Page 98, Lake County, Illinois. 250.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-25-206-003
Temporary Easement:
The North 5.00 feet of Lot 60 (as originally platted), in
Western Slope Subdivision of Mundelein, being a Subdivision of
part of the Southeast Quarter of Section 24, and of the
Northeast Quarter of Section 25, Township 44 North, Range 10,
East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
thereof recorded May 9, 1925 as Document 257151, in Book "N" of
Plats, Page 98, in Lake County, Illinois. 250.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 11-30-101-004
Temporary Easement:
The North 5.00 feet of the East 30.00 feet of a tract of land
described as the West 75.00 feet of Lots 1 and 2, in Block 1 of
Hammond's Addition to Rockefeller, being a Subdivision of part
of Lot 2 of the Northwest Quarter of Section 30, Township 44
North, Range 11 East of the Third Principal Meridian, according
to the plat thereof recorded April 2, 1895 as Document No.
61511, in Book "D" of Plats, Page 24,in Lake County, Illinois.
150.00 sq. ft.
PIN: 11-30-120-001
That part of Lot 1 in Hawley Commons, being a subdivision of
part of the Northwest Quarter of Section 30, Township 44 North,
Range 11 East, of the Third Principal Meridian according to the
plat thereof recorded October 8, 1999 as Document No. 4432301,
and described as follows: Beginning at the Northwest corner of
Lot 1; thence South along the West line of said Lot 1, 17.00
feet; thence Northeasterly 23.91 feet to a point 17.00 feet
East of the point of beginning and on the North line of said
Lot 1; thence West along the North line of Lot 1, 17.00 feet to
the point of beginning, in Lake County, Illinois. Containing
144.50 sq. ft.
PIN: 10-24-314-036
That part of Lot 14 in Block 2 in Mundelein Home Crest
Subdivision of the Northeast Quarter of the Northwest Quarter
of Section 25 and part of the East Half of the Southwest
Quarter of Section 24, all in Township 44 North, Range 10 East
of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat thereof
recorded June 4, 1926 as Document No. 280148 in Book "P" of
Plats, Pages 62 and 63, described as lying Southeasterly of a
curve concave Northwesterly having a radius of 45.00 feet and
being tangent to the East and South lines of said Lot 14, in
Lake County, Illinois. 445.10 sq. ft.
(Source: P.A. 98-1070, eff. 8-26-14; revised 10-20-14.)
Section 545. The Controlled Substance and Cannabis
Nuisance Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
(740 ILCS 40/3) (from Ch. 100 1/2, par. 16)
Sec. 3. (a) The Department or the State's Attorney or any
citizen of the county in which a nuisance exists may file a
complaint in the name of the People of the State of Illinois,
to enjoin all persons from maintaining or permitting such
nuisance, to abate the same and to enjoin the use of any such
place for the period of one year.
(b) Upon the filing of a complaint by the State's Attorney
or the Department in which the complaint states that
irreparable injury, loss or damage will result to the People of
the State of Illinois, the court shall enter a temporary
restraining order without notice enjoining the maintenance of
such nuisance, upon testimony under oath, affidavit, or
verified complaint containing facts sufficient, if sustained,
to justify the court in entering a preliminary injunction upon
a hearing after notice. Every such temporary restraining order
entered without notice shall be endorsed with the date and hour
of entry of the order, shall be filed of record, and shall
expire by its terms within such time after entry, not to exceed
10 days as fixed by the court, unless the temporary restraining
order, for good cause, is extended for a like period or unless
the party against whom the order is directed consents that it
may be extended for a longer period. The reason for extension
shall be shown in the order. In case a temporary restraining
order is entered without notice, the motion for a permanent
injunction shall be set down for hearing at the earliest
possible time and takes precedence over all matters except
older matters of the same character, and when the motion comes
on for hearing, the Department or State's Attorney, as the case
may be, shall proceed with the application for a permanent
injunction, and, if he does not do so, the court shall dissolve
the temporary restraining order. On 2 days' days notice to the
Department or State's Attorney, as the case may be, the
defendant may appear and move the dissolution or modification
of such temporary restraining order and in that event the court
shall proceed to hear and determine such motion as
expeditiously as the ends of justice require.
(c) Upon the filing of the complaint by a citizen or the
Department or the State's Attorney (in cases in which the
Department or State's Attorney does do not request injunctive
relief without notice) in the circuit court, the court, if
satisfied that the nuisance complained of exists, shall allow a
temporary restraining order, with bond unless the application
is filed by the Department or State's Attorney, in such amount
as the court may determine, enjoining the defendant from
maintaining any such nuisance within the jurisdiction of the
court granting the injunctive relief. However, no such
injunctive relief shall be granted, except on behalf of an
owner or agent, unless it be made to appear to the satisfaction
of the court that the owner or agent of such place, knew or had
been personally served with a notice signed by the plaintiff
and, that such notice has been served upon such owner or such
agent of such place at least 5 days prior thereto, that such
place, specifically describing the same, was being so used,
naming the date or dates of its being so used, and that such
owner or agent had failed to abate such nuisance, or that upon
diligent inquiry such owner or agent could not be found for the
service of such preliminary notice. The lessee, if any, of such
place shall be made a party defendant to such petition. If the
property owner is a corporation and the Department or the
State's Attorney sends the preliminary notice to the corporate
address registered with the Secretary of State, such action
shall create a rebuttable presumption that the parties have
acted with due diligence and the court may grant injunctive
relief.
(d) In all cases in which the complaint is filed by a
citizen, such complaint shall be verified.
(Source: P.A. 95-503, eff. 1-1-08; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 550. The Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing
Sections 9.2 and 10 as follows:
(740 ILCS 110/9.2)
Sec. 9.2. Interagency disclosure of recipient information.
For the purposes of continuity of care, the Department of Human
Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and
Developmental Disabilities), community agencies funded by the
Department of Human Services in that capacity, licensed private
hospitals, integrated health systems, members of an
interdisciplinary team, federally qualified health centers, or
physicians or therapists or other healthcare providers
licensed or certified by or receiving payments from the
Department of Human Services or the Department of Healthcare
and Family Services, State correctional facilities, juvenile
justice facilities, mental health facilities operated by a
county, mental health court professionals as defined in Section
10 of the Mental Health Court Treatment Act, Veterans and
Servicemembers Court professionals as defined in Section 10 of
the Veterans and Servicemembers Court Treatment Act and jails
and juvenile detention facilities operated by any county of
this State may disclose a recipient's record or communications,
without consent, to each other, but only for the purpose of
admission, treatment, planning, coordinating care, discharge,
or governmentally mandated public health reporting. Entities
shall not redisclose any personally identifiable information,
unless necessary for admission, treatment, planning,
coordinating care, discharge, or governmentally mandated
public health reporting another setting. No records or
communications may be disclosed to a county jail or State
correctional facility pursuant to this Section unless the
Department has entered into a written agreement with the county
jail or State correctional facility requiring that the county
jail or State correctional facility adopt written policies and
procedures designed to ensure that the records and
communications are disclosed only to those persons employed by
or under contract to the county jail or State correctional
facility who are involved in the provision of mental health
services to inmates and that the records and communications are
protected from further disclosure.
(Source: P.A. 97-946, eff. 8-13-12; 98-378, eff. 8-16-13;
revised 12-10-14.)
(740 ILCS 110/10) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 810)
Sec. 10. (a) Except as provided herein, in any civil,
criminal, administrative, or legislative proceeding, or in any
proceeding preliminary thereto, a recipient, and a therapist on
behalf and in the interest of a recipient, has the privilege to
refuse to disclose and to prevent the disclosure of the
recipient's record or communications.
(1) Records and communications may be disclosed in a
civil, criminal or administrative proceeding in which the
recipient introduces his mental condition or any aspect of
his services received for such condition as an element of
his claim or defense, if and only to the extent the court
in which the proceedings have been brought, or, in the case
of an administrative proceeding, the court to which an
appeal or other action for review of an administrative
determination may be taken, finds, after in camera
examination of testimony or other evidence, that it is
relevant, probative, not unduly prejudicial or
inflammatory, and otherwise clearly admissible; that other
satisfactory evidence is demonstrably unsatisfactory as
evidence of the facts sought to be established by such
evidence; and that disclosure is more important to the
interests of substantial justice than protection from
injury to the therapist-recipient relationship or to the
recipient or other whom disclosure is likely to harm.
Except in a criminal proceeding in which the recipient, who
is accused in that proceeding, raises the defense of
insanity, no record or communication between a therapist
and a recipient shall be deemed relevant for purposes of
this subsection, except the fact of treatment, the cost of
services and the ultimate diagnosis unless the party
seeking disclosure of the communication clearly
establishes in the trial court a compelling need for its
production. However, for purposes of this Act, in any
action brought or defended under the Illinois Marriage and
Dissolution of Marriage Act, or in any action in which pain
and suffering is an element of the claim, mental condition
shall not be deemed to be introduced merely by making such
claim and shall be deemed to be introduced only if the
recipient or a witness on his behalf first testifies
concerning the record or communication.
(2) Records or communications may be disclosed in a
civil proceeding after the recipient's death when the
recipient's physical or mental condition has been
introduced as an element of a claim or defense by any party
claiming or defending through or as a beneficiary of the
recipient, provided the court finds, after in camera
examination of the evidence, that it is relevant,
probative, and otherwise clearly admissible; that other
satisfactory evidence is not available regarding the facts
sought to be established by such evidence; and that
disclosure is more important to the interests of
substantial justice than protection from any injury which
disclosure is likely to cause.
(3) In the event of a claim made or an action filed by
a recipient, or, following the recipient's death, by any
party claiming as a beneficiary of the recipient for injury
caused in the course of providing services to such
recipient, the therapist and other persons whose actions
are alleged to have been the cause of injury may disclose
pertinent records and communications to an attorney or
attorneys engaged to render advice about and to provide
representation in connection with such matter and to
persons working under the supervision of such attorney or
attorneys, and may testify as to such records or
communication in any administrative, judicial or discovery
proceeding for the purpose of preparing and presenting a
defense against such claim or action.
(4) Records and communications made to or by a
therapist in the course of examination ordered by a court
for good cause shown may, if otherwise relevant and
admissible, be disclosed in a civil, criminal, or
administrative proceeding in which the recipient is a party
or in appropriate pretrial proceedings, provided such
court has found that the recipient has been as adequately
and as effectively as possible informed before submitting
to such examination that such records and communications
would not be considered confidential or privileged. Such
records and communications shall be admissible only as to
issues involving the recipient's physical or mental
condition and only to the extent that these are germane to
such proceedings.
(5) Records and communications may be disclosed in a
proceeding under the Probate Act of 1975, to determine a
recipient's competency or need for guardianship, provided
that the disclosure is made only with respect to that
issue.
(6) Records and communications may be disclosed to a
court-appointed therapist, psychologist, or psychiatrist
for use in determining a person's fitness to stand trial if
the records were made within the 180-day period immediately
preceding the date of the therapist's, psychologist's or
psychiatrist's court appointment. These records and
communications shall be admissible only as to the issue of
the person's fitness to stand trial. Records and
communications may be disclosed when such are made during
treatment which the recipient is ordered to undergo to
render him fit to stand trial on a criminal charge,
provided that the disclosure is made only with respect to
the issue of fitness to stand trial.
(7) Records and communications of the recipient may be
disclosed in any civil or administrative proceeding
involving the validity of or benefits under a life,
accident, health or disability insurance policy or
certificate, or Health Care Service Plan Contract,
insuring the recipient, but only if and to the extent that
the recipient's mental condition, or treatment or services
in connection therewith, is a material element of any claim
or defense of any party, provided that information sought
or disclosed shall not be redisclosed except in connection
with the proceeding in which disclosure is made.
(8) Records or communications may be disclosed when
such are relevant to a matter in issue in any action
brought under this Act and proceedings preliminary
thereto, provided that any information so disclosed shall
not be utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed
except in connection with such action or preliminary
proceedings.
(9) Records and communications of the recipient may be
disclosed in investigations of and trials for homicide when
the disclosure relates directly to the fact or immediate
circumstances of the homicide.
(10) Records and communications of a deceased
recipient shall be disclosed to a coroner conducting a
preliminary investigation into the recipient's death under
Section 3-3013 of the Counties Code.
(11) Records and communications of a recipient shall be
disclosed in a proceeding where a petition or motion is
filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and the
recipient is named as a parent, guardian, or legal
custodian of a minor who is the subject of a petition for
wardship as described in Section 2-3 of that Act or a minor
who is the subject of a petition for wardship as described
in Section 2-4 of that Act alleging the minor is abused,
neglected, or dependent or the recipient is named as a
parent of a child who is the subject of a petition,
supplemental petition, or motion to appoint a guardian with
the power to consent to adoption under Section 2-29 of the
Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
(12) Records and communications of a recipient may be
disclosed when disclosure is necessary to collect sums or
receive third party payment representing charges for
mental health or developmental disabilities services
provided by a therapist or agency to a recipient; however,
disclosure shall be limited to information needed to pursue
collection, and the information so disclosed may not be
used for any other purposes nor may it be redisclosed
except in connection with collection activities. Whenever
records are disclosed pursuant to this subdivision (12),
the recipient of the records shall be advised in writing
that any person who discloses mental health records and
communications in violation of this Act may be subject to
civil liability pursuant to Section 15 of this Act or to
criminal penalties pursuant to Section 16 of this Act or
both.
(b) Before a disclosure is made under subsection (a), any
party to the proceeding or any other interested person may
request an in camera review of the record or communications to
be disclosed. The court or agency conducting the proceeding may
hold an in camera review on its own motion. When, contrary to
the express wish of the recipient, the therapist asserts a
privilege on behalf and in the interest of a recipient, the
court may require that the therapist, in an in camera hearing,
establish that disclosure is not in the best interest of the
recipient. The court or agency may prevent disclosure or limit
disclosure to the extent that other admissible evidence is
sufficient to establish the facts in issue. The court or agency
may enter such orders as may be necessary in order to protect
the confidentiality, privacy, and safety of the recipient or of
other persons. Any order to disclose or to not disclose shall
be considered a final order for purposes of appeal and shall be
subject to interlocutory appeal.
(c) A recipient's records and communications may be
disclosed to a duly authorized committee, commission or
subcommittee of the General Assembly which possesses subpoena
and hearing powers, upon a written request approved by a
majority vote of the committee, commission or subcommittee
members. The committee, commission or subcommittee may request
records only for the purposes of investigating or studying
possible violations of recipient rights. The request shall
state the purpose for which disclosure is sought.
The facility shall notify the recipient, or his guardian,
and therapist in writing of any disclosure request under this
subsection within 5 business days after such request. Such
notification shall also inform the recipient, or guardian, and
therapist of their right to object to the disclosure within 10
business days after receipt of the notification and shall
include the name, address and telephone number of the
committee, commission or subcommittee member or staff person
with whom an objection shall be filed. If no objection has been
filed within 15 business days after the request for disclosure,
the facility shall disclose the records and communications to
the committee, commission or subcommittee. If an objection has
been filed within 15 business days after the request for
disclosure, the facility shall disclose the records and
communications only after the committee, commission or
subcommittee has permitted the recipient, guardian or
therapist to present his objection in person before it and has
renewed its request for disclosure by a majority vote of its
members.
Disclosure under this subsection shall not occur until all
personally identifiable data of the recipient and provider are
removed from the records and communications. Disclosure under
this subsection shall not occur in any public proceeding.
(d) No party to any proceeding described under paragraphs
(1), (2), (3), (4), (7), or (8) of subsection (a) of this
Section, nor his or her attorney, shall serve a subpoena
seeking to obtain access to records or communications under
this Act unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order
issued by a judge or by the written consent under Section 5 of
this Act of the person whose records are being sought,
authorizing the disclosure of the records or the issuance of
the subpoena. No such written order shall be issued without
written notice of the motion to the recipient and the treatment
provider. Prior to issuance of the order, each party or other
person entitled to notice shall be permitted an opportunity to
be heard pursuant to subsection (b) of this Section. In the
absence of the written consent under Section 5 of this Act of
the person whose records are being sought, no person shall
comply with a subpoena for records or communications under this
Act, unless the subpoena is accompanied by a written order
authorizing the issuance of the subpoena or the disclosure of
the records. Each subpoena issued by a court or administrative
agency or served on any person pursuant to this subsection (d)
shall include the following language: "No person shall comply
with a subpoena for mental health records or communications
pursuant to Section 10 of the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities Confidentiality Act, 740 ILCS 110/10, unless the
subpoena is accompanied by a written order that authorizes the
issuance of the subpoena and the disclosure of records or
communications or by the written consent under Section 5 of
that Act of the person whose records are being sought."
(e) When a person has been transported by a peace officer
to a mental health facility, then upon the request of a peace
officer, if the person is allowed to leave the mental health
facility within 48 hours of arrival, excluding Saturdays,
Sundays, and holidays, the facility director shall notify the
local law enforcement authority prior to the release of the
person. The local law enforcement authority may re-disclose the
information as necessary to alert the appropriate enforcement
or prosecuting authority.
(f) A recipient's records and communications shall be
disclosed to the Inspector General of the Department of Human
Services within 10 business days of a request by the Inspector
General (i) in the course of an investigation authorized by the
Department of Human Services Act and applicable rule or (ii)
during the course of an assessment authorized by the Abuse of
Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act and applicable rule.
The request shall be in writing and signed by the Inspector
General or his or her designee. The request shall state the
purpose for which disclosure is sought. Any person who
knowingly and willfully refuses to comply with such a request
is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A recipient's records and
communications shall also be disclosed pursuant to subsection
(s) (g-5) of Section 1-17 of the Department of Human Services
Act in testimony at health care worker registry hearings or
preliminary proceedings when such are relevant to the matter in
issue, provided that any information so disclosed shall not be
utilized for any other purpose nor be redisclosed except in
connection with such action or preliminary proceedings.
(Source: P.A. 97-566, eff. 1-1-12; 98-221, eff. 1-1-14; 98-908,
eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 555. The Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of
Marriage Act is amended by changing Sections 220, 503, and 601
as follows:
(750 ILCS 5/220)
Sec. 220. Consent to jurisdiction. Members of a same-sex
couple who enter into a marriage in this State consent to the
jurisdiction of the courts of this State for the purpose of any
action relating to the marriage, even if one or both parties
cease to reside in this State. A court shall enter a judgment
of dissolution of marriage if, at the time the action is
commenced, it meets the grounds for dissolution of marriage set
forth in this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-597, eff. 6-1-14; revised 12-10-14.)
(750 ILCS 5/503) (from Ch. 40, par. 503)
Sec. 503. Disposition of property.
(a) For purposes of this Act, "marital property" means all
property acquired by either spouse subsequent to the marriage,
except the following, which is known as "non-marital property":
(1) property acquired by gift, legacy or descent;
(2) property acquired in exchange for property
acquired before the marriage or in exchange for property
acquired by gift, legacy or descent;
(3) property acquired by a spouse after a judgment of
legal separation;
(4) property excluded by valid agreement of the
parties;
(5) any judgment or property obtained by judgment
awarded to a spouse from the other spouse;
(6) property acquired before the marriage;
(7) the increase in value of property acquired by a
method listed in paragraphs (1) through (6) of this
subsection, irrespective of whether the increase results
from a contribution of marital property, non-marital
property, the personal effort of a spouse, or otherwise,
subject to the right of reimbursement provided in
subsection (c) of this Section; and
(8) income from property acquired by a method listed in
paragraphs (1) through (7) of this subsection if the income
is not attributable to the personal effort of a spouse.
(b)(1) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to
this Section, all property acquired by either spouse after the
marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or
declaration of invalidity of marriage, including non-marital
property transferred into some form of co-ownership between the
spouses, is presumed to be marital property, regardless of
whether title is held individually or by the spouses in some
form of co-ownership such as joint tenancy, tenancy in common,
tenancy by the entirety, or community property. The presumption
of marital property is overcome by a showing that the property
was acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this
Section.
(2) For purposes of distribution of property pursuant to
this Section, all pension benefits (including pension benefits
under the Illinois Pension Code) acquired by either spouse
after the marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of
marriage or declaration of invalidity of the marriage are
presumed to be marital property, regardless of which spouse
participates in the pension plan. The presumption that these
pension benefits are marital property is overcome by a showing
that the pension benefits were acquired by a method listed in
subsection (a) of this Section. The right to a division of
pension benefits in just proportions under this Section is
enforceable under Section 1-119 of the Illinois Pension Code.
The value of pension benefits in a retirement system
subject to the Illinois Pension Code shall be determined in
accordance with the valuation procedures established by the
retirement system.
The recognition of pension benefits as marital property and
the division of those benefits pursuant to a Qualified Illinois
Domestic Relations Order shall not be deemed to be a
diminishment, alienation, or impairment of those benefits. The
division of pension benefits is an allocation of property in
which each spouse has a species of common ownership.
(3) For purposes of distribution of property under this
Section, all stock options granted to either spouse after the
marriage and before a judgment of dissolution of marriage or
declaration of invalidity of marriage, whether vested or
non-vested or whether their value is ascertainable, are
presumed to be marital property. This presumption of marital
property is overcome by a showing that the stock options were
acquired by a method listed in subsection (a) of this Section.
The court shall allocate stock options between the parties at
the time of the judgment of dissolution of marriage or
declaration of invalidity of marriage recognizing that the
value of the stock options may not be then determinable and
that the actual division of the options may not occur until a
future date. In making the allocation between the parties, the
court shall consider, in addition to the factors set forth in
subsection (d) of this Section, the following:
(i) All circumstances underlying the grant of the stock
option including but not limited to whether the grant was
for past, present, or future efforts, or any combination
thereof.
(ii) The length of time from the grant of the option to
the time the option is exercisable.
(b-5) As to any policy of life insurance insuring the life
of either spouse, or any interest in such policy, that
constitutes marital property, whether whole life, term life,
group term life, universal life, or other form of life
insurance policy, and whether or not the value is
ascertainable, the court shall allocate ownership, death
benefits or the right to assign death benefits, and the
obligation for premium payments, if any, equitably between the
parties at the time of the judgment for dissolution or
declaration of invalidity of marriage.
(c) Commingled marital and non-marital property shall be
treated in the following manner, unless otherwise agreed by the
spouses:
(1) When marital and non-marital property are
commingled by contributing one estate of property into
another resulting in a loss of identity of the contributed
property, the classification of the contributed property
is transmuted to the estate receiving the contribution,
subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of this
subsection; provided that if marital and non-marital
property are commingled into newly acquired property
resulting in a loss of identity of the contributing
estates, the commingled property shall be deemed
transmuted to marital property, subject to the provisions
of paragraph (2) of this subsection.
(2) When one estate of property makes a contribution to
another estate of property, or when a spouse contributes
personal effort to non-marital property, the contributing
estate shall be reimbursed from the estate receiving the
contribution notwithstanding any transmutation; provided,
that no such reimbursement shall be made with respect to a
contribution which is not retraceable by clear and
convincing evidence, or was a gift, or, in the case of a
contribution of personal effort of a spouse to non-marital
property, unless the effort is significant and results in
substantial appreciation of the non-marital property.
Personal effort of a spouse shall be deemed a contribution
by the marital estate. The court may provide for
reimbursement out of the marital property to be divided or
by imposing a lien against the non-marital property which
received the contribution.
(d) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or
declaration of invalidity of marriage, or in a proceeding for
disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a
court which lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse
or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court
shall assign each spouse's non-marital property to that spouse.
It also shall divide the marital property without regard to
marital misconduct in just proportions considering all
relevant factors, including:
(1) the contribution of each party to the acquisition,
preservation, or increase or decrease in value of the
marital or non-marital property, including (i) any such
decrease attributable to a payment deemed to have been an
advance from the parties' marital estate under subsection
(c-1)(2) of Section 501 and (ii) the contribution of a
spouse as a homemaker or to the family unit;
(2) the dissipation by each party of the marital or
non-marital property, provided that a party's claim of
dissipation is subject to the following conditions:
(i) a notice of intent to claim dissipation shall
be given no later than 60 days before trial or 30 days
after discovery closes, whichever is later;
(ii) the notice of intent to claim dissipation
shall contain, at a minimum, a date or period of time
during which the marriage began undergoing an
irretrievable breakdown, an identification of the
property dissipated, and a date or period of time
during which the dissipation occurred;
(iii) the notice of intent to claim dissipation
shall be filed with the clerk of the court and be
served pursuant to applicable rules;
(iv) no dissipation shall be deemed to have
occurred prior to 5 years before the filing of the
petition for dissolution of marriage, or 3 years after
the party claiming dissipation knew or should have
known of the dissipation;
(3) the value of the property assigned to each spouse;
(4) the duration of the marriage;
(5) the relevant economic circumstances of each spouse
when the division of property is to become effective,
including the desirability of awarding the family home, or
the right to live therein for reasonable periods, to the
spouse having custody of the children;
(6) any obligations and rights arising from a prior
marriage of either party;
(7) any antenuptial agreement of the parties;
(8) the age, health, station, occupation, amount and
sources of income, vocational skills, employability,
estate, liabilities, and needs of each of the parties;
(9) the custodial provisions for any children;
(10) whether the apportionment is in lieu of or in
addition to maintenance;
(11) the reasonable opportunity of each spouse for
future acquisition of capital assets and income; and
(12) the tax consequences of the property division upon
the respective economic circumstances of the parties.
(e) Each spouse has a species of common ownership in the
marital property which vests at the time dissolution
proceedings are commenced and continues only during the
pendency of the action. Any such interest in marital property
shall not encumber that property so as to restrict its
transfer, assignment or conveyance by the title holder unless
such title holder is specifically enjoined from making such
transfer, assignment or conveyance.
(f) In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or
declaration of invalidity of marriage or in a proceeding for
disposition of property following dissolution of marriage by a
court that lacked personal jurisdiction over the absent spouse
or lacked jurisdiction to dispose of the property, the court,
in determining the value of the marital and non-marital
property for purposes of dividing the property, shall value the
property as of the date of trial or some other date as close to
the date of trial as is practicable.
(g) The court if necessary to protect and promote the best
interests of the children may set aside a portion of the
jointly or separately held estates of the parties in a separate
fund or trust for the support, maintenance, education, physical
and mental health, and general welfare of any minor, dependent,
or incompetent child of the parties. In making a determination
under this subsection, the court may consider, among other
things, the conviction of a party of any of the offenses set
forth in Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60,
12-3.3, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1,
12-15, or 12-16, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision
(a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
Code of 2012 if the victim is a child of one or both of the
parties, and there is a need for, and cost of, care, healing
and counseling for the child who is the victim of the crime.
(h) Unless specifically directed by a reviewing court, or
upon good cause shown, the court shall not on remand consider
any increase or decrease in the value of any "marital" or
"non-marital" property occurring since the assessment of such
property at the original trial or hearing, but shall use only
that assessment made at the original trial or hearing.
(i) The court may make such judgments affecting the marital
property as may be just and may enforce such judgments by
ordering a sale of marital property, with proceeds therefrom to
be applied as determined by the court.
(j) After proofs have closed in the final hearing on all
other issues between the parties (or in conjunction with the
final hearing, if all parties so stipulate) and before judgment
is entered, a party's petition for contribution to fees and
costs incurred in the proceeding shall be heard and decided, in
accordance with the following provisions:
(1) A petition for contribution, if not filed before
the final hearing on other issues between the parties,
shall be filed no later than 30 days after the closing of
proofs in the final hearing or within such other period as
the court orders.
(2) Any award of contribution to one party from the
other party shall be based on the criteria for division of
marital property under this Section 503 and, if maintenance
has been awarded, on the criteria for an award of
maintenance under Section 504.
(3) The filing of a petition for contribution shall not
be deemed to constitute a waiver of the attorney-client
privilege between the petitioning party and current or
former counsel; and such a waiver shall not constitute a
prerequisite to a hearing for contribution. If either
party's presentation on contribution, however, includes
evidence within the scope of the attorney-client
privilege, the disclosure or disclosures shall be narrowly
construed and shall not be deemed by the court to
constitute a general waiver of the privilege as to matters
beyond the scope of the presentation.
(4) No finding on which a contribution award is based
or denied shall be asserted against counsel or former
counsel for purposes of any hearing under subsection (c) or
(e) of Section 508.
(5) A contribution award (payable to either the
petitioning party or the party's counsel, or jointly, as
the court determines) may be in the form of either a set
dollar amount or a percentage of fees and costs (or a
portion of fees and costs) to be subsequently agreed upon
by the petitioning party and counsel or, alternatively,
thereafter determined in a hearing pursuant to subsection
(c) of Section 508 or previously or thereafter determined
in an independent proceeding under subsection (e) of
Section 508.
(6) The changes to this Section 503 made by this
amendatory Act of 1996 apply to cases pending on or after
June 1, 1997, except as otherwise provided in Section 508.
(k) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-941
this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly apply only to
petitions for dissolution of marriage filed on or after January
1, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 97-941) this
amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly.
(Source: P.A. 96-583, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1551, Article 1, Section
985, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1100, eff.
7-1-11; 97-608, eff. 1-1-12; 97-941, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff.
1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)
(750 ILCS 5/601) (from Ch. 40, par. 601)
Sec. 601. Jurisdiction; Commencement of Proceeding.
(a) A court of this State competent to decide child custody
matters has jurisdiction to make a child custody determination
in original or modification proceedings as provided in Section
201 of the Uniform Child-Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement
Act as adopted by this State.
(b) A child custody proceeding is commenced in the court:
(1) by a parent, by filing a petition:
(i) for dissolution of marriage or legal
separation or declaration of invalidity of marriage;
or
(ii) for custody of the child, in the county in
which he is permanently resident or found;
(2) by a person other than a parent, by filing a
petition for custody of the child in the county in which he
is permanently resident or found, but only if he is not in
the physical custody of one of his parents; or
(3) by a stepparent, by filing a petition, if all of
the following circumstances are met:
(A) the child is at least 12 years old;
(B) the custodial parent and stepparent were
married for at least 5 years during which the child
resided with the parent and stepparent;
(C) the custodial parent is deceased or is disabled
and cannot perform the duties of a parent to the child;
(D) the stepparent provided for the care, control,
and welfare to the child prior to the initiation of
custody proceedings;
(E) the child wishes to live with the stepparent;
and
(F) it is alleged to be in the best interests and
welfare of the child to live with the stepparent as
provided in Section 602 of this Act; or .
(4) when When one of the parents is deceased, by a
grandparent who is a parent or stepparent of a deceased
parent, by filing a petition, if one or more of the
following existed at the time of the parent's death:
(A) the surviving parent had been absent from the
marital abode for more than one month without the
deceased spouse knowing his or her whereabouts;
(B) the surviving parent was in State or federal
custody; or
(C) the surviving parent had: (i) received
supervision for or been convicted of any violation of
Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60,
11-1.70, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-35, 12C-40, 12C-45, 18-6,
19-6, or Article 12 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012 directed towards the deceased
parent or the child; or (ii) received supervision or
been convicted of violating an order of protection
entered under Section 217, 218, or 219 of the Illinois
Domestic Violence Act of 1986 for the protection of the
deceased parent or the child.
(c) Notice of a child custody proceeding, including an
action for modification of a previous custody order, shall be
given to the child's parents, guardian and custodian, who may
appear, be heard, and file a responsive pleading. The court,
upon showing of good cause, may permit intervention of other
interested parties.
(d) Proceedings for modification of a previous custody
order commenced more than 30 days following the entry of a
previous custody order must be initiated by serving a written
notice and a copy of the petition for modification upon the
child's parent, guardian and custodian at least 30 days prior
to hearing on the petition. Nothing in this Section shall
preclude a party in custody modification proceedings from
moving for a temporary order under Section 603 of this Act.
(e) (Blank).
(f) The court shall, at the court's discretion or upon the
request of any party entitled to petition for custody of the
child, appoint a guardian ad litem to represent the best
interest of the child for the duration of the custody
proceeding or for any modifications of any custody orders
entered. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prevent
the court from appointing the same guardian ad litem for 2 or
more children that are siblings or half-siblings.
(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 560. The Uniform Interstate Family Support Act is
amended by changing Section 102 as follows:
(750 ILCS 22/102) (was 750 ILCS 22/101)
Sec. 102. Definitions. In this Act:
"Child" means an individual, whether over or under the age
of 18, who is or is alleged to be owed a duty of support by the
individual's parent or who is or is alleged to be the
beneficiary of a support order directed to the parent.
"Child-support order" means a support order for a child,
including a child who has attained the age of 18.
"Duty of support" means an obligation imposed or imposable
by law to provide support for a child, spouse, or former spouse
including an unsatisfied obligation to provide support.
"Home state" means the state in which a child lived with a
parent or a person acting as parent for at least 6 consecutive
months immediately preceding the time of filing of a petition
or comparable pleading for support, and if a child is less than
6 months old, the state in which the child lived from birth
with any of them. A period of temporary absence of any of them
is counted as part of the 6-month or other period.
"Income" includes earnings or other periodic entitlements
to money from any source and any other property subject to
withholding for support under the law of this State.
"Income-withholding order" means an order or other legal
process directed to an obligor's employer or other debtor, as
defined by the Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage
Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and Children Act, the
Non-Support Punishment Act, the Illinois Public Aid Code, and
the Illinois Parentage Act of 1984, to withhold support from
the income of the obligor.
"Initiating state" means a state from which a proceeding is
forwarded or in which a proceeding is filed for forwarding to a
responding state under this Act or a law or procedure
substantially similar to this Act.
"Initiating tribunal" means the authorized tribunal in an
initiating state.
"Issuing state" means the state in which a tribunal issues
a support order or renders a judgment determining parentage.
"Issuing tribunal" means the tribunal that issues a support
order or renders a judgment determining parentage.
"Obligee" means:
(A) an individual to whom a duty of support is or is
alleged to be owed or in whose favor a support order has
been issued or a judgment determining parentage has been
rendered;
(B) a state or political subdivision to which the
rights under a duty of support or support order have been
assigned or which has independent claims based on financial
assistance provided to an individual obligee; or
(C) an individual seeking a judgment determining
parentage of the individual's child.
"Obligor" means an individual, or the estate of a decedent:
(i) who owes or is alleged to owe a duty of
support;
(ii) who is alleged but has not been adjudicated to
be a parent of a child; or
(iii) who is liable under a support order.
"Person means an individual, corporation, business trust,
estate, trust, partnership, limited liability company,
association, joint venture, government, governmental
subdivision, agency, instrumentality, public corporation, or
any other legal or commercial entity.
"Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible
medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and
is retrievable in perceivable form.
"Register" means to record a support order or judgment
determining parentage in the appropriate Registry of Foreign
Support Orders.
"Registering tribunal" means a tribunal in which a support
order is registered.
"Responding state" means a state in which a proceeding is
filed or to which a proceeding is forwarded for filing from an
initiating state under this Act or a law or procedure
substantially similar to this Act.
"Responding tribunal" means the authorized tribunal in a
responding state.
"Spousal-support order" means a support order for a spouse
or former spouse of the obligor.
"State" means a state of the United States, the District of
Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any
territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of
the United States. The term includes:
(A) an Indian tribe; and
(B) a foreign country or political subdivision that:
(i) has been declared to be a foreign reciprocating
country or political subdivision under federal law;
(ii) has established a reciprocal arrangement for
child support with this State as provided in Section
308; or
(iii) has enacted a law or established procedures
for issuance and enforcement of support orders which
are substantially similar to the procedures under this
Act.
"Support enforcement agency" means a public official or
agency authorized to seek:
(A) enforcement of support orders or laws relating to
the duty of support;
(B) establishment or modification of child support;
(C) determination of parentage;
(D) to locate obligors or their assets; or
(E) determination of the controlling child support
order.
"Support order" means a judgment, decree, order, or
directive, whether temporary, final, or subject to
modification, issued by a tribunal for the benefit of a child,
a spouse, or a former spouse, which provides for monetary
support, health care, arrearages, or reimbursement, and may
include related costs and fees, interest, income withholding,
attorney's fees, and other relief.
"Tribunal" means a court, administrative agency, or
quasi-judicial entity authorized to establish, enforce, or
modify support orders or to determine parentage.
(Source: P.A. 93-479, eff. 1-1-04, operative 7-1-04; revised
11-26-14.)
Section 565. The Adoption Act is amended by changing
Section 18.2 as follows:
(750 ILCS 50/18.2) (from Ch. 40, par. 1522.2)
Sec. 18.2. Forms.
(a) The Department shall develop the Illinois Adoption
Registry forms as provided in this Section. The General
Assembly shall reexamine the content of the form as requested
by the Department, in consultation with the Registry Advisory
Council. The form of the Birth Parent Registration
Identification Form shall be substantially as follows:
BIRTH PARENT REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION
(Insert all known information)
I, ....., state that I am the ...... (mother or father) of the
following child:
Child's original name: ..... (first) ..... (middle) .....
(last), ..... (hour of birth), ..... (date of birth),
..... (city and state of birth), ..... (name of
hospital).
Father's full name: ...... (first) ...... (middle) .....
(last), ..... (date of birth), ..... (city and state of
birth).
Name of mother inserted on birth certificate: ..... (first)
..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race), ..... (date
of birth), ...... (city and state of birth).
That I surrendered my child to: ............. (name of agency),
..... (city and state of agency), ..... (approximate date
child surrendered).
That I placed my child by private adoption: ..... (date),
...... (city and state).
Name of adoptive parents, if known: ......
Other identifying information: .....
........................
(Signature of parent)
............ ........................
(date) (printed name of parent)
(b) The form of the Adopted Person Registration
Identification shall be substantially as follows:
ADOPTED PERSON
REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION
(Insert all known information)
I, ....., state the following:
Adopted Person's present name: ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last).
Adopted Person's name at birth (if known): ..... (first)
..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (birth date), .....
(city and state of birth), ...... (sex), ..... (race).
Name of adoptive father: ..... (first) ..... (middle) .....
(last), ..... (race).
Maiden name of adoptive mother: ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).
Name of birth mother (if known): ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).
Name of birth father (if known): ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).
Name(s) at birth of sibling(s) having a common birth parent
with adoptee (if known): ..... (first) ..... (middle)
..... (last), ..... (race), and name of common birth
parent: ..... (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last),
..... (race).
I was adopted through: ..... (name of agency).
I was adopted privately: ..... (state "yes" if known).
I was adopted in ..... (city and state), ..... (approximate
date).
Other identifying information: .............
......................
(signature of adoptee)
........... .........................
(date) (printed name of adoptee)
(c) The form of the Surrendered Person Registration
Identification shall be substantially as follows:
SURRENDERED PERSON REGISTRATION
IDENTIFICATION
(Insert all known information)
I, ....., state the following:
Surrendered Person's present name: ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last).
Surrendered Person's name at birth (if known): .....
(first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth
date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex),
..... (race).
Name of guardian father: ..... (first) ..... (middle) .....
(last), ..... (race).
Maiden name of guardian mother: ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last), ..... (race).
Name of birth mother (if known): ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last) ..... (race).
Name of birth father (if known): ..... (first) .....
(middle) ..... (last), .....(race).
Name(s) at birth of sibling(s) having a common birth parent
with surrendered person (if known): ..... (first)
..... (middle) ..... (last), ..... (race), and name of
common birth parent: ..... (first) ..... (middle)
..... (last), ..... (race).
I was surrendered for adoption to: ..... (name of agency).
I was surrendered for adoption in ..... (city and state), .....
(approximate date).
Other identifying information: ............
................................
(signature of surrendered person)
............ ......................
(date) (printed name of person
surrendered for adoption)
(c-3) The form of the Registration Identification Form for
Surviving Relatives of Deceased Birth Parents shall be
substantially as follows:
REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION FORM
FOR SURVIVING RELATIVES OF DECEASED BIRTH PARENTS
(Insert all known information)
I, ....., state the following:
Name of deceased birth parent at time of surrender:
Deceased birth parent's date of birth:
Deceased birth parent's date of death:
Adopted or surrendered person's name at birth (if known):
.....(first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth
date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex),
..... (race).
My relationship to the adopted or surrendered person (check
one): (birth parent's non-surrendered child) (birth parent's
sister) (birth parent's brother).
If you are a non-surrendered child of the birth parent, provide
name(s) at birth and age(s) of non-surrendered siblings having
a common parent with the birth parent. If more than one
sibling, please give information requested below on reverse
side of this form. If you are a sibling or parent of the birth
parent, provide name(s) at birth and age(s) of the sibling(s)
of the birth parent. If more than one sibling, please give
information requested below on reverse side of this form.
Name (First) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth
date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex),
..... (race).
Name(s) of common parent(s) (first) ..... (middle) .....
(last), .....(race), (first) ..... (middle) .....
(last), .....(race).
My birth sibling/child of my brother/child of my sister/ was
surrendered for adoption to ..... (name of agency) City and
state of agency ..... Date .....(approximate) Other
identifying information ..... (Please note that you must: (i)
be at least 21 years of age to register; (ii) submit with your
registration a certified copy of the birth parent's birth
certificate; (iii) submit a certified copy of the birth
parent's death certificate; and (iv) if you are a
non-surrendered birth sibling or a sibling of the deceased
birth parent, also submit a certified copy of your birth
certificate with this registration. No application from a
surviving relative of a deceased birth parent can be accepted
if the birth parent filed a Denial of Information Exchange
prior to his or her death.)
................................
(signature of birth parent's surviving relative)
............ ............
(date) (printed name of birth
parent's surviving relative)
(c-5) The form of the Registration Identification Form for
Surviving Relatives of Deceased Adopted or Surrendered Persons
shall be substantially as follows:
REGISTRATION IDENTIFICATION FORM FOR
SURVIVING RELATIVES OF DECEASED ADOPTED OR SURRENDERED PERSONS
(Insert all known information)
I, ....., state the following:
Adopted or surrendered person's name at birth (if known):
(first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth
date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex),
..... (race).
Adopted or surrendered person's date of death:
My relationship to the deceased adopted or surrendered
person(check one): (adoptive mother) (adoptive father) (adult
child) (surviving spouse).
If you are an adult child or surviving spouse of the adopted or
surrendered person, provide name(s) at birth and age(s) of the
children of the adopted or surrendered person. If the adopted
or surrendered person had more than one child, please give
information requested below on reverse side of this form.
Name (first) ..... (middle) ..... (last), .....(birth
date), ..... (city and state of birth), ...... (sex),
..... (race).
Name(s) of common parent(s) (first) ..... (middle) .....
(last), .....(race), (first) ..... (middle) .....
(last), .....(race).
My child/parent/deceased spouse was surrendered for
adoption to .....(name of agency) City and state of agency
..... Date ..... (approximate) Other identifying
information ..... (Please note that you must: (i) be at
least 21 years of age to register; (ii) submit with your
registration a certified copy of the adopted or surrendered
person's death certificate; (iii) if you are the child of a
deceased adopted or surrendered person, also submit a
certified copy of your birth certificate with this
registration; and (iv) if you are the surviving wife or
husband of a deceased adopted or surrendered person, also
submit a copy of your marriage certificate with this
registration. No application from a surviving relative of a
deceased adopted or surrendered person can be accepted if
the adopted or surrendered person filed a Denial of
Information Exchange prior to his or her death.)
................................
(signature of adopted or surrendered person's surviving
relative)
............ ............
(date) (printed name of adopted
person's surviving relative)
(d) The form of the Information Exchange Authorization
shall be substantially as follows:
INFORMATION EXCHANGE AUTHORIZATION
I, ....., state that I am the person who completed the
Registration Identification; that I am of the age of .....
years; that I hereby authorize the Department of Public Health
to give to the following person(s) (birth mother ) (birth
father) (birth sibling) (adopted or surrendered person )
(adoptive mother) (adoptive father) (legal guardian of an
adopted or surrendered person) (birth aunt) (birth uncle)
(adult child of a deceased adopted or surrendered person)
(surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person)
(all eligible relatives) the following (please check the
information authorized for exchange):
[ ] 1. Only my name and last known address.
[ ] 2. A copy of my Illinois Adoption Registry
Application.
[ ] 3. A non-certified copy of the adopted or
surrendered person's original certificate of live birth
(check only if you are an adopted or surrendered person or
the surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased
adopted or surrendered person).
[ ] 4. A copy of my completed medical questionnaire.
I am fully aware that I can only be supplied with
information about an individual or individuals who have duly
executed an Information Exchange Authorization that has not
been revoked or, if I am an adopted or surrendered person, from
a birth parent who completed a Birth Parent Preference Form and
did not prohibit the release of his or her identity to me; that
I can be contacted by writing to: ..... (own name or name of
person to contact) (address) (phone number).
NOTE: New IARMIE registrants who do not complete a Medical
Information Exchange Questionnaire and release a copy of their
questionnaire to at least one Registry applicant must pay a $15
registration fee.
Dated (insert date).
..............
(signature)
(e) The form of the Denial of Information Exchange shall be
substantially as follows:
DENIAL OF INFORMATION EXCHANGE
I, ....., state that I am the person who completed the
Registration Identification; that I am of the age of .....
years; that I hereby instruct the Department of Public Health
not to give any identifying information about me to the
following person(s) (birth mother) (birth father) (birth
sibling)(adopted or surrendered person)(adoptive mother)
(adoptive father)(legal guardian of an adopted or surrendered
person)(birth aunt)(birth uncle)(adult child of a deceased
adopted or surrendered person) (surviving spouse of a deceased
adopted or surrendered person) (all eligible relatives).
I do/do not (circle appropriate response) authorize the
Registry to release a copy of my completed Medical Information
Exchange Questionnaire to qualified Registry applicants. NOTE:
New IARMIE registrants who do not complete a Medical
Information Exchange Questionnaire and release a copy of their
questionnaire to at least one Registry applicant must pay a $15
registration fee. Birth parents filing a Denial of Information
Exchange are advised that, under Illinois law, an adult adopted
person may initiate a search for a birth parent who has filed a
Denial of Information Exchange or Birth Parent Preference Form
on which Option E was selected through the State confidential
intermediary program once 5 years have elapsed since the filing
of the Denial of Information Exchange or Birth Parent
Preference Form.
Dated (insert date).
...............
(signature)
(f) The form of the Birth Parent Preference Form shall be
substantially as follows:
In recognition of the basic right of all persons to access
their birth records, Illinois law now provides for the release
of original birth certificates to adopted and surrendered
persons 21 years of age or older upon request. While many birth
parents are comfortable sharing their identities or initiating
contact with their birth sons and daughters once they have
reached adulthood, Illinois law also recognizes that there may
be unique situations where a birth parent might have a
compelling reason for not wishing to establish contact with a
birth son or birth daughter or for not wishing to release
identifying information that appears on the original birth
certificate of a birth son or birth daughter who has reached
adulthood. The Illinois Adoption Registry and Medical
Information Exchange (IARMIE) has therefore established the
attached form to allow birth parents to express their
preferences regarding contact; and, if their birth child was
born on or after January 1, 1946, to express their wishes
regarding the sharing of identifying information listed on the
original birth certificate with an adult adopted or surrendered
person who has reached the age of 21 or his or her surviving
relatives.
In selecting one of the 5 options below, birth parents
should keep in mind that the decision to deny an adult adopted
or surrendered person access to identifying information on his
or her original birth record and/or information about
genetically-transmitted diseases is an important decision that
may impact the adopted or surrendered person's life in many
ways. A request for anonymity on this form only pertains to
information that is provided to an adult adopted or surrendered
person or his or her surviving relatives through the Registry.
This will not prevent the disclosure of identifying information
that may be available to the adoptee through his or her
adoptive parents and/or other means available to him or her.
Birth parents who would prefer not to be contacted by their
surrendered son or daughter are strongly urged to complete both
the Non-Identifying Information Section included on the final
page of the attached form and the Medical Questionnaire in
order to provide their surrendered son or daughter with the
background information he or she may need to better understand
his or her origins. Birth parents whose birth son or birth
daughter is under 21 years of age at the time of the completion
of this form are reminded that no original birth certificate
will be released by the IARMIE before an adoptee has reached
the age of 21. Should you need additional assistance in
completing this form, please contact the agency that handled
the adoption, if applicable, or the Illinois Adoption Registry
and Medical Information Exchange at 877-323-5299.
After careful consideration, I have made the following
decision regarding contact with my birth son/birth daughter,
(insert birth son's/birth daughter's name at birth, if
applicable) ......, who was born in (insert city/town of birth)
...... on (insert date of birth)...... and the release of my
identifying information as it appears on his/her original birth
certificate when he/she reaches the age of 21, and I have
chosen Option ...... (insert A, B, C, D, or E, as applicable).
I realize that this form must be accompanied by a completed
IARMIE application form as well as a Medical Information
Exchange Questionnaire or the $15 registration fee. I am also
aware that I may revoke this decision at any time by completing
a new Birth Parent Preference Form and filing it with the
IARMIE. I understand that it is my responsibility to update the
IARMIE with any changes to contact information provided below.
I also understand that, while preferences regarding the release
of identifying information through the Registry are binding
unless the law should change in the future, any selection I
have made regarding my preferred method of contact is not.
...
(Signature/Date)
(Please insert your signature and today's date above, as well
as under your chosen option, A, B, C, D, or E below.)
Option A. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after
January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying
information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's
original birth certificate, OR my birth son or birth daughter
was born prior to January 1, 1946. I would welcome direct
contact with my birth son/birth daughter when he or she has
reached the age of 21. In addition, before my birth son or
birth daughter has reached the age of 21 or in the event of his
or her death, I would welcome contact with the following
relatives of my birth child (circle all that apply): adoptive
mother, adoptive father, surviving spouse, surviving adult
child. I wish to be contacted at the following mailing address,
email address or phone number:
..............................
.............................................................
.............................................................
.............................................................
(Signature/Date)
Option B. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after
January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying
information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's
original birth certificate, OR my birth son or birth daughter
was born prior to January 1, 1946. I would welcome contact with
my birth son/birth daughter when he or she has reached the age
of 21. In addition, before my birth son or birth daughter has
reached the age of 21 or in the event of his or her death, I
would welcome contact with the following relatives of my birth
child (circle all that apply): adoptive mother, adoptive
father, surviving spouse, surviving adult child. I would prefer
to be contacted through the following person. (Insert name and
mailing address, email address or phone number of chosen
contact person.)
............................................
.............................................................
(Signature/Date)
Option C. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after
January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying
information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's
original birth certificate, OR my birth son or birth daughter
was born prior to January 1, 1946. I would welcome contact with
my birth son/birth daughter when he or she has reached the age
of 21. In addition, before my birth son or birth daughter has
reached the age of 21 or in the event of his or her death, I
would welcome contact with the following relatives of my birth
child (circle all that apply): adoptive mother, adoptive
father, surviving spouse, surviving adult child. I would prefer
to be contacted through the Illinois Confidential Intermediary
Program (please call 800-526-9022 for additional information)
or through the agency that handled the adoption. (Insert agency
name, address and phone number, if applicable.)
.............
.............................................................
(Signature/Date)
Option D. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after
January 1, 1946, and I agree to the release of my identifying
information as it appears on my birth son's/birth daughter's
original birth certificate when he or she has reached the age
of 21, OR my birth son or birth daughter was born prior to
January 1, 1946. I would prefer not to be contacted by my birth
son/birth daughter or his or her adoptive parents or surviving
relatives.
...................................................
(Signature/Date)
Option E. My birth son or birth daughter was born on or after
January 1, 1946, and I wish to prohibit the release of my
(circle ALL applicable options) first name, last name, last
known address, birth son/birth daughter's last name (if last
name listed is same as mine), as they appear on my birth
son's/birth daughter's original birth certificate and do not
wish to be contacted by my birth son/birth daughter when he or
she has reached the age of 21. If there were any special
circumstances that played a role in your decision to remain
anonymous which you would like to share with your birth
son/birth daughter, please list them in the space provided
below (optional).
...........................................
.............................................................
I understand that, although I have chosen to prohibit the
release of my identity on the non-certified copy of the
original birth certificate released to my birth son/birth
daughter, he or she may request that a court-appointed
confidential intermediary contact me to request updated
medical information and/or confirm my desire to remain
anonymous once 5 years have elapsed since the signing of this
form; at the time of this subsequent search, I wish to be
contacted through the person named below. (Insert in blank area
below the name and phone number of the contact person, or leave
it blank if you wish to be contacted directly.) I also
understand that this request for anonymity shall expire upon my
death.
......................................................
.............................................................
(Signature/Date)
NOTE: A copy of this form will be forwarded to your birth son
or birth daughter should he or she file a request for his or
her original birth certificate with the IARMIE. However, if you
have selected Option E, identifying information, per your
specifications above, will be deleted from the copy of this
form forwarded to your birth son or daughter during your
lifetime. In the event that an adopted or surrendered person is
deceased, his or her surviving adult children may request a
copy of the adopted or surrendered person's original birth
certificate providing they have registered with the IARMIE; the
copy of this form and the non-certified copy of the original
birth certificate forwarded to the surviving child of the
adopted or surrendered person shall be redacted per your
specifications on this form during your lifetime.
Non-Identifying Information Section
I wish to voluntarily provide the following non-identifying
information to my birth son or birth daughter:
My age at the time of my child's birth was .........
My race is best described as: ..........................
My height is: .........
My body type is best described as (circle one): slim, average,
muscular, a few extra pounds, or more than a few extra pounds.
My natural hair color is/was: ..................
My eye color is: ..................
My religion is best described as: ..................
My ethnic background is best described as: ..................
My educational level is closest to (circle applicable
response): completed elementary school, graduated from
high school, attended college, earned bachelor's degree,
earned master's degree, earned doctoral degree.
My occupation is best described as ..................
My hobbies include ..................
My interests include ..................
My talents include ..................
In addition to my surrendered son or daughter, I also
am the biological parent of (insert number) ....... boys and
(insert number) ....... girls, of whom (insert number) .......
are still living.
The relationship between me and my child's birth mother/birth
father would best be described as (circle appropriate
response): husband and wife, ex-spouses, boyfriend and
girlfriend, casual acquaintances, other (please specify)
..............
(g) The form of the Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an
Original Birth Certificate shall be substantially as follows:
REQUEST FOR A NON-CERTIFIED COPY OF AN ORIGINAL BIRTH
CERTIFICATE
I, (requesting party's full name) ....., hereby request a
non-certified copy of (check appropriate option) ..... my
original birth certificate ..... the original birth
certificate of my deceased adopted or surrendered parent .....
the original birth certificate of my deceased adopted or
surrendered spouse (insert deceased parent's/deceased spouse's
name at adoption) ...... I/my deceased parent/my deceased
spouse was born in (insert city and county of adopted or
surrendered person's birth) ..... on ..... (insert adopted or
surrendered person's date of birth). In the event that one or
both of my/my deceased parent's/my deceased spouse's birth
parents has requested that their identity not be released to
me/to my deceased parent/to my deceased spouse, I wish to
(check appropriate option) ..... a. receive a non-certified
copy of the original birth certificate from which identifying
information pertaining to the birth parent who requested
anonymity has been deleted; or ..... b. I do not wish to
receive received an altered copy of the original birth
certificate.
Dated (insert date).
...................
(signature)
(h) Any Information Exchange Authorization, Denial of
Information Exchange, or Birth Parent Preference Form filed
with the Registry, or Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an
Original Birth Certificate filed with the Registry by a
surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted
or surrendered person, shall be acknowledged by the person who
filed it before a notary public, in form substantially as
follows:
State of ..............
County of .............
I, a Notary Public, in and for the said County, in the
State aforesaid, do hereby certify that ...............
personally known to me to be the same person whose name is
subscribed to the foregoing certificate of acknowledgement,
appeared before me in person and acknowledged that (he or she)
signed such certificate as (his or her) free and voluntary act
and that the statements in such certificate are true.
Given under my hand and notarial seal on (insert date).
.........................
(signature)
(i) When the execution of an Information Exchange
Authorization, Denial of Information Exchange, or Birth Parent
Preference Form or Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an
Original Birth Certificate completed by a surviving adult child
or surviving spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person
is acknowledged before a representative of an agency, such
representative shall have his signature on said Certificate
acknowledged before a notary public, in form substantially as
follows:
State of..........
County of.........
I, a Notary Public, in and for the said County, in the
State aforesaid, do hereby certify that ..... personally known
to me to be the same person whose name is subscribed to the
foregoing certificate of acknowledgement, appeared before me
in person and acknowledged that (he or she) signed such
certificate as (his or her) free and voluntary act and that the
statements in such certificate are true.
Given under my hand and notarial seal on (insert date).
.......................
(signature)
(j) When an Illinois Adoption Registry Application,
Information Exchange Authorization, Denial of Information
Exchange, Birth Parent Preference Form, or Request for a
Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth Certificate completed
by a surviving adult child or surviving spouse of a deceased
adopted or surrendered person is executed in a foreign country,
the execution of such document shall be acknowledged or
affirmed before an officer of the United States consular
services.
(k) If the person signing an Information Exchange
Authorization, Denial of Information, Birth Parent Preference
Form, or Request for a Non-Certified Copy of an Original Birth
Certificate completed by a surviving adult child or surviving
spouse of a deceased adopted or surrendered person is in the
military service of the United States, the execution of such
document may be acknowledged before a commissioned officer and
the signature of such officer on such certificate shall be
verified or acknowledged before a notary public or by such
other procedure as is then in effect for such division or
branch of the armed forces.
(l) An adopted or surrendered person, surviving adult
child, adult grandchild, surviving spouse, or birth parent of
an adult adopted person who completes a Request For a
Non-Certified Copy of the Original Birth Certificate shall meet
the same filing requirements and pay the same filing fees as a
non-adopted person seeking to obtain a copy of his or her
original birth certificate.
(m) Beginning on January 1, 2015, any birth parent of an
adult adopted person named on the original birth certificate
may request a non-certified copy of the original birth
certificate reflecting the birth of the adult adopted person,
provided that:
(1) any non-certified copy of the original birth
certificate released under this subsection (m) shall not
reflect the State file number on the original birth
certificate; and
(2) if the Department of Public Health does not locate
the original birth certificate, it shall issue a
certification of no record found.
(Source: P.A. 97-110, eff. 7-14-11; 98-704, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 12-10-14.)
Section 570. The Trusts and Dissolutions of Marriage Act is
amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
(760 ILCS 35/1) (from Ch. 148, par. 301)
Sec. 1. (a) Unless the governing instrument or the judgment
of judicial termination of marriage expressly provides
otherwise, judicial termination of the marriage of the settlor
of a trust revokes every provision which is revocable by the
settlor pertaining to the settlor's former spouse in a trust
instrument or amendment thereto executed by the settlor before
the entry of the judgment of judicial termination of the
settlor's marriage, and any such trust shall be administered
and construed as if the settlor's former spouse had died upon
entry of the judgment of judicial termination of the settlor's
marriage.
(b) A trustee who has no actual knowledge of a judgment of
judicial termination of the settlor's marriage, shall have no
liability for any action taken or omitted in good faith on the
assumption that the settlor is married. The preceding sentence
is intended to affect only the liability of the trustee and
shall not affect the disposition of beneficial interests in any
trust.
(c) "Trust" means a trust created by a nontestamentary
instrument executed after the effective date of this Act,
except that, unless in the governing instrument the provisions
of this Act are made applicable by specific reference, the
provisions of this Act do not apply to any (a) land trust; (b)
voting trust; (c) security instrument such as a trust deed or
mortgage; (d) liquidation trust; (e) escrow; (f) instrument
under which a nominee, custodian for property or paying or
receiving agent is appointed; or (g) a trust created by a
deposit arrangement in a bank or savings institution, commonly
known as "Totten Trust".
(d) The phrase "provisions pertaining to the settlor's
former spouse" includes, but is not limited to, every present
or future gift or interest or power of appointment given to the
settlor's former spouse or right of the settlor's former spouse
to serve in a fiduciary capacity.
(e) A provision is revocable by the settlor if the settlor
has the power at the time of the entry of the judgment of
judicial termination of the settlor's marriage to revoke,
modify or amend said provision, either alone or in conjunction
with any other person or persons.
(f) "Judicial termination of marriage" includes, but is not
limited to, divorce, dissolution, annulment or declaration of
invalidity of marriage.
(Source: P.A. 90-655, eff. 7-30-98; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 575. The Residential Real Property Disclosure Act
is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
(765 ILCS 77/5)
Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
context otherwise requires, the following terms have the
meaning given in this Section.
"Residential real property" means real property improved
with not less than one nor more than 4 residential dwelling
units; units in residential cooperatives; or, condominium
units, including the limited common elements allocated to the
exclusive use thereof that form an integral part of the
condominium unit. The term includes a manufactured home as
defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the Uniform
Commercial Code that is real property as defined in the
Conveyance and Encumbrance of Manufactured Homes as Real
Property and Severance Act.
"Seller" means every person or entity who is an owner,
beneficiary of a trust, contract purchaser or lessee of a
ground lease, who has an interest (legal or equitable) in
residential real property. However, "seller" shall not include
any person who has both (i) never occupied the residential real
property and (ii) never had the management responsibility for
the residential real property nor delegated such
responsibility for the residential real property to another
person or entity.
"Prospective buyer" means any person or entity negotiating
or offering to become an owner or lessee of residential real
property by means of a transfer for value to which this Act
applies.
(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 580. The Conveyance and Encumbrance of
Manufactured Homes as Real Property and Severance Act is
amended by changing Section 5-10 as follows:
(765 ILCS 170/5-10)
Sec. 5-10. Act not mandatory; record notice. The owner of a
manufactured home that is personal property or a fixture may,
but need not, cause that manufactured home to be deemed to be
real property by satisfying the requirements of Section 5-30 of
this Act and the requirements of Section 3-116.1 or 3-116.2 of
the Illinois Vehicle Code, as applicable.
To convey or voluntarily encumber a manufactured home as
real property, the following conditions must be met:
(1) the manufactured home must be affixed to a
permanent foundation on real property;
(2) the ownership interests in the manufactured home
and the real property to which the manufactured home is
affixed must be identical, or, if the manufactured home is
not located in a mobile home park as defined in Section 2.5
of the Mobile Home Park Act, and if the owner of the
manufactured home, if not the owner of the real property,
is in possession of the real property pursuant to the terms
of a lease in recordable form that has a term that
continues for at least 20 years after the date of
execution, then the consent of the lessor of the real
property must be given;
(3) the person (all, if more than one) having an
ownership interest in such manufactured home shall execute
and record with the recording officer of the county in
which the real property is located an affidavit of
affixation as provided in Section 5-15 of this Act and
satisfy the other applicable requirements of this Act; and
(4) upon receipt of a certified copy of the recorded
affidavit of affixation pursuant to Section 5-25 of this
Act, any person designated therein for filing with the
Secretary of State shall file the certified copy of
affidavit of affixation with the Secretary of State; except
that:
(A) in a case described in subsection (a)(4)(A) of
Section 5-15 of this Act, a certified copy of the
affidavit of affixation and the original
Manufacturer's Statement of Origin, each as recorded
in the county in which the real property is located,
must be filed with the Secretary of State pursuant to
Section 3-116.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and
(B) in a case described in subsection (a)(4)(B) of
Section 5-15 of this Act, a certified copy of the
recorded affidavit of affixation as recorded in the
county in which the real property is located, and the
original certificate of title, including, if
applicable, a certificate of title issued in
accordance with subsection (b) of Section 3-109 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code, must be filed with the Secretary
of State pursuant to Section 3-116.2 of the Illinois
Vehicle Code.
(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 585. The Plat Act is amended by changing Section 1
as follows:
(765 ILCS 205/1) (from Ch. 109, par. 1)
Sec. 1. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph
(b) of this Section whenever the owner of land subdivides it
into 2 or more parts, any of which is less than 5 acres, he must
have it surveyed and a subdivision plat thereof made by an
Illinois Registered Land Surveyor, which plat must
particularly describe and set forth all public streets, alleys,
ways for public service facilities, ways for utility services
and community antenna television systems, parks, playgrounds,
school grounds or other public grounds, and all the tracts,
parcels, lots or blocks, and numbering all such lots, blocks or
parcels by progressive numbers, giving their precise
dimensions. There shall be submitted simultaneously with the
subdivision plat, a study or studies which shall show
topographically and by profile the elevation of the land prior
to the commencement of any change in elevations as a part of
any phase of subdividing, and additionally, if it is
contemplated that such elevations, or the flow of surface water
from such land, will be changed as a result of any portion of
such subdivision development, then such study or studies shall
also show such proposed changes in the elevations and the flow
of surface water from such land. The topographical and profile
studies required hereunder may be prepared as a subsidiary
study or studies separate from, but of the same scale and size
as the subdivision plat, and shall be prepared in such a manner
as will permit the topographical study or studies to be used as
overlays to the subdivision plat. The plat must show all
angular and linear data along the exterior boundaries of the
tract of land divided or subdivided, the names of all public
streets and the width, course and extent of all public streets,
alleys and ways for public service facilities. References must
also be made upon the plat to known and permanent monuments
from which future survey may be made and the surveyor must, at
the time of making his survey, set in such manner that they
will not be moved by frost, good and sufficient monuments
marking the external boundaries of the tract to be divided or
subdivided and must designate upon the plat the points where
they may be found. These monuments must be placed at all
corners, at each end of all curves, at the point where a curve
changes its radius, at all angle points in any line and at all
angle points along a meander line, the points to be not less
than 20 feet back from the normal water elevation of a lake or
from the bank of a stream, except that when such corners or
points fall within a street, or proposed future street, the
monuments must be placed in the right of way line of the
street. All internal boundaries, corners and points must be
monumented in the field by like monuments as defined above.
These monuments 2 of which must be of stone or reinforced
concrete and must be set at the opposite extremities of the
property platted, placed at all block corners, at each end of
all curves, at the points where a curve changes its radius, and
at all angle points in any line. All lots must be monumented in
the field with 2 or more monuments.
The monuments must be furnished by the person for whom the
survey is made and must be such that they will not be moved by
frost. If any city, village or town has adopted an official
plan, or part thereof, in the manner prescribed by law, the
plat of land situated within the area affected thereby must
conform to the official plan, or part thereof.
(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this Section,
the provisions of this Act do not apply and no subdivision plat
is required in any of the following instances:
1. the The division or subdivision of land into parcels
or tracts of 5 acres or more in size which does not involve
any new streets or easements of access;
2. the The division of lots or blocks of less than 1
acre in any recorded subdivision which does not involve any
new streets or easements of access;
3. the The sale or exchange of parcels of land between
owners of adjoining and contiguous land;
4. the The conveyance of parcels of land or interests
therein for use as a right of way for railroads or other
public utility facilities and other pipe lines which does
not involve any new streets or easements of access;
5. the The conveyance of land owned by a railroad or
other public utility which does not involve any new streets
or easements of access;
6. the The conveyance of land for highway or other
public purposes or grants or conveyances relating to the
dedication of land for public use or instruments relating
to the vacation of land impressed with a public use;
7. conveyances Conveyances made to correct
descriptions in prior conveyances; .
8. the The sale or exchange of parcels or tracts of
land following the division into no more than 2 parts of a
particular parcel or tract of land existing on July 17,
1959 and not involving any new streets or easements of
access; .
9. the The sale of a single lot of less than 5 acres
from a larger tract when a survey is made by an Illinois
Registered Land Surveyor; provided, that this exemption
shall not apply to the sale of any subsequent lots from the
same larger tract of land, as determined by the dimensions
and configuration of the larger tract on October 1, 1973,
and provided also that this exemption does not invalidate
any local requirements applicable to the subdivision of
land; .
10. the The preparation of a plat for wind energy
devices under Section 10-620 of the Property Tax Code.
Nothing contained within the provisions of this Act shall
prevent or preclude individual counties from establishing
standards, ordinances, or specifications which reduce the
acreage minimum to less than 5 acres, but not less than 2
acres, or supplementing the requirements contained herein when
a survey is made by an Illinois Registered Land Surveyor and a
plat thereof is recorded, under powers granted to them.
(c) However, if a plat is made by an Illinois Registered
Surveyor of any parcel or tract of land otherwise exempt from
the plat provisions of this Act pursuant to subsection (b) of
this Section, such plat shall be recorded. It shall not be the
responsibility of a recorder of deeds to determine whether the
plat has been made or recorded under this subsection (c) prior
to accepting a deed for recording.
(Source: P.A. 95-644, eff. 10-12-07; revised 12-10-14.)
Section 590. The Condominium Property Act is amended by
setting forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 18.8
as follows:
(765 ILCS 605/18.8)
Sec. 18.8. Use of technology.
(a) Any notice required to be sent or received or
signature, vote, consent, or approval required to be obtained
under any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act
may be accomplished using the technology generally available at
that time. This Section shall govern the use of technology in
implementing the provisions of any condominium instrument or
any provision of this Act concerning notices, signatures,
votes, consents, or approvals.
(b) The association, unit owners, and other persons
entitled to occupy a unit may perform any obligation or
exercise any right under any condominium instrument or any
provision of this Act by use of any technological means that
provides sufficient security, reliability, identification, and
verifiability.
(c) A verifiable electronic signature satisfies any
requirement for a signature under any condominium instrument or
any provision of this Act.
(d) Voting on, consent to, and approval of any matter under
any condominium instrument or any provision of this Act may be
accomplished by electronic transmission or other equivalent
technological means, provided that a record is created as
evidence thereof and maintained as long as the record would be
required to be maintained in nonelectronic form.
(e) Subject to other provisions of law, no action required
or permitted by any condominium instrument or any provision of
this Act need be acknowledged before a notary public if the
identity and signature of the person can otherwise be
authenticated to the satisfaction of the board of directors or
board of managers.
(f) If any person does not provide written authorization to
conduct business using electronic transmission or other
equivalent technological means, the association shall, at its
expense, conduct business with the person without the use of
electronic transmission or other equivalent technological
means.
(g) This Section does not apply to any notices required
under Article IX of the Code of Civil Procedure related to: (i)
an action by the association to collect a common expense; or
(ii) foreclosure proceedings in enforcement of any lien rights
under this Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-1042, eff. 1-1-15.)
(765 ILCS 605/18.9)
Sec. 18.9 18.8. Common elements; rights of board.
(a) Any provision in a condominium instrument is void as
against public policy and ineffective if it limits or restricts
the rights of the board of managers by:
(1) requiring the prior consent of the unit owners in
order for the board of managers to take any action,
including the institution of any action in court or a
demand for a trial by jury; or
(2) notwithstanding Section 32 of this Act, requiring
the board of managers to arbitrate or mediate a dispute
with any one or more of all of the declarants under the
condominium instruments or the developer or any person not
then a unit owner prior to the institution of any action by
the board of managers or a demand for a trial by jury.
(b) A provision in a declaration which would otherwise be
void and ineffective under this Section may be enforced if it
is approved by a vote of not less than 75% of the unit owners at
any time after the election of the first unit owner board of
managers.
(Source: P.A. 98-1068, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-20-14.)
Section 595. The Mobile Home Landlord and Tenant Rights Act
is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
(765 ILCS 745/3) (from Ch. 80, par. 203)
Sec. 3. Definitions. Unless otherwise expressly defined,
all terms in this Act shall be construed to have their
ordinarily accepted meanings or such meaning as the context
therein requires.
(a) "Person" means any legal entity, including but not
limited to, an individual, firm, partnership, association,
trust, joint stock company, corporation or successor of any of
the foregoing.
(b) "Manufactured home" means a factory-assembled,
completely integrated structure designed for permanent
habitation, with a permanent chassis, and so constructed as to
permit its transport, on wheels temporarily or permanently
attached to its frame, and is a movable or portable unit that
is (i) 8 body feet or more in width, (ii) 40 body feet or more
in length, and (iii) 320 or more square feet, constructed to be
towed on its own chassis (comprised of frame and wheels) from
the place of its construction to the location, or subsequent
locations, at which it is connected to utilities for year-round
occupancy for use as a permanent habitation, and designed and
situated so as to permit its occupancy as a dwelling place for
one or more persons, and specifically includes a "manufactured
home" as defined in subdivision (53) of Section 9-102 of the
Uniform Commercial Code. The term shall include units
containing parts that may be folded, collapsed, or telescoped
when being towed and that may be expected to provide additional
cubic capacity, and that are designed to be joined into one
integral unit capable of being separated again into the
components for repeated towing. The term excludes campers and
recreational vehicles. The words "mobile home" and
"manufactured home" are synonymous for the purposes of this
Act.
(c) "Mobile Home Park" or "Park" means a tract of land or 2
contiguous tracts of land that contain sites with the necessary
utilities for 5 or more mobile homes or manufactured homes. A
mobile home park may be operated either free of charge or for
revenue purposes.
(d) "Park Owner" means the owner of a mobile home park and
any person authorized to exercise any aspect of the management
of the premises, including any person who directly or
indirectly receives rents and has no obligation to deliver the
whole of such receipts to another person.
(e) "Tenant" means any person who occupies a mobile home
rental unit for dwelling purposes or a lot on which he parks a
mobile home for an agreed upon consideration.
(f) "Rent" means any money or other consideration given for
the right of use, possession and occupancy of property, be it a
lot, a mobile home, or both.
(g) "Master antenna television service" means any and all
services provided by or through the facilities of any closed
circuit coaxial cable communication system, or any microwave or
similar transmission services other than a community antenna
television system as defined in Section 11-42-11 of the
Illinois Municipal Code.
(h) "Authority having jurisdiction" means the Illinois
Department of Public Health or a unit of local government
specifically authorized by statute, rule, or ordinance to
enforce this Act or any other statute, rule, or ordinance
applicable to the mobile home park or manufactured home
community.
(i) "Managing agent" means any person or entity responsible
for the operation, management, or maintenance of a mobile home
park or manufactured home community.
(Source: P.A. 98-749, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1062, eff. 1-1-15;
revised 10-2-14.)
Section 600. The Mechanics Lien Act is amended by changing
Section 35 as follows:
(770 ILCS 60/35) (from Ch. 82, par. 35)
Sec. 35. Satisfaction or release; recording; neglect;
penalty.
(a) Whenever a claim for lien has been filed with the
recorder of deeds, either by the contractor or sub-contractor,
and is paid with cost of filing same, or where there is a
failure to institute suit to enforce the same after demand as
provided in the preceding Section within the time by this Act
limited the person filing the same or some one by him duly
authorized in writing so to do, shall acknowledge satisfaction
or release thereof, in writing, on written demand of the owner,
lienor, or any person interested in the real estate, or his or
her agent or attorney, and on neglect to do so for 10 days
after such written demand he or she shall be liable to the
owner for the sum of $2,500, which may be recovered in a civil
action together with the costs and the reasonable attorney's
fees of the owner, lienor, or other person interested in the
real estate, or his or her agent or attorney incurred in
bringing such action.
(b) Such a satisfaction or release of lien may be filed
with the recorder of deeds in whose office the claim for lien
had been filed and when so filed shall forever thereafter
discharge and release the claim for lien and shall bar all
actions brought or to be brought thereupon.
(c) The release of lien shall have the following imprinted
thereon in bold letters at least 1/4 inch in height: "FOR THE
PROTECTION OF THE OWNER, THIS RELEASE SHOULD BE FILED WITH THE
RECORDER IN WHOSE OFFICE THE CLAIM FOR LIEN WAS FILED." The
Recorder in whose office the claim for lien had been filed,
upon receipt of a release and the payment of the recording fee,
shall record the release.
(Source: P.A. 94-627, eff. 1-1-06; revised 12-11-14.)
Section 605. The Illinois Human Rights Act is amended by
changing Section 2-101 as follows:
(775 ILCS 5/2-101) (from Ch. 68, par. 2-101)
Sec. 2-101. Definitions. The following definitions are
applicable strictly in the context of this Article.
(A) Employee.
(1) "Employee" includes:
(a) Any individual performing services for
remuneration within this State for an employer;
(b) An apprentice;
(c) An applicant for any apprenticeship.
For purposes of subsection (D) of Section 2-102 of this
Act, "employee" also includes an unpaid intern. An unpaid
intern is a person who performs work for an employer under
the following circumstances:
(i) the employer is not committed to hiring the
person performing the work at the conclusion of the
intern's tenure;
(ii) the employer and the person performing the
work agree that the person is not entitled to wages for
the work performed; and
(iii) the work performed:
(I) supplements training given in an
educational environment that may enhance the
employability of the intern;
(II) provides experience for the benefit of
the person performing the work;
(III) does not displace regular employees;
(IV) is performed under the close supervision
of existing staff; and
(V) provides no immediate advantage to the
employer providing the training and may
occasionally impede the operations of the
employer.
(2) "Employee" does not include:
(a) Domestic servants in private homes;
(b) Individuals employed by persons who are not
"employers" as defined by this Act;
(c) Elected public officials or the members of
their immediate personal staffs;
(d) Principal administrative officers of the State
or of any political subdivision, municipal corporation
or other governmental unit or agency;
(e) A person in a vocational rehabilitation
facility certified under federal law who has been
designated an evaluee, trainee, or work activity
client.
(B) Employer.
(1) "Employer" includes:
(a) Any person employing 15 or more employees
within Illinois during 20 or more calendar weeks within
the calendar year of or preceding the alleged
violation;
(b) Any person employing one or more employees when
a complainant alleges civil rights violation due to
unlawful discrimination based upon his or her physical
or mental disability unrelated to ability, pregnancy,
or sexual harassment;
(c) The State and any political subdivision,
municipal corporation or other governmental unit or
agency, without regard to the number of employees;
(d) Any party to a public contract without regard
to the number of employees;
(e) A joint apprenticeship or training committee
without regard to the number of employees.
(2) "Employer" does not include any religious
corporation, association, educational institution,
society, or non-profit nursing institution conducted by
and for those who rely upon treatment by prayer through
spiritual means in accordance with the tenets of a
recognized church or religious denomination with respect
to the employment of individuals of a particular religion
to perform work connected with the carrying on by such
corporation, association, educational institution, society
or non-profit nursing institution of its activities.
(C) Employment Agency. "Employment Agency" includes both
public and private employment agencies and any person, labor
organization, or labor union having a hiring hall or hiring
office regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to
procure opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer or
place employees.
(D) Labor Organization. "Labor Organization" includes any
organization, labor union, craft union, or any voluntary
unincorporated association designed to further the cause of the
rights of union labor which is constituted for the purpose, in
whole or in part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with
employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of
employment, or apprenticeships or applications for
apprenticeships, or of other mutual aid or protection in
connection with employment, including apprenticeships or
applications for apprenticeships.
(E) Sexual Harassment. "Sexual harassment" means any
unwelcome sexual advances or requests for sexual favors or any
conduct of a sexual nature when (1) submission to such conduct
is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of
an individual's employment, (2) submission to or rejection of
such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for
employment decisions affecting such individual, or (3) such
conduct has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering
with an individual's work performance or creating an
intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment.
(F) Religion. "Religion" with respect to employers
includes all aspects of religious observance and practice, as
well as belief, unless an employer demonstrates that he is
unable to reasonably accommodate an employee's or prospective
employee's religious observance or practice without undue
hardship on the conduct of the employer's business.
(G) Public Employer. "Public employer" means the State, an
agency or department thereof, unit of local government, school
district, instrumentality or political subdivision.
(H) Public Employee. "Public employee" means an employee of
the State, agency or department thereof, unit of local
government, school district, instrumentality or political
subdivision. "Public employee" does not include public
officers or employees of the General Assembly or agencies
thereof.
(I) Public Officer. "Public officer" means a person who is
elected to office pursuant to the Constitution or a statute or
ordinance, or who is appointed to an office which is
established, and the qualifications and duties of which are
prescribed, by the Constitution or a statute or ordinance, to
discharge a public duty for the State, agency or department
thereof, unit of local government, school district,
instrumentality or political subdivision.
(J) Eligible Bidder. "Eligible bidder" means a person who,
prior to a bid opening, has filed with the Department a
properly completed, sworn and currently valid employer report
form, pursuant to the Department's regulations. The provisions
of this Article relating to eligible bidders apply only to bids
on contracts with the State and its departments, agencies,
boards, and commissions, and the provisions do not apply to
bids on contracts with units of local government or school
districts.
(K) Citizenship Status. "Citizenship status" means the
status of being:
(1) a born U.S. citizen;
(2) a naturalized U.S. citizen;
(3) a U.S. national; or
(4) a person born outside the United States and not a
U.S. citizen who is not an unauthorized alien and who is
protected from discrimination under the provisions of
Section 1324b of Title 8 of the United States Code, as now
or hereafter amended.
(Source: P.A. 97-877, eff. 8-2-12; 98-1037, eff. 1-1-15;
98-1050, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-3-14.)
Section 610. The General Not For Profit Corporation Act of
1986 is amended by changing Section 112.10 as follows:
(805 ILCS 105/112.10) (from Ch. 32, par. 112.10)
Sec. 112.10. Voluntary dissolution by written consent of
members entitled to vote. Except for the dissolution of a
not-for-profit corporation organized for the purpose of
ownership or administration of residential property on a
cooperative basis, when . When a corporation has members
entitled to vote on dissolution, the dissolution of a
corporation may be authorized pursuant to Section 107.10 of
this Act. Dissolution pursuant to this the Section does not
require any vote of the directors of the corporation.
(Source: P.A. 98-302, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-11-14.)
Section 615. The Limited Liability Company Act is amended
by changing Section 35-40 as follows:
(805 ILCS 180/35-40)
Sec. 35-40. Reinstatement following administrative
dissolution.
(a) A limited liability company administratively dissolved
under Section 35-25 may be reinstated by the Secretary of State
following the date of issuance of the notice of dissolution
upon:
(1) The filing of an application for reinstatement.
(2) The filing with the Secretary of State by the
limited liability company of all reports then due and
theretofore becoming due.
(3) The payment to the Secretary of State by the
limited liability company of all fees and penalties then
due and theretofore becoming due.
(b) The application for reinstatement shall be executed and
filed in duplicate in accordance with Section 5-45 of this Act
and shall set forth all of the following:
(1) The name of the limited liability company at the
time of the issuance of the notice of dissolution.
(2) If the name is not available for use as determined
by the Secretary of State at the time of filing the
application for reinstatement, the name of the limited
liability company as changed, provided that any change of
name is properly effected under Section 1-10 and Section
5-25 5.25 of this Act.
(3) The date of issuance of the notice of dissolution.
(4) The address, including street and number or rural
route number of the registered office of the limited
liability company upon reinstatement thereof and the name
of its registered agent at that address upon the
reinstatement of the limited liability company, provided
that any change from either the registered office or the
registered agent at the time of dissolution is properly
reported under Section 1-35 of this Act.
(c) When a dissolved limited liability company has complied
with the provisions of the Section, the Secretary of State
shall file the application for reinstatement.
(d) Upon the filing of the application for reinstatement,
the limited liability company existence shall be deemed to have
continued without interruption from the date of the issuance of
the notice of dissolution, and the limited liability company
shall stand revived with the powers, duties, and obligations as
if it had not been dissolved; and all acts and proceedings of
its members, managers, officers, employees, and agents, acting
or purporting to act in that capacity, and which would have
been legal and valid but for the dissolution, shall stand
ratified and confirmed.
(e) Without limiting the generality of subsection (d), upon
the filing of the application for reinstatement, no member,
manager, or officer shall be personally liable for the debts
and liabilities of the limited liability company incurred
during the period of administrative dissolution by reason of
the fact that the limited liability company was
administratively dissolved at the time the debts or liabilities
were incurred.
(Source: P.A. 98-776, eff. 1-1-15; revised 12-11-14.)
Section 620. The Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is amended
by changing Section 11a as follows:
(815 ILCS 5/11a) (from Ch. 121 1/2, par. 137.11a)
Sec. 11a. Fees.
(1) The Secretary of State shall by rule or regulation
impose and shall collect reasonable fees necessary for the
administration of this Act including, but not limited to, fees
for the following purposes:
(a) filing an application pursuant to paragraph (2) of
subsection F of Section 4 of this Act;
(b) examining an application and report pursuant to
paragraph (2) of subsection F of Section 4 of this Act;
(c) filing a report pursuant to subsection G of Section
4 of this Act, determined in accordance with paragraph (4)
of subsection G of Section 4 of this Act;
(d) examining an offering sheet pursuant to subsection
P of Section 4 of this Act;
(e) filing a report pursuant to subsection P of Section
4, determined in accordance with subsection P of Section 4
of this Act;
(f) examining an application to register securities
under subsection B of Section 5 of this Act;
(g) examining an amended or supplemental prospectus
filed pursuant to the undertaking required by
sub-paragraph (i) of paragraph (2) of subsection B of
Section 5 of this Act;
(h) registering or renewing registration of securities
under Section 5, determined in accordance with subsection C
of Section 5 of this Act;
(i) registering securities in excess of the amount
initially registered, determined in accordance with
paragraph (2) of subsection C of Section 5 of this Act;
(j) failure to file timely an application for renewal
under subsection E of Section 5 of this Act;
(k) failure to file timely any document or information
required under Section 5 of this Act;
(l) examining an application to register face amount
certificate contracts under subsection B of Section 6 of
this Act;
(m) examining an amended or supplemental prospectus
filed pursuant to the undertaking required by
sub-paragraph (f) of paragraph (2) of subsection B of
Section 6 of this Act;
(n) registering or renewing registration of face
amount certificate contracts under Section 6 of this Act;
(o) amending a registration of face amount certificate
contracts pursuant to subsection E of Section 6 of this Act
to add any additional series, type or class of contract;
(p) failure to file timely an application for renewal
under subsection F of Section 6 of this Act;
(q) adding to or withdrawing from deposits with respect
to face amount certificate contracts pursuant to
subsection H of Section 6, a transaction charge payable at
the times and in the manner specified in subsection H of
Section 6 (which transaction charge shall be in addition to
the annual fee called for by subsection H of Section 6 of
this Act);
(r) failure to file timely any document or information
required under Section 6 of this Act;
(s) examining an application to register investment
fund shares under subsection B of Section 7 of this Act;
(t) examining an amended or supplemental prospectus
filed pursuant to the undertaking required by
sub-paragraph (f) of paragraph (2) of subsection B of
Section 7 of this Act;
(u) registering or renewing registration of investment
fund shares under Section 7 of this Act;
(v) amending a registration of investment fund shares
pursuant to subsection D of Section 7 of this Act to
register an additional class or classes of investment fund
shares;
(w) failure to file timely an application for renewal
under paragraph (l) of subsection G of Section 7 of this
Act;
(x) examining an application for renewal of
registration of investment fund shares under paragraph (2)
of subsection G of Section 7 of this Act;
(y) failure to file timely any document or information
required under Section 7 of this Act;
(z) filing an application for registration or
re-registration of a dealer or limited Canadian dealer
under Section 8 of this Act for each office in this State;
(aa) in connection with an application for the
registration or re-registration of a salesperson under
Section 8 of or this Act, for the following purposes:
(i) filing an application;
(ii) a Securities Audit and Enforcement Fund fee;
and
(iii) a notification filing of federal covered
investment advisers;
(bb) in connection with an application for the
registration or re-registration of an investment adviser
under Section 8 of this Act;
(cc) failure to file timely any document or information
required under Section 8 of this Act;
(dd) filing a consent to service of process under
Section 10 of this Act;
(ee) issuing a certificate pursuant to subsection B of
Section 15 of this Act;
(ff) issuing a certified copy pursuant to subsection C
of Section 15 of this Act;
(gg) issuing a non-binding statement pursuant to
Section 15a of this Act;
(hh) filings by Notification under Section 2a;
(ii) notification filing of federal Regulation D,
Section 506 offering under the Federal 1933 Act;
(jj) notification filing of securities and closed-end
investment company securities;
(kk) notification filing of face amount certificate
contracts;
(ll) notification filing of open-end investment
company securities;
(mm) filing a report pursuant to subsection D of
Section 4 of this Act;
(nn) in connection with the filing of an application
for registration or re-registration of an investment
adviser representative under subsection D of Section 8 of
this Act.
(2) The Secretary of State may, by rule or regulation,
raise or lower any fee imposed by, and which he or she is
authorized by law to collect under, this Act.
(Source: P.A. 90-70, eff. 7-8-97; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised
12-11-14.)
Section 625. The Ticket Sale and Resale Act is amended by
changing Sections 1 and 2 as follows:
(815 ILCS 414/1) (was 720 ILCS 375/1)
Sec. 1. Sale of tickets other than at box office
prohibited; exceptions.
(a) It is unlawful for any person, firm or corporation,
owner, lessee, manager, trustee, or any of their employees or
agents, owning, conducting, managing or operating any theater,
circus, baseball park, or place of public entertainment or
amusement where tickets of admission are sold for any such
places of amusement or public entertainment to sell or permit
the sale, barter or exchange of such admission tickets at any
other place than in the box office or on the premises of such
theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public
entertainment or amusement, but nothing herein prevents such
theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public
entertainment or amusement from placing any of its admission
tickets for sale at any other place at the same price such
admission tickets are sold by such theater, circus, baseball
park, or other place of public entertainment or amusement at
its box office or on the premises of such places, at the same
advertised price or printed rate thereof.
(b) Any term or condition of the original sale of a ticket
to any theater, circus, baseball park, or place of public
entertainment or amusement where tickets of admission are sold
that purports to limit the terms or conditions of resale of the
ticket (including but not limited to the resale price of the
ticket) is unenforceable, null, and void if the resale
transaction is carried out by any of the means set forth in
subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e) of Section 1.5 of this Act.
This subsection shall not apply to a term or condition of the
original sale of a ticket to any theater, circus, baseball
park, or place of public entertainment or amusement where
tickets of admission are sold that purports to limit the terms
or conditions of resale of a ticket specifically designated as
seating in a special section for a person with a physical
disability.
(Source: P.A. 94-20, eff. 6-14-05; revised 12-11-14.)
(815 ILCS 414/2) (was 720 ILCS 375/2)
Sec. 2. (a) Whoever violates any of the provisions of
Section 1.5 of this Act shall be guilty of a Class A
misdemeanor and may be fined up to $5,000.00 for each offense
and whoever violates any other provision of this Act may be
enjoined and be required to make restitution to all injured
consumers upon application for injunctive relief by the State's
Attorney or Attorney General and shall also be guilty of a
Class A misdemeanor, and any owner, lessee, manager or trustee
convicted under this Act shall, in addition to the penalty
herein provided, forfeit the license of such theatre, circus,
baseball park, or place of public entertainment or amusement so
granted and the same shall be revoked by the authorities
granting the same.
(b) Tickets sold or offered for sale by a person, firm or
corporation in violation of Section 1.5 of this Act may be
confiscated by a court on motion of the Attorney General, a
State's Attorney, the sponsor of the event for which the
tickets are being sold, or the owner or operator of the
facility at which the event is to be held, and may be donated
by order of the court to an appropriate organization as defined
under Section 2 of the Charitable Games Act.
(c) The Attorney General, a State's Attorney, the sponsor
of an event for which tickets are being sold, or the owner or
operator of the facility at which an event is to be held may
seek an injunction restraining any person, firm or corporation
from selling or offering for sale tickets in violation of the
provisions of this Act. In addition, on motion of the Attorney
General, a State's Attorney, the sponsor of an event for which
tickets are being sold, or the owner or operator of the
facility at which an event is to be held, a court may
permanently enjoin a person, firm or corporation found guilty
of violating Section 1.5 of this Act from engaging in the offer
or sale of tickets.
(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99; revised 12-11-14.)
Section 630. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business
Practices Act is amended by setting forth and renumbering
multiple versions of Section 2RRR as follows:
(815 ILCS 505/2RRR)
Sec. 2RRR. Household goods recycling bins.
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person or
entity owning, operating, or maintaining a household goods
recycling bin shall have a permanent, written, printed label
affixed to the bin that is prominently displayed and includes
the following: (1) the name, address, and contact information
of the person or entity owning, operating, or maintaining that
bin; and (2) whether the person or entity owning, operating, or
maintaining the bin is a not for profit entity or a for profit
entity. A person or entity who violates this Section commits an
unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.
(b) As used in this Section:
"Household goods recycling bin" or "bin" means a
container or receptacle held out to the public as a place
for people to discard clothes, shoes, books, and other
recyclable items until they are taken away for resale,
re-use, recycling, or redistribution by the person or
entity that owns, operates, or maintains the bin.
"Not for profit entity" means any entity that is
officially recognized by the United States Internal
Revenue Service as a tax-exempt entity described in Section
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (or any
successor provision of federal tax law).
(Source: P.A. 98-1116, eff. 1-1-15.)
(815 ILCS 505/2SSS)
Sec. 2SSS 2RRR. Unfair or deceptive patent infringement
demand letters.
(a) As used in this Section:
"Affiliated person" means a person affiliated with the
intended recipient of a written or electronic communication.
"Intended recipient" means a person who purchases, rents,
leases, or otherwise obtains a product or service in the
commercial market that is not for resale in the commercial
market and that is, or later becomes, the subject of a patent
infringement allegation.
(b) It is an unlawful practice under this Act for a person,
in connection with the assertion of a United States patent, to
send or cause any person to send any written, including
electronic, communication that states that the intended
recipient or any affiliated person is infringing or has
infringed a patent and bears liability or owes compensation to
another person, if:
(1) the communication falsely threatens that
administrative or judicial relief will be sought if
compensation is not paid or the infringement issue is not
otherwise resolved;
(2) the communication falsely states that litigation
has been filed against the intended recipient or any
affiliated person;
(3) the assertions contained in the communication lack
a reasonable basis in fact or law because:
(A) the person asserting the patent is not a
person, or does not represent a person, with the
current right to license the patent to or enforce the
patent against the intended recipient or any
affiliated person;
(B) the communication seeks compensation for a
patent that has been held to be invalid or
unenforceable in a final, unappealable or unappealed,
judicial or administrative decision; or
(C) the communication seeks compensation on
account of activities undertaken after the patent has
expired; or
(4) the content of the communication fails to include
information necessary to inform an intended recipient or
any affiliated person about the patent assertion by failing
to include the following:
(A) the identity of the person asserting a right to
license the patent to or enforce the patent against the
intended recipient or any affiliated person;
(B) the patent issued by the United States Patent
and Trademark Office alleged to have been infringed;
and
(C) the factual allegations concerning the
specific areas in which the intended recipient's or
affiliated person's products, services, or technology
infringed the patent or are covered by the claims in
the patent.
(c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to deem it
an unlawful practice for any person who owns or has the right
to license or enforce a patent to:
(1) advise others of that ownership or right of license
or enforcement;
(2) communicate to others that the patent is available
for license or sale;
(3) notify another of the infringement of the patent;
or
(4) seek compensation on account of past or present
infringement or for a license to the patent.
(Source: P.A. 98-1119, eff. 1-1-15; revised 10-20-14.)
Section 635. The Day and Temporary Labor Services Act is
amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
(820 ILCS 175/10)
Sec. 10. Employment Notice.
(a) Whenever a day and temporary labor service agency
agrees to send one or more persons to work as day or temporary
laborers, the day and temporary labor service agency shall
provide to each day or temporary laborer, at the time of
dispatch, a statement containing the following items on a form
approved by the Department:
(1) the name of the day or temporary laborer;
(2) the name and nature of the work to be performed;
(3) the wages offered;
(4) the name and address of the destination of each day
or temporary laborer;
(5) terms of transportation; and
(6) whether a meal or equipment, or both, are provided,
either by the day and temporary labor service agency or the
third party client, and the cost of the meal and equipment,
if any.
If a day or temporary laborer is assigned to the same
assignment for more than one day, the day and temporary labor
service agency is required to provide the employment notice
only on the first day of the assignment and on any day that any
of the terms listed on the employment notice are changed.
If the day or temporary laborer is not placed with a third
party client or otherwise contracted to work for that day, the
day and temporary labor service agency shall, upon request,
provide the day and temporary laborer with a confirmation that
the day or temporary laborer sought work, signed by an employee
of the day and temporary labor service agency, which shall
include the name of the agency, the name and address of the day
or temporary laborer, and the date and the time that the day or
temporary laborer receives the confirmation.
(b) No day and temporary labor service agency may send any
day or temporary laborer to any place where a strike, a
lockout, or other labor trouble exists.
(c) The Department shall recommend to day and temporary
labor service agencies that those agencies employ personnel who
can effectively communicate information required in
subsections (a) and (b) to day or temporary laborers in
Spanish, Polish, or any other language that is generally
understood in the locale of the day and temporary labor service
agency.
(Source: P.A. 93-375, eff. 1-1-04; 94-511, eff. 1-1-06; revised
12-11-14.)
Section 640. The Victims' Economic Security and Safety Act
is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:
(820 ILCS 180/30)
Sec. 30. Victims' employment sustainability; prohibited
discriminatory acts.
(a) An employer shall not fail to hire, refuse to hire,
discharge, constructively discharge, or harass any individual,
otherwise discriminate against any individual with respect to
the compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of
employment of the individual, or retaliate against an
individual in any form or manner, and a public agency shall not
deny, reduce, or terminate the benefits of, otherwise sanction,
or harass any individual, otherwise discriminate against any
individual with respect to the amount, terms, or conditions of
public assistance of the individual, or retaliate against an
individual in any form or manner, because:
(1) the individual involved:
(A) is or is perceived to be a victim of domestic
or sexual violence;
(B) attended, participated in, prepared for, or
requested leave to attend, participate in, or prepare
for a criminal or civil court proceeding relating to an
incident of domestic or sexual violence of which the
individual or a family or household member of the
individual was a victim, or requested or took leave for
any other reason provided under Section 20; or
(C) requested an adjustment to a job structure,
workplace facility, or work requirement, including a
transfer, reassignment, or modified schedule, leave, a
changed telephone number or seating assignment,
installation of a lock, or implementation of a safety
procedure in response to actual or threatened domestic
or sexual violence, regardless of whether the request
was granted; or
(D) is an employee whose employer is subject to
Section 21 of the Workplace Violence Prevention Act; or
(2) the workplace is disrupted or threatened by the
action of a person whom the individual states has committed
or threatened to commit domestic or sexual violence against
the individual or the individual's family or household
member.
(b) In this Section:
(1) "Discriminate", used with respect to the terms,
conditions, or privileges of employment or with respect to
the terms or conditions of public assistance, includes not
making a reasonable accommodation to the known limitations
resulting from circumstances relating to being a victim of
domestic or sexual violence or a family or household member
being a victim of domestic or sexual violence of an
otherwise qualified individual:
(A) who is:
(i) an applicant or employee of the employer
(including a public agency); or
(ii) an applicant for or recipient of public
assistance from a public agency; and
(B) who is:
(i) a victim of domestic or sexual violence; or
(ii) with a family or household member who is a
victim of domestic or sexual violence whose
interests are not adverse to the individual in
subparagraph (A) as it relates to the domestic or
sexual violence;
unless the employer or public agency can demonstrate that
the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the
operation of the employer or public agency.
A reasonable accommodation must be made in a timely
fashion. Any exigent circumstances or danger facing the
employee or his or her family or household member shall be
considered in determining whether the accommodation is
reasonable.
(2) "Qualified individual" means:
(A) in the case of an applicant or employee
described in paragraph (1)(A)(i), an individual who,
but for being a victim of domestic or sexual violence
or with a family or household member who is a victim of
domestic or sexual violence, can perform the essential
functions of the employment position that such
individual holds or desires; or
(B) in the case of an applicant or recipient
described in paragraph (1)(A)(ii), an individual who,
but for being a victim of domestic or sexual violence
or with a family or household member who is a victim of
domestic or sexual violence, can satisfy the essential
requirements of the program providing the public
assistance that the individual receives or desires.
(3) "Reasonable accommodation" may include an
adjustment to a job structure, workplace facility, or work
requirement, including a transfer, reassignment, or
modified schedule, leave, a changed telephone number or
seating assignment, installation of a lock, or
implementation of a safety procedure, or assistance in
documenting domestic or sexual violence that occurs at the
workplace or in work-related settings, in response to
actual or threatened domestic or sexual violence.
(4) Undue hardship.
(A) In general. "Undue hardship" means an action
requiring significant difficulty or expense, when
considered in light of the factors set forth in
subparagraph (B).
(B) Factors to be considered. In determining
whether a reasonable accommodation would impose an
undue hardship on the operation of an employer or
public agency, factors to be considered include:
(i) the nature and cost of the reasonable
accommodation needed under this Section;
(ii) the overall financial resources of the
facility involved in the provision of the
reasonable accommodation, the number of persons
employed at such facility, the effect on expenses
and resources, or the impact otherwise of such
accommodation on the operation of the facility;
(iii) the overall financial resources of the
employer or public agency, the overall size of the
business of an employer or public agency with
respect to the number of employees of the employer
or public agency, and the number, type, and
location of the facilities of an employer or public
agency; and
(iv) the type of operation of the employer or
public agency, including the composition,
structure, and functions of the workforce of the
employer or public agency, the geographic
separateness of the facility from the employer or
public agency, and the administrative or fiscal
relationship of the facility to the employer or
public agency.
(c) An employer subject to Section 21 of the Workplace
Violence Prevention Act shall not violate any provisions of the
Workplace Violence Prevention Act.
(Source: P.A. 98-766, eff. 7-16-14; revised 12-11-14.)
Section 645. The Workplace Violence Prevention Act is
amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
(820 ILCS 275/5)
Sec. 5. Purpose. This Act is intended to assist employers
in protecting their workforces its workforce, customers,
guests, and property by limiting access to workplace venues by
potentially violent individuals.
(Source: P.A. 98-430, eff. 1-1-14; revised 12-11-14.)
Section 650. The Workers' Compensation Act is amended by
changing Section 6 as follows:
(820 ILCS 305/6) (from Ch. 48, par. 138.6)
Sec. 6. (a) Every employer within the provisions of this
Act, shall, under the rules and regulations prescribed by the
Commission, post printed notices in their respective places of
employment in such number and at such places as may be
determined by the Commission, containing such information
relative to this Act as in the judgment of the Commission may
be necessary to aid employees to safeguard their rights under
this Act in event of injury.
In addition thereto, the employer shall post in a
conspicuous place on the place of the employment a printed or
typewritten notice stating whether he is insured or whether he
has qualified and is operating as a self-insured employer. In
the event the employer is insured, the notice shall state the
name and address of his insurance carrier, the number of the
insurance policy, its effective date and the date of
termination. In the event of the termination of the policy for
any reason prior to the termination date stated, the posted
notice shall promptly be corrected accordingly. In the event
the employer is operating as a self-insured employer the notice
shall state the name and address of the company, if any,
servicing the compensation payments of the employer, and the
name and address of the person in charge of making compensation
payments.
(b) Every employer subject to this Act shall maintain
accurate records of work-related deaths, injuries and illness
other than minor injuries requiring only first aid treatment
and which do not involve medical treatment, loss of
consciousness, restriction of work or motion, or transfer to
another job and file with the Commission, in writing, a report
of all accidental deaths, injuries and illnesses arising out of
and in the course of the employment resulting in the loss of
more than 3 scheduled work days. In the case of death such
report shall be made no later than 2 working days following the
accidental death. In all other cases such report shall be made
between the 15th and 25th of each month unless required to be
made sooner by rule of the Commission. In case the injury
results in permanent disability, a further report shall be made
as soon as it is determined that such permanent disability has
resulted or will result from the injury. All reports shall
state the date of the injury, including the time of day or
night, the nature of the employer's business, the name,
address, age, sex, conjugal condition of the injured person,
the specific occupation of the injured person, the direct cause
of the injury and the nature of the accident, the character of
the injury, the length of disability, and in case of death the
length of disability before death, the wages of the injured
person, whether compensation has been paid to the injured
person, or to his or her legal representative or his heirs or
next of kin, the amount of compensation paid, the amount paid
for physicians', surgeons' and hospital bills, and by whom
paid, and the amount paid for funeral or burial expenses if
known. The reports shall be made on forms and in the manner as
prescribed by the Commission and shall contain such further
information as the Commission shall deem necessary and require.
The making of these reports releases the employer from making
such reports to any other officer of the State and shall
satisfy the reporting provisions as contained in the Safety
Inspection and Education Act, the Health and Safety Act, and
the Occupational Safety and Health Act. The reports filed with
the Commission pursuant to this Section shall be made available
by the Commission to the Director of Labor or his
representatives and to all other departments of the State of
Illinois which shall require such information for the proper
discharge of their official duties. Failure to file with the
Commission any of the reports required in this Section is a
petty offense.
Except as provided in this paragraph, all reports filed
hereunder shall be confidential and any person having access to
such records filed with the Illinois Workers' Compensation
Commission as herein required, who shall release any
information therein contained including the names or otherwise
identify any persons sustaining injuries or disabilities, or
give access to such information to any unauthorized person,
shall be subject to discipline or discharge, and in addition
shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. The Commission shall
compile and distribute to interested persons aggregate
statistics, taken from the reports filed hereunder. The
aggregate statistics shall not give the names or otherwise
identify persons sustaining injuries or disabilities or the
employer of any injured or disabled person.
(c) Notice of the accident shall be given to the employer
as soon as practicable, but not later than 45 days after the
accident. Provided:
(1) In case of the legal disability of the employee or
any dependent of a deceased employee who may be entitled to
compensation under the provisions of this Act, the
limitations of time by this Act provided do not begin to
run against such person under legal disability until a
guardian has been appointed.
(2) In cases of injuries sustained by exposure to
radiological materials or equipment, notice shall be given
to the employer within 90 days subsequent to the time that
the employee knows or suspects that he has received an
excessive dose of radiation.
No defect or inaccuracy of such notice shall be a bar to
the maintenance of proceedings on arbitration or otherwise by
the employee unless the employer proves that he is unduly
prejudiced in such proceedings by such defect or inaccuracy.
Notice of the accident shall give the approximate date and
place of the accident, if known, and may be given orally or in
writing.
(d) Every employer shall notify each injured employee who
has been granted compensation under the provisions of Section 8
of this Act of his rights to rehabilitation services and advise
him of the locations of available public rehabilitation centers
and any other such services of which the employer has
knowledge.
In any case, other than one where the injury was caused by
exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos
unless the application for compensation is filed with the
Commission within 3 years after the date of the accident, where
no compensation has been paid, or within 2 years after the date
of the last payment of compensation, where any has been paid,
whichever shall be later, the right to file such application
shall be barred.
In any case of injury caused by exposure to radiological
materials or equipment or asbestos, unless application for
compensation is filed with the Commission within 25 years after
the last day that the employee was employed in an environment
of hazardous radiological activity or asbestos, the right to
file such application shall be barred.
If in any case except one where the injury was caused by
exposure to radiological materials or equipment or asbestos,
the accidental injury results in death application for
compensation for death may be filed with the Commission within
3 years after the date of death where no compensation has been
paid or within 2 years after the date of the last payment of
compensation where any has been paid, whichever shall be later,
but not thereafter.
If an accidental injury caused by exposure to radiological
material or equipment or asbestos results in death within 25
years after the last day that the employee was so exposed
application for compensation for death may be filed with the
Commission within 3 years after the date of death, where no
compensation has been paid, or within 2 years after the date of
the last payment of compensation where any has been paid,
whichever shall be later, but not thereafter.
(e) Any contract or agreement made by any employer or his
agent or attorney with any employee or any other beneficiary of
any claim under the provisions of this Act within 7 days after
the injury shall be presumed to be fraudulent.
(f) Any condition or impairment of health of an employee
employed as a firefighter, emergency medical technician (EMT),
emergency medical technician-intermediate (EMT-I), advanced
emergency medical technician (A-EMT), or paramedic which
results directly or indirectly from any bloodborne pathogen,
lung or respiratory disease or condition, heart or vascular
disease or condition, hypertension, tuberculosis, or cancer
resulting in any disability (temporary, permanent, total, or
partial) to the employee shall be rebuttably presumed to arise
out of and in the course of the employee's firefighting, EMT,
or paramedic employment and, further, shall be rebuttably
presumed to be causally connected to the hazards or exposures
of the employment. This presumption shall also apply to any
hernia or hearing loss suffered by an employee employed as a
firefighter, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, or paramedic. However, this
presumption shall not apply to any employee who has been
employed as a firefighter, EMT, or paramedic for less than 5
years at the time he or she files an Application for Adjustment
of Claim concerning this condition or impairment with the
Illinois Workers' Compensation Commission. The rebuttable
presumption established under this subsection, however, does
not apply to an emergency medical technician (EMT), emergency
medical technician-intermediate (EMT-I), advanced emergency
medical technician (A-EMT), or paramedic employed by a private
employer if the employee spends the preponderance of his or her
work time for that employer engaged in medical transfers
between medical care facilities or non-emergency medical
transfers to or from medical care facilities. The changes made
to this subsection by Public Act 98-291 shall be narrowly
construed. The Finding and Decision of the Illinois Workers'
Compensation Commission under only the rebuttable presumption
provision of this subsection shall not be admissible or be
deemed res judicata in any disability claim under the Illinois
Pension Code arising out of the same medical condition;
however, this sentence makes no change to the law set forth in
Krohe v. City of Bloomington, 204 Ill.2d 392.
(Source: P.A. 98-291, eff. 1-1-14; 98-874, eff. 1-1-15; 98-973,
eff. 8-15-14; revised 10-1-14.)
Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes
changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text
that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section
represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does
not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes
made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other
Public Act.
Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not
revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.
Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
becoming law.
INDEX
Statutes amended in order of appearance